Indian Institute of Management Rohtak

IPM AT 2020
Important instructions to the candidates:
1. Total Number of Questions- 120.
2. There are three sections in this test paper- Section I contains 40 questions from
Quantitative Ability. Section II contains 40 questions from Logical Reasoning and Section
III contains 40 questions from Verbal Ability.
3. Each question will carry 4 marks. There will be negative marking of 1 mark for
each wrong answer. All the questions will be multiple choice questions.
4. There is NO Sectional Time Limit.

Section I.
Directions (1-5): Study the data given below and answer the following questions. The pie charts
shown below shows the distance covered by a boat moving upstream and downstream in
different days of a week. And the table shows the speed of stream in km/hr. in different days of
aweek.
1. If the time taken by boat to travel upstream on Wednesday is 6/7 times than the time taken to
travel downstream on Monday and the speed of boat in still water on Monday is 15 kmph then find the
speed of boat in still water on Wednesday? ( speed of boat in still water is different for different days)
A. 52 kmph
B. 62 kmph
C. 42 kmph
D. 48 kmph
E. None of these

2. If the time taken by boat to travel upstream on Monday is 27 1/5 hrs. more than the time taken
by it to travel downstream on the same day, then find the speed of boat in still water on Monday ?
(speed of boat in still water is same in upstream as in downstream)
A. 25 kmph
B. 18 kmph
C. 20 kmph
D. 15 kmph
E. None of these

3. If the speed of boat in still water on Saturday was 27 km/hr and the speed of boat in still water
on Wednesday was 662/3% more than that of Saturday and time taken to travel upstream on
Wednesday is 16/13 times than time taken by it to travel downstream on Saturday, then find the speed
of stream (in kmph) on Saturday?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 8
E. None of these

4. The speed of boat in still water on Saturday was 21 km/hr. and that on Sunday was 284/7%
more than that on Saturday, if the time taken by boat to travel upstream on Saturday is 21/2 times than
time taken to travel downstream on Sunday, then find the time taken by the boat to cover a distance of
125 km upstream on Saturday?
A. 6 hrs. 45 min.
B. 2 hrs. 45 min.
C. 4 hrs. 30 min.
D. 6 hrs. 15 min.
E. None of these

5. If the time taken by boat to travel upstream on Friday is 30 hours more than the time taken by it
to travel downstream on Wednesday and the speed of boat in still water on Friday is 17 kmph, then
find the upstream speed of boat on Wednesday? (speed of boat in still water is different on different
days)
A. 27 kmph
B. 22 kmph
C. 20 kmph
D. 25 kmph
E. None of these

6. A Container contains ‘X’ Liters of Milk. A thief stole 50 Liters of Milk and replaced it with the
same quantity of water. He repeated the same process further two times. And thus Milk in the container
is only ‘X-122’ liters. Then what is the quantity of water in the final mixture?
A. 122 Liter
B. 124 Liter
C. 128 Liter
D. 250 Liter

7. Veena has to pay Rs. 2460 to Sita, 5 Months later at 6% SI per annum, and Gita has to pay Sita
same amount at 7.5% SI per annum after certain months. If both took the same amount of loan from Sita
then Gita paid loan after how many months?
A. 3 Months
B. 4 Months
C. 6 Months
D. 12 Months
Use the figure below to answer questions 8 through 9.

8. What is the area of the shaded figure?

A. 56.25 square feet
B. 112.5 square feet
C. 225 square feet
D. 337.4 square feet

9. What is the ratio of the area of Circle M and the area of Circle K?
A. 1:8
B. 1:4
C. 1:2
D. 1:1

10. If x% of y is equal to z then what percentage of z is x?

A. y^2 /100
B. x ^2/100
C. 100^2/y
D. 100^2/x

11. Train A takes 45 minutes more than train B to travel 450 km. Due to engine trouble, speed of train
B falls by a quarter. So it takes 30 minutes more than Train A to complete the same journey. Find the speed
of Train A.
A. 120 km/hr
B. 110 km/hr
C. 100 km/hr
D. 90 km/hr

12. One Trader calculates the percentage of profit on the buying price and another calculates on the
selling price. When their selling prices are same, then the difference of their actual profit is Rs 85 and both
claim to have made 20 % profit. What is the selling price for each?
A. Rs 3000
B. Rs 2550
C. Rs 2800
D. Rs 4000
13. Due to increase of 20% in the price of eggs, 2 eggs less are available for Rs 24.The present rate of
eggs per dozen is
A. RS 28.8/dozen
B. Rs 24.8/dozen
C. Rs 25.8/dozen
D. Rs 30/dozen

14.

