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Academic-

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The achiever’s guide to academic life and beyond…
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College entrance exam and science high school entrance test tips. Conquer UPCAT, ACET, USTET,
DLSUCET, PSHS-NCE, and other entrance tests.

LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY
(Parts of Speech/General Grammar Rules)

Sentence Completion
Following are sentences that lack a word or a group of words. Taking account of the rules of
grammar, choose the word or group of words that best fits the sentence.

1. To the preoccupied Rose and __________, the lecture was simply gibberish.
a. I c. mine
b. me d. myself

2. Sakuragi did a slam dunk and the crowd roared ___________ approval.
a. his c. our
b. its d. their

3. ____________ Filipinos must learn to look out for our country’s interests.
a. Them c. Us
b. They d. We

4. My father left the decision entirely up to and .

a. he – I c. him – I
b. he – me d. him – me

5. I bought twenty miniature _________ and ten model _________ for the house. Do you
have some _________ that could hold them?
a. dwarfs – elfs – shelfs c. dwarves – elfs – shelfs
b. dwarfs – elves – shelves d. dwarves – elves – shelves

6. Each of the alumnae looked for the complimentary ribbon to tie ______ hair. Later, they
found out that the scissors for cutting the ribbon _______ missing as well.
a. her – was c. his – was
b. her – were d. their – were

7. John and Susie own that yacht. _____________ yacht is a beauty.

a. John and Susie’s c. John’s and Susie’s
b. John’s and Susie d. both a and b

8. Among all the girls at the party, she was the ________________.
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a. best dressed and most admired c. better dressed and most admired
b. best dressed and well admired d. well dressed and well admired
9. Lolita is going to Switzerland ___________ May next year. Particularly, she would be
leaving ___________ eight o’clock a.m _________ New Year’s Day.
a. at – on – at c. in – at – on
b. in – at – in d. in – on – on

10. Rita resides ____________ #312 Mahabagin Street, Teacher’s Village ___________
Quezon City.
a. at – in c. in – on
b. at – on d. on – in

11. Since my thoughts ___________ yours, I would like to _________ you on this matter.
a. differ from – differ from c. differ with – differ from
b. differ from – differ with d. differ with – differ with

12. Each year, the House members always _____________ the UP budget.
a. cut c. has cut
b. cuts d. have cut

13. He is going directly home, ___________?

a. aren’t he? c. isn’t he
b. doesn’t he d. isn’t him?

14. The word indices __________ the plural for the singular index.
a. is c. are
b. was d. were

15. A thousand pesos __________ not enough compensation and you _________ it.
a. are – know c. is – know
b. are – knows d. is – knows

16. Procter and Gamble __________ a lot of products. One of these products ___________
the famous bath soap Safeguard.
a. produce – are c. produces – are
b. produce – is d. produces – is

17. I used too ___________ of the bleach and so the stain remained on the shirt.
a. much b. many
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c. few d. little

18. ___________ are you deserting me __________ you are also taking our supplies.
a. both – and c. neither – nor
b. either – or d. not only – but

Correct Usage
Following are sentences that need a word or a group of words to complete them. Choose the
correct answer according to the rules of grammar.

19. _________ beauty cannot be measured.

a. Its c. It has
b. It’s d. It was

20. Did you see the several _________ on the aquarium at the lounge?
a. fish c. both a and b
b. fishes d. none of the above

21. The student badly needs her teacher’s ___________.

a. advice c. advising
b. advise d. advisory

22. I must justify my position ___________ so that they’d understand.

a. farther c. further
b. farthest d. furthest

23. You smell very ___________.

a. good c. both a and b
b. well d. none of the above

24. I felt _________ after the spectacle I made of myself in school.

a. bad c. worst
b. badly d. none of the above

25. May I please request that each of the two groups take an ___________ position in the
issue now.
a. alternate c. alternative
b. alternating d. all of the above

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26. Lito works at the supermart __________ moonlighting at the restaurant.

a. and c. besides
b. beside d. or

27. Macaroni and cheese __________ my favorite dishes.

a. are c. is
b. be d. all of the above

28. A large percentage of the class _______ fascinated by the museum.

a. be c. were
b. was d. any of the above

29. According to Machiavelli, it is not imperative that a ruler _________ good, he just has to
appear so.
a. be c. was
b. is d. were

30. If I _________ a horse I would be running round and round this farm nonstop.
a. were c. is
b. was d. am

31. If we __________ harder we would have passed the UPCAT.

a. studied c. had studied
b. study d. have studied

32. _____________ mountains aplenty in the Philippines.

a. There is c. There was
b. There are d. There were

33. She ______________ finished the project before tomorrow.

a. will have c. should have
b. would have d. none of the above

34. I ___________ sick in bed last month.

a. laid c. lay
b. lain d. lie

35. I thought you already ______________ that issue to rest.

a. laid b. lain
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c. lay d. lie

36. According to Arsene Dumont, people have an irresistible urge to _________ the social
ladder.
a. raise up c. rise up
b. raised up d. risen up

Error Detection
Following are statements that may or may not contain an error. Choose the letter corresponding
to the word or group of words that makes the sentence incorrect. Choose letter E if there’s no
error.

37. I believe that I am as good a singer as him. No error.

A B C D E

38. Whomsoever wishes to see a ghost is a fool. No error.

A B C D E

39. No one was lovelier or more strikingly intelligent than her at the beauty contest
A B C
yesterday. No error.
D E

40. Rowena announced that the bonus will arrive during the meeting yesterday.
A B C D
No error.
E

41. That work is more unique than the other one. No error.
A B C D E

42. The apparent heir to the throne of England is Prince Charles. No error.
A B C D E

43. Right now I am very angry at you, so please don’t come near me for I might hit you.
A B C D
No error.
E

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44. The first group has begun to argue about the second group. No error.
A B C D E

45. The children were dismayed and depressed by the closing of the zoo. No error.
A B C D E

46. I am looking forward and preparing for the Math Olympiad which will be held
A B C D
next week. No error.
E
47. The librarian went to Manila. New books were ordered by her today. No error.
A B C D E

48. Before yesterday, I have given up hope that you will come back. No error.
A B C D E

49. You do your homework right now or I won’t let you go out with your friends.
A B C D
No error.
E

50. The doctor as well as some of the best doctors in the Philippines is giving a free
A B C
medical checkup tomorrow. No error.
D E

51. The committee members but not the chair of the committee has agreed to go to
A B C
Palawan for the annual excursion trip. No error.
D E

52. Each man and each woman in the audience was affected by the passionate speech.
A B C D
No error.
E

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CORRECT AND EFFECTIVE EXPRESSION

Each item consists of a set of sentences. Considering the general rules of grammar, choose the
correct and effective sentence from the set of sentences.

53.
a. She only walked fifteen miles when her legs gave out.
b. She has walked only fifteen miles when her legs gave out.
c. She had walked only fifteen miles when her legs gave out.
d. She had only walked for about fifteen miles when her legs gave out.

54.
a. Father jogs exuberantly to the park every morning before breakfast to exercise his
heart.
b. Father jogs exuberantly every morning before breakfast to the park to exercise his
heart.
c. Father exuberantly jogs every morning to the park to exercise his heart before
breakfast.
d. Father, to exercise his heart, jogs exuberantly every morning before breakfast to the
park.

55.
a. My sister is going to take a little trip to Europe in Italy in June next year.
b. My sister is going to take a little trip to Italy in Europe in June next year.
c. My sister is going to take a little trip in June next year to Italy in Europe.
d. My sister is going to take a little trip to Europe next year, to Italy in June.

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LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY
(Syntax and Mechanics)

Sentence Completion
Following are sentences that lack a word, a group of words, or punctuation. In accordance with
the rules of syntax and mechanics, choose the letter of the answer which best completes the idea
of the sentence.

1. “With great power comes great responsibility__________ Uncle Ben said to Spiderman.
a. ” c. .”
b. ,” d. No punctuation necessary

2. My mother___________ believes that getting into UP is the best thing that can
happen to me right now.
a. as well as my father c. , as well as my father,
b. as well as my father, d. –as well as my father,

3. Leonardo, Michelangelo, Raphael ___________ Donatello are the four members of the
Teen-age Mutant Ninja Turtles.
a. or c. and
b. , or d. , and

4. Time is gold__________ it waits for no man.

a. , c. :
b. ; d. None of the above

5. Aristotle is a great philosopher____________ Plato is, in my opinion, a better one.

a. however c. , however,
b. , however d. ; however,

6. Bryce is longing to visit European cities___________Paris, London, Vienna, and

Frankfurt.
a. namely c. , namely,
b. namely, d. ; namely,

7. I ordered a rare steak____________a well done one.

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us. The more, the merrier. Good luck!
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a. not c. , not,
b. , not d. ; not,

8. _____________ he has been fond of playing tennis.

a. Ever since, c. Ever since
b. ever since, d. Ever since—

9. I have only one comment when you say, “All men are equal___________I wish it were
true.
a. ”: c. :”
b. ” d. ,”,

10. Cory is always looking forward to her ____________ and her ______________ visits.
a. sister’s / mother-in-law’s c. Sisters / mother-in-laws
b. Sister’s / Mother-in-laws’ d. Sister’s / mother-in-law’s

Error Detection
Following are sentences which may or may not have an error. Bearing in mind the rules of
syntax and mechanics, choose the letter corresponding to the word or group of words that
make the sentence incorrect. Choose letter E if there’s no error.

11. O Lord. What will happen to me now? No error.

A B C D E

12. Will you please count how many ands there are in sentence number
A B C D
thirteen? No error.
E

13. These are the government agencies that I can recall at this moment; DOLE, DTI,
A B C D
DOH, DILG, DFA, DENR. No error.
E

14. In exam-taking, concentration and clear thinking are essential. That’s why it is
A B C

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necessary that you should be well-rested the night before a big exam. No error.
D E

15. She informed him “that she was sorry” and that she would like them to be friends
A B C D
again. No error.
E

16. The Prince is a wonderful book written by Niccolo Machiavelli when he was in exile.
A B C D
No error.
E

17. It is my greatest wish that I get into the University of the Philippines, the university of
A B C D
my dreams. No error.
E

18. P250 is the price of one ticket to The Tempest and I am sad to say we can’t afford it.
A B C D
No error.
E

19. Your father talked to Jim when he was on his way to the country club. No error.
A B C D E

20. I have long prepared for tonight’s performance and I hope for just one thing;
A B C
that I can give you all my best. No error.
D E

Correct and Effective Expression

Each item consists of a set of sentences. Considering rules of syntax and mechanics, as
well as general rules of grammar, choose the correct and effective sentence from the set
of sentences.

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21.
a. After running very rapidly his legs throbbed with pain.
b. Running very rapidly, his legs throbbed with pain after.
c. Very rapidly his legs throbbed with pain after running.
d. After running very rapidly, his legs throbbed with pain.

22.
a. Pre-Platonic Greek philosophers believed that knowledge can be gained only
through experience, while Plato believed that there is an absolute truth and it
cannot be learned through experience.
b. If Pre-Platonic Greek philosophers believed that knowledge can only be gained
through experience, Plato believed that there is an absolute truth and it cannot
be learned through experience.
c. Knowledge can be gained only through experience, the Pre-platonic Greek
philosophers believed, while there is an absolute truth and it cannot be learned
through experience, Plato believed.
d. Pre-Platonic Greek philosophers believed that knowledge can only be gained
through experience, while there is an absolute truth and it cannot be gained
through experience, according to Plato.

23.
a. I couldn’t believe the sight that met my eyes. Chaos reigned. Debris all over
the place.
b. I can’t believe the sight meeting my eyes for chaos reigned and debris all over
the place.
c. I couldn’t believe the sight that met my eyes; chaos reigned and debris all
over the place.
d. I couldn’t believe the sight that met my eyes. Chaos reigned and there were
debris all over the place.

24.
a. The happiest way to live: to forgive and to forget.
b. To forgive and forget. That’s the happiest way to live.
c. To forgive and forget, that’s the happiest way to live.
d. To forgive and to forget. That’s the happiest way to live.

25.

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a. Being truly generous means giving with your right hand without your left hand
knowing what your right hand’s doing.
b. Give with your right hand, without your left hand knowing what the right hand
is doing, then you’re being truly generous.
c. Being truly generous means giving with your right hand, without the
knowledge of your left hand.
d. Give with your Right hand without the knowledge of your Left hand, and you
are then being truly generous.

26.
a. A truly academic spirit persists on searching and finding the truth, even at the
cost of your personal convictions.
b. A truly Academic spirit persists in finding the truth and searching for the truth
even at the cost of one’s personal convictions.
c. Even at the cost of your personal convictions, a true academic spirit persists
on finding and searching for the truth.
d. A truly academic spirit persists in searching for and finding the truth, even at
the cost of one’s personal convictions.

27.
a. Sisa kept calling out to anybody who would listen, kept seeking out her lost
sons. She was getting desperate and she was losing her mind.
b. Calling out to anybody who would listen, seeking out her lost sons. Sisa was
getting desperate and she was losing her mind.
c. Sisa was getting desperate and losing her mind; calling out to anybody whp
would listen, seeking out her lost sons.
d. She was calling out to anybody who would listen, seeking out her lost sons.
Sisa was getting desperate and was losing her mind.

28.
a. For getting the first prize in the 46th International Investigatory Project
Competition, the school gave Gregory the Most Outstanding Student Award.
b. For getting the first prize in the 46th International Investigatory Project
Competition, the School gave Gregory the Most Outstanding Student Award.
c. For getting the first prize in the 46th International Investigatory Project
Competition, Gregory was given the Most Outstanding Student Award by the
school.

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d. As Gregory got the first prize in the 46th International Investigatory Project
Competition, the Most Outstanding Student Award went to him from the
school.

29.
a. To get what is dreamed of, all avenues must be explored and all fights fought.
b. To get what you dream of, explore all avenues and fight all fights.
c. To get what is dreamed of, you must explore all avenues, you must fight all
fights.
d. One must explore all avenues, fight all fights, if you are to get what you dream
of.

30.
a. When a young girl, her grandfather was lost in the war and her grandmother
died of heartbreak. She is inconsolable.
b. When a young girl, her Grandfather was lost in the war and her Grandmother
died of heartbreak. She was inconsolable.
c. When she was a young girl, her grandfather was lost in the war and her
grandmother died of heartbreak. She was inconsolable.
d. When a young girl, she lost her Grandfather to the war. Her grandmother died
of heartbreak and she was inconsolable.

31.
a. The Institute for the Blind proudly stood on the plaza grounds and it was made
possible through the efforts of the city officers.
b. Through the efforts of the city officers, the Institute for the Blind proudly stood
on the plaza grounds.
c. The Institute for the Blind, through the efforts of the city officers proudly stood
on the plaza grounds.
d. Through the efforts of the City officers, the Institute for the Blind proudly
stood on the Plaza grounds.

32.
a. Last year, the Department of Education moved for the closure of ABCD school
because it found out that it had no business registration and none of its
teachers has a license to teach.

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b. Because the ABCD School and its teachers had no business registration and
license to teach, the Department of Education closed it down last year.
c. Last year, the Department of Education shut down the ABCD School because it
found out that the school had no business license and the school’s teachers
had no teaching licenses.
d. The Department of Education shut down the ABCD School last year because it
has been found out that the school was not registered and that its teachers
were not licensed to teach.

33.
a. Everyday I went there, and everyday I sought forgiveness, however,
everything was in vain. I gave up all my pride, only for it to be thrown back at
my face.
b. Everyday I went there and everyday I sought her forgiveness. However,
everything was in vain. I gave up all my pride, for it to be thrown back only at
my face.
c. I went there and sought her forgiveness everyday, but everything was in vain.
I gave up all my pride, only for it to be thrown back at my face.
d. I went there and sought her forgiveness everyday. But everything was in
vain. I gave all my pride up, for it to be thrown only back at my face.

34.
a. Three automobiles—a sedan, a truck, and an SUV—can be seen on the road.
b. Three automobiles; a sedan, a truck, and an SUV, can be seen on the road.
c. A truck, a sedan, and an SUV, three automobiles, can be seen on the road.
d. There are three automobiles that can be seen on the road; a sedan, a truck,
and an SUV.

35.
a. I would like to extend my gratitude to Mr. Stevens, the chairman, Mr. Johnson,
my supervisor, and last but not the least, my father.
b. I thank you whole-heartedly Mr. Stevens, the chairman, Mr. Johnson, my
supervisor, and last but not the least, my father.
c. Mr. Stevens the chairman, Mr. Johnson my supervisor, and last but not the
least my father, I thank you all.
d. I would like to thank the chairman, Mr Stevens; my supervisor, Mr. Johnson;
and last but not the least, my father.

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36.
a. Everyday, all I do is wake up to work, to work, to work, and to work.
b. Everyday that’s what I do: to wake up, to work, to work, to work, and to work.
c. To wake up to work, to work, to work, and to work—that’s what I do everyday.
d. To wake up, to work, to work, to work and to work—that’s what I do everyday.

37.
a. I hurriedly placed the precious book, which I had brought back from the
library, on the mantel.
b. I hurriedly placed the precious book on the mantel which I had brought home
from the library.
c. Hurriedly, I placed the Precious Book on the mantel which I had brought home
from the library.
d. I brought back from the library a precious book I hurriedly placed on the
mantel.

38.
a. We camped on the edge of the cliff, in a small cabin which had been
uninhabited for years.
b. On the edge if the cliff on a small cabin which has been uninhabited for years
we camped.
c. We camped in a small cabin on the edge of a cliff which had been uninhabited
for years.
d. We camped in a small cabin, which had been uninhabited for years on the
edge of the cliff.

39.
a. Don’t ride the clutch; you should keep your left foot off the pedal.
b. Don’t ride the clutch; keep your left foot off the pedal.
c. You should not ride the clutch; keep your left foot off the pedal.
d. Don’t ride the clutch. Keep your left foot off.

40.
a. Nurses do a necessary job, and doing what the doctors tell them to cure the
patients and making them feel better is their business.
b. Nurses do a necessary job: doing what the doctors tell them to cure the
patients and making them feel better.

English II -8-
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c. Nurses do a necessary job. They do what the doctors tell them, to cure the
patients and to make them feel better.
d. It is the nurses’ job to do what the doctor tells them to cure the patients and
make them feel better, and their job is necessary.

