2007

AE: Aerospace Engineering

Duration : Three Hours Maximum Marks :150

Read the following instruction s carefully.

I. This question paper contains 85 objective type questions. Q.I to Q.20 carry one mark
each and Q.21 to Q.85 carry two marks each.

2. Attempt all the questions.

3. Questions must be answered on Objective Response Sheet (ORS) by darkening the

appropriate bubble (marked A. B. C, D) using HB pencil against the question number on
the left hand side of the O RS. Each question has only on e cor rect answer. In case you
wish to chan ge an answer, erase the old answer completely.

-I. Wrong answ ers will carry EGATIVE marks. In Q.I to Q:20, 0.25 mark will be
deducted for each wrong answer. In Q.21 to Q.76, 0.78. 0 .80. 0 .82 and in Q.84, 0.5
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking in
Q.77, Q.79, Q.81, Q.83 and in Q.85. More than one answer bubbled against a question
will be taken as an incorrect response. Unattempted questions will not carry any marks.

5. Write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre at the
specified locations on the right half of the ORS.

6. Using HB penci l, darken the approp riate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and the letters corresponding to your paper code.

7. Calculator is allowed in the examination hall.

8. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the exam ination hall.

9. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Additionally blank pages are given
at the end of the quest ion paper for rough work.

10. This question paper contains 24 printed pages includ ing pages for rough work. Please
check all pages and report, if there is any discrepanc y.

5' 121 FoodlO6-A E-1A AE 1/24

 Q. I - Q. 20 ca rry one mark each.

Q.I Which one of the following engines should be used by a subsonic passen ger transport
airplane for minimum specific fuel con sumption?

(A) Turbojet engine with afterbumer

(B ) Turbofan engine
(C) Ramjet engine
(0) Scramjet engine

Q.2 A spring-mass-damper system with a mass of I kg is found to have a damping ratio of

0.2 and a natural frequency of 5 rad/s. The damping of the sys tem is given by

(A) 2 Ns/m (B) 2 N/s (C) 0.2 kg/s (0) 0.2 N/s

Q.3
If f(O) =[ co.sO Sinll] , then f (a) f(p ) =
-slOli cosO

(A) f(a 1P) (B ) f (a + p)

(C) f(a -p ) (0) 2 x 2 zero matr ix

QA An artificial satellite remains in orbit and does not fall to the eart h because

(A) the centrifugal force acting on it balances the grav itational attraction
(B) the on-board rocket motors provide continuous boost to keep it in orbit
(C) its transverse velocity keeps it from hitting the earth altho ugh it falls continuously
(0) due to its high speed it derives sufficient lift from the rarefied atmosphere

Q.5 The Euler iteration formula for numerically integrating a first order nonlinear
x
differential equation of the form = [(x) , with a constant step size of lu is

(A) X h, =x, -lu x [(x,) (B ) x'.' =x, +(6 /' 12)x [ (x, )
(C) x'., =x, -(l/lu) x[(x,) (0 ) x'., =X, +6/X[(X, )
Q.6 The number of natural frequencies of an elastic beam with cantilever boun dary
conditions is

(A) I (B)3 (C) 1000 (0 ) Infinite

Q.7 For maximum range ofa glider, which of the following condi tions is true ?

(A) lift to drag ratio is maximum

(B) rate of descent is minimum
(C) descent angle is maximum
(0) lift to weight ratio is maximum

AE 2/24
S/ 121 FoodlO6-AE-1B
Q.8 An airplane with a larger wing as compared to a smaller wing will necessarily have

(A) more longitudinal static stability

(8) less longitudinal static stability
(C) same longitudinal static stability
(0) more longitudinal static stability for an aft tail airplane if aerodynamic center of
the larger wing is behind the center of gravity of the airplane

Q.9 The minimum value of

J(x) = x' -7x+30 occurs at

(A) x=7 /2 (8) x=7 /30

(C) .t = 30/7 (0) x=30

Q.1O Two airplanes are identical except for the location of the wing. The longitudinal static
stability of the airplane with low wing configuration will be

(A) more than the airplane with high wing configuration

(8) less than the airplane with high wing configuration
(C) same as the airplane with high wing configuration
(0) more if elevator is deflected

Q.ll For a fixed center of gravity location of an airplane. when the propeller is mounted on
the nose of the fuselage

(A) longitudinal static stability increases

(8) longitudinal static stability decreases
(C) longitudinal static stability remains same
(0) longitudinal static stability is maximum

Q.12 Let an airplane in a steady level flight be trimmed at a certain speed. A level and
steady flight at a higher speed could be achieved by changing

(A) engine throttle only

(8) elevator only
(C) throttle and elevator together
(0) rudder only

Q.13 For a plane strain problem in the x - y plane, in general, the non-zero stress terms are

(A) o I:Z,CTs.«)'I,a,l)' (8) Uu,Uu,CTyr,CT q

(e) uu,u."an,a.l.l (0) uu,u",u",ua

Q.14 For an elastic anisotropic solid, the number of independent elastic constants in its
constitutive equations is

(A)2 (8)9 (C) 21 (0) 36

AE 3/24
Q.l5 Total pressure at a point is defined as the pressure when the flow is brought to rest

(A) adiabatically
(B) isentropically
(C) isothermally
(0) isobarically

Q.16 The drag divergence Mach number of an airfoil

(A) is a fixed number for a given airfoil

(B) is always higher than the critical Mach number
(C) is equal to the critical Mach number at zero angle of attack
(0) is the Mach number at which a shock wave first appears on the airfoil

Q.17 On which one of the following thermodynamic cycles does an ideal ramjet operate?

(A) The Rankine cycle

(B) The Brayton cycle
(C) The Carnot cycle
(0) The Ono cycle

Q.18 Across a normal shock

(A) both total temperature and total pressure decrease

(B) both total temperature and total pressure remain constant
(C) total pressure remains constant but total temperature decreases
(0) total temperature remains constant but total pressure decreases

Q.19 The Joukowskii airfoil is studied in aerodynamics because

(A) it is used in many aircraft

(B) it is easily transformed into a circle, mathematically
(C) it has a simple geometry
(0) it has the highest lift curve slope among all airfoils

Q.20 One of the criteria for high-speed airplanes is that the critical Mach number should be
as high as possible. Therefore, high-speed subsonic airplanes are usually designed
with

(A) thick airfoils

(B) thin airfoils
(C) laminar flow airfoils
(0) diamond airfoils

AE 4/24
 Q. 21 to Q. 75 carry two marks each.

Q.21 Two identical earth satellites A and B are in circu lar orbits at altitudes hA and h s
above the earth's surface respectively, with hA > he. If E denotes the total mechanical
energy, T the kinetic energy and V the gravitational potential energy of a satellite,
then:

(A) EA > s, and VA < Vs

(B) E A > s, and TA > T»
(C) EA < Es and TA > i ,
(0) EA > Es and TA < Ts

Q.22 Let P and Q be two square matrices of same size. Consider the following stateme nts
(i) PQ=O implies p=o or Q=O or both
(ii) PQ =J' implies P =Q-'
(iii) (P +Q)' = P' +2PQ+Q'
(iv) (P-Q)' =P' -2PQ+Q'
where I is the identity matrix. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are false, but (iv) is true
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false, but (iii) is true
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are false, but (i) is true
(0) (i), (iii) and (iv) are false, but (ii) is true

Q.23 A I kg mass attached to a spring elongates it by 16mm. The mass is then pulled from
its equi librium position b) 10mm and released from rest. Assuming the acceleration
due to gravity of9.81 mis', the response of the mass in mm is given by

(A) x = 10sin 24.761

(B) x = lOcos 24.761
(C) x =sinl61
(0) x=IOcos161

Q.24 The earth's radius is 6.37x10'm and the acceleration due to gravity on its surface is
9.81 mls'. A satellite is in a circular orbit at a height of 6.30 x 10' m above the earth's
surface. The minimum additional speed it needs to escape from the earth's
gravitational field is

(A) 3.66 x l O'mls (B) 3.12 x10'mls (C) 3.27 x10' mls (0) 3.43 x)O'mls

AE 5/24
Q.25 Shown in the figure below is a model of an Euler-Bernoulli beam made up of two
materials subjected to pure bending moment M. The Young's modulus of material A
and B are EA and EB, respectively. The sectional moment of area, about the neutral
axis. of the cross-sectional areas made of materials A and B, are IA and Is,
respectively. The radius of curvature p of the flexural deflection of this composite
beam to the bending moment M is then

Eo.Io

M M

Q.26 Two pipes of constant sections but different diameters carry water at the same volume
flow rate. The Reynolds number. based on the pipe diameter, is

(A) the same in both pipes

(B) is larger in the narrower pipe
(C) is smaller in the narrower pipe
(D) depends on the material of the pipes

Q.27 Two airfoils of the same family are operating at the same angle of attack. The
dimensions of one airfoil are twice as large as the other one. The ratio of the
minimum pressure coefficient of the larger airfoil to the minimum pressure
coefficient of the smaller airfoil is

(A) 4.0 (B) 2.0 (e) 1.0 (D) 0.5

AE 6/24
Q.28 Wing A has a constant chord c and span b. Wing B is identical but has a span 4b.
When both wings are operating at the same geometric angle of attack at subsonic
speed, then :