15. Fruits were purchased for Rs 350. 9 boys ate 3/5th of them in 2 hours. 6 boys feel their stomach as
full so do not eat further. In how many hours the remaining fruits will get finished by remaining
boys?
A) 2 hours
B) 3 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 4 hours

16. If minimum value of f ( x ) = x^2+ 2bx + 2c^2 is greater than the maximum value of
g ( x ) = - x^2- 2cx + b^2, then for real value of x
A . l c l > l b l√ 2
B . l c l √2 > b
C . 0 < c < √2 b
D . no real value of a

17. The set of all real numbers x for which x^2- l x + 2 l + x > 0, is
A . ( - ∞, - 2 ) ∪ ( 2, ∞ )
B . ( - ∞, - √2 ) ∪ (√2 , ∞ )
C . ( - ∞, - 1 ) ∪ ( 1, ∞ )
D . (√2 , ∞ )

18. What should come at the place of question mark?

46080, 3840, 384, 48, 8, 2, ?
A. 1
B. 1⁄64
C. 1⁄8
D. None of these
19. A room has floor size of 15*6sq cm. What is the height of the room , if the sum of the areas of the
base and roof is equal to the sum of the areas of the four walls ?
A.1.12cm
B.3.24cm
C.4.29cm
D.2.5cm

20. The sum of third and ninth term of an A.P is 8. Find the sum of the first 11 terms of the
progression.
A. 44
B. 22
C. 19
D. None of the above

21. Given A = 265 and B = (264+263+262+...+20), which of the following is true?

A. B is 264 larger than A
B. A and B are equal
C. B is larger than A by 1
D. A is larger than B by 1

22. A line from center to circumference of a circle is known as

A. diameter
B. radius
C. area
D. midpoint

23. A bag contains 4 blue, 5 white and 6 green balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the
probability that one ball is white?
A. 10/21
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 2/35

24. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 20hrs and 25hrs respectively while a third pipe R can empty
the tank in 30hrs. If all the pipes are opened together for 10hrs and then pipe R is closed then in
what time the tank can be filled.
A. 400/23hrs
B. 400/27hrs
C. 200/23hrs
D. 200/27hrs

25. Given ratio are

a:b = 2:3
b:c = 5:2
c:d = 1:4
Find a:b:c.
A. 2:3:6
B. 4:5:6
 C: 10:15:6
D. 1:5:7

26. If there are Rs 495 in a bag in denominations of one-rupee, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins, which are
in the ratio 1 : 8 : 16. How many 50 paisa coins
are there in the bag?
A. 50
B. 220
C. 440
D. None of these

27. What decimal of an hour is a second

A. .0028
B. .0027
C. .0026
D. .0025

28. What will be vulgar fraction of 0.0056

A.7/1150
B.7/1175
C.7/1250
D.7/1275

29. One-fifth of a number is equal to 5/8th of another number. If 35 is added to the first number, it
becomes four times of the second number. Find the second number.
A. 39
B. 70
C. 40
D. 25

30. If *=+, /=-, + = *, – = / then 43*561+500-100/10 = ?

A. 3211
B. 2388
C. 2883
D. 2838

31. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 24 cm, touching its sides. What is the area of
the remaining portion of the triangle?
A.144√ 3 − 48π cm2
B.121√ 3 − 36π cm2
C.144√ 3 − 36π cm2
D.121√ 3 − 48π cm2

32. A clock strikes 4 taking 9 seconds. In order to strike 12 at the same rate, the time taken is
A. 33 seconds
 B. 30 seconds
C. 36 seconds
D. 27 seconds