41.
a. The answer to your question is so obvious that a child, who’s still in his cradle,
can apprehend it.
b. The answer to your question is so obvious that it can be apprehended by a
child who’s still in his cradle.
c. It is so obvious, the answer to your question, that a child who is still in his
cradle can apprehend it.
d. A child who is still in his cradle can apprehend the answer to your question,
being obvious.

42.
a. You are always taking me for granted and I couldn’t have stood it any longer
now.
b. You were always taking me for granted and I couldn’t stand it anymore.
c. Always, taking me for granted. You were always doing that and I couldn’t
stand it anymore.
d. Taking me for granted. I couldn’t stand it anymore.

43.
a. Some Education has and always will be important to anyone with any
ambition.
b. Some education is and always will be important to anyone with any ambition.
c. Anyone with ambition, some education has been and always will be important.
d. To anyone with ambition, some Education is and always will be important.

44.
a. He is always disapproving of and disagreeing with me; for some reason I don’t
know.
b. He has always disapproved and disagreed with me, for some reason I don’t
know.
c. He always has disapproves of and has disagreed with me, for some reason I
don’t know.

English II -9-
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d. For some reason I don’t know, he has always disapproved of and disagreed
with me.

45.
a. Janella is as stubborn, if not more stubborn than, Rusella whom I thought was
the most stubborn girl in this class.
b. Janella is as stubborn as, if not more stubborn than, Rusella whom I thought is
the most stubborn girl in this class.
c. Janella is as stubborn as, if not more stubborn than, Rusella whom I thought
was the more stubborn in this class.
d. Janella is as stubborn as if not more stubborn than Rusella, whom I thought is
the most stubborn girl in this class.

46.
a. My pride in the boat I made myself is greater than that of those who sail
manufactured boats.
b. My pride in the boat I made myself is greater than those who sail
manufactured boats.
c. My pride in the boat that I made myself is greater than those who sail
manufactured boats.
d. My pride in the boat I made myself is greater than those who sail
manufactured boats they have made themselves.

47.
a. With large numbers in a class also makes it impossible for the teacher and
student to discuss problems.
b. With large numbers in a class, it is impossible for the teacher and student to
discuss problems.
c. It also makes it impossible for the teacher and student to discuss problems,
with large numbers in a class.
d. It also makes it impossible for the teacher and student to discuss problems
with large numbers in class.

48.
a. The meadow was surrounded by tall blossoming trees which gave off a sweet
fragrance which lent an atmosphere to the grove which seemed to make it an
ideal place to hold a concert.

English II - 10 -
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b. The meadow was surrounded by tall blossoming trees which gave off a sweet
scent, lending an atmosphere to the grove that makes it an ideal place to hold
a concert.
c. The meadow seemed an ideal place to hold a concert because it had an
atmosphere lent to it by the sweet fragrance given off by the trees
surrounding it.
d. Surrounded by trees which gave off a sweet fragrance, the meadow had an
atmosphere that made it seem an ideal place for a concert.

49.
a. One hundred fifty years is a twinkle to a star, but to a man it is three lifetimes.
b. 150 years is a twinkle to a star, but to a man it is three lifetimes.
c. A twinkle to a star and three lifetimes is 150 years.
d. One hundred fifty years is a twinkle to a star but to a man it is three lifetimes.

50.
a. The reason the population is increasing very rapidly is because people are no
longer dying like flies, not because they are reproducing like rabbits.
b. The population is increasing very rapidly, not because people are reproducing
like rabbits, but because they are no longer dying like flies.
c. Because people are no longer dying like flies, not because they reproduce like
rabbits; that’s why the population is increasing very rapidly.
d. Very rapidly, the population is increasing because people are no longer dying
like flies, not because people are reproducing like rabbits.

English II - 11 -
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LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY
(Diction and Vocabulary)

Sentence Completion
Following are sentences that lack a word or a group of words. Choose the letter of the answer
which best completes the idea of the sentence.

1. The children were so ____________ that the teacher had to yell to be heard.
a. discreet c. obstreperous
b. morose d. truculent

2. Coach Calhoun tried to ___________ his team to try harder in the face of overwhelming
odds.
a. emulate c. flout
b. exhort d. instigate

3. I don't think these flowers are __________ to New England. At least I've never seen
them.
a. exigent c. indigenous
b. fluent d. ingenuous

4. Roberto pretended to know a lot about the opera, but he was really just a ___________ .
a. catalyst c. dilettante
b. chimera d. supernumerary

5. The professor became so forceful, so _________ in his expression of opinions, that

students began to leave his course.
a. credible c. dormant
b. dogmatic d. lucid

6. The older child had a reputation for ________ trouble in high school, but he calmed down
in college.
a. appeasing c. instigating
b. curtailing d. mortifying

7. The professor got in trouble for making __________ remarks about the Dean of Faculty.
a. benign b. blithe
English III -1-
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c. pejorative d. pensive

8. My uncle has never been to an art museum; in fact, when it comes to matters of art, my
uncle is a real _________ .
a. hedonist c. patrician
b. martyr d. philistine

9. The jury ___________ the mayor of all wrongdoing.

a. augmented c. expatriated
b. exonerated d. subjugated

10. A __________ seemed to befall the entire community as it heard the horrid news.
a. blasphemy c. malaise
b. largess d. malfeasance

11. A kind of ____________ seemed to occur when David graduated from high school. He
became a serious student all of a sudden.
a. accolade c. metamorphosis
b. epithet d. milieu

12. Esmerelda's dissertation was on such an ___________ subject that no one could
understand it.
a. auspicious c. equitable
b. austere d. esoteric

13. Sherman's hold on his job has become so _________ that no one is sure he'll be working
there next month.
a. eminent c. serendipitous
b. putative d. tenuous

14. The Ateneo University basketball team's perfect season ___________ in a championship
win over De La Salle University.
a. alleviated c. fomented
b. culminated d. fulminated

15. The jury was able to see through the ___________ argument of the defense lawyers.
a. onerous c. specious
b. palpable d. stoic

English III -2-

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16. Maria was so _________ that she couldn't follow even the simple directions on the cake
box.
a. candid d. opulent
b. obtuse
c. officious
17. It's not a good idea to take a balloon ride in _______ weather conditions.
a. adverse c. malleable
b. affable d. onerous

18. How my brother ever became a priest is an __________ to all of his high school friends.
a. antipathy c. enigma
b. archetype d. idiosyncracy

19. Benson's essay was ____________ with punctuation errors of all kinds.
a. opulent c. resolute
b. replete d. virulent

20. The prime minister bowed and scraped and behaved ___________ before the new queen.
a. obsequiously c. resolutely
b. ostensibly d. sinuously

21. Rhonda's behavior only _____________ an already bad situation.

a. exacerbated c. obfuscated
b. flouted d. preempted

22. George had the ___________ to suggest that we hire a new coach.
a. discretion c. surfeit
b. disdain d. temerity

23. The philosophy lecture was so predictable, so _________, that everyone fell asleep in five
minutes.
a. ascetic c. astute
b. banal d. ineffable

24. The Darwin couple ______________ upon their future for months before deciding to get
married.
a. deferred c. precluded
b. incited d. ruminated

English III -3-

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25. The ____________ of the task before them would prove a challenge to their imagination
and patience.
a. enormity c. lethargy
b. hiatus d. omen

26. The mysterious, ____________ music floated through the trees and charmed the
listeners.
a. esoteric c. sanguine
b. ethereal d. viable

27. The ____________ facts of the matter were obvious to most of the witnesses.
a. bodacious c. perfunctory
b. gratuitous d. salient

28. The first-grade teacher attempted to __________ his pupils in the virtues of playing fair.
a. comprise c. exonerate
b. edify d. stipulate

29. In an attempt to _______ the effects of a bad year, farmers planted a second crop.
a. censure c. mitigate
b. decimate d. obliterate

30. Clarence was well known for his __________, his ability to lie on the couch and watch TV
all day.
a. animosity c. lethargy
b. futility d. reticence

Analogy
Following are pairs of words that express either a synonymous or an antonymous
relationship. From the choices, choose the pair that expresses a similar relationship to the
given.

31. cacophony : harmony

a. education : edification c. miniscule : gargantuan
b. equality : order d. subjugation : labor

32. vacillating : indecisive

a. capricious : predictable b. impecunious : impoverished
English III -4-
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c. inept : competent d. vacant : brilliant

33. disparage : commend

a. auspicious : favorable c. relegate : send away
b. obscure : hidden d. surreptitious : candid

34. condone : overlook

a. assiduous : ambitious c. frenetic : serene
b. erudite : scholarly d. sagacious : obtuse

35. innate : inherent

a. corporal : spiritual c. exigent : demanding
b. ephemeral : eternal d. spurious : authentic

36. scrupulous : lackadaisical

a. extraneous : irrelevant c. impetuous : impulsive
b. immutable : impermanent d. inane : senseless

37. abstemious : ascetic

a. amorphous : distinct c. negligent : conscientious
b. dubious : positive d. virulent : deadly

38. assuage : provoke

a. abstruse : straightforward c. lugubrious : morose
b. belligerent : quarrelsome d. mercurial : unpredictable

39. cryptic : definite

a. arduous : easy c. gregarious : severe
b. diffident : timid d. purported : supposed

40. vilify : malign

a. exuberant : ebullient c. vitiate : purify
b. surrogate : original d. zealous : indifferent

Error Detection

English III -5-

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Following are statements which may or may not have errors. As you bear in mind the rules
of diction, choose the letter corresponding to the word or group of words that make the
sentence incorrect. Choose E if there’s no error.

41. I am quite crabby today so please don’t try my patience. No error.

A B C D E

42. Dhona has to make a few adjustments to the product of her baking skills. No error.
A B C D E

43. The secret I have told you should be entre nous only. No error.
A B C D E

44. The next matter under our agenda is the matter about the amount of taxes that
A B C
shall be levied on each member. No error.
D E

45. What is your domicile made of? I need your answer for my project. No error.
A B C D E

46. Now and then I read poetry, but it has never had any affect on me. No error.
A B C D E

47. Turn at the corner; the store is further down the road. No error.
A B C D E

48. Renesa is an alumnus of the University of the Philippines, and she is coming back
A B C
to the university to teach. No error.
D E

49. He cited only four sources in his research paper, so his teacher gave him a
A B C D
reprimand. No error.
E

50. I inferred from his remarks that he was unhappy with my draft. No error.
A B C D E
English III -6-
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READING COMPREHENSION
(Coherence, Unity, Analysis, and Inference)

Critical Reading
Each passage in this subtest is followed by questions or incomplete statements. Each
statement or question is followed by lettered words or expressions. Select the word or
expression that most satisfactorily completes each statement or answers each question in
accordance with what is stated or implied in that passage. Blacken the corresponding circle
after the appropriate item number on your answer sheet.

BEGIN HERE:

Selection 1: From Wolfgang Langewiesche’s A Flier’s World.

A puff of wind comes down on the street. An old newspaper stirs in the gutter, jumps
up on the sidewalk, spirals up to second-story height and flaps about there for a moment;
then with a new burst of energy, it sweeps upward again, and when you last see it, it is
soaring high above the rooftops, turning over and over, blinking in the sunlight.
The wind has picked up a piece of paper and blown it away. A generation ago, in a
philosophical discourse, one might have chosen this as an example of an event completely
devoid of any significance, completely chance. But not in the air age. The tiny occurrence
demonstrates an important fact concerning the air ocean – one that is only now becoming the
practical knowledge of practical airfaring men: there are winds which blow neither east nor
west, neither north nor south, but in the third dimension: straight up.

1. The scene in the first paragraph could be best described as ______________.

a. frantic c. indifferent
b. idyllic d. philosophic

2. The newspaper was lifted by a particularly _____________ wind.

a. gale c. puff
b. mild d. strong

3. The author’s main point was that ______________.

English IV -1-
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a. a piece of paper is buffeted by the wind

b. there’s a third dimension to wind movement
c. about how a philosopher’s discourse is done
d. it is easy to fly airplanes.

4. Which of the following statements describes the organization of the passage?

a. A generalization is made and examples are given
b. Something specific is discussed to exemplify a generalization
c. The passage moves from the least to the most recent event.
d. Something specific is discussed, its components are given.

Selection 2: by E.B. White

Preparation for fighting a war is like preparation for taking a cruise in a small sailing
boat— there is no end to it. It is possible to get so absorbed in the details of preparation as to
lose sight of the trip. Anyone who has ever had the experience will know what I mean. If you
were to wait until both of you and the boat were really ready to put to sea the summer would
pass and the autumn would find you still at your home mooring. No boat is ever entirely
ready to put to sea, no country is ever fully prepared to go to war; always there remain things
which should be attended to, contingencies which should be provided for. But there comes a
moment when you have to forget about preparations and think about the stars and the sea
and the lengthening nights. You know that if you don’t go now you will never go. So you drop
off your mooring and shape your course to the wind. From then on things begin to move; you
may not be ready for every particular, but you are under way and the ship is alive. And
something vital in the ship imparts sudden life and resourcefulness to her crew.

5. What is the general tone of the author?

a. advising c. pessimistic
b. forbidding d. whimsical

6. To what is fighting a war compared by the author?

a. Endless sailing c. Preparation for taking a cruise
b. Sailing a small boat d. none of the above

7. The author believes that ____________________.

a. no country can win a war
b. a boat is never ready for a sailing trip
c. a boat is never totally ready for a cruise

English IV -2-
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d. one should be completely prepared before going to war

8. What is the main point of the passage?

a. Drop off your mooring and sail now.
b. Think about the view and your motivation to sail will rise.
c. Preparing for every contingency in a war and a cruise take a long time.
d. Postponing a war because one isn’t wholly prepared is tantamount to not going to
war at all.

9. Based on the context of the passage, what does “lengthening nights” symbolize or refer
to?
a. boredom c. the coming of winter
b. the coming of night d. the passing of time

10. From what you have read, what could be the motto of the author?
a. A country must be decisive in matters of war.
b. Diffidence is an effective war attitude.
c. A sailor’s life is the best life.
d. A warlike attitude is a virtue.

Selection 3: by Kahlil Gibran

Love and Lovelife

“When love beckons you, follow him,

Though his ways are hard and steep
And when his wings enfold you yield to him
Though the sword be hidden among his opinions may wound you.”

11. Whose ways are hard and steep?

a. life c. your beloved
b. love d. none of the above

12. The author is convinced that in the face of love _______________.

a. one is helpless c. one must fight
b. one must concede d. one will suffer

English IV -3-
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Selection 4: From Florian A. Alburo and Danilo A. Abella’s Skilled Labour Migration from
Developing Countries: Study on the Philippines

International migration of skilled persons has assumed increased importance in recent

years reflecting the impact of globalization, revival of growth in the world economy and the
explosive growth in the information and communications technology (ICT). A number of
developed countries have liberalized their policies for the admission of highly skilled
professionals.
The problem lies in that this demand is largely met by developing countries, triggering
an exodus of their skilled personnel. While some amount of mobility is obviously necessary if
developing countries are to integrate into the global economy, a large outflow of skilled
persons poses the threat of a ‘brain drain’, which can adversely impact growth and
development. The recent UK government (DFID) White Paper on International Development,
“Eliminating World Poverty: Making Globalisation Work for the Poor” has rightly pointed out
the need on the part of developed countries to be more sensitive to the impact on developing
countries of the brain drain. It was in this context that the Department for International
development, United Kingdom, approached the ILO for carrying out research relevant to the
above issues.

13. From the passage, what may be meant by “brain drain”?

a. globalization
b. a fatal accident resulting to head injury
c. inflow of skilled labor to developing countries
d. outflow of skilled labor from developing countries

14. From the passage, it can be inferred that ________________.

a. globalization is a regrettable phenomenon
b. out-migration or emigration must be stopped
c. skilled people tend to move where they are paid more for their expertise
d. the developing countries’ liberal policy to migrants is the main reason for the brain
drain

English IV -4-
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15. What is one cause to the rise in the incidence of international migration, according to the
selection?
a. the ominous and imminent threat of brain drain
b. the growth of information and communication technologies
c. the development of industries in the United Kingdom
d. the encouragement of developed and developing countries

16. How is the above selection organized?

a. examples are given and a generalization follows
b. a problem is explored and exposed
c. the selection is ordered according to time
d. a myth is refuted

Selection 8: From the National Statistics Office, Population by Region: Census 2000
TOTAL
REGION POPULATION

Philippines 76,504,077

NCR - National Capital Region 9,932,560

CAR - Cordillera Administrative Region 1,365,412

Reg. I - Ilocos Region 4,200,478

Reg. II - Cagayan Valley 2,813,159

Reg. III - Central Luzon 8,030,945

Reg. IV - Southern Tagalog 11,793,655

Reg. V - Bicol 4,686,669

Reg. VI - Western Visayas 6,211,038

Reg. VII - Central Visayas 5,706,953

Reg. VIII - Eastern Visayas 3,610,355

Reg. IX - Western Mindanao 3,091,208

Reg. X - Central Mindanao 2,747,585

Reg. XI - Southern Mindanao 5,189,335

English IV -5-
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Reg. XII - Northern Mindanao 2,598,210

Reg. XIII - CARAGA 2,095,367

ARMM - Autonomous Region of

Muslim Mindanao 2,412,159

For questions number 17 to 22, refer to the above table. Choose

A = if the statement given is TRUE
B = if the statement given is FALSE
C = if there’ s no basis for saying

17. Region IV has the largest population.

18. CAR has the greatest number of male population.
19. Region VIII and I have extreme populations
20. NCR has the largest population of children.
21. The population of the Philippines has increased through time.
22. There’s a greater difference between the population of Southern Tagalog and National
Capital Region, than between the population of National Capital Region and Central Luzon.

Figurative Expressions
Choose the statement which means most nearly the same as the given figurative in each item.
Then on your answer sheet, blacken the circle that corresponds to your answer.

23. “For of all sad words of tongue or pen, the saddest are these: It might have been!” –
John Greenleaf Whittier
a. There are lots of sad things, and one of them is hankering for what hasn’t been.
b. Lost opportunities are lost forever and will never come again.
c. The saddest feeling that can be expressed is the longing for lost opportunities.
d. It is very sad to think about what might have been.