(A) wings A and B produce the same lift coefficient

(B) wing A produces a smaller lift coefficient than wing B
(C) wing A produces a greater lift coefficient than wing B
(D) the freestream Mach number decides which wing produces the greater lift
coefficient

Q.29 A spring-mass-damper system is excited by a force F. sin OJ!. The amplitude at

resonance is measured to be I cm. At half the resonant frequency, the amplitude is 0.5
em . The damping ratio of the system is

(A) 0.1026 (B) 0.3242 (C) 0.7211 (D) 0.1936

Q.30 The eigenvalues of the matrix,

A=[~ ~] are
(A) I and 2 (B) I and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4

Q.3l The eigenvalues of the matrix A-I,

where A=[~ ~lare

(A) 1 and 112 (B) I and 1/3
(e ) 2 and 3 (D) \/2 and 1/3

Q.32 The radius of the earth is 6.37 x106m and the acceleration due to gravity at its surface
is 9.81 mls2 • A satellite is in circular orbit at a height of 35.9 x 106 m above the earth's
surface. This orbit is inclined at 10.5 degrees to the equator. The velocity change
needed to make the orbit equatorial is:

(A) 561 mls at 84.75 degrees to the initial direction

(B) 561 mls at 95.25 degrees to the initial direction
(C) 281 mls at 84.75 degrees to the initial direction
(D) 281 mls at 95.25 degrees to the initial direction

Q.33 A piston-prop airplane having propeller efficiency, 'I, = 0.8 and weighing 73108 N
could achieve maximum climb rate of 15 mls at flight speed of 50 mls. The excess
Brake Power (BP) at the above flight condition will be

(A) 1700 kW (B)2100 kW (C) 1371 kW (D) 6125 kW

AE 7/24
Q.34 An airplane model with a symmetric airfoil was tested in a wind tunnel. C~o (Cm at
angle of attack, a = 0) was estimated to be 0.08 and 0 respectively for elevator
settings (t5e) of 5 degrees up and 5 degrees down. The estimated value of the elevator
control power (DC~ ) of the model will be
Me

(A) 0.07 per deg (B)-1.065 perdeg (C) -o.008perdeg (D)-0.762 perdeg

Q.35 The lateral-directional characteristic equation for an airplane gave the following set of
roots:.l,= -0.6, A,= -0.002, A,,= -0.06 ±jl.5,where j = ,f-T. The damping
ratio corresponding to the Dutch-roll mode will be

(A) 0.04 (B) 0.66 (C) 0.35 (D) 0.18

Q.36 An' airplane is flying at an altitude of IOkm above the sea level. Outside air
temperature and density at 10km altitude are 223 K and 0.413 kg/m 3 respectively. The
airspeed indicator of the airplane indicates a speed of 60 mls. Density of air at sea
level is 1.225 kg/m 3 and value of the gas constant R is 288 J/kgIK. The stagnation
pressure (Po) measured by the Pitot tube mounted on the wing tip of the airplane will
be of magnitude

(A) 3.5xI0'N/m2 (B) 2.0xlO'N/m 2 (C) 2.87xlO'N/m2 (D) 0.6 xlO'N/m 2

Q.37 If the center of gravity of an airplane is moved forward towards the nose of the
airplane, the CL _ (maximum value of the lift coefficient) value for which the
airplane can be trimmed ( C. = 0) will

(A) decrease (B) increase (C) remain same (D) depend upon
rudder deflection

Q.38 If the contribution of only the horizontal tail of an airplane was considered for
estimating DC., and if the tail moment arm I, was doubled, then how many times
aa
the original value would the new DC~ become?
aa
(A) two times (B) three times (C) 1.414 times (D) 1.732 times

Q.39 If the vertical tail of an airplane is inverted and put below the horizontal tail, then the
contribution to roll derivative, DC, , will be
ap
(A) negative (B) positive (C) zero (D) imaginary

AE 8/24
QAO Let a system of linear equations be as follows:

x- y+2z = 0
2x+3y-z =O
2x-2y+4z =O

This system of equations has

(A) No non-trivial solution

(B) Infinite number of non-trivial solutions
(C) An unique non-trivial solution
(0) Two non-trivial solutions

QAl A turbulent boundary layer remains attached over a longer distance on the upper
surface of an airfoil than does a laminar boundary layer, because

(A) the turbulent boundary layer is more energetic and hence can overcome the
adverse pressure gradient better
(B) the laminar boundary layer develops more skin friction and hence slows down
more rapidly
(C) turbulence causes the effective coefficient of viscosity to reduce, resulting in less
loss of momentum in the boundary layer
(0) the turbulent boundary layer is thicker, hence the velocity gradients in it are
smaller, therefore viscous losses are less

QA2 The laminar boundary layer over a large flat plate held parallel to the freestream is 5
mm thick at a point 0.2 m downstream of the leading edge. The thickness of the
boundary layer at a point 0.8 m downstream of the leading edge will be

(A) 20 mm (B) 10 mm (C) 5 mm (0) 2.5 mm

QA3 If horizontal tail area is increased while the elevator to horizontal tail area ratio is kept
same, then

(A) both longitudinal static stability and elevator control power will increase
(B) only longitudinal static stability will increase
(C) only elevator control power will increase
(0) neither stability nor control power changes

AE 9/24
5/121 FoodlO6-AE-2
Q.44 A circular shaft is made-up of two materials A and B. The inner core is made-up of
material A with diameter dA, torsion constant lA, and shear modulus GA. The outer
sleeve is made-up of material B with diameter dB, torsion constant lB, and shear
modulus GB• The composite shaft is of length L and is subjected to pure torsion
moment T. The torsional stiffness, T, where " is the ang le of twist, of this

composite shaft is then "

B

T ++- A
-- T

dB

(B ) GAl A + G.l.
L L
(C) (G A+G.Xl A+l.)
L

(D) GAl. + GBl A

L L

Q.45 Air enters through the eye of a centrifugal compressor with a stagnation tempe rature
300 K and exits the compressor with a stagnati on temperature 424 K. If the isentropic
efficiency of the compressor is 0.81 and the ratio of specific heats of the flowing gas
(ass umed as constant) is 1.4, then the pressure ratio across the compressor is

(A) 2.75 (B) 5.60 (C) 65.00 (D) 228 .00

AE 10/24
Q.46 The boundary conditions for an Euler-Bernoulli column are given in column X and
the critical buckling loads are given in column Y. Match the boundary condition of
the column to its corresponding buckling load. Pais the critical buck ling load, E is
the Young's modulus of the column material,! its sectional moment of area, and L is
the length of the column.
X. Boundary condition Y. Critical buckling load
A I. Pinned-pinned column
YI. P = 4!T',E!
a
L
X2. Fixed-free (cantilevered) column 2.046!T'E!
--
Y2. Pa =
L'
X3. Fixed-fixed column
Y3. p = !T'E!
a 4L'
X4. Fixed-pinned column
Y4 P = !T'E!
• cr L2

(A) Xl-Y4, X2-Y3, X3-YI, X4-Y2

(B) XI-Y4, X2-Y2, X3-Y3, X4-YI
(C) XI-Y4, X2-Yl, X3-Y2, X4-Y3
(D) XI -Y4, X2-Y3, X3-Y2, X4-YI

Q.47 For an impulse turbine with identical stages, the hot gas exits from the stato r blades at
the mean blade height at an absolute angle of 70 deg rees with the axis of the turbine.
If the absolute inlet blade angle with the axis of the turbine at the mean blade height
for the rotor blades is 37 degrees, then the absolute exit blade angle with the axis of
the turbine at the mean blade height of the rotor blades is

(A) 33 degrees (B) 37 degrees (C) 53 degrees (D) 53.5 degrees

Q.48 Which one of the following materia ls shou ld be selected to design an axial flow
turbine operating at high temperatures?

(A) Steel alloy (B) Titanium alloy

(C) Nickel alloy (D) Aluminum alloy

Q.49 Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) The isentropic efficiency ofa compressor is constant throughout the compressor
(B) Flow separation problems are more critical for the axial compressors than for the
centri fugal compressors
(C) The pressure ratio ofa centrifugal compressor approaches zero as the compressor
mass flow rate approaches zero
(D) Centrifugal compressors are always designed with multiple stages

AE 11124
Q.50 An athlete starts running with a speed ~~ . Subsequently, his speed decreases by an
amount that is proportional to the distance that he has already covered. The distance
covered will be

(A) Linear in time

(B) Quadratic in time
(C) Exponential in time
( D) Logarithmic in time

Q.51 The on-board rocket motor of a satellite of initial mass 2000 kg provides a specific
impulse of 280 seconds. If this motor is fired to give a speed increment of 500 m/s
along the direction of motion, the mass of propellant consumed is:

(A) 685 kg
(B) 333 kg
(C) 1666 kg
(D) 167 kg

Q.52 Combustion between fuel (octane) and oxidizer (air) occurs inside a combustor with
the following stoichiometric chemical reaction:

2C,H 18 + (2502 + 94N 2) -+ 16COl + 18HlO + 94Nl.