33. John’s present age is one fourth of his father’s age two years ago. John’s father’s age will be twice
Raman’s age after 10 years. If Raman’s 12th birthday was celebrated 2 years ago, then what is
John’s present age?
A.5years
B.7years
C.9years
D.11years

34. Raj invested Rs 76000 in a business. After few months Monty joined him and invests Rs 57000. At
the end of the year, both of them share the profits at the ratio of 2:1. After how many months Monty
joined Raj?
A. 4 Months
B. 7 Months
C. 8 Months
D. 12 Months

35. Work done by P in one day is double the work done by Q in one day and work done by Q in one
day is thrice the work done by R in one day. If P, Q and R together can complete the work in 30
days then in how many days P alone can do the work?
A : 52 days
B : 42 days
C : 30 days
D : 50 days

36. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along the current in
10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water?
A. 40 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 1 hr 15 min
D. 1 hr 30 min

37. Simplification: 25^(2.7) × 5^(4.2) ÷ 5^(5.4) = ?

A. 5^4
B. 5^(3.2)
C. 5^(4.1)
D. 5^(4.2)

38. 18800 / 470 / 20

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
39. Find the HCF of
2/3,4/6,8/27
A. 2/27
B. 8/3
C. 2/3
D. 8/27

40. If log 2, log (2x -1) and log (2x + 3) are in A.P, then x is equal to ____
A.5252
B.log25
C.log32
D.32

Section II.
41. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 4 only

42. Pointing to Manju, Raju said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. How is
Manju related to Raju?
A.Mother’s sister
B.Grandmother
C.Mother-in-law
D.Sister of father-in-law

In each questions, a pair of words is given, followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. The
candidate is required to choose the pair in which the words bear the sane relationship to each other
as the words of the given pair bear.

43. Arrows: Quiver

A.Fear: Tremble
B.Money: Bank
C.Sound: Music
D.Coin: Mint
44. Embarrass: Humiliate
A. Enquire: Ask
B. Embezzle: Peculate
C. Gamble: Investment
D. Annoy: Exasperate

Considering given statements as true, select a logical conclusion based on the given statements.
45. Statements:
No tree is a flower
Some trees are fruits

Conclusions:
(I) Fruits that are trees are not flowers.
(II) No fruit is a flower.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

46. Statements:
Lady's Finger is tastier than cabbage
Cauliflower is tastier than Lady's Finger
Cabbage is not tastier than peas

A. Peas are as tasty as lady's finger

B. Peas are as tasty as cauliflower and lady's finger
C. Peas is not tastier than lady's finger
D. Cauliflower is tastier than cabbage

47. Statements:
Some A are B.
Some C are A.

Conclusions:
(I) Some C are B.
(II) Some B are A.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a straight line which is composited with eight
seats, some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Each of them likes
different colours viz., Blue, White, Black, Yellow, Orange, Red and Purple. All the above
information is not necessarily in the same order.
Three seats are there between T and P and both of them are not sitting at the extreme
ends. The one who likes white colour is not sitting adjacent to the vacant seat. The one who
likes red is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes White. The number of persons
between U and Q is one less than the number of persons between Q and S. The only neighbor
of V sits third to the left of R. U is facing same direction as T and opposite as Q. The
immediate neighbour of V is not facing north direction. The one who likes Orange sits third to
the left of T who likes neither blue nor black. The persons sit at the extreme ends are facing
opposite direction. The number of seats between the one who likes Blue and Yellow is double
than the number of persons between the one who likes Red and Black. P neither likes Red nor
likes Black. The one who likes Yellow is not facing the same direction as T. The persons sit
adjacent to the vacant seat are facing same direction as their neighbour.