24. “To be great is to be misunderstood.” – Ralph Waldo Emerson

a. Being misunderstood is being great.
b. Being great means having many enemies.
c. Being great means standing apart and being lonely.
d. Few people can understand the sentiments of truly great persons.

English IV -6-
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25. “Mankind has become so much one family that we cannot insure our own prosperity
except by insuring that of everyone else.” – Sigmund Freud
a. A man is not alone; he belongs to a family.
b. A man does not exist by himself and he cannot succeed by himself.
c. A man must have concern for all of mankind because men are interdependent.
d. All men are interdependent and one man’s achievement is a triumph for all
mankind.

26. Man’s property is his body and the product of his hands. – John Locke
a. Man owns his body and his hands.
b. A man’s labor determines what he owns.
c. His body and his hands are man’s property.
d. A man can own whatever his hands can get.

27. “The unexamined life is not worth living.” --Socrates

a. One must always test himself.
b. Living in ignorance is not a virtue.
c. Reflection is the key to a truly meaningful life.
d. When you are no longer thinking, you are dead.

28. “Man is the measure of all things.” – Protagoras

a. Man is a measuring device.
b. Man is the standard of all things.
c. Humans are the Supreme Beings on Earth.
d. Knowledge is subjective and a man can only know as much as his personality and
characteristics allow him to.

29. “A man is the center of his own universe, and there are as many universes as there are
men.”
a. All men are equal.
b. A man revolves around his axis.
c. Every man dreams of being an astronaut and exploring the universe.
d. Every man thinks of himself first, watches out for himself first, and loves himself
first of all.

30. “Love increases directly with convenience, indirectly with inconvenience.”

a. Love is measurable.
b. Man forgets love when it is not necessary.
c. A person loves when it is convenient to do so.
d. Convenience determines the love a person feels.
English IV -7-
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Organization of Ideas
The following subsection consists of paragraphs, the parts of which are presented in scrambled
order. Read each group of sentences and decide what should be the best order in which to
arrange them so that they form a well-organized paragraph. After you have decided the best
order, answer the questions that follow. Blacken the circle that corresponds to your answer.

For numbers 31 to 32:

A. Aside from which, I miss my idealism, my zest for life, and my vitality.
B. I have a confession to make.
C. In fact, I have lost so many things it would take one whole shelf of books to
recount all of them.
D. I am bereft of my innocence, am devoid of optimism, and am dispossessed of any
sliver of hope.

31. Which of the above sentences should be first?

32. Which of the following sentences should be third?

For number 33 to 34:

A. Repeat the procedure as many times as you like for the desired thickness and
number of coating.
B. Apply the first coating evenly on the surface.
C. Scrape the area to be painted clean of all traces of its old paint.
D. Prime the brush and dip it into pre-treated paint.

33. Which should be the second sentence?

34. Which should be last?

For number 35:

A. I let my eyes roam inside the room where I was in.
B. I took the mirror, and screamed.
C. As I opened my eyes, I saw my sister gawking at me.
D. They collided with those of a nurse holding a mirror and wearing a grave
expression on her face.

35. Which of the following is the proper order of the above sentences?
a. A, B, C, D

English IV -8-
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b. A, D, B, C
c. C, A, D, B
d. D, C, B, A

Identifying an Irrelevant Sentence

Read each group of sentences then identify which one should not be included in the group.
Blacken the circle that corresponds to your answer on your answer sheet.

36.
a. Live birth is the complete expulsion or extraction of a product of conception who,
after such extraction, exhibits any evidence of life.
b. Birth is the complete expulsion or extraction of a product of conception.
c. The birth of myself by my mother was very difficult; Caesarean was necessary.
d. Stillbirth is the expulsion of a dead fetus which died late in the gestation period.

37.
a. A play is going to open tomorrow at La Piazza.
b. The fact that the cast members felt themselves part of a team, contributed much
to the success of the play.
c. The feeling of belonging always makes a person care more for the thing to which
he or she belongs.
d. The members of the cast gave their best to the play because of the loyalty such
feeling of belonging gives.

38.
a. A college entrance exam review is essential if one is determined to get into UP or
any other premiere college or university.
b. Getting into the college of your choice wouldn’t be easy.
c. Outstanding grades are also a must if one wants to be accepted to a good college.
d. There are lots of review centers that offer UPCAT review services.

39.
a. Leave behind might-have-been’s, what if’s and if only’s.
b. Regrets are such a heavy burden to lug around.
c. Move on and do not let any opportunity pass you by anymore.
d. There are lots of opportunities if you know where to look.

English IV -9-
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40.
a. It was my graduation day at the University of the Philippines.
b. My father’s dream has come true and he was really happy.
c. The audience clapped when I came up the stage.
d. Grinning from ear-to-ear, my father grasped my hand and hugged me.

English IV - 10 -
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MATHEMATICS PROFICIENCY
(Basic Arithmetic and Algebra)

Directions: This subtest is a measure of ability to think out solutions to quantitative

problems. Solve each problem carefully and then decide which is the best among the answer
choices. Blacken the circle it corresponds to after the appropriate item number on your
answer sheet.

Notes:
► Calculators of any kind are not permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.

► Figures which accompany problems in this subtest are intended to provide

information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn as accurately as possible except
when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a
plane unless otherwise indicated.

BEGIN HERE:

1. [(800 ÷ 40) + (92 ÷ (17 – 8))] – (22 + 32) = _________.

a. 15 b. 16 c. 29 d. 42

2. What is sixty-seven less than the sum of fifty-eight and forty-two?

a. 33 b. – 33 c. 43 d. 23

3. What is the difference between 72, 846 divided by twice of three and seventy-five multiplied
twice?
a. 11, 991 c. 24, 132
b. 6, 516 d. 18, 657

4. Which of the following numbers is the largest?

a. (2 + 2 + 2)2 c. (2 x 2 x 2)2
2 2 2
b. (2 ) + 2 + 2 d. [(2 + 2)2]2

5. What is the value of x in order for 5719x to be divisible by 2, 3 and 6?

a. 0 b. 2 c. 6 d. 7

Math I -1-
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6. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang mali?

a. 6(8 – 8) = (5-15) – 1
b. 3(-3) + 3(3) = 0
c. 3 + 3-1 = 0
d. wala sa mga pagpipilian

7. Which of the following set of fractions arrange in ascending order?

5 1 7 11 6 7 3 4
a. , , , c. , , ,
12 9 8 18 19 12 4 5
3 1 2 5 13 1 3 5
b. , , , d. , , ,
16 7 5 6 15 4 8 6
8. A rope is cut into three and one-third is used. Then one-fourth of the remaining rope is cut of
and used. The piece left is 5 meters long. How many meters long was the rope originally?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 12

9. Rocky had a party. Midway in the party, half of the people left. A fifth of those remaining
started to sing. There were 16 remaining who did not sing. How many people came to Rocky’s
party?
a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50
1
10. At first stop on his route, a driver unloaded of the packages in his truck. After he unloaded
5
1
another 9 packages at his next stop, of the original number of packages in the truck
2
remained. How many packages were in the van before at the first delivery?
a. 50 b. 40 c. 30 d. 20

11. (0.143 + 0.27 + 0.852 + 0.009) – (0.235 + 0.51 + 0.006) = _________.

a. 0.423 b. 0.751 c. 0.523 d. 0.851

12. (87.5 x 0.01) ÷ 1, 000 = ________.

a. 8.75 x 10-5 c. 8.75 x 101
b. 8.75 x 10-4 d. 8.75 x 103

13. What is the sum of 2.45 multiplied by 0.06 and 0.057 divided by 0.3?
a. 3.37 b. 2.047 c. 1.66 d. 0.337

Math I -2-
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1
14. If k = 2 x 10-2, then what does the expression equal to?
k
a. 50 b. 500 c. 5 d. 0.5

15. The ratio of men to women at a concert was 2:3. If there were 350 people in the concert, how
many women were there?
a. 140 b. 210 c. 200 d. 150

16. A fruit salad mixture consists of apples, banana and peaches in the ratio of 6:5:4 respectively
by weight. If 225 grams of mixture is prepared, how many more grams of apples than
peaches?
a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d. 75

17. Tuwing bakasyon, ginagamit ni Leah ang 30% ng kanyang oras sa pagbabasa ng mga nobela.
Sa kabuuan, kaya niyang matapos ang isang nobela ng pitong oras. Kung siya ay natutulog ng
siyam na oras araw-araw, ilang nobela ang kaya niyang tapusin sa loob ng dalawang linggo?
a. 8 b. 9 c. 5 d. 7

18. When buying an item, a man was given a 10% discount on its original price, and then he was
charged a 10% tax on its selling price. Base from this transaction, which of the following is
true?
a. The original price and the selling price are the same.
b. The amount paid is 10% lower than the original price.
c. The amount paid is 99% of the original price.
d. The amount paid is 20% lower than the original price.

19. Si Gng. Gonzales ay bumili ng kotse sa halagang P pesos. Pagkalipas ng tatlong taon, ibinenta
niya ang kotse ng 25% higit sa halaga ng pagkakabili niya. Binigyan siya ng babayarang buwis
na 50% ng kanyang kita. Magkano ang kailangang bayaran na buwis ni Gng. Gonzales?
P P P P
a. b. c. d.
24 8 4 2
20. Of all the participants on a camping trip last summer, 70% were over 15 years old. If 63 of
those who attended were 15 years old or below, what was the total number of participants in
the camp?
a. 200 b. 210 c. 120 d. 330

21. The reservoir is at full capacity at the beginning of summer. By the first day of fall, the level in
the reservoir is 40% below full capacity. Then during the fall, a period of heavy rains raises
the level by 40%. After the rains, the reservoir is at what percent of its full capacity?
Math I -3-
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a. 100% b. 90% c. 84% d. 80%

22. Lovely’s grade in four of her quizzes are 83, 86, 89, and 90. There is one more quiz for the
grading period and she does not want an average lower than 85, what is the lowest possible
grade that she can get on her fifth quiz to maintain that average?
a. 75 b. 77 c. 79 d. 81

23. The sum of five consecutive integers is 35. How many of the five consecutive integers are
prime numbers?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

24. Six consecutive integers are given. The sum of the first three is 27. What is the sum of the
last three?
a. 30 b. 32 c. 33 d. 36

25. For any integer n, which of the following represents the sequence of three consecutive odd
integers?
a. n, n + 1, n + 3 c. 2n + 1, 2n + 2, 2n + 3
b. n, n + 2, n + 4 d. 2n +1, 2n + 3, 2n + 5

26. If r, s, t are three consecutive integers such that r > s > t, then (r – s)(s – t)(r – t) equals:
a. – 2 b. – 1 c. 0 d. 2

27. Kung ang x at y ay mga negatibong integers, at x > y, alin sa mga sumusunod ang may
pinakamataas na halaga?
a. – (xy)2 b. x2y c. xy d. y – x

28. Kung ang x at y ay mga positibong integers at ang x > y, alin sa mga sumusunod ang
palaging totoo?
y2 y x x2 y2 x2 x2 x
a. > b. > c. > d. >
x2 x y y2 x2 y2 y2 y

29. If a and b are both odd numbers, then which of the following must be an even number?
a. ab + 2 b. 2a + b c. a + b d. a + b + 1

30. Simplify the expression: 5y – {3y + (2y – 5) – [3 – (2 + 4y)]}

a. 4y b. 6 – 4y c. 14y – 6 d. 4y + 6

Math I -4-
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MATHEMATICS PROFICIENCY
(Intermediate Algebra)

Directions: This subtest is a measure of ability to think out solutions to quantitative

problems. Solve each problem carefully and then decide which is the best among the answer
choices. Blacken the circle it corresponds to after the appropriate item number on your
answer sheet.

Notes:
► Calculators of any kind are not permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.

► Figures which accompany problems in this subtest are intended to provide

BEGIN HERE:
1. In the diagram at the right, line AB and AC have equal lengths. What is the value of k?
a. 9 Y
b. 10
c. 11 C (1, k)
d. 12

A (1, 2) B (9, 2)
X

2. What is the equation of the line that passing through (1,1) and parallel to line y = 2x– 5?
a. y = 2x c. y = 2x + 1
1
b. y = 2x – 1 d. y = − x +1
2
3. What is the slope of the line containing the points (2, -4) and (-5, 7)?

Math II -1-
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11 11 7 7
a. b. − c. d. −
7 7 11 11
4. Which of the following can best describe the graph?
a. y = 4 – 2x 3

b. y < 4 – 2x 2

1
c. y > 4 – 2x 0

d. cannot be determined -1
1 2 3 4

y
-2

-3

-4

-5

1 b+3 x

5. Kung ang a = b + = , ano ang halaga ng a?

2 2
1 5
a. b. 3 c. d. 2
3 2
6. If 2x + 4y – 5z = 19 and z = 3, what is the value of x + 2y + z?
a. 20 b. 15 c. 10 d. 5

7. Ang eksponensyal na ekspresyong 32/n sa pormang radical ay _______.

a. 3n b.
n
9 c.
9
n d.
3
n

8. Ano ang halaga ng q sa tumbasang radikal na 21 + q = 3 + q ?

a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

1 3a
9. Simplify the following expression : +
a+2 a+2
1 + 3a 3a
a. c.
a+2 a+2

b.
1 + 3a
d.
(
1 + 3a a + 2 )( )
a+2 a+2

Math II -2-
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2 3
10. Pasimplehin ang ekspresyong − 2
x+2 x −4
2x + 1 2x + 1 2x + 1 2x + 1
a. b. c. d.
x2 − 4 x2 − 4 x2 − 4 x2 − 4
11. Factor out the expression ab – 1 – b + a completely:
a. (b – 1)(a + 1) c. (b – 1)(a – 1)
b. (b – 1)(a – 1) d. (b + 1)(a + 1)

12. Which of the following equations has a root in common with x2 – 6x + 5 = 0?

a. x2 + 1 = 0 c. 2x2 – 2 = 0
2
b. x – x – 2 = 0 d. x2 – 2x – 3 = 0

13. Alin sa mga sumusunod na ekspresyon ang perfect square trinomial?

a. 9x2 – 12x – 4 c. x2 + 10x + 36
2
b. 4x – 20x + 25 d. 4x2 + 10x + 25

14. Kung ang (x + y)2 = 20 at ang xy = 4, ano ang halaga ng x2 + y2?

a. 16 b. 14 c. 12 d. 10

15. If -6 is one solution of the equation x2 + 5x + k = 7, where k is constant, what is the

18. What is the solution set (x, y) in system of equations: 2x – 3y = 12 and 3x + y = 7?

a. (3, -2) c. (2, -3)
b. (-3, 2) d. (-2, 3)

19. One number is 17 less than another. Their sum is 125. What is the smaller number?
a. 54 b. 60 c. 71 d. 108
Math II -3-
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20. Bruno raises a number of ducks and carabaos in his farm, all of which are normal. If his
animals have a total of 44 feet and a total of 16 heads, how many carabaos does Bruno
have?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

21. How many students are there in a class if two students are not seated when 4 rows of seat
are filled and 9 students are not seated when 3 rows of seats are filled?
a. 36 b. 34 c. 30 d. 28

22. The attendance at Enchanted Kingdom on a certain day was 737 persons. If there were
289 more adults than children, how many children were there?
a. 513 b. 548 c. 274 d. 250

23. A train covers the distance d between two cities in h hours arriving 2 hours late. What
speed would permit the train to arrive on schedule?
d d
a. h–2 b. −2 c. d. dh – 2
h h−2
24. Jerry ran a 200 – meter dash race at an average speed of 2.4 kph. If Ryan ran the same
race at an average speed of 3 kph, how many minutes longer did it take for Jerry to
complete the race?
a. 1 min b. 2 min c. 3 min d. 4 min

25. A taxi driver must complete a 180 mile trip in 4 hours. If he averages 50 miles an hour for
the first three hours of his trip, how fast, in miles per hour, must he travel in the final
hour?
a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45

26. A man is thrice as old as his son. In five years, he will be three years more than twice his
son’s age. How many years old is the man now?
a. 10 b. 24 c. 36 d. 41

27. Jack is now 14 years older than Jill. If in 10 years Jack will be twice as old as Jill, how
many years old will Jack be in 5 years?
a. 9 b. 19 c. 21 d. 23
28. How many liters of 60% solution of nitric acid should be added to 10 liters a 30% solution
of nitric acid to obtain a 50% solution?
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

Math II -4-
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29. A tank can be filled in 6 hours by pipe A running alone, or in 4 hours by pipe B alone. How
many hours would be needed to fill the tank if both pipes were running?
2 5 1
a. 5 b. 2 c. d. 3
5 12 2
30. Grace can finish cleaning their room in 45 minutes. When her sister Abby helps her, it
takes them 18 minutes to clean the room completely. How many minutes would it take
Abby to clean their room alone?
a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35

Math II -5-
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MATHEMATICS PROFICIENCY
(Geometry/ Trigonometry)

Directions: This subtest is a measure of ability to think out solutions to quantitative

problems. Solve each problem carefully and then decide which is the best among the
answer choices. Blacken the circle it corresponds to after the appropriate item number on
your answer sheet.
Notes:
► Calculators of any kind are not permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.

► Figures which accompany problems in this subtest are intended to provide

information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn as accurately as possible
except when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale. All
figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

BEGIN HERE:
1. How many different segments are determined by four collinear points A, B, C, D?
a. 4
b. 8 A B C D
c. 6
d. 10

2. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. Two points are contained in one and only one line.
II. A segment has a unique midpoint.
III. On a ray, there are many points given distance from the endpoint to the ray.

a. I only c. III only

b. II only d. I and II only

3. What is the value of x in the diagram shown?

a. 22
b. 20
c. 44

Math III -1-

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22
d.
3 x + 22
2x

4. How many sides of a regular polygon if has a sum of 1, 800o in its interior angle?
a. 10 c. 12
b. 11 d. 13

5. In a regular hexagon, the measure of each interior angle is ________.

a. 100o c. 140o
o
b. 120 d. 160o

6. Which of the following statements is/are false?

I. A square is a rectangle with four congruent sides.
II. Rectangles have no congruent angles.
III. A rhombus is a parallelogram with four congruent sides.

a. I only c. III only

b. II only d. I and II only

7. The longest side of ∆ABC is ______.

C
o
a. AC 80
b. BC
o
c. BA 25 B
d. cannot determine A

8. The length of a rectangle is twice the width and is equal to the side of a square.
Which of these statements is true?

a. The area of the rectangle is 1 / 2 times that of the square.

b. The area of the rectangle is 1 / 4 times that of the square.
c. The area of the square is 1 / 2 times that of the rectangle.
d. The area of the square is 1 / 4 times that of the rectangle.