The atomic weights of carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (0 ), and nitrogen (N) are
12, I, 16, and 14, respectively . If the combustion takes place with the fuel to air ratio
0.028, then the equivalence ratio of the fuel-oxidizer mixture is

(A) 0.094 (B) 0.422 (C) 0.721 (D) 2.371

Q.53 The von Mises yield criterion or the maximwn distortion energy criterion for a plane
stress problem with 0', and 0', as the principal stresses in the plane, and u r .as the
yield stress, requires

, -0',0',+0'," S O'r
(A ) 0',
(8)10', -0',1 S U r
(C) lu,lsur
(D) 10',1S u r

AE 12/24
Q.54 An Euler-Bernoulli beam having a rectangular cross-section, as shown in the figure,
dM
is subjected to a non-uniform bending moment along its length. V, = dx Y • The.shear

stress distribution r.. across its cross-section is given by

z
Vz

c-- -

h y

( A) V. : :
t .. = 2iy (h 12)

(B)r =V,(hI2)' (I_ ::' )

.. 2ly (hI2)'

(C) _ V, ( z )'
t .. - 2Iy (h12)
V,(h I2)'
(D) t ..
2l y

Q.55 At a stationary point ofa multi-variable function, which of the following is true?

(A) Curl of the function becomes unity

(B) Gradient of the function vanishes
(C) Divergence of the function vanishes
(D) Gradient of the function is maximum

Q.56 In a rocket engine, the hot gas generated in the combustion chamber exits the nozzle
with a mass flow rate 719 kg/sec and velocity 1794 m1s. The area of the nozzle exit
section is 0.635 m2• If the nozzle expansion is optimum, then the thrust produced by
the engine is

(A)811 kN (B) 1290 kN (C) 1354 kN (D) 2172 kN

AE 13/24
Q.57 For the control volume shown in the figure below, the velocities are measured both at
the upstream and the downstream ends.

streamline U,
U, ---------------1 ~
y u = -y
u.
c
-- h
U.
= --y
h
hI---*'
~L---------- . l~
streamline U.

The flow of density p is incompressible, two dimensional and steady. The pressure is
p~ over the entire surface of the control volume. The drag on the airfoil is given by,

(A) pU;h
3
(B) 0
(C) pU;h
6
(D) 2pU;h

Q.58 A gas turbine engine operates with a constant area duct combustor with inlet and
outlet stagnation temperatures 540 K and 1104 K respectively. Assume that the flow
is one dimensional, incompressible and frictionless and that the heat addition is
driving the flow inside the combustor. The pressure loss factor (stagnation pressure
loss non-dimensionalized by the inlet dynamic pressure) of the combustor is

(A) 0 (B) 0.489 (C) 1.044 (D) 2.044

Q.59 The diffuser of an airplane engine decelerates the airflow from the tlight Mach
number 0.85 to the compressor inlet Mach number 0.38. Assume that the ratio of the
specific heats is constant and equal to 1.4. If the diffuser pressure recovery ratio is
0.92, then the isentropic efficiency of the diffuser is

(A) 0.631 (B) 0.814 (C) 0.892 (D) 1.343

AE 14/24
Q.60 An airfoil section is known to generate lift when placed in a uniform stream of speed
U, at an incidence a. A biplane consisting of two such sections of identical chord c,
separated by a distance h is shown in the following figure:

B T h

c
A
1
With-regard to this biplane, which of the following statements is true?

(A) Both the airfoils experience an upwash and an increased approach velocity
(B) Both the airfoils experience a downwash and a decreased approach velocity
(C) Both the airfoils experience an upwash and airfoil A experiences a decreased
approach velocity while airfoil B experiences an increased approach velocity
(0) The incidence for the individual sections of the biplane is not altered

Q.61 Numerical value of the integral

I
J. f--,
I

01 +x
dx , if evaluated numerically using the Trapezoidal rule with dx = 0.2
would be

(A)l (B) ;r/4

(C) 0.7837 (0) 0.2536

Q.62 The purpose of a fuel injection system in the combustor is

(A) to accelerate the flow in the combustor

(B) to increase the stagnation pressure of the fuel-air mixture
(C) to ignite the fuel-air mixture
(0) to convert the bulk fuel into tiny droplets

Q.63 Which one of the following values is nearer to the vacuum specific impulse of a
rocket engine using liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen as propellants?

(A) 49 sec (B) 450 sec (C) 6000 sec (0) 40000 sec

Q.64 A circular cylinder is placed in an uniform stream of ideal fluid with its axis normal
to the flow. Relative to the forward stagnation point, the angular positions along the
circumference where the speed along the surface of the cylinder is equal to the free
stream speed are

(A) 30, 150, 210 and 330 degrees

(B) 45, 135,225 and 315 degrees
(C) 0,90, 180 and 270 degrees
(0) 60, 120, 240 and 300 degrees

AE 15/24
Q.65 The Newton-Raphson iteration formula to find a cube root of a positive number c is

(A) X.t+1
= 2x:3 +' ~
x.
2x:-~
(B) x••, ,
-3x.
2x: +c
(e ) x•• , ,
3x.
,
(D) = x.+c
Xh l 3x.'

Q.66 The torsion constant J ofa thin-walled closed tube of thickness r and mean radius r is
given by

(A) J = Lnrt' (B) J = 21fr'r (C) J = 21fr'r' (D) J = 21fr'

Q.67 An aerospace system shown in the following figure is designed in such a way that the
expan sion generated at A is completely absorbed by wall B for P, = Ps - where
Pd corresponds to the design condition.

M , > l, p,

For P, > Pe which of the following statements is NOT true?

(A) For P, < Pd' the expansion fan from A gets reflected from B as a compression
wave
(B) For P, > Pe- the expansion fan from A gets reflected from B as an expansion
wave
(C) For P, < Pd' the expansion fan from A gets reflected from B as an expansion
wave
(D) For PI > Pd' B always sees an expansion

AE 16/24
Q.68 The span-wise lift distribution for three wings is shown in the followi ng figure:

1.2 -13- _.- .- .- .- ._:;.-._ _.

'-Q-::;'-~~- - -- . <, <.

-------... -... . .., \

... ... \
,
\
\
\
0.4

o y
s

In the above figure, c, refers to the section lift coefficient, C L refers to the lift
coefficient of the wing, y is the coordinate along the span and s is the span of the
wing. A designer prefers to use a wing for which the stall begins at thc root. Which of
the wings will he choose?

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (0) None

Q.69 . sinx
IIm-- =
.. _0 e
llx

(A) 10 (B)O (C) I (0) et)

Q.70 Let a dynamical system be described by the differential equation

2 dx + cos x = O. Which of the following differential equations describes this system
dt
in a close approximation sense for small perturbation about x = tr /4 ?

dx dx 1
(A) 2 +sinx =O (B) 2-- -x=O
dl dl Ji
dx dx
(C) - + cosx= O (D) - + x= O
dl dt

AE 17124
 Common Data Q uestions

Common Data for Question. 71, 72 & 73: An airplane designer wants to keep longitudinal
static stability margin (SM) within 5% to 15% of mean aerodynam ic chord. A wind tunnel test
- dC
of the model showed that for X co = 0.3, --~ = - 0.1. Note that the distance from the
dCL
wing leading edge to the center of the gravity (Xco ) has been non-dimensionalized by
dividing it with mean aerodynamic chord, c , such that X co = X co l c . Note also that the

relation dC. = _ SM holds true for this airplane.

dCL

Q.71 The most forward location of the airplane center of gravity permitted to fulfill the
designer's requirement on longitudinal static stability margin is

(A) 0.35 c (8) 0.25 c (C) 0.15 e (0) 0.52 e

Q.72 The most aft location of the airplane center of gravity permitted to fulfill designer's
requirement on longitudinal static stability is

(A) 0.35 e (8) 0.45 c (C) 0.52 e (0 ) 0.67 e

Q.73 The center of gravity location to have

dee
- - = 0 is
dCL

(A) 0.35 e (8) 0.45e (C) 0.5e (0) O.4e

Commo n Da ta for Q uestions 74 & 75: Consider the spring mass system shown in the figure
below. This system has two degrees of freedom representing the motions of the two masses.

Q.74 The system shows the follcwing type of coordinate coupling

(A) static coupling

(8) dynamic coupling
(C) static and dynamic coupling
(0) no coupling

AE 18/24
 Q.75 The two natural frequencies of the system are given as

(A)J4±J5 Ir (B) J4±,j) k

3 m 3 m

(C) J4±J7 Ir (0) J4±.JlI k

3 m 3 m

Linked Answer Questions: Q.76 to Q.85 carry two marks each.

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 76 & 77: For a piston propeller airplane weighing
20000 N, the flight testing at 5 km pressure altitude in standard atmosphere gave the variation
of power required versus true air speed as shewn in figure below. The student forgot to label
the air speed axis . The maximum climb rate at sea level was calculated to be 4 mls. Assume
shaft power available to be independent of speed of flight. For piston propeller airplane, it can
be assumed that the shaft power available is proportional to amb ient density. Values of air
density at sea level and at 5 km pressure altitude are 1.225 kglm) and 0.74 kg/rrr' ,
respectively.

Sea level
Power
Requ ired
r ,
5km

PR, watls 15 X 10'

10 X 10'
.• ••.. .~. ~
"
• ..: :a ••• : : :_ • •• ••. ••• •.•• .. _
5 X 10'

V (True air speed) - - . •

Q.76 The maximum rate of climb achievable by this airplane at 5 km altitude will be

(A) 1.65 mls (B) 0.51 mls (C) 1.43 mls (0) 3.65 mls

Q.77 If during the maximum rate of climb at 5 km altitude, the airplane was flying at an
angle of attack of 4 degrees and attitude (pitch) angle of 5 degrees, what was
equivalent airspeed of the airplane?