48. Who sits third to the left of the one who sits second to the left of the person
likes Purple colour?
A. The person who likes Black colour
B. The person who likes White colour
C. The person who likes Blue colour
D. The person who likes Yellow colour

49. How many persons sit between the person who likes Red colour and the vacant
seat?
A. Two
B. Six
C. Three
D. None

50. If the vacant seat is related to V and T in a certain way and in a same way P is
related to U and Q then which of the following is related U?
A. R and T
B. R and P
C. P and U
D. U and V
51. Which of the following persons are sit at the extreme ends of the line?
A. The person who likes Purple and Black colour
B. The person who likes White and Blue colour
C. The person who likes Blue and Yellow colour
D. The person who likes Red and Orange colour

52. If the vacant seat is occupied with N then who among the following persons is
sitting second to the left of Q?
A. R
B. T
C. P
D. N

53. Choose the alternative which closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Five plays A, B, C, D and E are to be staged from Monday to Friday of a week. On each day, only one play
will be staged. D or E should not be either the first or last to be staged. E should be immediately followed by
C. B should be staged immediately after D. One play is staged between A and B.

54. Which is the first play to be staged?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. Cannot be determined

55. Which of the following is the correct sequence of staging all the plays?
A. ADBCE
B. AECDB
C. BDAEC
D. DBECA

56. Which play was staged on Wednesday?

A. A
 B. B
C. Either B or C
D. Cannot be determined

Each Question given below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain
information. You have to decide if the information given in the statements is sufficient for answering the
problem.
57. Who is C’s partner in a game of cards involving four players A, B, C and D?
I. D is sitting opposite to A.
II. B is sitting right of A and left of D.

A. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;

B. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
C. if the data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;

D. if the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question;

E. if the data in both the statements together are needed;

58. What day is the fourteenth of a given month?

I. The last day of the month is a Wednesday.

II. The third Saturday of the month was seventeenth.

A. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;

B. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
C. if the data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;

D. if the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question;

59. In a certain code 'SEQUENCE' is coded as 'FDOFVRFT. How is 'CHILDREN' coded in that
code?
A. OFESJMID
B. OFSEMJID
C. OFSEJIMD
D. OFSEJMID

60. In a code language, ‘Elephant is told as Jackal’, ‘Jackal is told as Monkey’, ‘Monkey is told
as Dog’, ‘Dog is told as Lion’, ‘Lion is told as Goat’, Goat is told as Mouse’, then who will
be the king of jungle?
A. Mouse
B. Goat
C. Lion
 D. Jackal

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to
consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer

(A) If only assumption I is implicit

(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit

61. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.

Assumptions:

I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II.The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit

62. Statement: "In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our
employees." - In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.

Assumptions:

I. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.

II. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit

63. A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to the left
and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?

A. West
B. South
C. North-East
D. South-West

64. Find the missing number in the given series

2, 7, 10, 22, 18, 37, 26, ?
A. 52
B. 42
C. 62
 D. 46

65. Look at this series: 544, 509, 474, 439, ... What number should come next?
A. 414
B. 404
C. 445
D. 420

66. Which of the following Venn diagrams given below correctly represents the students who learn law
& music, music & dance, law & dance and law, music & dance?

In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions
together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement.
Give answer:

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows

67. Statements: In a one day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160
runs were made by spinners.

Conclusions:
I.80% of the team consists of spinners.
II.The opening batsmen were spinners.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows

68. Statements: The old order changed yielding place to new.

Conclusions:
 Change is the law of nature.
Discard old ideas because they are old.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows

Given an input line a machine generates pass codes step by step following certain rules as illustrated below.
Step I 95 13 67 84 76 18 38 78
Step II 95 84 13 67 76 18 38 78
Step III 95 84 78 13 67 76 18 38
Step IV 95 84 78 76 13 67 18 38
Step V 95 84 78 76 67 13 18 38
Step VI 95 84 78 76 67 38 13 18
Step VII 95 84 78 76 67 38 18 13

69. Which number comes in between 1st and 3rd number from left of 6th step of input?

Options −

A. 84
B. 13
C. 67
D. 18

70. Which number comes after ‘18’ in the 4th step?

Options −

A. 95
B. 76
C. 38
D. 78

71. Which number comes in between 3rd and 5th number from left of 7th step of input?

Options −

A. 84
B. 13
C. 67
D. 76
 72. Tanya's grandfather was 8 times older to her 16 years ago. He would be 3 times of her age 8
years from now. What was ratio of ages of Tanya and her grandfather 8 years ago.