Math III -2-

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9. In the figure to the right, QRST is a parallelogram. If m ∠TQR = 85o, then what is
m ∠TSR ? T S

a. 115o P
b. 105o
c. 95o
d. 85o
Q R

10. From the figure above, what is the value of x if TP= 2x + 1; SP= 4 – 3y; RP= y +
5; QP= x – 4?

a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

11. In the figure at the right, what is the value of y?

a. 60o
b. 45o xo
c. 30o
d. cannot be determined 2xo
yo y o

Math III -3-

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12. In the figure, the side of each small square is 27 centimeters. What is the length of
MN?

a. 15 cm
b. 18 cm
c. 21 cm
d. 24 cm N

13. Given the figure, AB = CD ; AC = BC = 4 . What is AD ?

a. 4 3 A

b. 4 2
c. 4+2 2
d. 4+2 3

C B D

14. ABCD is a trapezoid with AB || CD , XY is the median. If AB = 6 and XY =13,

then what is the length of CD ?
A B
a. 16
b. 18
c. 20 X Y
d. 22

C D

15. If the lengths of the sides of a square are doubled, what is the effect on the area?
a. The area will increase twice.
b. The area will increase 4 times.
c. The area will increase 8 times.
d. The area will remain the same.

16. A rectangular solid with dimensions 2, 12, and q has the same volume as a cube with
an edge length of 6. What is the value of q?
a. 11 c. 7
b. 9 d. 5

2
17. Given three squares of different areas, the perimeter of square A is the perimeter
3
2
of square B, and the perimeter of square B is the perimeter of square C. If the
3
area of square A is 16 square units, what is the area of square C?

Mathematics 3

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a. 81 c. 64
b. 72 d. 36

18. What is the area of the kite whose diagonals have lengths 12 and 7?
a. 24 c. 40
b. 30 d. 42

19. the area of the triangle in the figure at the right is 12, then what is the value of r?
a. 4 y
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1 5r
4r
3r
2r
r
x
r 2r 3r 4r

20. In the diagram, each small square is 1 cm by 1 cm. What is the area of the non-
shaded region?

a. 6
b. 4.5
c. 3
d. 2.75

21. An equilateral triangle has the same perimeter as a square. What is the area of the
square if the triangle has side equal to 16?

a. 144 c. 100
b. 169 d. 81

22. The figure at the right shows a rectangular parcel of land divided into lots of equal
size, as shown by the dotted lines. If the area of three of the lots is equal to one-
fourth of the total area in the parcel, then how many feet wide is each lot?

a. 30
b. 60
c. 40
d. 90

360 feet

Mathematics 3

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23. Convert 225o to radians:

9π 7π
a. c.
4 6
3π 5π
b. d.
4 4

11π
24. Convert to degrees:
6
a. 280o c. 330o
b. 300o d. 360o

25. Find tan θ if sin θ = 2 / 3 and θ is not in the first quadrant

a. − 5 /3 c. − 2/ 5
b. − 5/2 d. − 3/ 5

26. In the coordinate system given, in which quadrant is sin θ positive and cos θ
negative?
y
a. I
b. II
c. III sin θ = y II I
d. IV cos θ = x θ
x

III IV

1 − sin 2 θ
27. is equal to
sin θ
a. cos θ c. csc θ
b. sec θ d. cot θ

28. What is the height of Quezon City Hall if the shadow of the building is 20 meters and
the angle of elevation of the sun is 300?
20 3 2 3
a. c.
3 3
3 3
b. d.
20 3

Mathematics 3

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For nos. 29-30:

29. In the right triangle ABC, what is the value of cos θ? B

a. 4 / 5
b. 3 / 4
10
a. 5 / 3 8
b. 3 / 5

θ
A C
30. In the same figure above, what is the value of tan θ? 6
a. 4/5 c. 3 / 4
a. 5 / 3 d. 4 / 3

Mathematics 3

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MATHEMATICS PROFICIENCY
(Advance Algebra and Statistics)

Directions: This subtest is a measure of ability to think out solutions to quantitative

problems. Solve each problem carefully and then decide which is the best among the answer
choices. Blacken the circle it corresponds to after the appropriate item number on your
answer sheet.

Notes:
► Calculators of any kind are not permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.

► Figures which accompany problems in this subtest are intended to provide

BEGIN HERE:
1. Which of the following expressions is not a function?
a. y = 2x + 1 c. y = x
b. y =
5x − 3 d. y = 9 – x
7

2. Given the table below, what is the equation of the given relation?
X 0 1 2 3 4 5
y 1 3 5 7 9 11

a. y=x c. y = 2x + 1
b. y = 2x d. y = 2x – 1

3. If f(x) =
1 , what is the domain of f(x)?
x−3

a. The domain of f(x) are all real numbers.

b. The domain of f(x) are all real numbers except 0.
c. The domain of f(x) are all real numbers except -3.
Math IV -1-
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d. The domain of f(x) are all real numbers except 3.

2x 2 − 1
4. What is the range of g(x) = ?
5
a. all real numbers
b. all real numbers greater than 0
1
c. all real numbers greater than −
5
1
d. all real numbers greater than or equal to −
5
5. If Jun saves P10.00 on the first week and adds P4.00 each week, how much will he save
on the last week of the fourth month?
a. P58.00 c. P50.00
b. P54.00 d. P40.00

6. If Nelly gets 3 in his first quiz and 6 in his second quiz, and doubles his quiz everytime
they have quiz, what will be his average score after their fifth quiz?
a. 18.6 c. 21.5
b. 20.4 d. 22.8

7. Which of the following is/are TRUE?

I. Given the sequence 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, . . . is an arithmetic sequence
II. In the sequence 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, . . the next term is 70
III. Given the sequence 2, 5, 8, 11, 14, 17 the common difference is 3

a. I only c. III only

b. II only d. I and II only

8. The first term of an arithmetic progression is 6 and the common difference is –3. What
term is –51?
a. 23 c. 21
b. 22 d. 20

9. What is the 25th term of an arithmetic sequence whose 7th and 20th terms are 20 and 59
respectively?
a. 51 c. 74
b. 55 d. 77

Math IV -2-
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10. Fifty-one electric poles are placed along a straight highway such that the distance
between the first and the last pole is 2 250 meters and the distance between any two
consecutive poles are equal. How many meters apart are any two successive poles?
a. 50 meters c. 40 meters
b. 45 meters d. 30 meters

11. Linda started working at a monthly salary of P5, 600.00 and steadily received an annual
increase of P250. How much did she earn in the 11 years that she worked in that office?
a. P69, 950.00 c. P67, 200.00
b. P69, 700.00 d. P64, 100.00

12. In the geometric progression 4, 12, 36, 108, . . . the common ratio is:
a. 3 c. 1
1
b. 2 d.
3
13. What is the sum of the first six terms in the arithmetic progression whose first three
terms are –1, 1, and 3?
a. 17 c. 15
b. 16 d. 14

14. In a geometric progression 1, 2, 4, 8, . . . how many terms are added if the sum is 127?
a. 6 c. 8
b. 7 d. 9

15. If an amoeba can produce 4 amoebas every six hours, how many amoebas will there be
after one day if the reproduction started with one amoeba?
a. 81 c. 85
b. 83 d. 87

5
16. If x1 = 5, x2 = 6, x3 = 9, x4 = 13, x5 = 14, x6 = 16, what is the value of ∑x
i =1
i ?

a. 45 c. 49
b. 47 d. 50

17. In statistics, a/an __________ is an arrangement of data according to size or magnitude.

a. Array c. Discriminant
b. Matrix d. Frequency

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For numbers 18 – 22, refer to the following data.

A sample of 30 companies belonging to a certain industry reported the following number of

employees.

43 33 24 51 36 31
50 46 50 29 40 25
38 35 31 35 42 50
47 21 45 45 28 36
58 62 37 55 52 49

18. What is the population mean if the sum is 1224?

a. 48.3 c. 40.8
b. 46.4 d. 40.6

19. What is the median?

a. 40 c. 42
b. 41 d. 43

20. What is/are the mode/s of the set of data?

a. 50 c. 50 and 45
b. 45 and 35 d. 45

21. What is the range of given set of data?

a. 55 c. 45
b. 50 d. 40

22. The percentiles are the scores-points that divide a distribution into 100 equal parts. What
do you call a distribution that divides into 10 equal parts?
a. Quartile c. inter quartile
b. Decile d. tenths

23. If two dice are tossed together, in how many ways can they fall?
a. 36 c. 12
b. 24 d. 6

24. What is the value of 3! (3 factorial)?

a. 1 c. 6
Math IV -4-
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b. 3 d. cannot determine

25. In how many ways can the letters of the word MERCY be arranged?
a. 25 c. 100
b. 50 d. 120

26. In a circular dining table, 5 guests are to be seated. In how many ways can the five
guests sit?
a. 10 c. 24
b. 12 d. 30

27. In how many ways can a committee of 4 be chosen from a group of 8 people?
a. 24 c. 48
b. 32 d. 70

28. On a certain street, there are an odd number of houses in a row. The houses in the row
are painted alternately blue and yellow, with the first house painted blue. If n is the total
number of houses in the row, how many of the houses are painted blue?
n n −1
a. −1 c.
2 2
n n +1
b. +1 d.
2 2
29. A committee consists of three girls (Ana, Betty, Connie) and five boys (Ryan, Ben,
Ceasar, Francis, Dan). A delegate to a conference is to be chosen from the committee.
What is the chance that a boy will be selected?
1 1
a. c.
8 7
3 5
b. d.
8 8
30. A box contains 5 red balls, 4 blue balls, and 3 white balls. If a ball is chosen at random,
what is the probability that it is not blue?
1 3
a. c.
3 4

Math IV -5-
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2 7
b. d.
3 12

Math IV -6-
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SCIENCE PROFICIENCY
(General Science)

Directions: For each statement or question, choose the letter of the word or expression
that, of those given, best completes or answers the question. Then on your answer sheet,
blacken the circle that corresponds to your final answer.

BEGIN HERE:

1. For work to be done, what are the factors that must be present?
a. force and acceleration c. force and distance
b. weight and distance d. weight and force

2. Salt water has a density greater than that of pure water. What does this mean?
a. Salt water is heavier than water
b. Salt water is lighter than water
c. Salt water is as heavy as water
d. Saltwater has more volume than water

For nos. 3-4 Refer to the following figure

3. At which point will the kinetic energy of the ball the greatest?
a. A b. B c. C. d. D

4. At which point will the potential energy of the ball be the greatest?
a. A b. B. c. C d. D

5. What type of heat transfer is responsible for the formation of sea breeze and land breeze?
Science I -1-
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a. conduction c. convection
b. condensation d. radiation

6. What is the volume of an object when after dropping, 17.8 mL water in a graduated
cylinder rises to 23.6 mL?
a. 5.8 mL c. 17.8 mL
b. 14.2 m L d. 23.6 mL

7. What is the weight of an object due to gravity whose mass is 17.6 g?

a. 0.176 N c. 17.6 N
b. 1. 76 N d. 176 N

8. A monkey weighing 500 newtons climbs a tree 10 meters high. How much work does the
monkey do?
a. 100 joules c. 1000 joules
b. 500 joules d. 5000 joules

9. Which layer of the atmosphere returns radio and TV broadcasts back to earth?
a. ionosphere c. mesosphere
b. exosphere d. stratosphere

10. What type of clouds will be seen during a stormy day?

a. cirrus c. nimbus
b. cumulus d. stratus

11. Which of the statements below does not explain the movements of the earth’s crust?
a. Earthquakes that originate beneath the sea can produce tsunamis.
b. The mantle beneath the earth’s crust is made of plastic materials that have
convection currents.
c. The earth’s crust has cracked into huge plates which move slowly due t convection
currents in the mantle.
d. Many years of stress on the rock may fracture the crust causing one portion to
slide upward or downward with respect to the other.

12. Erosion and deposition are responsible for the formation of the following landforms except
a. flood plain c. mountain
b. delta d. lagoon

13. What is 30 oC in o
F?
a. 30 oF c. 86 oF

Science I -2-
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b. 58 oF d. 102 oF

14. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a. CFC’s c. Nitrous Oxide
b. Methane d. Carbon Dioxide

15. What is the equivalent value of the absolute zero temperature on the Celsius, and Kelvin
Scale?
a. 0 oCelsius, and -600o Kelvin
b. 0 oCelsius, and 273 K
c. 273o Celsius, and 0 Kelvin
d. -273o Celsius, and 0 Kelvin

For nos. 16 and 17, refer to the table below.

Food use Temperature Room Exposure Amount of Result

lighting moisture
Home made 37oC Dimly lighted Air High Plenty of
pandesal molds
Home made 37oC Dimly lighted Air Low Tiny spots of
pandesal molds

16. What is the dependent variable in the setup?

a. type of bread c. amount of moisture
b. temperature d. exposure time

17. What conclusion can be deducted from the experiment?

a. Molds like breads.
b. Molds grow anywhere.
c. Molds grow best in moist places.
d. Molds are growing relative to temperature.

18. Gon wants to know which is stronger, Bisuke’s punch or Killua’s. Using the scientific
method, how should Gon setup his controlled experiment?
a. Let Bisuke and Killua fight till one of them wins.
b. Let Bisuke and Killua punch him then compare which is more painful
c. Let Bisuke and Killua punch the same object a number of times then compare the
damage done
d. All of the above.
Science I -3-
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19. The moon is said to light up the night skies. What gives the moon this ability to shine?
a. The sun’s reflection off the moon.
b. Radiation produced by the moon’s atmosphere.
c. Radiation from the Sun that is absorbed by the moon.
d. The luminous substance found on the moon’s surface.

20. What is not true about moon and tides?

a. When the moon is close to earth, the lesser the effect of gravity
b. When the moon and earth are in line, the highest tides occur on earth
c. When earth and moon are at right angles, the lowest tides occur on earth
d. There are two high tides at opposite sides of the earth and two low tides at the
other

21. What do you call the earth’s hard outer shell?

a. Crust c. inner core
b. outer core d. mantle

22. Mt. Mayon which is built from alternate layers of lava and ash with many little craters on
its slope is what kind of volcano?
a. Shield c. composite
b. cinder d. caldera

23. 150 mg is equal to __________.

a. 0.015 g c. 1.50 g
b. 0.150g d. 15.0g

24. Which star is the hottest star?

a. Yellow c. Orange
b. Blue d. Red

25. Why is Venus the twin planet of the Earth?

a. Life is possible in Venus.
b. Venus has almost the same size as the Earth
c. Venus has the same orbit as the Earth to the sun
d. Venus has the distance similar to earth from the sun.

26. Which planet is the coldest, smallest, and outermost planet in the solar system?
a. Neptune c. Mercury

Science I -4-
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b. Mars d. Pluto

27. Mid ocean ridges are result of what plate activity?

a. Converging plates c. Inverting plates
b. Diverging plates d. Spreading plates

28. What harmful gas is being released when engines burn fossil fuels?
a. Sulfur c. Carbon Monoxide
b. Oxygen d. nitrogen

29. What absorbs a portion of the radiation from the sun, preventing it from reaching the
earth’s surface?
a. Chloroflorocarbon c. Freon
b. Ozone d. Charon

30. On clear, calm evenings, temperature differences between a body of water and
neighboring land produce a cool wind that blows offshore. This wind is called a
a. Sea breeze c. Morning Breeze
b. Land breeze d. Evening breeze

Science I -5-
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SCIENCE PROFICIENCY
(Biology)

BEGIN HERE:

1. Which best describes the composition of the human body?

a. cells organs parts system
b. organs tissue system
c. cells tissues organs system
d. bones muscle skin system

2. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants manufacture their own food. At what form do
the products of photosynthesis stored?
a. fruits c. bulbs
b. starch d. root crops

3. Most plants are not suitable for human consumption. This is because we do not posses the
ability to digest them properly. Why is this so?
a. They are poisonous.
b. We can’t chew them properly.
c. They have a high concentration of cellulose
d. Plants have an anti-digestion substance in them

4. Plants give off oxygen as a by product of photosynthesis. While human beings and animals
gives off carbon dioxide. What symbiotic relationship occurs between the two?
a. commensalism c. realism
b. mutualism d. parasitism

For nos. 5 and 6, Refer to the passage below.

Rice, the staple food of many Filipinos, could be categorized to belong in:

Kingdom – Plantae
Phylum – Anthophyta

Science II -1-
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Class – Monocotyledonae
Order – Glumiflorae
Family – Poaceae
Genus – Oryza
Species – Sativa

5. What is the scientific name of rice?

a. Oryza sativa
b. Glumiflorae sativa
c. Poaceae Sativa
d. Monocotyledonae Sativa

6. Both rice and corn belongs to the class Monocotyledonae, then they must also belong to the
same _________.
a. Genus c. phylum
b. Family d. species

7. Which of the following does not describe a prokaryotic cell?

a. Their DNA is not bound by a nuclear membrane.
b. They do not posses a true nucleus.
c. A plasma membrane surrounds and encloses the prokaryotic cell.
d. They posses an extensive endoplasmic reticulum

8. The skin is composed of tissues wherein cells are compactly arranged. This tissues are called
_______.
a. Connective
b. Plasmic
c. Epithelial
d. None of the above

9. Genes carry the hereditary information from one offspring to another. What organic compound
in genes is specifically designed for this task?
a. Enzymes
b. Nucleic acids
c. Proteins
d. Lipids

10. What symbiotic relationship refers to the partial dependence of the evolutionary changes of an
organism to another specie which it has a close ecological relationship? This is observed in
viceroy and monarch butterflies.
a. codependence
b. correlation
Science II -2-
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c. coevolution
d. coexistence

11. Which of the following is not true about vertebrates?

a. They are warm blooded.
b. They belong to the phylum chordates.
c. They all have notochords
d. None of the above.