(A) 40.2 mls (8) 63.7 mls (C) 130.3 mls (0) 20.2 mls

AE 19/24
Statement for Linked Ans wer Qu est ions 78 8< 79: A model wing of rectangular planform
has a chord of 0.2 m and a span of 1.2 m. It has a symmetric airfoil ection whose lift curve
slope is 0.\ per degree. When this wing is mounted at 8 degrees angle of attack in a
freestream of20 m/s it is found to develop 35.3 N lift when the density of air is 1.225 kg/nr',

Q.78 The lift curve slope of this wing is

(A)O .IOperdeg (B) 0.092 per deg (C) 0.075 per deg (D) 0.050 per deg

Q.79 The span efficiency factor of this wing is

(A) 1.0 ( B) 0.9\ (e) 0.75 ( D) 0.63

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 & 81:

Let F( s) = (5+ 10)
(s + 2)(s + 20)
Q.80 The partial fraction expans ion of F (s) is

I I
( A ) - + -- 5 2
s + 2 5 + 20 (B)-+ - -
5+2 5 + 20
(C) _2_+~ (D) 4 /9 + ~
s +2 s+20 s+2 s +2 0

Q.81 The inverse Laplace transform of F(s) is

(A) 2e-" + 20e-lO• 5

(B) ':e- l•
+ -e
- l Ot

9 9
(C) 5e-" + 2e-lO•
(D) ~ e-l' + -e
9 - 20'
4 5

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82 & 83: The equation of motion of a vibrating
, l

rod is given by a'~ =..!, a ~ . Here u is the displacement along the rod and is a function of
ax c: at
both position x and timet. To find the response of the vibrating rod. we need to solve this
equation using boundary conditions and initial conditions.

Q.82 The boundary conditions needed for a rod fixed at the root (x = 0 ) and free at the tip
(x = I ) are

ell all
(A) II( X = 0) = o. ax (x = I) = 0 ( B) II(X = I) = O. ax (x = I) = 0
(C) u(x =O ) =O.u(x =I) =O all
(D) -(x = 0) = O.- (x = I) = 0
au
ax ax
Q.83 The natural frequencies (d of the fixed-free rod can then be obtained using

wi
( B) sin(ml)=O
IlJC m
(A) cos(- ) = 0 (C) C05(-1) = 0 (D ) cos(-) = 0
c c c

AE 20124
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84 & 85: Air enters the compressor of a gas
turbine engine with velocity 127 rn/s, density 1.2 kg/rrr' and stagnation pressure 0.9 MPa. Air
exits the compressor with velocity 139 mls and stagnation pressure 3.15 MPa. Assume that
the ratio of specific heats is constant and equal to 1.4.

Q.84 The compressor pressure ratio is

(A) 0.22 (B) 0.28 (C) 3.50 (0) 3.90

Q.85 If the polytropic efficiency of the compressor is 0.89, then the isentropic efficiency of
the compressor is

(A) 0.613 (B) 0.869 (C) 0.89 (0) 0.98

END OF THE QUESTIO PAP ER

A E 2 1/24
2008 MAI N'PAPER - AE

AE : AEROSPACE E GI l EERIJ G

Duration : Thre e Hours Maximum Murks : 150

Read th e followin g instructi on s carefully

I. This question paper conta ins 20 printed pages including pages for rough work. Please check all pages
and report discrepancy, if any.

2. Write yo ur regi stration number. yo ur name and name o f the e xamination ce ntre at the specified
locations on the right hal f o f the ORS.

3. Using IlB pencil, darken the appropriate bubble under eac h digit of your registration number and the
letters corresponding to your paper code.

4. All the ques tions in this question paper are of objective type .

5. Questions must be answere d on O bjective Response Sheet (O RS) by dark ening the appropriate
bubble (marked A, 13, C, D) using 1113 pencil agai nst the q uestion number on the left hand side of the
ORS . Each q ues tio n has only one correc t ans we r. In caseyou wi sh (0 change an answer, erase the
old answe r co mpletely. More than one answer bubbl ed agai nst a question will be treated as a wrong
answer.

6. Questions I through 20 are l-rn ark questions and questions 2 1 through 85 are 2-mark questions.

7. Questions 71 through 73 is one set of common data questions, questions 74 and 75 is another pair of
commo n data questions. The question pairs (76.77), (78 , 79), (80, 81), (82, 83) and (84, 85) arc
questions with linked answers. The answer to the second question of the abo ve pairs will depend on
the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answe red
or is un-attempted, then the answer to the seco nd question in the pair will not be eva luated.

8. Un-attempted questions w ill carry zero marks.

9. I'EGAT1\'E ;\IA RK II'G : For Q. I to Q.20, 0.15 mar k will be deducted for eac h wrong answer. For
Q.21 10 Q.75, 0.5 mar k will be deducted for each " Tong answer. For the pairs of questio ns with
linked answe rs, there will be negative marks only for wron g answer to the first question , i.e. for Q .76,
Q.78, Q.80. Q.82 and Q .84, 0.5 mark will be deducted for eac h wro ng answe r. There is no negative
marking for Q.77, Q.79, Q .8 1, Q.83 and Q.85.

10. Calcu lator wi tho ut d at a co nnec tivity is allowed in the exa mination hall.

I I. Charts, graph sheets and tables are NOT allowed in the examination ha ll.

12. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Additiona l blank pages arc given at the end of
the question paper for roug h work.

AE 1'10
 MAIN PAPER AE

Q . 1 - Q. 20 car ry onc mark each,

Q. I 11,e funct ion defin ed by

I(x) = sin .r , x <0
= O. x=O
= 3x', x >O
(A) is neither conti nuo us nor differe ntiable at x = 0
(8) is conti nuous and differentiable at .r = 0
(C) is diffe rentiable but not continuous at .r = 0
(D) is continuous but not differentiable at .r = 0

Q.2 The produc t of the eigenvalues of the matrix

[~ ~ J
is
(A) 4 (il) 0 (C) -6 (D) -9

Q.3 Which of the following equations is a LI EAR ordinary differential equation?

d 'l' dv
(A) - ' + - ' +2\,' =0
dx' dx '
d 'v dv
(B) - ' + \' -
' +21'= 0
dx' ' d~ ,
d 1 \' dv
, + x -'- + 2y = 0
(C) - '-
dx dx
dl' )' dv
(D) ( - ' +-' +2\'=0
dx dx '

Q.4 To transfer a satellite from an elliptica l orb it to a circular orbit having radius equal to the apogee
distance of the elliptical orbit. the spee d of the satellite should be
(A) increased at the apogee
(8) decreased at the apogee
(C) increased at the perigee
(D) decreased at the peri gee

Q.5 The service ceili ng of a transport aircra ft is defin ed as the alti tude
(A) that is halfway between sea-level and absol ute ceiling
(B) at which it can cruise with one engine operational
(e) at which its maximum ra te of climb is zero
(D) at which its maximum rate of cli mb is 0.508 rn/s

Q .6 The drag of an aircraft in steady climbing flight at a given forward speed is

(A) inversely prop ortional to climb ang le
(8) higher than drag in steady level flight at the same forward speed
(C) lower than drag in steady level flight at the same forward speed
(D) independent of climb angle

AE 2/20
:!OO8 MAIN PAPER - AE

Q.7 In steady, level turning flight of an aircraft at a load factor '1/'. the ratio of the horizontal component
of lift and aircraft weight is

(A)~ (B) ,J;;+I (C) ~ (D) .[,;';l

0.8 The parameters that remain constant in a cruise-climb of an aircraft are
(A) equivalent airspeed and lift coefficient (B) altitude and lift coefficient
(C) equivalent airspeed and altitude (D) lift coefficient and aircraft mass

Q.9 The maximum thickness to chord ratio for the NACA 24012 airfoil is
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.12 (C) 0.24 (D) 0.40

Q. I0 The maximum possible value of pressure coefficient C, in incompressible flow is

(A) 0.5 (B) I (C) " (D) 00

Q .I I An irrotational and inviscid flow can become rotational on passing through a

(A) normal shock wave (B) oblique shock wave
(C) curved shock wave (D) Mach wave

Q.12 Laminar flow airfoils are used to reduce

(A) trim drag (B) skin friction drag
(C) induced drag (D) wave drag

Q.13 The degree of reaction of an impulse turbine is

(A) I (B) 0.75 (C) 0.5 (D) 0

Q .14 In a convergent-divergent (CD) nozzle ofa rocket motor. the wall heat flux is maximum at
(A) the exit of the divergent portion of the CD nozzle
(B) the entry to the convergent portion of the CD nozzle
(C) the throat of the CD nozzle
(D) the mid-length of the divergent portion of the CD nozzle

Q .15 In a scramjet engine. the Mach number at the entry to the combustion chamber is around
(A) 0 (B) 0.3 (C) 2 (D) 6

Q .16 DB denotes double base solid propellant.

LOX-RP I denotes liquid oxygen - kerosene combination.
LOX-LIl, denotes liquid oxygen - hydrogen combination.