A. 11:50
B. 11:51
C. 11:53
D. 11:54

73. A clock is such that it loses 4 minutes each day. The clock is set right on February 25, 2008 at
2 p.m. How many minutes should be added to get the right time when the clock shows 9 a.m.
on 3rd March, 2008?
A. 9780/359
B. 9340/357
C. 9120/329
D. 8760/269

Study the following information carefully and answer the given

questions.

74. Statements: M = V; R ≥ S; V< S; M> A; R ≤ U

Conclusions: I. U> S
II. R = S
III. R> S
A. Only I is true
B. Only II is true
C. Only III is true
D. Either II or III is true

75. Statements:A< P = C ≥ D; S> U ≤ B< A; C< Q> S ≥ V

Conclusions: I. U> V
II. B< C
III. Q> D
A. Only I is true
B. Only Il is true
C. Only I and III is true
D. Only II and III is true

76. Fact 1: Most stuffed toys are stuffed with beans.

Fact 2: There are stuffed bears and stuffed tigers.
Fact 3: Some chairs are stuffed with beans.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I: Only children's chairs are stuffed with beans.
II: All stuffed tigers are stuffed with beans.
III: Stuffed monkeys are not stuffed with beans.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

77. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth
from the left, how many boys should be added to the line such that there
are 28 boys in the line ?
Option :
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 20

Each Question given below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain information.
You have to decide if the information given in the statements is sufficient for answering the problem.

78. Five persons- A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row. Who is sitting in the middle?
I. B is between E and C
II. B is to the right of E
III. D is between A and E.

A. I and II together.
B. II and III together.
C. I and III together.
D. I, II and III together.

79. In which year was Sanjay born?

I. Sanjay is six years older than Gopal.

II. Gopal’s brother was born in 1982.
III. Sanjay’s brother is two years younger than Gopal’s brother who was eight years younger

A. I and II together.
B. II and III together.
C. I and III together.
D. I, II and III together.

80. In a certain code IMTITJU is written as TMIIUJT. How is TEMREMP written in that code?
A. METERPM
B. METRPME
C. ETRMMEP
D. MTERPME

Section III.
In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

81. ABOMINATE:
A. gratify
B. esteem
C. console
D. support

82. ABHOR
A. inspire
B. credit
C. improve
D. greatly admire

83. ENORMOUS
A. Soft
B. Average
C. Tiny
D. Weak

In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

84.IMPROMPTU

A. Offhand
B. Unimportant
C. Unreal
D. Effective

85.WRETCHED
A. Poor
B. Foolish
C. Insane
D. Strained

86. erroneous
A. digressive
B. confused
C. impenetrable
D. incorrect

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

Harold a professional man who had worked in an office for many years had a fearful dream. In it, he found
himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people's bodies. The people
tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into elephants which then became the
nation's system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realised that he
himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures this
dream dramatised for Harold what he had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as letting
society feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the
"security bug" and took up freelance work.

87. In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures

A. in his village
B. in his own house
C. in a different land
D. in his office

88.Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of 'loathsome creatures'?

A. Security bug and slimy tentacles

B. Fearful dream and slug-like animals
C. Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals
D. slug-like animals and security bug

89.The statement that 'he later threw off the security bug' means that

A. Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security

B. Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams
C. Harold started tolerating social victimisation
D. Harold killed all the bugs troubled him

90.Harold's dream was fearful because

A. it brought him face to face with reality

B. it was full of vivid pictures of snakes
C. he saw huge elephant in it
D. in it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people's bodies
In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one which
can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

91. His appearance is unsmiling but ......

A. his heart is full of compassion for others

B. he looks very serious on most occasions
C. people are afraid of him
D. he is uncompromising on matters of task performance

92. In order to help the company attain its goal of enhancing profit, all the employees ......

A. urged the management to grant paid leave

B. appealed the management to implement new welfare schemes
C. voluntarily offered to work overtime with lucrative compensation
D. voluntarily offered to render additional services in lieu of nothing