12. Which of the following does not happen during mitosis?

a. Replication of DNA strands
b. Coiling up of chromatin
c. Movement of the chromosomes towards the center
d. None of the above

13. What do we mean when we say that “organisms with favorable variations reproduce more
successfully than organisms with less favorable variations?
a. Production
b. Use and disuse
c. Survival of the fittest
d. Cross- breeding

14. What does a plant cell have that an animal cell doesn’t?
a. cell wall c. nucleus
b. lysosomes d. golgi apparatus

15. What differentiates a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic cell?

a. Presence of true nucleus
b. Presence of chromosomes
c. Presence of cell membrane
d. None of the above

16. Simple, multicellular animals with tissues but no distinct organs. Commonly known as
sponges, they typically attach to rocks, shells, or coral. What are they called?
a. Placozoa c. Cnidaria
b. Porifera d. Ctenophora

17. One phylum of animals, the chordates, has been more intensively studied than has any other,
because it comprises nearly all the world's largest and most familiar animals as well as
humans. The feature uniting these animals is that at some stage in their lives, all have a
flexible supporting rod, called a ___________.
a. notochord c. spina
Science II -3-
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b. phyochord d. redochord

18. The plasma membrane is composed of two layers of ___________ interspersed with
cholesterol and proteins.
a. hydrophilic molecules
b. hydrophobic molecules
c. phospholipids molecules
d. lipid molecules

19. What will happen if the white blood cells are deteriorating?
a. Oxygen cells will not be transported
b. The nerve impulses will not be carried to the brain
c. The harmful bacteria in the body will not be destroyed
d. There will be no production of hormone to clot the blood

20. What happens to the amount energy as the level rises in the food pyramid?
a. increases c. remains constant
b. decreases d. decrease then increase

21. What stage in the meiosis do the paired homologous chromosomes line up along the
equatorial plate?
a. prophase c. anaphase
b. metaphase d. telophase

In time of severe cold, animals may hibernate for days or weeks at a time. Their
body temperature drops, and they breathe only a few times in a minute. A hibernating
animal uses the fat store in its body for nourishment.

In times of severe heat, other animals may estivate. Just as with hibernating
animals, the body function of estivating animals slow down almost to a stop. To an
observer, the animal appears to be either in deep sleep or dead.

22. What generalization could be accurately said about hibernation and estivation?
a. Both use more energy than when the animal is awake.
b. Both are response to summer.
c. Both are response to winter.
d. Both are response to extreme temperature.

23. Which of the following facts about hibernation probably does not increase the animal’s chances
of survival?
Science II -4-
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a. The animal’s temperature drops

b. The animal exists on body fat.
c. The animal cannot move around.
d. The animal stays underground for a week time.

24. What is the function of nervous system?

a. to transport oxygen to the cells
b. to carry nerve impulses to the brain
c. to control all the organs of the body
d. to produce hormones to clot the blood

25. A new insecticide was very effective in killing flies and mosquitoes. After several months,
fewer insects were observed to die from the spray. The reason why fewer insects are killed is
that ___________.
a. Insects which survive the spraying developed a liking for the insecticide.
b. Insects which survive the spraying have developed immunity to the insecticide.
c. The insecticide’seffectiveness was reduced with aging
d. There is permanent mutation giving insects’ resistance to the insecticide.

26. Ferns, gymnosperms and flowering plants are vascular plants because __________________.
a. They are seed bearing plants
b. They developfroman embryo
c. They have specialized stems for storage
d. The have a water nutrient transport system

27. Bats are classified as mammals because they have __________.

a. feathers c. mammary gland
b. teeth d. beaks

28. Which of the following process maintains the carbon-oxygen cycle?

a. respiration
b. decomposition
c. decomposition
d. photosynthesis

29. What best describes a cold blooded animal?

a. the blood is cold
b. first order consumers
c. thrive in cod environment
d. body fluid temperature adapts to environment

30. What type of reproduction involves gametes?

a. fusion c. asexual
b. sexual d. fission
Science II -5-
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Science II -6-
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SCIENCE PROFICIENCY
(Chemistry)

BEGIN HERE:

1. A gas measures 100 mL at 26 C and 1atm. What will be its volume at 13 C and 0.5 atm?
a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 200

2. Given the following electron configuration, determine the group number and period number of
the element.
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5

a. Period 4, Group 5 c. Period 3, Group 7

b. Period 5, Group 4 d. Period 7, Group 3

3. Balance the following chemical equations:

C6H12O4 + O2 CO2 + H 2O

a. C6H12O4 + 15/2O2 6 CO2 + 7H2O

b. 2C6H12O4 + 15 O2 12CO2 + 14H2O
c. 4C6H12O4 + 30 O2 24CO2 + 26H2O
d. C6H12O4 + 15 O2 6 CO2 + 7 H2O

4. Cyanogen (C2N2) can be prepared by a catalyzed phase reaction between HCN and NO2. The
products of the reaction are C2N2, NO, and H2O. What is the balanced chemical reaction?

a. 4 HCN + 2 NO2 2 C2N2 + 4NO + 2H2O

b. 2 HCN + NO2 C2 N 2 + NO + H2O

Science III -1-

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c. 4 HCN + NO3 2 C2N2 + NO + 2H2O

d. 2 HCN + 3 NO2 C2N2 + 3NO + H2O

5. A chemical bond is an attractive force that holds atoms together. What type of chemical bond
which refers to the electrovalent or electrostatic attraction between positive and negative
ions?
a. Ionic Bond
b. Crystal Lattice
c. Covalent Bond
d. Polar Covalent Bond

For nos 6- 8, Fill the table below.

Element Mass # Atomic # Proton # Electron # Neutron #

Radon (6) 53 (7) (8) 74

a. 53 b. 74 c. 106 d. 127

For nos. 9 – 12 refer to the choices below

a. Combination c. Single Replacement
b. Decomposition d. Double Replacement

9. FeCl 2 + Na3PO4 Fe (PO4)2 + NaCl

10. CaCO3 CaO + CO2

11. Mg + N2 Mg3N2

12. Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2

13. What volume of HCl is neeed to prepare 3L of 3 molar hydrochloric acid from 6 molar
solution?
a. 1.0 L c. 2.0 L
b. 1.5 L d. 2.5 L

Nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas to produce ammonia as shown in the following equation:

Science III -2-

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N2 + 3H2 2NH3

14. How many moles of H2 are needed to react with 2.5 mole N2?
a. 2.5 c. 7.5
b. 5.0 d. 10.0

15. From the answer in no. 14, how many grams of H2 will be produced?
a. 2.5 c. 7.5
b. 5.0 d. 10.0

16. A gas measures 450 mL at a temp of 30C, what will be its volume at 50 C?
a. 250 mL c. 750mL
b. 500 mL d. 1000mL

17. A mixture shows the following properties: Its particles do not settle down, can not be
filtered, and cannot be seen by the naked eye. The mixture does not show the Tyndall
effect. Which of the following best describe this mixture?
a. homogeneous c. colloid
b. solution d. suspension

18. If the volume of one mole of gas molecules remains constant, lowering the temperature will
make the pressure
a. increase c. increase then decrease
b. decrease d. decrease then increase

19. What happens to the volume of a confined gas if its pressure is doubled and its temperature
remains constant?
a. increase c. will remain the same
b. decrease d. all of the above

20. The formula that indicates the local number of atoms of the elements in a compound is the
a. empirical formula c. structural formula
b. molecular formula d. simplest formula

21. What chemical equation will represent the reaction of MgCl2 and KOH?
a. MgK + HCl
b. Mg + KCl2 + H2O
c. MgO + K + HCl
d. Mg(OH)2 + KCl

Science III -3-

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22. Which of the following statement is true?

a. Orbitals make up a subshell; subshells make up a shell.
b. Subshells make up a shell; shells make up an orbital.
c. Shells make up an orbital; orbitals make up a subshelll.
d. None of the above.

23. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. Molarity
b. Molality
c. Normality
d. Acidity

24. If 50 g of reactants are used up in a reaction, what will be the mass of the products?
a. 25 c. 45
b. 30 d. 50

25. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?

a. burning paper
b. rusting of metal
c. ripening of fruit
d. freezing carbon dioxide

26. Which of the following is true about sub atomic particles, mass number and atomic number?
a. mass number is equal to the number of neutron
b. proton plus electron is equal to the mass number
c. atomic number is equal to the number of protons
d. neutron number can be calculated given only the mass number

27. In a compound, the sum of the total positive oxidation numbers and negative oxidation
numbers must be equal to _____________.
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

28. Atoms of the same elements having the same atomic number can have different mass
number due to differences in their number of neutrons. These atoms are _______.
a. neutrons b. protons c. isotopes d. isomers

29. Random movement of particles is least observable in what phase of matter?

a. gas b. plasma c. solid d. liquid

30. What are electrons found in an incomplete outer shell of an atom called?

Science III -4-

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a. electronegativity c. lone pair

b. electron configuration d. valence electrons

Science III -5-

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SCIENCE PROFICIENCY
(Physics)

BEGIN HERE:

1. A vector is a quantity with both magnitude and direction. Which of the following is not a
vector?
a. displacement c. speed
b. force d. acceleration

2. A moving object possesses acceleration if a change in a velocity is observed. Which of the

following does not illustrate acceleration?
a. A cart moving downhill on a mountain slope
b. A ball thrown upwards
c. A book on the table
d. A car running along a curve

3. Newton (N) is the metric standard unit of force. This is defined to be _______.
a. kg/L c. kg·m/s2
2
b. kg·m d. kg·m/s

4. Dante walks 0.5 Km north. Starting from the same point, Richie walks 1.2 Km east. What
would be the distance separating the two boys?
a. 0.7 Km c. 1.1 Km
b. 0.9 Km d. 1.3 Km

5. A rally driver has 5 seconds to stop his car which traveling at a speed of 20 m/s. What is his
average acceleration?
a. 4 m/s2 c. 1 m/s2
2
b. 3 m/s d. 0.25 m/s2

Science IV -1-
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6. What force is needed to make a 2 kg rock accelerate at 0.5 m/s2?

a. 1 N c. 3 N
b. 2 N d. 4 N

7. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?

I. Statics involves the study of the forces acting on a body that is at rest or is moving in a
straight line with constant speed.
II. Dynamics is the study of forces acting on a body that are in equilibrium.
III. Statics is the branch of mechanics that studies the forces that affect the motion of an object.

a. I only c. III only

b. II only d. I and II only

8. What is the study under dynamics which deals with the space-time relationship in bodies
that are in motion?
a. Mechanics c. kinematics
b. Static d. kinetics

9. What is the centripetal force acting on a 100 kg car negotiating a circular curve of radius 60
meters at a speed of 30 m/s?
a. 15 KN c. 30 KN
b. 25 KN d. 45 KN

10. “For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.” If a baseball player hits a ball
with a bat – and the “action” is said to be the impact of the bat against the ball – what is its
“opposite reaction?”
a. The grip of the player’s hand on the bat.
b. The air resistance on the ball.
c. The force of the ball against the bat.
d. Muscular effort in the player’s arm.

11. A block weighing 200 N lies on a plane inclined 20o with the horizontal. What force tends to
pull the block down the plane?
a. F = (200)(sin 20o)
b. F = (200)(cos 20o)
200
c. F=
sin 20 0
200
d. F=
cos 20 0
Science IV -2-
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12. If speed is defined as the quantitative measure of the change of an object’s position over a
certain amount of time, what is said to be the speed of an object at any particular moment?
a. average speed
b. ordinary speed
c. uniform speed
d. instantaneous speed

13. The movement of a body launched in space without its motive power, and travels freely
under the action of gravity and air resistance alone is called _____________.
a. rectilinear motion
b. uniform circular motion
c. projectile motion
d. horizontal motion

For numbers 14 -15, refer to the figures below. The following are distance and time readings of a
traveling car.

M M M M
E E E E
T T T T
E E E E
R R R R
S S S S

SECONDS SECONDS SECONDS SECONDS

a. b. c. d.

14. Which illustrates the car at rest?

15. Which illustrates traveling at constant velocity?

16. Newton’s First Law of motion is called the Law of Inertia. Which of the following does not
illustrate Inertia?

a. A tanker in full speed turning it engine in reverse an hour before reaching the port.
b. A train slowing down before reaching the station.
c. A ball falling from an airplane.
d. A man on a bus being “pushed” backward when the bus starts moving.

Science IV -3-
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on our wall.

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visit the Academic-Clinic website. Tell your friends and classmates to come find and join us. The more,
the merrier. Good luck!
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College entrance exam and science high school entrance test tips. Conquer UPCAT, ACET, USTET,
DLSUCET, PSHS-NCE, and other entrance tests.

17. What horizontal force is necessary to press a 15 kg block against a vertical wall to prevent it
from slipping? Assume that the coefficient of static friction between the block and the wall is
0.25.
a. 600 N c. 400 N
b. 500 N d. 300 N

18. Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity of an object over change in time. Based
from this statement, what is the equation for the final velocity of an object?
a. Vf = Vi + a∆t c. Vf = 2Vi + a∆t
b. Vf = Vi – a∆t d. Vf = Vi2 + 2a∆t

19. A 2-meter long uniform seesaw is supported at its center. A 500 N boy sits 20 cm from the
left endpoint of the seesaw. How far from the other side of the seesaw should a 1 500 N
man sit so that the seesaw remains in a horizontal position?
a. 20 cm c. 60 cm
b. 40 cm d. 80 cm

20. The law of conservation of energy states that the total energy of the system is constant.
What relation does the kinetic and potential energy in one system possess?
a. KE > PE c. KE = PE
b. KE < PE d. KE = -PE

21. What is the kinetic energy of a 500-kg car moving at 3.0 m/s?
a. 1.50 kJ c. 2.00 kJ
b. 1.75 kJ d. 2.25 kJ

22. According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum of a system is
conserved. What happens when two bodies of equal masses and equal speeds collide?
a. They bounce back with the same speed and distance.
b. They stick together.
c. They bounce sideways.
d. Could not be determined.

23. Pressure waves of frequencies above the audible frequencies are called ___________.
a. infrasonic c. mega sonic
b. supersonic d. ultrasonic

24. Refraction is the bending of light. Like for example, a fish might look much nearer to the
surface than it really is. Why is this so?
a. Because light bounces off the ocean floor.
b. Because the fish moves too fast.

Science IV -4-
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Discuss UPCAT and other college entrance exam questions and answers at Academic-Clinic’s Facebook
Page. We encourage you to answer the questions we post there and actively participate in the discussions
on our wall.

For UPCAT, ACET, DLSUCET and USTET tips, tricks, news and other college entrance exam information,
visit the Academic-Clinic website. Tell your friends and classmates to come find and join us. The more,
the merrier. Good luck!
Academic-
Academic-Clinic.com
The achiever’s guide to academic life and beyond…
Website: http://academic-clinic.com
Facebook: http://www.facebook.com/academic.clinic
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College entrance exam and science high school entrance test tips. Conquer UPCAT, ACET, USTET,
DLSUCET, PSHS-NCE, and other entrance tests.

c. Because light travels at a different speed on water.

d. This phenomenon is not true.

25. When Ryota looked at himself in the mirror, he look taller then he expected. Why is this so?
a. The mirror was concave.
b. The mirror was convex.
c. The mirror was taller.
d. The mirror has nothing to do with it.

26. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about electromagnetic waves?

a. They are produced by moving charges.
b. They are transverse waves.
c. They require a medium for transmission
d. They travel with the same speed in the absence of vacuum.

27. __________ is an interaction with matter in which transverse waves are restricted to a
particular plane of vibration.
a. Polarization c. refraction
b. reflection d. optical illusion

28. What property/characteristic of sound do we perceive as volume?

a. Wave length
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Pitch

29. What is the difference between the speed of sound and the speed of light?
a. Sound is 740 mph faster than light.
b. Light is 17860 mph faster than sound.
c. Sound is equal the speed of light.
d. Light is 740 mph faster than sound.

30. In the color spectrum, the colors are enumerated in increasing__________.

a. Frequency
b. Wavelength
c. Energy
d. penetrability

Science IV -5-
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Page. We encourage you to answer the questions we post there and actively participate in the discussions
on our wall.

Compiled UPCAT Questions

Downloadable e-Book

This book cannot be redistributed without permission from Review Masters.
Review Masters is a division of KB Tutorial and Consulting Corp.
This book is given free of charge and is not for sale.
More info at: https://www.upcatreview.com

For INFO and UPDATES, check out www.upcatreview.com, the

official website of the Online UPCAT Review®

Keep updated about UPCAT materials, reviewers, tips and news

Copyright © 2015 Review Masters - https://www.upcatreview.com
The Compiled UPCAT Questions is a collection of UPCAT review
questions put together by former UP Proctors and Examiners
throughout the years.

It is by no means a leakage… it’s just a compilation based on the

feedbacks of students about the test. There is no guarantee that the
same questions will appear in the next UPCAT. However, studying
these questions will give you an idea of what the UPCAT contains and
how to go about it.

So why are we giving this for free?

I’ll cut the chase and get straight to the point. By giving you the
Compiled UPCAT Questions for free, you will know that we are
providing you quality materials that you can use right away.

We want you to trust us.

We want to build a relationship with you. And through our materials

and review program, we want you to pass UPCAT and other college
entrance tests.

That’s why we want you to enroll in the Review Masters UPCAT

Review Program.

We believe that through the complete UPCAT review program, you

can be more prepared to take the UPCAT and other entrance exams.

In addition to this, we want you to have an idea of what questions

and topics to expect when you take the UPCAT. It’s better to be
prepared than to be caught off-guard.
Thousands of students have already passed UP by using the Review
Masters website (www.upcatreview.com) and materials (we have
about 2000 passers for the past 3 years). Now your time has come
to be one of them.

How to use this material

What I suggest is that you print this compiled UPCAT Questions and
then answer it as if you are taking the exam. Give yourself about 30
minutes for the test.

After answering, check your work using the provided answer key.
You may visit our Facebook page if ever you have questions on some
of the items in the compilation.

You may also go to the Online Review Portal to take an automated

version of the test.

But the most important thing that you really

need…
Reviewing for the test is just one of the factors so you can pass the
UPCAT. But I believe that the most essential factor that you need in
order to pass UP is your strong DaD – DESIRE and
DETERMINATION. No amount of review can help you if you do not
want to pass and you are not determined to do everything to succeed.