The correct order of increasing specific impulse is

(A) DB < LOX-RPI < LOX-LH,
(B) LOX ·RPI < DB < LOX-LIl,
(C) LOX-LIl, < DB < LOX-RP I
(D) DB < LOX·LIl, < LOX·RPI

Q .17 In the absence of body moments. the symmetry of the stress tensor is derived from
(A) force equilibrium conditions (B) moment equilibrium conditions
(C) linear relations between stresses and strains (D) compatibility conditions

AE 3120
 '008 MAINPAPER AE

Q.18 In a 3-D orthotropic material, the numbcr of elastic constants in linear stress-strain relationship is
(A)3 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 21

Q.19 The compatibility conditions in theory of elasticity ensure that

(A) there is compatibility between various direct and shear stresses
(8) relationships between stresses and strains arc consistent with constitutive relations
(C) displacements are single-valued and continuous
(D) stresses satisfy bi-harmonic equation

Q.20 In a spring-mass-damper single degree of freedom system, the mass is 2 kg and the undamped
natural frequency is 20 Hz. The critical damping constant of the system is
(A) 16011 N .slm (B) 8011 N.sfm (C) I N.sfm (D) 0 N.slm

Q. 21 to Q.75 ca r ry two marks eac h,

Q.21 Which of the following quantities remains constant for a satellite in an elliptical orbit around the
earth?
(A) Kinetic energy
(B) Product of speed and radial distance from the center of the earth
(C) Rate of area swept by the radial vector from the center of the orbit
(D) Rate of area swept by the radial vector from the center of the earth

Q.22 A planet is observed to be at its slowest when it is at a distance ,., from the sun and at its fastest
when it is at a distance rj from the sun . The eccentricity e of the planet's orbit is given by

r. r. - r ;
(A)e =.1. (B)e=-' - --
r, Ii + Ii
r r. + r.,
(D) e=_'__
(C) e =.l.
r , 'I - 'i

Q.23
The function f(x,y,z) =2.2 x '/ =' satisfies

(A) gradf =0 (B) div(grad f) = 0

(C) curl(grad f) = 0 (D) grad(div(gradf) = 0

Q.24 Which of the following is true for all choices of vectors p,q,r?

(A) pxq +qxr + rx p=0

(B) (p ·q)i'+(q ·r)p+(r·p)q=O
(C) p'(qxr)+q'(rxp)+r'(pxq)=O
(D) p x (q x r) + q x (r x p) + r x (p x q) = 0

Q.25
The value of the line integral _I_ A (x dy - ydx) taken anticlockwisc along a circle of unit radius
2lT cJ
IS

(A) 0.5 (B) I (Cl 2 (D) 11

AE

- -------
100H MAIS PAPER - AE

0 .26
Which of the following is a solution of eI',;
dx
+ 2 ely + Y = O?
dx
(A) e-x + xe" (8) e' + xe-'
(C) e' + e- x (0) e" + xe'

0 .27 Suppo se the non-constant functions F(x) and G(I) satisfy

eI' F , elG , ,
--+ P F
dx'
=0 ' -
ell
+c P G =0 ' wherep and c are constants.

Then the function U(X.I) = F (x)G(I) definitely satisfies

a'U , a'u
(A) - = c -
au ,a'u
(Il) - = c -
aI' ax' al ax'
a u +c·u
2
."
(C) '\I'u =0 (0) - =0
aI'

0 .28 The following set of equations

[
:
o
~ ~][:~] [-~]
1 1 x,
=
0
has
(A) no solution (B) a unique solution
(C) two solutions (0 ) infinite solUIions

0.29 The function [( x) = x' - 5x + 6

(A) has its maximum value at x = 2.0

(B) has its maximum value at x = 2.5
(C) is increasing on the interval (2.0, 2.5)
(0) is increasing on the interval (2.5, 3.0)

0.30 Let Y(s) denote the Laplace transform L(v(I)) of the function j'(r) = cosh(al) sin(at). Then

(A)L ( -elV)
' =elY
- , L(ly(I») =sY(s) (Il ) L -elV
' ) =s Y(s ) , L(l y(I»)= -elY
( ell -
ell ds ds

(C) L ( -elV)
' =elY
ell
- , L(I y(I») = Y(s-l)
ds
(0) L (dr )=SY(S), L(IY(I»)=e~Y(s)

0 .31 The velocity required for a spacecraft to escape earth 's gravitational field depend s on
(A) the mass of the spacecraft
(B) the distance between earth's center and the spacecraft
(C) the earth' s rotational speed about its own axis
(0) the earth 's orbital speed

AE 5/20
200K MAIN PArER - AE

0.32 The figure below shows the variation of C versus a for an aircraft for three combinations of
M

elevator deflections and locations of centre of gravity. In the figure, lines I' and 0 are parallel,
while lines 0 and R have the same intercept on the C; axis.

a
I' 0 R

Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Lines I' and 0 correspond to the same centre of gravity location.
(B) Lines 0 and R correspond to the same centre of gravity location.
(C) Lines I' and 0 correspond to the same elevator deflection.
(D) Lines I' and R correspond to the same centre of gravity location.

0 .33 Which of the following statements is TRUE as the altitude increases in stratosphere of International
Standard Atmosphere'
(A) Temperature increases and dynamic viscosity decreases.
(B) Temperature remains constant and pressure increases.
(C) Temperature decreases and sound speed decreases.
(D) Temperature remains constant and density decreases.

0 .34 Which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Wing dihedral reduces roll stability while a low wing increases roll stability.
(B) Wing dihedral increases roll stability while a low wing reduces roll stability.
(C) Wing dihedral, as well as low wing reduces roll stability.
(D) Wing dihedral, as well as low wing increases roll stability.

0.35 An aircraft has a level flight stalling speed of 60 mls EAS (equivalent air speed). As per the Von
diagram, what is the minimum speed at which it should be designed to withstand the maximum
vertical load factor of 9?
(A) 20 mls (B) 60 mls (C) 120 m/s (D) 180 mls

0 .36 Match each mode of aircraft motion listed in Group Ito its corresponding property from Group II.

Group I: Aircraft mode Group II: Propertv

1': Short neriod mode I: Counled roll-vaw oscillations
0 : Wina rock 2: Angle of attack remains constant
R: Phueoid mode 3: Roll oscillations
S: Dutch roll 4: Speed remains constant

(A) 1'-2. 0-1, R-l, S-3 (B) 1'-4. 0-3, R-2. Sol
(C) P-l, 0-1. R-2. S-3 (D) 1'-2,0-3, R-4, S-I

0 .37 An aircraft is cruising at a true air speed (TAS) of 100 mls under ISA conditions. at an altitude at
which the density of free stream is 0.526 kg/m ' . What will be the equivalent air speed (EAS)'!
(A) 65.5 mls (B) 72.5 mls (C) 110.5 mls (D) 152.7 m/s

AE ()l20
200R MAIN PAPER - AE

Q.38 In the definition of the aircraft Euler angles", (roll) . 8 (pitch). and IjI (yaw). the correct seq uence of
rotati ons required to mak e the inertial frame coincide with the aircraft bod y frame is
(A) first IjI abo ut z axis. second 0 about y axi s. third", about x axi s
( B) first 8 about y axis. second ", about x axi s. third IjI about z axis
(C) first ", about x axis. second 0 about y axi s. third IjI about z axi s
(D ) first IjI about z axis, second ", about x axi s. third 8 about y axi s

Q.39 To maximize range of a jet engine aircraft. it should be flown at a velocity that maximizes
(A) Cl/C o (8 ) ClOI/C " (C) ClLl/C" (D) Cl' /C "

Q.40 The prim ary functi on of the fin in the verti cal tail of an aircraft is to provide
(A) yaw co ntro l
(Il) ya w stability
(C) roll damping
(D) roll stab ility

Q.41 An air craft requires the trailing edge of the ele vator to be deflected upward s from its initial position
to lower the trim speed. Which of the following statements about the static stick-fixed stability of
this aircraft is true?
(A) The aircraft is unstable.
(8) The aircraft is neutrally stable.
(C) The aircraft is stable.
(D) Th e stability of the aircraft cannot be determined from the given information.

Q.42 Which of the foll owin g statements is true for an aircraft flyin g at a low ang le of attack?
(A ) Yaw ing motion generates yawing moment and pitching moment.
(8) Roll ing mot ion generates rolling moment and pitching moment.
(C) Yawing motion generates yawing moment and rolling moment.
(D) Pitching motion ge nerates ya wing moment and rolling moment.