93. The manners and .......... of the nouveau riche is a recurrent ......... in the literature.

A. style, motif
B. morals, story
C. wealth, theme.
D. morals, theme

In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the
begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q,
R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

94. S1: The future beckons to us.

P : In fact we have hard work ahead.
Q : Where do we go and what shall be our endeavour?
R : We shall also have to fight and end poverty, ignorance and disease.
S : It will be to bring freedom and oppurtunity to the common man.
S6: There is no resting for any one of us till we redeem our pledge in full.
The Proper sequence should be:

A. PSRQ
B. QPSR
C. QSRP
D. SRPQ

95. S1: I had halted on the road.

P : As soon as I saw the elephant I knew I should not shoot him.
Q : It is a serious matter to shoot a working elephant.
R : I knew that his 'must' was already passing off.
S : The elephant was standing 8 yards from the road.
S6: I decided to watch him for a while and then go home.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SPQR
B. PQSR
C. RQPS
D. SRPQ
96.1 : A noise started above their heads.
P : But people did not take it seriously.

Q : That was to show everyone that there was something wrong

R : It was a dangerous thing to do.

S : For, within minutes the ship began to sink.
6: Nearly 200 lives were lost.
A.QRPS
B.QPRS
C.RPQS
D.RQSP

Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other
followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.

97.TEN:DECIMAL

A. seven:septet
B. four:quartet
C. two:binary
D. five:quince

98. Paw:Cat then Hoof:?

A.Lion
B.Horse
C.Lamb
D.Elephant

Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of
proverb/idiom

99. To make clean breast of

A. To gain prominence
B. To praise oneself
C. To confess without of reserve
D. To destroy before it blooms
 100. To have an axe to grind
A. A private end to serve
B. To fail to arouse interest
C. To have no result
D. To work for both sides

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'no error'.
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

101.Solve as per the direction given above

A. When I were a newspaper journalist

B. I always relied on the news editor and
C. the subs to put things right.
D. no erros

102.Solve as per the direction given above

A. I could count on one
B. hand the things
C. I know about my friend.
D. no errors

103. Statement: The average family income in the metros has increased today as compared to earlier,as in
most families these days husbands and wives both are working. Which of the following inferences cannot
be drawn from the above statement?

A. Wives earn more than their husbands today.

B. It was less prevalent for the spouse to work earlier than today.
C. The family income level was lower a few years ago.
D. More husbands and wives are working today as compared to last few years.

104. Should powerful nations attack relatively weaker nations which pose probable danger to world
peace ?
Arguments:
1. Yes. War is justified for the noble purpose of peacekeeping.
2. No. War/violence should never be resorted to.
A.If only 1 is implicit
B.It only 2 is implicit
C.If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit
D.If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit
 Answer the following Homonyms
105. ______ is the most important city of a country.
A. Capitol
B. Capetol
C. Capital
D. Capitalisation

106. Which of these expresses distance?

A. Farther
B. Father
C. Further
D. Ferther

In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to
the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement
is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

107 .There is no more room for you in this compartment.

A. there is no more seat
B. there is no more space
C. there is no more accommodation
D. No improvement

108.If he would have tried he would have succeeded.

A. is tried
B. was tried
C. had tried
D. No improvement

In each of the following questions, a word has been used in sentences in THREE different ways. Choose the
option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is CORRECT or APPROPRIATE.

109. CONFLATE
(I) I was able to conflate the two processes into one, blending it down into a solid formula.
(II) The bag is divided into conflate compartments.
(III) The dogs started to snarl at each other so I had to conflate them.
A. Only (I)
B. Only (II)
C. Only (III)
D. Both (I) and (II)

110. RARE
(I) The coin was a rare edition and was not found in many collections around the world.
(II) Diagnosed with a rare form of bone cancer, the patient’s doctors knew little about his unique
condition.
(III) Standing in the rare of the long line, the family could barely see the entrance to the theatre.