So do everything to prepare yourself for UPCAT. Enroll in our review

program. We at Review Masters are here to help you Pass UPCAT –
the Sure Way!

All for the best!

- The Review Masters Team

Synonyms. Select the word or phrase which is

similar in meaning to the italicized word in the
phrase.

1. arduous task of rehabilitation 7. languish in pain

A. challenging A. become weak

B. difficult B. flourish
C. straightforward C. faint
D. exigent D. vulnerable

2. deleterious effect on the environment 8. alab ng puso

A. beneficial A. pighati
B. devastating B. sakit
C. developmental C. damdamin
D. harmful D. poot

3. desists foreign invasion 9. pasan ko ang daigdig

A. embrace A. dala-dala
B. stop B. mayaman ako
C. continue C. kuba ako
D. welcome D. marami akong problema

4. exemplary services of the journalists 10. busilak na puso

A. cautionary A. mapula
B. commendable B. madugo
C. prolific C. malinis
D. fraudulent D. maramdamin

5. devoid of tactical planning

A. critical
B. present
C. lacking 11. bitterness evoked by the war
D. comprehensive
A. resentment
6. fickle-minded policy maker B. kindness
C. awareness
A. enigmatic D. lessons
B. charismatic
C. treacherous 12. committee members acceded
D. indecisive
A. approved
Compiled UPCAT Questions / Volume 3 www.upcatreview.com

B. granted
C. amended A. mapagbigay
D. antagonized B. madamot
C. malupit
13. extricate himself from the issue D. bigo

A. excuse
B. entangle
C. exempt
D. spare

14. benign acts of charity

A. compassionate 21.
B. sympathy A. ocasion
C. apathy B. occasion
D. antipathy C. occassion
D. ocassion
15. altruistic goals
22.
A. selfish A. lightwieght
B. unselfish B. lightweigth
C. ambitious C. lieghtweight
D. loud D. lightweight

16. achievements were applauded 23.

A. rythm
A. celebrated B. rhytm
B. reprimanded C. rhythm
C. censured D. rhythym
D. admonished
24.
17. defiled by his opponents A. privilege
B. priviledge
A. respected C. privelege
B. tarnished D. priveledge
C. maligned
D. criticized 25.
A. accomodate
18. tugatog ng tagumpay B. accommodate
C. acommodate
A. rurok D. acomoddate
B. katuparan
C. ilalim
D. nakalalasing

19. mapag-alinlangang puso

26. Ms. Dinna Lee-Go does not _____ Metro
A. nag-aatubili Manila Development Authority’s plan of
B. mapagduda bulldozing the Katipunan Avenue islands in
C. mapagmahal the name of traffic decongestion..
D. sigurado
A. agree with
20. walang puwang sa kapatawaran B. agree on

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C. agree in
D. agree about 33. Berto wore a thin sport shirt, Nike warm-up
pants, and shower clogs when I visited _____
27. _____ peso you pay for a National unannounced.
Geographic magazine goes to the research
project on wildlife, like the research on A. he
anacondas. B. him
C. his
A. Each D. himself
B. Every
C. Even 34. Adel, _____ perseverance is unwavering, has
D. Except a bright future ahead of her.

28. Azerbaijanis have _____ hope that their A. who

crops will grow again in the oil-polluted land B. which
in Baku. C. who’s
D. whose
A. few
B. little 35. Miguel has _____ big since I last saw him.
C. pieces of
D. many A. grow
B. grew
29. The music _____ of the ceremony should C. growed
therefore be expressions which glorify the D. grown
Lord rather than just the bride and groom.
36. ______ siya ng gatas araw-araw.
A. select
B. selector A. Nag-inom
C. selective B. Umiinom
D. selection C. Iniinom
D. Ininom
30. The list was compiled through the _____ of
the collector. 37. Gaya ______ nakasanayan, namimitas ang
magpipinsan ng bulaklak tuwing hapon
A. kind para ilagay sa altar.
B. kindly
C. kindness A. ng
D. kinder B. nang
C. na
31. Nearly all _____ demand observance of the D. na ang
standard punctuation.
38. Kinuha ______ ang mga kabibe mula sa
A. editor-in-chief tabing dagat.
B. editors-in-chief
C. editor-in-chiefs A. nila
D. editors-in-chiefs B. sila
C. kanila
32. The _____ were grazing when the lion D. siya
attacked.
39. Hindi makatulog ang bisita dahil ______.
A. deer
B. deers A. namamahay
C. doe B. kapitbahay
D. fawn C. binabahay

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D. bahay-bahayan B. Sina
C. Sila
40. _______ Ningning at Daniel ang naatasang D. Siya
mamuno sa pagpupulong.

A. Si
Identifying Errors. Choose the letter of the underlined portion that contains an error.

41. He went into his room, closed the door, opened the window and goes to bed. No error
A B C D

42. Some of the boys who plays basketball also like to play football. No error
A B C D

43. You and I should make a pact. No error

A B C D

44. When you pass the UPCAT, one should be proud. No error
A B C D

45. Neither Kate or Sarah likes the dessert prepared by the chef. No error
A B C D

46. As dedicated barrio doctors, Jovi and Kenneth plans to become members of the relief team
A B

to be sent to Aurora. No error

47. Ilagay mo ng maayos ang lumang pigurin sa ibabaw ng eskaparate. Walang mali
A B C D

48. Natatakpan ng kadiliman ang iba’t-ibang makukulay na larawan. Walang mali

A B C D

49. Napagalaman na nakipagsabwatan siya sa kanyang tauhan upang maikubli ang katiwaliang
A B C

kanyang ginawa. Walang mali

50. Magpahinga ka na at pahiran mo ang pawis na nasa iyong batok. Walang mali
A B C D

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Reading Comprehension. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Leslie Cheung—movie star and pop idol turned 46 last September, and he will stay that age. But
he chose a drastic method of shaving off wrinkles, a potbelly, the whims of fickle public. Last Tuesday
he scheduled a tea with his friend and former agent, Chan Suk-fan, at a favorite haunt, the Mandarin
Oriental Hotel. When he didn’t show, Chan called Leslie, who was on the terrace of the hotel’s 24th-
floor gym. He said he’d meet her outside; he’d be right down. It, as a final tease — a sick joke, really —
for when Chan came out she found his body on the pavement. He had leapt to his death.—Richard
Corliss, Time April 14, 2003

51. The title that best describes the theme of the paragraph is:

A. Fatal Step
B. To Fall from a Great Height
C. Falling Star
D. Fallen Angel

52. The word haunt means:

A. hunted house
B. trouble
C. domicile
D. hang out

53. The author’s tone in writing is

A. Sarcastic
B. Bewildered
C. Melancholic
D. Amused

It was a visiting friend—translator and academic Ubaldo Stecconi—who pointed the sign out to
me at UP Shopping Center, Ubaldo’s favorite spot, he says in the whole UP campus: WANTED: FISHBALL
AND QUIKIAM VENDOR. BRING BIO-DATA AND PICTURE. CALL 433-XXXX.

Had fishball and quikiam vending become so professionalized, Ubaldo mused, that it now
requires a c.v. to join the trade? More interestingly, what kinds of entries and references would go into a
winning fishball resumé?—Butch Dalisay, The Philippine Star, May 5, 2003

54. What is a related meaning of c.v.?

A. resumé
B. translator
C. trade
D. entries

55. The author states that Ubaldo Stecconi is

A. Lover of fishball and quikiam

B. Translator and academic
C. Human resource officer
D. Businessman

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56. The author’s attitude is best described as

A. Puzzled
B. Joyful
C. Sarcastic
D. Sad

57. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the article

A. Quikiam and Fishball: Interesting Foods

B. Wanted: Pro Vendor
C. My Fishball Resumé
D. The Bio-data of a Translator

I. Design and Human Perception

A. Visual Perception
B. Visual Impressions

II. Elements of Design

A. Point
B. Line
C. Two-Dimensional Forms
D. Three-Dimensional Forms

III. Design Concepts

A. Size
B. Scale
C. Proportion
D. Harmony
E. Contrast
F. Balance
G. Rhythm
H. Emphasis
I. Pattern and Ornament
J. Design as an Expressive Medium

58. The main idea of the outline is:

A. Interior Design
B. Design Basics
C. Design and Human Perception
D. Design as an Expressive Medium

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59. The main heading on Design Concepts includes:

A. Size and Line

B. Point and Line
C. Visual Perception and Visual Impression
D. Size and Scale

60. If an additional subheading on Unity will be included in the outline, what main heading will it
belong?

A. Design as an Expressive Medium

B. Design Concepts
C. Elements of Design
D. Design and Human Perception

Si Louie Beltran na kinikilalang Dekano ng “Print & Broadcast Media” ay sadyang isang
napakahusay na commentator. Siya’y kolumnista ng isang kilalang pahayagan, ang Inquirer.
Tinatalakay niya ang mga isyu ng bayan o kaganapang nangyayari sa sandaigdigan. Ito’y
isinasagawa niya ng maayos, walang kinikilingan at naaayon sa batas ng mass media. Ganoon din
and paghahatid at pagbibigay niya ng komentryo sa kanyang panlinggong programa—“Ang Brigada
Siete” ng Channel 7. Huwag nang banggitin ang pang-umagang programa sa DZBB.

Subalit anumang pag-iingat at paghahabi ng mga salita, hindi maiiwasang ikaw ay

makasagasa o makasakit ng damdamin ng ibang tao. Ito’y naganap nang mailathala niya sa Inquirer
ang tungkol sa pagtatago diumano ng dating Pangulong Aquino sa ilalim ng kama nang maganap
ang isang kudeta noong taong 1988.

Siya’s humingi ng paumanhin sa dating Pangulo subalit natuloy pa rin ang pagsasampa ng
kasong libelo laban kay Louie Beltran.

61. Sino si Louie Beltran?

A. Kinikilang Dekano ng “Print & Broadcast Media”

B. Isang magaling na tagapag-ulat
C. Kinikilalang Dekano sa Channel 7
D. Tagapamahala ng Inquirer

62. Anong uri siya na mamamahayag?

A. Matapat
B. Magaling maghabi ng salita
C. Walang kinikilingan
D. Mahusay makisama

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63. Ano ang dahilan ng pagsampa ng kasong libelo ng dating Pangulong Aquino laban ay Louie
Beltran?

A. Pag-akusa kay dating Pangulong Aquino ng pagtatago sa ilalim ng mesa nuong kudeta nuong
1988
B. Pag-akusa kay dating Pangulong Aquino ng pangungurakot nuong 1988
C. Pag-akusa kay dating Pangulong Aquino ng pagtatago sa ilalim ng kama nuong kudeta nuong
1988
D. Pag-askusa kay dating Pangulong Aquino ng pandaraya sa eleksyon nuong 1988

64. Anong pangalan ng programa ni Louie Beltran sa telebesyon?

A. Imbistigador
B. Saksi
C. Inquirer
D. Ang Brigada Siete

65. Ano ang nangyari sa gawaing komentaryo ni Louie Beltran sa dating Pangulong Aquino?

A. Nagsampa ng kasong libelo si dating Pangulong Aquino laban kay Louie Beltran
B. Humingi ng tawad si Louie Beltran kay Kris Aquino
C. Nagpahayag si Louie Beltran sa Inquirer ng maling paghusga kay dating Pangulong Aquino
D. Humingi ng paumanhin sa publiko si Louie Beltran

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ANSWER KEY:

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Compiled UPCAT Questions

Downloadable e-Book

Second Edition
Copyright © 2015, 2018 Review Masters - https://www.upcatreview.com
This book cannot be redistributed without permission from Review Masters.
Review Masters is a division of KB Tutorial and Consulting Corp.
This book is given free of charge and is not for sale.
More info at: https://www.upcatreview.com

For INFO and UPDATES, check out www.upcatreview.com, the

official website of the Online UPCAT Review®

Keep updated about UPCAT materials, reviewers, tips and news

Copyright © 2015, 2018 Review Masters - https://www.upcatreview.com
The Compiled UPCAT Questions is a collection of UPCAT review questions
put together by former UP Proctors and Examiners throughout the years.

It is by no means a leakage… it’s just a compilation based on the

feedbacks of students about the test. There is no guarantee that the same
questions will appear in the next UPCAT. However, studying these
questions will give you an idea of what the UPCAT contains and how to go
about it.

So why are we giving this for free?

I’ll cut the chase and get straight to the point. By giving you the Compiled
UPCAT Questions for free, you will know that we are providing you
quality materials that you can use right away.

We want you to trust us.

We want to build a relationship with you. And through our materials and
review program, we want you to pass UPCAT and other college entrance
tests.

That’s why we want you to enroll in the Review Masters UPCAT Review
Program.

We believe that through the complete UPCAT review program, you can be
more prepared to take the UPCAT and other entrance exams.

In addition to this, we want you to have an idea of what questions and

topics to expect when you take the UPCAT. It’s better to be prepared than
to be caught off-guard.

Thousands of students have already passed UP by using the Review

Masters website (https://www.upcatreview.com) and materials (we have
about 2000 passers for the past 3 years). Now your time has come to be
one of them.

How to use this material

What I suggest is that you print this compiled UPCAT Questions and then
answer it as if you are taking the exam. Give yourself about 1 ½ hours for
the test.

After answering, check your work using the provided answer key. You
may visit our Facebook page if ever you have questions on some of the
items in the compilation.

You may also go to the Online Review Portal to take an automated version
of the test.

But the most important thing that you really

need…
Reviewing for the test is just one of the factors so you can pass the UPCAT.
But I believe that the most essential factor that you need in order to pass
UP is your strong DaD – DESIRE and DETERMINATION. No amount of
review can help you if you do not want to pass and you are not
determined to do everything to succeed.

So do everything to prepare yourself for UPCAT. Enroll in our review

program. We at Review Masters are here to help you Pass UPCAT – the
Sure Way!

All for the best!

- The Review Masters Team -

Compiled UPCAT Questions / Volume 1 www.upcatreview.com

5. 2 − 7 − 8 − 14 =
Choose the letter of the best answer.
A. – 11
1 1 B. –1
1. 15 − 5 =
3 2 C. 1
D. 11
2
A. 8
3
1 6. What is the product of -1.54 and -
B. 9 1.64?
3
5 A. 252.56
C. 9
6 B. 25.256
1 C. 2.5256
D. 10
3 D. – 2.5256

16 7. –4 [8 – (5 – 2)] –3 =
2. =
5
A. 15
A. 3.2% B. 17
B. 3.25% C. -17
C. 32.5% D. -23
D. 320%
8. (x3y2)4 =
3. 5.75 = _____
A. x7y6
A. 11/2 B. x12y8
B. 17/3 C. x8y6
C. 23/4 D. x3y8
D. 29/5
9. Which of the following has the
1 lowest value?
4. Divide 42 by 3
3
3
3 A.
A. 12 8
5
B. 0.22
2
B. 14 2
3 C.
25
C. 15
D. 10%
1
D. 16
5

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10. Which of the following has the 3 5 7 9

14.    =
largest value? 5 7 9 11

A. 0.7 3
B. 0.77 A.
11
C. 0.777
15
D. 0.077 B.
99
63
C.
11. (42) (52) 35
105
D.
A. 92 385
B. 94
C. 200
D. 400 ?
15. = 0.875
32
12. Which of the following has the A. 16
greatest value? B. 18
C. 24
2 D. 28
A.
3
5
B.
8 4 1 3 41
16. + + = ,x=?
3 5 2 x 20
C.
4
D. 0.675 A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
13. Which of the following fractions has D. 7
the smallest value?

7 m
A. 17. If = 0.625 , what is the numerical
4 24
8 value of m?
B.
5
27 A. 12
C. B. 13
20
C. 14
67
D. D. 15
60

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18. What part of y is x? 22. 42 + 40 + 4-4 =

1
A. 16
A. xy 4
x 1
B. B. 17
y 4
y C. 12
C.
x D. 13
1
D.
xy
23. 0.489 x 0.592 x 0.798 x 0.875 x 0.23
is approximately equal to
19. Which of the following groups of
2
numbers are multiples of 6 between A.
81 and 100? 25
7
B.
A. 84, 90 125
B. 86, 92 1
C.
C. 84, 90, 96 5
D. 86, 92, 98 27
D.
625
m−n 2
20. What is the value of when m 24. What is 75% of ?
m+n 3
1 3
equals and n equals ?
3 4 2
A.
3
2
A. − B.
3
7 4
5
B. − C.
1
13 2
1
C. − 3 D.
1
2 3
3
D. − 2
5
25. The product of -3 and -6 is how
much larger than the sum of -2 and -
21. 20 is 125% of what number? 7?

A. 7 A. 9
B. 9 B. 12
C. 10 C. 15
D. 16 D. 27

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26. Which expression has the largest 31. If a and b are both odd numbers,
value? then which of the following must be
an odd number?
A. 7
A. a+b
B. 7 − 2 B. ab + 1
C. 2 − 7 C. 2a + 4b
D. a+b+3
D. − 7 + 2

27. What is the weight, in kilograms of 32. Last week, Vince read from page
26 sacks of sugar if 156 sacks 139 to page 225 inclusive in his
weigh 12 kg? History book. How many pages did
he read?
A. 2
B. 3 A. 86
C. 4 B. 87
D. 5 C. 88
D. 89

28. 64 x 7 =
33. Anne will be P years old in Q years.
Her age R years ago was
A. 8x 3
B. 4x 3 A. P+Q–R
C. 8x 2 x B. P–Q+R
D. 8x 3 x C. P+Q+R
D. P–Q–R

29. If m – 4 = 9, then 3m – 5 =
34. If a jeepney ride costs P8.50 for the
A. 10 first four kilometers and P1.50 for
B. 17 each additional kilometer or fraction
C. 20 thereof, then how much would a
D. 34 passenger pay for a 12 km ride?