Q.43
Co nsi der 2-D flow with stream function 'II = ~ In ( Jx' + .1" ) . The absolute value of circulation
along a unit circle centered at (x = 0,)' = 0) is
(A) 0 (8) I (C) 1tI2 (D) "
Q.44 Conside r a symmetric airfoil at an angle of attack of 4 de gre es. Usin g thin airfo il theory, the
magnitu de of the mom ent coefficient about the leading edge is
(A) 211 (1l)1I (C) 11' /60 (D) ,, ' /90

Q.45 Consi der steady, invi scid flow in a convergent-divergent (CD) nozzle, with a normal shock in the
divergent port ion . Th e static pressure along the nozzle downstream of the normal shock
(A) remains constant
(Il ) increases iscntropi cally to the sta tic pre ssure at the nozzl e exit
(C) decreases isentropically to the static pressure at the nozzle ex it
(D) can increase or decrease, depending on the magnitude of the static pressure at the nozzle exit

Q.46 For a free stream Mach number of 0.7 the criti cal pressure coe fficient (C p.,,) is - 0. 78. If the
minimum pressure coefficient for a given airfoil in incompressible flow is - 0 .6, then the flow
ove r the airfoil at a free stream Mach number of O.7 is
(A) su bso nic and compressibl e (Il ) co mpletely superso nic
(C) incompressible (D) partly sub sonic and partly supersonic

AE 7flO
2008 MAIN' PAPER AE

Q.47 If the flow Mach number in a turbulent boundary layer over a flat plate is increased keeping the
Reynolds number unchanged . the skin friction coefficient C,
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains constant
(D) initially decreases. followed by a rapid increase

Q.48 In supersonic wind-tunnel design. an oblique shock diffuser is preferred over a normal shock
diffuser because
(A) it reduces total pressure loss
(B) the flow is slowed down more rapidly
(C) the flow is accelerated more rapidly
(D) it increases total pressure loss

Q.49 The variation of downwash along the span of an untwisted wing of elliptic planform is
(A) sinusoidal (B) parabolic (C) elliptic (D) constant

Q.50 Flow past an airfoil is to be modeled using a vortex sheet. The stren gth of the vortex sheet at the
trailing edge will be
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2" (D) co

Q.51 Consider a 2-D body in supersonie flow with an attached oblique shock as shown below

M., > I

An increase in free stream Mach number M~ will cause the oblique shock wave to
(A) move closer to the body (B) move away from the body
(C) detach from the body (D) become a normal shock

Q.52 The geometrical features of a supercritical airfoil are

(A) rounded leading edge. flat upper surface and high camber at the rear
(B) sharp leading edge. curved upper surface and high camber at the rear
(C) rounded leading edge , curved upper surface and no camber althe rear
(D) sharp leading edge. flat upper surface and no camber at the rear

Q.53 Which one of the following high lift device results in higher stalling angle?
(A) split flap
(B) Fowler flap
(C) plain flap
(D) leading edge flap

Q.54 A turbofan engine has a bypass ratio of 5 and a total mass flow rate of 120 kg/soThe mass flow rate
through the bypass duct is
(A) 20 kg/s (B) 100 kg/s (C) 120 kg/s (D) 600 kg/s

AE 8'20
1008 MAI~ PAPER AE

Q.55 A turbojet engine is operating with afterburner off. If the afterburner is switched on , then
(A) both thrust and sfc decrease
(B) thrust increases and sfc decreases
(C) thrust decreases and sfc increases
(0) both thrust and sfc increase

0 .56 A centrifugal compressor operates with a tip blade speed of 340 mls. The air leaves the impeller
with a radial velocity of 88 mls. If the slip factor is 0.85, the relative veloc ity at the blade tip is
(A) 10 1.7 m1s ( B) 120.3 mls (C) 132.6 mls (0) 135.8 mls

0. 57 An idea l ramje t engine is flying at a Mach number M . The exhaust gas static tem perature at the
outlet of the nozz le is T,. The ambient static temperat ure is T•. Gas cons tant R and speci fic heat
ratio y do not vary through the ramjet . Assuming tha t nozzle exhaust static pressure is eq ual to the
ambient pressure and fuel air ratio f < < I, the thrust per unit mass flow rate is

(A) ~rRr. [Jf] (B) ~rRr. [Jf-l]

(C) M~rRr. [%-1] (0) M ~rRr. [ %]
0.58 A 50 percent degree of reaction axia l flow turb ine operates with a mean blade speed of 180 mls .
The flow leaves the sta tor and enters the rotor at an angle of 60 degrees to the axia l direction. The
axia l velocity is 150 m/s, and remains constan t throughout the stage. The turbine powe r per unit
mass flow is
(A) 29.76 kJ/kg (B) 41.12 kl/kg (C) 58.33 kJ/kg (0) 61.13 kJlkg

0 .59 The chamber stagnation temperature inside a rocket motor is T Only a convergent nozz le is used,
p

and the flow at the exit of this nozzle is cho ked. Assume that the nozzle exhaust static pressure is
equal to ambient static pressure . Gas constant for exhaust gases is R and ratio of specific heats is y.
The specific impulse of the rocke t motor is

(A) p-
r RI;
- (B) J YR I; (C) t RI; (0) prRI;
r- 1 y- 1 r+ 1 r +1
Q.60 Air enters the combustor of a gas turbine engine at total temperature of 500 K and lea ves the
combustor at total temperature of 1800 K. If cp remains constant at 1.005 kJlkgK and heating value
of the fuel used is 44 Ml/kg, the fuel 10 air ratio is
(A) 0.003 (B) 0.012 (C) 0.03 1 (0) 0.074

0 .61 The initia l temperatu re sensitivity of bum rate of a solid rocket moto r propellant is positive. If the
initial temperature increases then
(A) thru st increases but bum time decreases
(B) thrusl decreases and bum time decreases 100
(C) thrust remains same but bum time increases
(D) thrust increases but burn time remains same

Q.62 An aircraft is cruising at a Mach number of 0.8 at an altit ude where the ambient static pressure is
95 kPa . The diffuser exit total pressure is 140 kPa . Assuming there is no change in the specific heat
at constant pressure across the diffuser, and ratio of specific heat s is lA, the adiabatic efficiency of
the intake is
(A) 0.98 8 (B)0.915 (C) 0.722 ( 0 ) 0684

AE 9':!O
2008 MAINPAPER - AE

0.63 A parallelogram shaped plate of dimensions 'a' and 'b' as shown in the figure, is subjected to a
uniform loading of normal stresses Cli and Cl,. The plate is in equilibrium for

Cl,

(A) any value of Cli and Cl, (B) Cl, = Cli cos 0
(e) ClI = Cl, cos 0 (D) Cl, = Cli

0.64 A column of solid circular cross-section and length L can have various end conditions. Choose the
correct set that matches the end conditions (listed in Group I) with the corresponding effective
length for buckling (listed in Group II).

Group I (end conditions) GroUD II (effecti ve lenath)

(P) one end built-in and other end free (I) 1.0L
(O) both end s pinned (2) 0.7 L
IR) both ends built-in (3) 2.0 L
(5) one end built-in and other end pinned (4) 0.5 L

(A) P-3 (B) P-4 (e) P-2 (D) P-3

Q- I Q-I Q- I Q- I
R-4 R-2 R-3 R-2
S-2 S-3 S-4 S-4

0 .65 A thin walled tube of circular cross-section with mean radius r has a central web which divides it
into two symmetric cells as shown. A torque AI is acting on the section. The shear flow q in the
central web is

M M M
q =-- (B) q = 0 (e) q = 4;rr'
q=-
(A) 2"," (D) nr'

AE 1()''20
2008 MAIN PAPER - AE

Q.66 A concentrated bending moment M is acting at mid- span of a beam as shown. The shear force
diagram for the beam is:

)
~/(2L)
(A)

~(2L)
(B)
~/(2L)
~(2L)
(C)

(0)
'-- 1 ~(2L)

Q.67 An idealized thin-walled cross-section of a beam and the respective areas of the booms are as
shown . A bending moment M,. is acting on the cross-section. The ratio of the magnitude of normal
stress in the top booms to that of the bottom boom is
z

• •• Area = O.2cm'
• _. Area = O.lcm'

(A) 5/11 (B) 2/5 (C) I (0) 5/2

Q.68 An engineer is asked to lest a system which can be idealized as SOOF (single degree of freedom)
with viscous damping. A frequency response test was conducted and it is found that the quality
factor Q is equal to 10. What will be the logarithmic decrement if a free vibration lest is performed?
(A) n/40 (B) ll!20 (C) n/IO (0) n/5

AE 11120
~OO8 MAIN PAPER AE

Q.69 A beam occupies a region 0:; x :; L : - c :; y :; c ; - 0.5 :; z :; 0.5 as shown below. The
beam can be consi dered to be in plane stress condition in x·y plane. Airy's stress function for the
beam is given as:
¢(x, 1') = _ Pxy' + 3Pxy
. 4c' 4c
where P is a consta nt.

o f·--n'_.-------------n'----n-n--_On_nnn+ I-~ x
,
, . L ~I
+
y

The above stress function pertains to a

(A) simply supported beam carrying a poin t load P at mid spa n
(D) simply supported beam carrying a uniform distributed load of intensity P per unit length
(C) cantilever beam c lamped at end x = L and carrying a shear load P at x = 0
(D) cantilever beam clamped at end .r = 0 and carrying a shear load P at x = L

Q.70 The equation of motion of a uniform slender beam of length L in flexural vibration is given

as EI aax";' + pA aat':" = 0, where El is the flexural rigidity, w is the lateral displacement and pA is
the mass per unit length . The beam is simply supported at the two ends x = 0 and x = L. Assuming

the mode shape in fundamental mode to be sin ( ;r:) , the natural frequency in fundamental mode

is

~ ~
(A) 0.5
flfl
--
pAL
,;r-, ( Il) El
pAL 4
;r' (C) 2 El
pAL 4
Jr ' (D) 4
flf
--,
pAL
l ,
n:

Comm on Data Questions

Commo n Data for Questions 71, nand 73: A two-dimensional slate o f stress in an isotropic material is
given by

[al=c[-; (56 ] MPa

where c is linearl y proport ional to the applied loading. The failure stress is {1/ = 350 MPa (which is 0.2 %
o fTset yield stres s).
Q.71 The principal stresses are
(A) {1/ = l7 c MPa, {1, = - ge MPa (B) {1/ = 9c MPa, {1, = 17e MPa
(C) {1/ = - 17c MPa. {1, = - 9c MPa (D) {1/ = - 17e MPa , {11 = 9c MPa

Q.72 The maximum shear stress is

(A) t~ = 7c MPa (D) t~ = lOe MPa (C) t_. = 13c MPa (D) t~ = 15c MPa

Q.73 The maximum value of e for safe loading of the structure, based on von-Mises failure criteri on is
(A ) 10.2 (Il) 15.3 (C) 25.4 (D) 31.8

A£ 12.20
2008 MAIN PAPER AE

Common Dal a for Questi on s 74 and 75: A liqu id rocket engine with oxidizer to fuel ratio of 5: I produces
a thrust of I MN. The initial mass of the rocket engine is 100,000 kg and its mass at bum out is 10,000 kg.
The characteristic velocity C· and thrust coefficient C F for the engine are 2386 mls and I A, respectively.
Q.74 The mass flow rate of fuel is
(A) 300.3 kgls (B) 269.5 kgls (C) 8704 kgls (D) 49 .9 kgls

Q.75 Neglecting gravity and drag effects, if the initial velocity of the liquid rocket engine is 2.5 km/s,the
velocity of the rocket at burnout is
(A) 1.2 kmls (B) 2.5 km/s (C) 10.2 kmls (D) 11.8 kmls

Linked Answer Questions: Q.76 to Q. 85 carry two marks each.

Statement fo r Linked Answer Questions 76 and 77: The following two questions relate to Simpson's
b

rule for approximating the integral I f (x )dx on the interval [a, b].
u

Q.76 Which of the following gives the correct formula for Simpson's rule?

(A) (b;a)[f(b)+ f( a;b)] (B) (b;a)[f(a); feb) + f( a;b )]

(C)
(b-a)[f(a)+ feb) +-4f (a+
--b)]' (D)
(b-a)[f(a)+ feb) +-4f(a+b)]
--
2 332 2 333

1
Q.77
The percentage error (with respect to the exact solution) in estimation of the integral I X' d r using
o
Simpson's rule is
(A) 5.3 (B) 3.5 (C) 2.8 (D) 0

Statem en t for Linked Answer Queslions 78 and 79: An aircraft has a zero-lift drag coefficient
C IJu = 0.0223, wing aspect ratio AR w = 10.0, and Oswald's efficiency factor e = 0.7

Q.78 The thrust required for steady level flight will be minimum when the aircraft operates at a lift
coefficient of
(A) 0 .65 (B) 0.70 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.80

Q.79 The glide angle that results in max imum range in a power-off glide is
(A) 1.82 degrees (B) 2.68 degrees (C) 3.64 degrees (D) 5.01 degrees

St at emen t for Linked Ans wer Questions 80 and 81: Consider an untwisted wing of elliptical planforrn
in inviscid incompressible irrotatio nal flow at an ang le o f attack of 4 degrees. The wing aspec t ratio is 7
and the zero lift angle of attack is - 2 degrees.
Q.80 The wing lift coefficient C L is
(A) 0.66 (B) 0.51 (C) 0.44 (D) 0.34

Q.81 The induced drag coefficient of the wing C Oi is

(A) 0.0053 (B) 0.0087 (C) 0.0118 (D) 0.0197

AE 1J120
2008 MAIN PAPER - AE

Sta te me nt for Linked Answer Qu estions 82 and 83: A multi-stage axial flow compressor operating at
an adiabatic efficiency of 0.9 deve lops a total pressure ratio of II. The total temperature at inlet to the
compressor is 335 K and the stagnation enthalpy rise across each stage is 37 kJlkg . Ratio of specific heats
is 1.4 and specific heat at constant pressure is 1.005 kJlkg K.
Q.82 The total temperature rise across the compressor is
(A)310.1 K (B) 366 .3 K (C) 392.1 K (D) 405.4 K

Q.83 The total number of stages required are

(A)9 (B) 10 (C) II (D) 12

Sta te me nt for Linked Answer Questions 84 and 85:

An idealized thin walled two cell symmetric box beam is as shown. The shear flows in the walls are due to
the applied shear forces V, = 480 N, V, = 300 N, and a torque M, all acting at the shear center.
z

.;g. t :;;::'m

2 N/cm ~ I f ,oN/cm ltq, l o cm ) y

I 2"D1icm I 22"Ntm I
rc. 12cm ~ 12cm ~

Q.84 The shear flows q , and q, are

(A) q, = - 2 Nlcm (B)q, = + 2 Nlcm (C) q, = + 2 Nlcm (D) q, = - 2 Nlcm
qz = + 22 Nlcm q, = + 22 Nlcm q, = -22 Nlcm q, = - 22 Nlcm
Q.85 The torque M is
(A) 3360 N.cm (D) 5760 N.cm (C) 6960 N.cm (D) 8160 N.cm

END OF THE QUESTIO T PAPER

AE 141 0
2009 AE

AE : AEROSPACE ENGINEERI G

Duration : Three Hours Maximum Marks :100

Read the following instr uctions carefully.

I. This question paper contains 16 printed pages includin g pages for rough work. Please check all pages and
report discrepancy, if any.

2. Write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre at the specified locations
on the right half of the Optical Response Sheet (O RS).

3. Using HB pencil, darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and the
letters corresponding to your paper code.

4. All questions in this paper are of objective type.

5. Questions must be answe red on Optical Response Sheet (O RS) by darkening the appropriate bubble
(marked A, B, C, D) using HB pencil against the question number on the left hand side of the ORS. Each
question has only one correct answer. In case you wish to change an answer, erase the old answer
completely. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.

6. There are a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. Ques tions I through 20 are I-mark questions,
questions 21 through 60 are 2-mark questio ns.

7. Questions 51 through 56 (3 pairs) are common data questions and question pairs (57, 58) and (59, 60) are
linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the above 2 pairs depends on the answe r
to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is
un-attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

8. Un-allempted questions will carry zero marks.

9. Wrong answers will carry NEGATIVE marks. For Q. I to Q.20, 1J mark will be ded ucted for each wrong
answer. For Q. 21 to Q.56, % mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs
(Q.57, Q.58), and (Q.59, Q.60) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for
wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.57 and Q.59, % mark will
be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.58 and Q.60.

10. Calculat or (without data connectivity) is allowed in the examinati on hall.

II . Charts , graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

12. Rough work can be done on the quest ion paper itself. Additionally, blank pages are given at the end of
the question paper for rough work.

AE 1/16
2009

Q. 1 - Q. 20 carry one mark eac h.

Q.I For a flow through a Prandtl-Meyer expansion wave

(A) Mach number stays constant. (B) Entropy stays con stant.
(C) Temperature stays co nstant. (D) Den sity stays co nstant.

Q.2 For two-dimen sion al irrotational and incompressible flows

(A) Both potential and stream functions satisfy the Laplace equation .
(B) Potential funct ion must satisfy the Laplace equation but the stream functi on need not.
(C) Stream functi on must satisfy the Lapl ace equation but the potential function need not.
(D) Neither the stream function nor the potential function need to satisfy the Laplace equation .

Q.3 A trailin g ed ge plain flap deflected downward increases the lift coefficient of an airfoil by

(A) Increasing the effective camber of the airfoil.

(B) Dela ying the sep arati on of the flow from the airfoil surface .
(C) Increasin g the loc al airspeed near the trailing edge.
(D) Controlling the growth of the boundary layer thickness along the airfoil surface.

QA Thin airfo il theory pred icts that the lift slo pe is del = 2n for
da
(A) Symmetric airfoils o nly. (B) Cambered airfoil s o nly.
(C) Any airfo il shape. (0) Jouk ow ski airfoils o nly.

Q.5 The ordinary differential equation ~ + ky = 0 where k is real and positive

(A) is non-linear
(B) has a characteristic equation with o ne real and one complex root
(C) has a characteristic equation with two real roots
(0) has a co mplementary functi on that is simple harm onic

Q.6 A non-trivial solutio n to the (n x II) system of equations [A]{x} = {O}, where {O} is the null vector

(A ) can never be found

(B) may be found o nly if [A1is not singular
(C) may be found o nly if [AJ is an o rthogo nal matrix
(0) may be found only if [AJ has at least one eigenvalue equal to zero

Q.7 For a plane strain problem, the stresses satisfy the condition

(A) ' xz = 'YZ =a z = 0

(B) ' xz ='YZ = O. a z =v (a x+a y )
(C) ' xz ='yz =O,a z =v'xy
(0 ) ' xz = ' .vz =O,a z =v (ax+a y )+(l-v ),xy

2116
2009 ,\ E

Q.8 The propulsive efficiency of a turbo-j et engin e moving at velocity U_ and having exhaust velocity U.
with respect to the engine is giv en by

(B) I - -
u; (C) (D)
U.