A. Only (I)
B. Only (II)
C. Only (III)
D. Both (I) and (II)

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck.
Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and
drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of
concussions,however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people who
suffer
multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a
degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to arise
weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include depression,
anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE
have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes
who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Although new sports regulations and
improvements in helmet technology can help protect players, amateur leagues, the sports media, and fans all
bear some of the responsibility for reducing the incidence of these devastating injuries.Improvements in
diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe—and often fatal—psychological
disorders to the head injuries that players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the
brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced
cases of CTE in every single victim.In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National
Football League (NFL) has revised its safety regulations. Players who have suffered a head injury on the
field must undergo a “concussion
sideline assessment”—a series of mental and physical fitness tests—before being allowed back in the game.
In an effort to diminish the amount of head and neck injuries on the field, NFL officials began enforcing
stricter penalty calls for helmet-to-helmet contact, leading with the head, and hitting a defenseless player.
Furthermore, as of 2010, if a player’s helmet is accidentally wrenched from his head during play, the ball is
immediately whistled dead. It is hoped that these new regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design,
will reduce the number of concussions, and thus curb further cases of CTE. Efforts by the NFL and other
professional sports leagues are certainly laudable; we should commend every attempt to protect the mental
and physical health of players. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur
players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. Proper
tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection—should be taught at an early
age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than those
of the NFL. Furthermore, young athletes should be educated about the serious dangers of head injuries at an
early age. Perhaps the most important factor in reducing the number of traumatic brain injuries, however,
lies not with the players, the coaches, or the administrators, but with the media and fans. Sports media
producers have become accustomed to showcasing the most aggressive tackles and the most intense
plays. NFL broadcasts often replay especially violent collisions while the commentators marvel at the
players’ physical prowess. Some sports highlights television programs even feature weekly countdowns of
the “hardest hits.” When the media exalts such dangerous behavior, professionals are rewarded for injuring
each other on the field and amateurs become more likely to try to imitate their favorite NFL athletes.
Announcers, commentators, television producers, and sportswriters should engage in a collective effort to
cease glorifying brutal plays. In turn, fans should stop expecting their favorite players to put their lives on
the line for the purposes of entertainment. Players must not be encouraged to trade their
careers, their health, their happiness, and even their lives for the sake of a game.

111.Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that all of the following statements are true
except
A. tackling is not always dangerous; however, players who use improper tackling form may injure others
B. scientists have established a definitive link between players who die untimely deaths and the onset of
CTE
C. NFL officials have done little to address the problem of CTE
D. athletes who are praised for exceptionally brutal hits are likely to continue engaging in such dangerous
behavior

112.According to the passage, which of the following factors contribute(s) to the incidence of CTE in
amateur players?
I. inconsistent application of safety regulations for all levels
II. lack of education about the dangers of head injuries
III. amateur players’ desire to emulate professionals
A. l only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

113. As used in paragraph 3, which is the best synonym for laudable?

A. praiseworthy
B. ineffectual
C. memorable
D. audacious

114. The author’s tone in the final paragraph can best be described as
A. remorseful
B. hopeless
C. perplexed
D. insistent

115. As used in the final paragraph, which is the best antonym for exalts?
A. mitigates
B. venerates
C. mollifies
D. expedites

116. In describing the sports media, the author emphasizes its

A. responsibility
B. entertainment value
C. senselessness
D. danger
117. In the final paragraph, the author mentions “sports highlights television programs” as an example of
how
I. the media glorifies violence
II. amateurs learn to mimic professional athletes
III. professional athletes gain approval
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

The ravages [of the storm] were terrible in America,

Europe, and Asia. Towns were overthrown, forests
uprooted, coasts devastated by the mountains of
water which were precipitated on them, vessels cast
on the shore, whole districts leveled by waterspouts,
several thousand people crushed on land or drowned
at sea; such were the traces of its (468) ________, left
by this devastating tempest.
—Ralph Waldo Emerson

118.What is the meaning of the word overthrown

in the context of this passage?
A. surrendered
B. devastated
C. capitulated
D. Yielded

119.What is the meaning of the word leveled as it

is used in the passage?
A. razed
B. marked
C. spread
D. raised

120.Which word, if inserted in the blank, makes

the most sense in the context of the passage?
A. Velocity
B. Fury
C. reward
D. benevolence