A. P10.00
30. The point with coordinates (-5, 3) is B. P18.00
in quadrant C. P18.50
D. P20.50
A. I
B. II
C. III 35. (5x2 – 4x + 3) – (3x2 +4x – 3) =
D. IV
A. 2x2
B. – 2x2
C. 2x2 – 8x
D. 2x2 – 8x + 6

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36. If 6x – 15 < 4 + 5, then 41. What percent profit was made on a

A. x > 6 pair of pants that was bought for
B. x < 6 P250 and sold for P350?
C. x < 4
D. x < –4 A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
37. How far can Jaiah go on her scooter D. 40%
from 3:35 p.m. to 4:15 p.m. at 30 km
per hour?
42. If y < – 2, which of the following
A. 20 km must have the greatest value?
B. 18 km
C. 17 ½ km 2
A.
D. 16 km y
y
B.
a a 2
38. − = 2
b c C.
y +1
1 2
A. D.
bc y −1
a
B.
b−c
ab − ac 43. (3x + 2)(4x – 5) =
C.
bc
A. 12x2 – 10x
ac − ab
D. B. 12x2 + 10x – 0
bc C. 12x2 – 7x – 10
D. 12x2 – 23x – 10

39. 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, ?

44. If 0.002x = 2, then 2.2x =
A. 175
B. 201 A. 2002
C. 216 B. 2020
D. 225 C. 2200
D. 2202

40. Which equation is not satisfied by x

= –3?

A. x2 – x – 6 = 0
B. x2 + x – 6 = 0
C. x2 – 9 = 0
D. x2 + 6x + 9 = 0

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m−n n−m 49. Mark Caguioa scored an average of

45. Find the value of + if m
m n 29 for his first three games and an
is 20 and n is 10. average of 32 for his next four
games; then his average so far is
A. –½ about
B. 0
C. ½ A. 28
D. 1 B. 29
C. 30
D. 31
y −1
46.
y2 −1
50. Ning is 8 years younger than her
brother Michael. Twenty-eight years
1 ago, she was half as old as Michael.
A.
y How old is Michael now?
1
B. A. 44
y +1
B. 42
1
C. C. 40
y −1 D. 36
1
D. 2
y
51. If the triangle below is an isosceles
with a as the vertex angle, which set
47. What is the average of all even of numbers could be values of a, b,
integers from 2 to 40? and c respectively?

A. 20 A. (50, 65, 65) a

B. 21 B. (50, 50, 80)
C. 22 C. (50, 60, 70)
D. 23 D. (70, 60, 60)
b c

52. What is the area of a square

48. Review Masters increases its inscribed in a circle having a
enrollees by 25% yearly. What is the diameter of 4 cm?
ratio of the enrollees in one year to
the enrollees in the previous year? A. 4 cm2
B. 8 cm2
A. 1:4 C. 4 cm2
B. 4:1 D. 8 cm2
C. 5:4
D. 4:5

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53. A triangle has the following points 57. A telephone pole is 9 meters tall.
as vertices: (0, 0), (3, 4), and (6, 0). What is the length of a piece of wire
This triangle is which extends from the top of the
pole to a point that is 12 meters
A. a scalene triangle from the base of the pole?
B. an isosceles triangle
C. a right triangle A. 21
D. an equilateral triangle B. 18
C. 15
D. 12
54. The diameter of a wheel is 6 cm.
How many complete revolutions will
the wheel make if it rolls a distance 58. If the measures of the angles of a
of 108 cm? triangle are in the ratio 2:3:4, what is
the degree measure of the smallest
A. 6 angle?
B. 12
C. 18 A. 20
D. 24 B. 30
C. 40
D. 60
55. The length, width, and height of a
large box are thrice those of a
smaller box. The volume of the large 59. The width of a rectangular rug is 4
box is feet. If the perimeter is 20 feet, what
is the length of the rug?
A. thrice that of the smaller box
B. 6 times that of the smaller box A. 4 feet
C. 9 times that of the smaller box B. 5 feet
D. 27 times that of the smaller box C. 6 feet
D. 16 feet

56. On a number line, if one endpoint of

a line segment is at –12, and its 60. If AC = 18, BE = 13, DE = 3 and D
midpoint is at –4, then the other is the midpoint of CE, what is AB?
endpoint is at A B C D E
A. 0
B. 12 A. 10
C. 8 B. 11
D. 4 C. 12
D. 13

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61. If four lines are drawn in a plane, 65. When the length of a rectangle is
what is the maximum possible divided by 4 and the width is tripled,
number of points of intersection of the area of the new rectangle is the
the lines? area of the original one multiplied by
____.
A. 4
B. 5 A. 4
C. 6 B. 3
D. 7 C. 2
D. ¾

62. The perimeter of a triangle is 90 cm.

The measure of the longest side is 6 66. In parallelogram WXYZ, V is the
less than the sum of the measures midpoint of ZY. The area of WZV
of the other two sides. Four times is what percent of the area of
the measure of the shortest side WXYZ?
equals the sum of the measures of Z V
Y
the other two sides. What is the A. 20%
length in cm of the shortest side of B. 25%
the triangle? C. 30%
D. 33%
A. 30 cm W X
B. 24 cm
C. 20 cm 67. The figure has four squares placed
D. 18 cm side by side. How many rectangles
are in the figure?

63. In the figure, KLMN is a A. 6

parallelogram with angle measures B. 8
as marked. Find x + y. C. 10
N D. 12
A. 75 M
x + 2y
B. 105
C. 115 68. An isosceles triangle with base 10
D. 120 cm has an area of 60 cm2. Find its
3x – 2y 105 perimeter.
K L
64. What is the sum of the measures of A. 18 cm
the angles of this polygon? B. 36 cm
C. 40 cm
A. 720 D. 48 cm
B. 900
C. 1080
D. 1260

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69. If the sides of a quadrilateral are 8, 73. If a triangle has sides 4, 8 and 11,
14, 12, and 20 cm and the longest which could be the sides of a similar
side of a similar quadrilateral is 30 triangle?
cm, how long is the shortest side of
this quadrilateral? A. (2, 4, 5 ½)
B. (8, 16, 24)
A. 5 cm C. (7, 11, 14)
B. 12 cm D. (2, 6, 9)
C. 15 cm
D. 16 cm
74. The area of the whole figure below
is 42. If four congruent squares
70. In the figure, the ratio of the area of each with a perimeter of 8 are cut to
triangle LEA to the area of rectangle form a cross as shown, what is the
LAST is area of the cross?
L A
A. 1:2 A. 20
B. 2:1 B. 24
C. 1:4 C. 26
D. 4:1 D. 30
T E S

71. Point A(5,3) is the midpoint of line 75. In the figure, if AO = 5 and OB = 3,
OAK, where O is at the origin. The what is the area of the shaded
coordinates of K are: region?

A. (2.5, 1.5) A. 16

B. (8, 8) B. 25
C. (-5, -3) C. 39 A O B
D. (10, 6) D. 64

72. The perimeter of a square is 24. 1

What is the length of a diagonal of 76. If , x = 1 − then x = _____.
1
this square? 1−
2
A. 6 6 A. –2
B. 6 2 B. –1
C. 2 C. 0
D. 24 2 D. 1

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77. Given: f(x) = 5x4 – 3x3 – x2 + 2x + 5. 81. If 2  a  4 and 3  b  6, what is the

Find f(–1) – f(1). greatest value of a2 – b2?

A. –1 A. –32
B. 0 B. –20
C. 1 C. 5
D. 2 D. 7

x
78. A biker took 2 hours to ride 24 km 82. The expression
( x + 9)( x − 5)
2

and then returned by the same

represents a real number for all real
route. If he rode at an average
values of x EXCEPT _____.
speed of 8 km/hr on the return trip,
what was his average speed in
A. –3
km/hr for the round trip?
B. 3
C. 5
A. 8
D. –5
B. 9.6
C. 10
D. 10.5
83. If (63)(55) = 25(30k), then what is the
value of k?

A. 3
79. If the sum of two positive integers is
B. 4
16 and the difference of their
C. 6
squares is 64, what is the difference
D. 8
of the two integers?

A. 32 84. Simplify: 4
27 x 2  9 x 4
B. 16
C. 8 A. 3x 3x
D. 4
B. 3x
C. 3 x
80. Find the value of q so that D. 4 3x
q
− 2 x = 3 has 4 as a root.
x
85. What is the remainder when 2x4 – x3
A. 4 + 3x – 1 is divided by x + 2?
B. 20
C. 38 A. 0
D. 44 B. 2
C. –2
D. 33

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86. If x = y + 4 and x = 20 – y, then what 90. Find the fourth term of the arithmetic
is the value of x2 – y2? progression x, y, 2y – x, . . .

A. 24 A. 2x – y
B. 80 B. 3x – y
C. 16 C. 3y – 2x
D. 5 D. 2x – 3y

91. For any real number x, (x-3)5 – (x –

87. The sum of squares of two numbers 2)(x – 3)4 = ____.
is 225 and the square of their sum is
441. What is the reciprocal of their A. –1
product? B. (x – 3)4
C. –(x – 3)4
A. 108 D. –5(x – 3)4
1
B. A
108
C. 216 92. Which of the following has the same
1 value as i62?
D.
216
A. i
B. –1
C. 1
88. If log10x + log108 = log1016, then x is
D. –i
equal to ____.

A. 2
93. The product of (–xm+1) and (–xm–1) is
B. 4
C. 8
A. x2m
D. 16
B. – x2m
C. xm–1
D. –xm+1
89. The solution set of 3y + 2x  2 does
NOT include points in quadrant
____.
94. If y is an integer and y + 3 > 0, what
is the least possible value of y?
A. I
B. II
A. –3
C. III
B. –2
D. IV
C. –1
D. 2

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95. 2(2x3) is equal to _________.

A. 4x3 99. If the reciprocal of x+1 is x – 1, then

B. 2x3 what is x?
C. 2x3 + 1
D. 2x3 + 2 A.  2
B. 2
C. 0
96. For what value of k does the graph D. 2
of y = x2 – 3x – k pass through the
point (–1, 2)?
100. If xy + yz + xz = –10 and xyz = 8,
A. 6 1 1 1
B. 2 then + + = ____ .
C. 0 x y z
D. –2
A. –80
5
B. −
4
97. If the ratio of x to y is 3:7, what is 4
C. −
the ratio of x+y to x? 5
4
A. 3:10 D.
5
B. 7:10
C. 10:3
D. 10:7

98. What is the x-intercept of the line 2x

+ 7y + 15 = 0?

15
A.
7
2
B.
15
15
C. −
2
D. 15

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Copyright © 2015 Review Masters - https://www.upcatreview.com
The Compiled UPCAT Questions is a collection of UPCAT review questions
put together by former UP Proctors and Examiners throughout the years.

It is by no means a leakage… it’s just a compilation based on the

feedbacks of students about the test. There is no guarantee that the same
questions will appear in the next UPCAT. However, studying these
questions will give you an idea of what the UPCAT contains and how to go
about it.

So why are we giving this for free?

I’ll cut the chase and get straight to the point. By giving you the Compiled
UPCAT Questions for free, you will know that we are providing you
quality materials that you can use right away.

We want you to trust us.

We want to build a relationship with you. And through our materials and
review program, we want you to pass UPCAT and other college entrance
tests.

That’s why we want you to enroll in the Review Masters UPCAT Review
Program.

We believe that through the complete UPCAT review program, you can be
more prepared to take the UPCAT and other entrance exams.

In addition to this, we want you to have an idea of what questions and

topics to expect when you take the UPCAT. It’s better to be prepared than
to be caught off-guard.
Thousands of students have already passed UP by using the Review
Masters website (www.upcatreview.com) and materials (we have about
2000 passers for the past 3 years). Now your time has come to be one of
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How to use this material

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answer it as if you are taking the exam. Give yourself about 1 hour for the
test.

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may visit our Facebook page if ever you have questions on some of the
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You may also go to the Online Review Portal to take an automated version
of the test.

But the most important thing that you really

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Reviewing for the test is just one of the factors so you can pass the UPCAT.
But I believe that the most essential factor that you need in order to pass
UP is your strong DaD – DESIRE and DETERMINATION. No amount of
review can help you if you do not want to pass and you are not
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So do everything to prepare yourself for UPCAT. Enroll in our review

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7. Which one of the following is not a physical

change?
1. In a solution the substance that does the
dissolving is called ______. A. clothes drying in the dryer
B. making a cup of coffee
A. soluble C. chopping wood
B. the solute D. boiling an egg
C. the solvent
D. an ion 8. The chemicals after a chemical change
______.
2. Water is a good solvent because ______.
A. have properties identical to the
A. Water is a good solvent because it is a chemicals before the change.
negatively charged ion. B. have properties different to the
B. Water is such a good solvent because it chemicals before the change.
repels most molecules. C. both A and B
C. Water is such a good solvent because it D. none of the above
is such a small molecule
D. Water is a good solvent due to its 9. Heptane is always composed of 84% carbon
polarity and small molecular size and 16% hydrogen by mass. What law does
this observation illustrate?
3. A solution that cannot hold any more solute
at room temperature would be ______. A. The Law of Multiple Proportions
B. The Law of Definite Proportions.
A. a dilute solution C. The Law of Conservation of Mass
B. a concentrated solution D. The Law of Conservation of Energy
C. a saturated solution
D. a supersaturated solution 10. Give the mass number for an atom that has
10 protons, 10 electrons, and 11 neutrons.
4. Ethanol dissolved in water would be an
example of ______. A. 31
B. 20
A. a solution between two miscible liquids C. 10
B. a solution between a solid and liquid D. 21
C. a suspension between two liquids
D. ethanol and water do not form a For Numbers 11 and 12, refer to the following
solution table:

5. To form a supersaturated solution requires Mass before the Mass after the
Substance
______. reaction (g) reaction (g)
W 6.0 0.0
A. reducing the amount of solute
Z 3.0 0.0
B. reducing the amount of solute
WZ 0.0 9.0
C. reducing the amount of solute
D. none of the above
11. How much of substance W will react with 9.0
6. Which one of the following is an example of g. of substance Z?
a physical change?
A. 9.0 g
A. iron rusting B. 12.0 g
B. a steak cooking C. 15.0 g
C. sugar dissolving in water D. 18.0 g
D. a candle burning

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12. The amount of substance WZ that will be In 150 cm3 water, how much of the
produced from 12.0g of substance Z substance will dissolve at 75˚ C?
assuming that substance W is in excess is
A. 18 g
A. 22.5 g B. 20 g
B. 27.0 g C. 36 g
C. 31.5 g D. 40 g
D. 36.0 g
Questions 17 and 18 refer to the diagram that
13. Which conditions will increase the rate of follows.
chemical reaction? + -
A. decreased temperature and decreased + -
concentration of reactants
B. decreased temperature and increased
concentration of reactants Cl- Cl-
C. increased temperature and decreased Na
concentration of reactants?
++
Na
Na
D. increased temperature and increased ++
++

concentration of reactants? Cl-

Na
++
14. When a lit match is touched to the wick of a water Cl -

candle, the candle begins to burn. When

the match is removed, the candle continues 17. After studying the illustration above, one
to burn. In this reaction, the match ______. may conclude that ______.

A. behaves as a catalyst. A. water molecules are attracted by the

B. supplies activation energy. electrodes
C. is part of the rate determining step. B. sodium chloride dissociates when
D. lowers the activation energy barrier. placed in water
C. chlorine ions are attracted to the
15. Compared to a glass of ice water with ice in negative electrode
it, a glass of plain ice-cold water without ice D. current flow cause an increase in water
on a warm day will warm up ______. temperature

A. faster 18. One may also conclude that ______.

B. slower
C. in the same amount of time A. only chlorine ions conduct current
D. none of the above B. the solution will not conduct current
C. the closed circuit illustrated results in
16. The solubility of a substance was neutrality
determined in 300 cm3 water at different D. when ions are present they are
temperatures and the following is part of the attracted to electrodes having opposite
graph obtained: electrical charges
m
For questions 19 and 20.

Jacques Charles was a French hot air

36 g
balloonist and scientist. He discovered Charles'
law by studying the relationship between the
volume and temperature of a gas at a constant
atmospheric pressure. As the temperature of
the gas in a balloon increased, its volume also
75˚ C T

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increased. These increases inflated and lifted 21. Unless an object at rest is acted upon by a
the balloon. force, it stays at rest due to its ______.

In equation form, for the case of a constant A. matter

pressure: B. inertia
C. friction
V/T = constant D. gravity

19. If the volume of a gas at a certain pressure is 22. Maron rode on his bike from 9:00 am to
halved, ______. 10:30 am. If he drove at an average speed
of 15kph, what was the total distance he
A. its temperature is halved covered?
B. its temperature is doubled
C. its temperature remains constant A. 17.5 km
D. its temperature increases according to a B. 22.5 km
geometric progression C. 27.5 km
D. 32.5 km
20. Which of the following graphs shows the
temperature-volume relationship for a gas? 23. A woman exerts a constant horizontal force
(T = temperature and V = volume) on a large box. As a result, the box moves
across a horizontal floor at a constant
T
A. velocity. The constant force by the woman
______.

A. has the same magnitude as the weight

of the box.
B. is greater than the weight of the box.
V C. has the same magnitude as the total
force which resists the motion of the box.
D. is greater than the total force which
B. T resists the motion of the box.

24. If the woman in question 23 suddenly stops

applying a horizontal force to the box, then
the box will ______.
V
A. immediately come to a stop.
B. continue moving at a constant speed
C. T for a while and then slow to a stop.
C. immediately start slowing to a stop.
D. continue at a constant speed.

25. The 0.20 kg block is attached to a spring

which has a spring constant of 20 N/m. The
V block is initially stretched 0.10 meters and
T released at time t = 0 seconds. Complete
D. the following statement: In order to increase
the frequency of the motion, one would
have to ______.

A. reduce the spring constant

V B. decrease the mass of the block on the
end of the spring
C. increase the length of the spring

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D. reduce the distance that the spring is 29. Two students are posed to dive off equal
initially stretched height diving towers to a swimming pool
below. Student B is twice as massive as
For questions 26-27, choose your answers to student A. Which of the following is true?
the next three questions from the velocity-
time graphs below. A. Student B will reach the water sooner
than student A.
A. V B. Both students have the same
gravitational potential energy.
C. Both students will have the same kinetic
energy just before hitting the water.
D. Student B did twice as much work
climbing the tower
T
30. Which of the following cases is/are NOT a
uniformly accelerated motion?
B. V (1) A feather falls from a certain height
inside a vacuum tube.
(2) A ball rolls along a frictionless plane at
uniform speed.
(3) A coin falls from a certain height in air
but air resistance is negligible.
T
V A. (1) only
C. B. (2) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (2) and (3) only

For questions 31 and 32, refer to the

following diagrams.
T

D. V
A
B water
water water
C

T 31. From the illustration, one can conclude that

______.
26. Which of the graphs shows a body moving
at constant speed? A. cube A has the least weight
B. cube C has the highest density
27. Which of the graphs shows a body moving C. cube A has the highest density
at high acceleration at the beginning then D. water has greater buoyant force than
starts to lose acceleration towards the end? cube A

28. The acceleration in a body is due to 32. Cube c sinks because ______.

A. balanced force A. it weighs much

B. unbalanced force B. it displaces much water
C. mass C. its weight is less than the weight of the
D. electrostatic force water it has displaced

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D. its weight is greater than the weight of C. not at all

the water it has displaced D. about 49°

33. In the figure that follows, what is the 38. Someone is wearing perfume on their wrist.
direction of the force exerted by the Why can people near them smell it?
ladder?
A. the particles of perfume spread from an
area of higher concentration, their wrist,
to areas of lower concentration, the air
wall
ladder B. people can smell the concentrated
perfume on the wrist, but it doesn't travel
through the air
C. some of the perfume leaves the wrist,
floor mixing with air particles
A. downward and toward the wall D. both A and B
B. downward and away from the wall E. both A and C
C. upward and toward the wall
D. upward and away from the wall 39. Your flashlight has three identical 1.5 volt
batteries in it, arranged in a chain to give a
34. A 200 N box is pushed up an incline that is total of 4.5 volts. Current passes first through
5.00 m long and rises 1.00 m. If the incline is battery (a), then through battery (b), then
frictionless, then the work done by the through battery (c), on its way to the bulb.
pushing force is ______. When you operate the flashlight, the
batteries provide power to the current and
A. 336 J they gradually use up their chemical
B. 305 J potential energy. Which battery will run out
C. 275 J of chemical potential energy first?
D. 200 J
A. All three will run out at the same time.
35. A 2000 kg car accelerates from rest to a B. Battery (a) will run out first.
velocity of 20 m/s in 10 seconds. The power C. Battery (b) will run out first.
of the engine during this acceleration is D. Battery (c) will run out first.
______.
40. The figure shows a
A. 200 kW radiation heater. What
B. 20,000 kW heat transfer processes
C. 4000 W are involved at positions
D. 40 kW E and F?

36. A gem or mineral that is red absorbs ______. A. E is radiation and F is conduction.
B. E is conduction and F is convection.
A. red light C. E is convection and F is conduction.
B. mostly red light D. E is radiation and F is convection.
C. most wavelength of the visible spectrum
except red 41. An astronaut picks up a stone on the moon
D. more of the visible spectrum than a gem and finds its mass to be 2 kg. If the mass of
or mineral that is violet the earth is 6 times more than the mass of
the moon, what will the mass and the
37. When viewed straight down (90° to the weight of the stone be on the earth?
surface), an incident light ray moving from
the water to air is refracted ______. A. 2kg 12N
B. 2kg 20N
A. away from the normal C. 12kg 120N
B. toward the normal D. 20kg 200N

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47. An upright stick that is allowed to cast a

42. Water is boiled in a flask with a balloon over shadow in sunlight is called ______.
the top. As the water heats, the balloon
expands. What has happened to the weight A. Almagest
of this flask and balloon in this experiment? B. Primum mobile
C. Equinox
A. It has increased as the balloon expands. D. gnomon
B. It has decreased as the water boiled
away. 48. A solar or lunar eclipse will occur ______.
C. It has stayed the same.
D. It is unpredictable because the balloon A. when the sun is near the line of nodes of
is flexible. the moon and the moon is new or full
B. any time the moon is new or full
43. A student wishes to find the density of an C. when the sun is near the solstice and the
irregular piece of rock. How will she find moon is new or full
volume? D. half way through an eclipse year
E. when the sun is near the equinox and
A. length x width x height the moon is new or full
B. place it on a triple beam balance
C. put it in a beaker 49. How much time should it take for a traveling
D. use water displacement bullet to hit the ground compared to a
bullet dropped from rest? Assume the
44. A barge filled with scrap iron is in a canal ground remains flat for the entire distance
lock. If the barge were to sink what would the bullet may travel.
happen to the water level?
A. The traveling bullet will take longer to hit
A. It would fall. the ground than the bullet dropped
B. It would remain unchanged. from rest
C. It would rise. B. The traveling bullet will hit the ground at
D. It would depend on its mass. the same time as the bullet dropped
from rest
45. Suppose you have a pendulum clock which C. The traveling bullet will hit the ground
keeps correct time on Earth (acceleration before the bullet dropped from rest
due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2). Without changing D. The traveling bullet moves so fast that it
the clock, you take it to the Moon will never hit the ground
(acceleration due to gravity = 1.6 m/s2). For
every hour interval (on Earth) the Moon 50. Bart placed four identical candles on a
clock will record ______. table and lit them. He covered the first
candle with a big jar, the second with a
A. (9.8/1.6) h medium-sized jar, and the third with a small
B. 1h jar. He left the last candle uncovered. Which
C. SQRT(9.8 / 1.6) h candle probably took the longest time to
D. (1.6/9.8) h burn?
E. SQRT(1.6 / 9.8) h
A. the lit candle left uncovered
46. As a star exhausts hydrogen in its core, it B. the lit candle covered with the biggest
______. jar
C. the lit candle covered with the smallest
A. becomes hotter and more luminous jar
B. becomes cooler and more luminous D. the lit candle covered with the medium-
C. becomes hotter and less luminous sized jar
D. becomes cooler and less luminous

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51. Which of the following is not considered a

simple machine? For questions 54-60, refer to the following graph.
A substance is heated by a source
A. wedge supplying 1000 calories per minute.
B. pulley
50
C. lever
D. wheelbarrow 40

For questions 52-53. Temperature30

(°C)
Number of OFW’s in four countries: 20

10
Number of OFW's (x1000) 0
Year Hongkong Kuwait Italy USA
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22
1995 116 20 19 39 Minutes
1996 120 33 22 50 54. The freezing point of this substance is ______.
1997 109 31 25 43
1998 109 30 20 42 A. 0°C
1999 111 31 18 61 B. 10°C
2000 120 25 19 55 C. 20°C
2001 123 32 30 52 D. 30°C
2002 122 39 32 60
55. The boiling point of the substance is ______.
2003 115 24 16 72
2004 102 47 19
12 71 A. 10°C
B. 20°C
52. Which country shows the greatest rate of C. 30°C
increase over the years? D. 40°C

A. Hongkong 56. The substance undergoes a phase change

B. Kuwait between the ______.
C. Italy
D. USA A. 4th and 6th minutes
B. 6th and 14th minutes
53. The graph below shows the number of C. 14th and 18th minutes
OFW’s in which country? D. 16th and 22nd minutes

57. How many calories are needed to

completely melt the sample at its melting
Number point?
of
OFW’s
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 3000

1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
58. How long did it take for the substance to
completely turn into gas?

A. Hongkong A. 4 min.
B. Kuwait B. 6 min.
C. Italy C. 10 min.
D. USA D. 16 min.

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59. The substance is solid at ______. 65. Marinades for meat commonly include
acids such as vinegar or wine, because the
A. 2 min. acids can ______.
B. 5 min.
C. 10 min. A. toughen meat
D. 18 min. B. tenderize meat
C. preserve meat
60. How many calories are needed to D. react with salt
completely change the sample into a
liquid? 66. The basic requirement for the separation of
the components by _______ is that the
A. 4000 composition of the vapor be different from
B. 6000 the composition of the liquid at the boiling
C. 14 000 point of the liquid.
D. 16 000
A. absorption
61. What factor distinguishes a suspension from B. distillation
a colloid? C. extraction
D. crystallization
A. light reflects off the particles of a
suspension 67. Taken by itself, the fact that 8.0 g of oxygen
B. the particles of a suspension will sink out and 1.0 g of hydrogen combine to give 9.0
if left over time to rest of water demonstrates what natural law?
C. suspensions are clear
D. suspensions cannot be filtered A. Multiple Proportions
B. Periodicity
62. Lorna placed 1 kg of sandy soil and 1 kg C. Conservation of Mass
clay soil into Pot A and Pot B respectively. D. The Atomic Theory
She then poured equal volumes of water
into each pot. After a day, it is expected 68. What are the coefficients that will balance
that ______. the formula equation below?
AlCl3 + NaOH  Al(OH)3 + NaCl
A. Pot A will weigh more than Pot B
B. Pot B will weigh more than Pot A A. 1, 3, 1, 3
C. Pot A and Pot B will weigh the same B. 3, 1, 3, 1
D. Pot A will be wet and Pot B will be dry C. 1, 1, 1, 3
D. 1, 3, 3, 1
63. Hydrogen and oxygen molecules in a gas
sample have the same temperature. This 69. A hydrocarbon that contains one or more
means the hydrogen molecules, on the double bonds is classified as a(n) ______.
average, have the same ______.
A. alkyne
A. speed, but more kinetic energy. B. alkene
B. kinetic energy, but more speed. C. ketone
C. kinetic energy, but less speed. D. alkane
D. speed and the same kinetic energy.
70. When heat is absorbed by the system from
64. Acids are substances that ______. the surroundings, the process is said to be
______, and the sign of process is ______.
A. form hydronium ions when dissolved in
water A. exothermic, negative
B. turn red litmus paper blue B. endothermic, positive
C. make foods taste bitter C. exothermic, positive
D. react with neutral liquids to form bases D. endothermic, negative

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75. The kinetic energy of the pendulum is

71. Which of the following did not help Darwin highest at position(s) ______.
formulate his theory of evolution?
A. C
A. fossil evidence that species had B. B and D
changed over time C. A and E
B. closely related species on oceanic D. A, C and E
islands
C. belief that the earth was several 76. Speed is minimum at position(s) ______.
thousand years old
D. evidence of artificial selection in A. C
domestic animals B. B and D
C. A and E
72. Which of the following pairs are analogous D. A, C and E
structures?
77. The sexually-transmitted disease gonorrhea
A. the front leg of a horse and a human is becoming difficult to treat because the
arm causative bacteria are evolving resistance
B. the front leg of a frog and a bat wing to antibiotics. For example, in Hawaii
C. the wing of a bird and a bat wing between 1997 and 1999 resistance to
D. the front flipper of a porpoise and a fluoroquinolones increased from 1.4 percent
human arm to 9.5 percent. Scientists attribute this to
natural selection. What does natural
73. Of the following biological levels of selection mean in this context?
organization, which represents the smallest
or lowest level? A. The germs have learned to avoid that
particular class of antibiotic.
A. organs B. The antibiotic has changed the genetic
B. organisms structure of the germs allowing them to
C. cells become antibiotic-resistant.
D. tissues C. The germs changed their genetic code
in order to avoid problems with the
74. Which of the following is not a property of antibiotic.
life? D. The antibiotic created an environment in
which germs harboring antibiotic-
A. molding or adapting to one's resistant genes could flourish.
environment E. The mutation rate for antibiotic-
B. regulating materials that enter or leave resistance increased during the time
the system period.
C. responding to stimuli
D. reproducing, passing hereditary material 78. A slippery outer covering in some bacteria
to the next generation that protects them from phagocytosis by
host cells is ______.
For questions 75 and 76. Five positions of a
swinging pendulum are shown in the A. capsule
following diagram. A and E are the highest B. cell wall
C. flagellum
positions attained by the pendulum; the
D. peptidoglycan
lowest is C.

A E

B D
C

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79. Differences between eukaryotic and C. C

prokaryotic cells include all of the following D. D
except ______.
83. At which point is the car accelerating
A. eukaryotic cells have mitochondria rapidly?
B. eukaryotic cells have cilia and flagella
with complex structure A. A
C. prokaryotic cells have more complex B. B
cell walls C. C
D. prokaryotic cells have no genetic D. D
material
84. In a plant, what part stores sugars as starch?
80. The optimum temperature for an organism is
the one at which ______. A. leaves
B. roots
A. it grows with the shortest generation time C. seeds
B. it has the longest time between cell D. all of the above
divisions
C. it is near one extreme of its range of 85. ADP energy is used for _______.
tolerated temperatures
D. its enzymes begin to denature A. synthetic reactions
B. active transport
81. In the illustration below, A and B are liquids C. all energy-requiring processes in cells
while C is a solid. Which of the following is D. none of the above
true?
86. The cytoskeleton of the cell functions to
_______.
A
C A. give the cell shape
B B. anchor organelles
C. allow organelles to move
D. all of the above.
A. C is denser than both A and B.
B. C is less than B but denser than A. 87. A red blood cell plasma membrane
C. C is less dense than A but denser than B. contains _______ different types of proteins.
D. C has just about the same density as
both A and B. A. over 10
B. over 20
For questions 82 and 83, examine the following C. over 40
graph of the movement of car. D. over 50

C 88. During ______, the chromosomes attach to

the spindle and align at the metaphase
plate of the spindle.
B D
velocity A. prophase
A B. prometaphase
C. metaphase
time D. anaphase

82. At which point is the car decelerating?

A. A
B. B

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89. In the diagram, assume that each container 92. Which of the velocity-time graphs in the
contain equal volumes of water. In what figure represents an object falling freely in a
container is the pressure at the bottom vacuum? (v = velocity, t = time)
greatest?
v

A B C t

A. A v
B. B
C. C B.
D. The pressure is the same in each
container t
90. At which point on the door will you apply
the greatest force to close it? v

A B C D t
v

A. A D.
B. B
C. C
t
D. D

91. Graphs of distance (d) or velocity (v) of a 93. In the following illustration, if the pendulum
body against time (t) are shown. Which one was swinging in the direction indicated by
shows that of a body is at rest? the arrow when its string was suddenly cut,
d
in what direction did the pendulum go?

A.
v

t
v
A.
C.

B.
t
v
C.
D.

D.
t

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94. In a river, if the water flows in the direction 99. The vertebrate skeleton _______.
indicated by the arrows in the illustration
below, at which point is the flow fastest? A. is a living tissue which grows with the
animal.
B. protects internal organs.
C. serves as a place of attachment for
A muscles.
D. all of the above
D
B
C
100. Protoplasts are cells without _______.

A. A A. a nucleus.
B. B B. a membrane.
C. C C. a wall.
D. D D. cytoplasm.

95. If two flies heterozygous for wing length and

body color are crossed, which of the
following are possible results?

A. chance of L, long wings = 3/4

B. chance of l, short wings = 1/2
C. chance of G, grey body = 1/4
D. all of the above are true

96. A cross in which true-breeding plants differ

in two traits is known as a _______ cross.

A. test
B. dihybrid
C. multi trait
D. hybrid

97. Which is narrower?

A. fundamental niche of an organism

B. realized niche of an organism
C. habitat of an organism
D. all are the same

98. _______ are protozoa with no means of

locomotion.

A. Amoeboids
B. Ciliates
C. Zooflagellates
D. Sporozoa

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ANSWER KEY:

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Academic-

4. My father left the decision entirely up to __________ and __________.

7. John and Susie own that yacht. _____________ yacht is a beauty.

13. He is going directly home, ___________?

19. _________ beauty cannot be measured.

21. The student badly needs her teacher’s ___________.

22. I must justify my position ___________ so that they’d understand.

23. You smell very ___________.

24. I felt _________ after the spectacle I made of myself in school.

26. Lito works at the supermart __________ moonlighting at the restaurant.

27. Macaroni and cheese __________ my favorite dishes.

28. A large percentage of the class _______ fascinated by the museum.

31. If we __________ harder we would have passed the UPCAT.

32. _____________ mountains aplenty in the Philippines.

33. She ______________ finished the project before tomorrow.

34. I ___________ sick in bed last month.

35. I thought you already ______________ that issue to rest.

37. I believe that I am as good a singer as him. No error.

38. Whomsoever wishes to see a ghost is a fool. No error.

CORRECT AND EFFECTIVE EXPRESSION

4. Time is gold__________ it waits for no man.

5. Aristotle is a great philosopher____________ Plato is, in my opinion, a better one.

6. Bryce is longing to visit European cities___________Paris, London, Vienna, and

7. I ordered a rare steak____________a well done one.

8. _____________ he has been fond of playing tennis.

11. O Lord. What will happen to me now? No error.

Correct and Effective Expression

5. The professor became so forceful, so _________ in his expression of opinions, that

9. The jury ___________ the mayor of all wrongdoing.

English III -2-

21. Rhonda's behavior only _____________ an already bad situation.

English III -3-

31. cacophony : harmony

32. vacillating : indecisive

c. inept : competent d. vacant : brilliant

33. disparage : commend

34. condone : overlook

35. innate : inherent

36. scrupulous : lackadaisical

37. abstemious : ascetic

38. assuage : provoke

39. cryptic : definite

40. vilify : malign

English III -5-

41. I am quite crabby today so please don’t try my patience. No error.

Selection 1: From Wolfgang Langewiesche’s A Flier’s World.

1. The scene in the first paragraph could be best described as ______________.

2. The newspaper was lifted by a particularly _____________ wind.

3. The author’s main point was that ______________.

a. a piece of paper is buffeted by the wind

4. Which of the following statements describes the organization of the passage?

Selection 2: by E.B. White

5. What is the general tone of the author?

6. To what is fighting a war compared by the author?

7. The author believes that ____________________.

d. one should be completely prepared before going to war

8. What is the main point of the passage?

Selection 3: by Kahlil Gibran

“When love beckons you, follow him,

11. Whose ways are hard and steep?

12. The author is convinced that in the face of love _______________.

International migration of skilled persons has assumed increased importance in recent

13. From the passage, what may be meant by “brain drain”?

14. From the passage, it can be inferred that ________________.

16. How is the above selection organized?

NCR - National Capital Region 9,932,560

CAR - Cordillera Administrative Region 1,365,412

Reg. I - Ilocos Region 4,200,478

Reg. II - Cagayan Valley 2,813,159

Reg. III - Central Luzon 8,030,945

Reg. IV - Southern Tagalog 11,793,655

Reg. V - Bicol 4,686,669

Reg. VI - Western Visayas 6,211,038

Reg. VII - Central Visayas 5,706,953

Reg. VIII - Eastern Visayas 3,610,355

Reg. IX - Western Mindanao 3,091,208

4. My father left the decision entirely up to and .