Q.9 An aircraft is flying at M = 2 where the ambie nt temperature around the aircraft is 250 K. If the
specific heat ratio for air y = 1.4 , the stag natio n temperature on the surface of the aircraft is

(A) 200 K (B) 450 K (C) 350 K (D) 1450 K

Q.1O The division of feed air to an aircraft gas- turbine co mbus tor into primary and secondary streams serves
which of the following purposes?
P. a flammable mixture can be formed
Q. cooling of combustor liner and flame tube can be accomplished
R. specific fuel co nsumption can be redu ced

(A) P and R (B) Q and R (C) P and Q (D) P, Q and R

Q.l1 Classify the following propellants as: cryogenic (C) , semi-cryogenic (SC), compressed gas (CG) and
eart h storable (ES)

N,O, -UDMH (nitrogen tetra oxide and unsymm etri cal di-methyl hydrazine)
LO X-RP I (liqui d oxygen and kerosen e)
LOX-LH, (liquid oxygen and liquid hydro gen )
N, (nitrogen gas)

(A) ,O,-UDM H (ES), LOX-RPI (C), LOX-LH , (C), N, (C)

(B) N,O,-UDM H (SC), LO X-RP I (SC) , LO X·LH, (C), N, (C)
(C) N,O,-UDMH (ES), LOX -RPI (SC), LOX -LH , (C), N, (CG)
(D) N,O,-UDM H (ES), LOX -RPI (C), LOX ·LH, (C), N, (CG)

Q.12 A conventional altimeter is a

(A) Pressure transducer (B) Temperature transducer

(C) Density transd uce r (D) Velocity transducer

Q.13 The relation between an airplane's true airspeed VTAS and equivalent airspeed V EAS in terms of the

density ratio (a =.E... ), whe re

Po is the air densi ty at sea-level and p is the air density at the altitude
Po
at which the airplane is flying, is given by the form ula:

V
(A) EAS =a (B) VEAS =a2
VTA S VTA S

(C) VEAS = Ja (D) VEAS =_1_

VTAS VTAS Ja
AE 3/ 16
2009 t\ E

Q.14 An unswept fixed-win ged aircraft has a large roll stability if the wing is placed

(A ) low on the fusel age and has negative dihedral angle

(B) lo w on the fuselage and has positive dihedral angle
(C) high on the fuselage and has negative dihedral angle
(0) high on the fuselage and has positive dihedral ang le

Q.15 Thrust available from a turbojet engine

(A ) increases as altitude increases

(B ) increases up to the tropopause and then decreases
(C) remains constant at all altitudes
(0) decreases as altitude increases

Q. 16 If Cmc G is the pitching moment coefficient about the center of gra vity of an airc raft. and a is the angle
dC m
of attack. then CG is
da
(A) a stability derivative which represent s stiffness in pitch
(B) a stability derivati ve which represents damping in pitch
(C) a control derivative in pitch
(0) positive for an aircraft that is stable in pitch

Q.17 The life of a geo-stationary communications satellite is limited by

(A) the working life of the on-board electronic circuitry

(B) the time it takes for its orbit to decay due to atmospheric dra g
(C) the quantity of on-board fuel available for station-keeping
(0) the number of mete orite impacts that the satellite structure can with stand before breaking up

Q. I 8 For a critically damped single degree of freedom spring - mass - damper system with a damp ing
constant c of 4 Nslm and spring constant k of 16 N/m. the system mass m is

(A) 0.5 kg (B) 0.25 kg

(C) 2 kg (0) 4 kg

Q.19 In a thin walle d rec tangular tube subjected to equal and opposite forc es P as shown in the figure. the
shear stress along leg AB is

~"'p
C ..--- - - - - ---l B

I------..J A

(A) zero (B) constant non-zero

(C) varies linearly (0) varies par aboli ca lly

AE .jJ16
2009 AE

Q.20 For the thin walled beam cross section as shown in the figure. the shear centre lies at
E B
A ....- . . - -.......- - - - C

(A) Mid point of AB. i.e. at point E (B) Mid point of BO. i.e. at point F
(C) Junction point B (0) at a point G lying within the area ABC

Q. 21 to Q. 60 carry two marks each.

Q.2 1 Let M 0 be the total mass of a single stage rocket. M p be the total mass of propellant. M L be the mass
of payload carried by the rocket and M s be the mass of inert structural components. If l,p is the
specific impulse of the propulsion system (in seconds) and g is the acceleration due to gravity. then the
maximum velocity that can be attained by the rocket vehicle in the absen ce of gravity and atmospheric
drag is given by

(A) gl,p In ( ; ; )

(C) glsp In ( ;~ )
Q.22 An ideal axial compressor is driven by an ideal turbine across which the total temperature ratio is 0.667.
If the total temperature at turbine inlet is To = 1500 K and speci fic heat of gas cp = I kl/kg/K, the
power draw n by the compressor per unit mass flow rate of air is approximately

(A) 300 kWlkgls (B) 1000 kWlkgls (C) 600 kWlkgls (0) 500 kWlkgls

Q.23 The perform ance of a solid rocket motor is improved by replacing the old propellant with a new one.
The new propellant gives a combustion temperature 40 % higher than the previous propellant without
appreciable change in molecular weight of combustion products and other operating parameters. By
approxi mately what percentage is the specific impulse of the new motor higher than the old one?

(A) 18% (B) 96% (C) 42% (0) 112%

Q.24 A solid rocke t motor has an end burning grain of cross-sectional area Acs = 0.4 m 2 • The density of

prope llant is Pp = 1500 kg I m3 and has linear regression rate; =5 mmls . If the specific impulse of the
prop ulsion system is Isp = 200 seconds. the thrust produced by the motor is approximately

(A) 3 kN (B) 6 kN (C) 1.5 kN (0) 12 kN

AF. 5/16
2009 At:

Q.25 An ideal ramjet is flying at an altitude of 10 km with a velocity of I kmls. T he amb ient pressure is
0.25 bar and temperature is 225 K. The exhaust gases from the engine are optimally expanded and
leave the nozzle at 900 K. If the speci fic heat ratio (y) remains constant, the spec ific thrust developed
by the engine is approximately

(A) 1000 N-sIkg (B) 2000 N-sIkg (C) 500 N-sIkg (D) 4000 N-sIkg

Q.26 A combat aircraft engine is equipped with an afterburner followed by a variable area convergent nozzle
(o perating with the nozzle choked). The exhaust gas temperature is 750 K when afterburner is off and
3000 K when it is on. When the afterburner is turned on, (assuming the total pressure remains the same,
the mass of fuel added in the afterburne r is negligible i.e., the mass flow rate remains the same. and the
specific heat ratio ( y ) remains con stant). approximately by what factor must the nozzle area be
changed ?

(A) 0.5 (8 )4 (C) I (D ) 2

Q.27 An airplane flying at 100 m1s is pitching at the rate of 0.2 deg/s. Due to this pitching, the horizontal tail
surfac e located 4 metre s behind the ce ntre-of-mass of the airp lane will experience a change in angle of
attack. which is

(A) 0.0 1 deg (8) 0.008 deg (C) 0.04 deg (D) 0.004 deg

Q.28 The contribution of the horizonta l tail to the pitching moment coefficient about the center of gravity
(Cm ) of an aircraft is given by CII' . =0.2-0.02 15 a, where a is the angle of attack of the
CG tuil
airc raft. The contribution of the tail to the aircraft longitudinal stability

(A) is stabilizing
(8) is destabilizing
(C) is nil
(D) cann ot be determined from the give n inform ation

Q.29 Th e linearized dynamics of an aircraft (which has no large rotating components) in straight and level
flight is governed by the equations

ddt'<[[A]
[C ]
[B]]x
[D ]
where x = - [/I IV q IJ v p r ¢ ]T . [] T represents the transpose of a matrix. [A]. [B]. [C]
and (D) are 4 x4 matrices and [0] is the 4 x4 null matrix. Which of the following is true ?

(A) [A] ;t[O]; [B];t[O]; [C] =[O]; [D];t[O]

(8) [A] =[O]; [B];t[O]; [C ];t [O ]; [D] =[O]
(C) [A];t[O]; [B]=[O]; [C]=[O]; [D];t[O]
(D) [A ];t[O] ; [B] =[O] ; [C];t[O]; [D]=[O]
AE 6116
2009 AI':

-->
of V , a is the angle of attack and f3 is the angle of sideslip, which of the following et of relations is
correct?

(A) Il=Vsinf3cosa; v=Vsinf3; w=Vcosf3sina

(B) II = V cos f3 coso: v = V cos f3; w = V cos f3 sin a
(C) Il=VCosf3cosa; v=Vsinf3; w=Vsinf3sina
(D) Il=VCosf3cosa; v=Vsinf3; w=Vcosf3sina

Q.31 An aircraft of mass 2500 kg in straight and level flight at a constant speed of lOOmis has available
excess power of 1.0 x 106 W. The steady rate of climb it can attain at that speed is

(A) 100 m1s (B) 60 m1s (C) 40 m1s (D) 20 m1s

Q.32 The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars is 0.385 times that on earth, and the diameter of
Mars is 0.532 times that of earth. The ratio of the escape velocity from the surface of Mars to the
escape velocity from the surface of earth is approximately

(A) 0.453 (B) 0.205 (C) 0.851 (D) 0.724

Q.33 Which of the following statements are true for flow across a stationary normal shock?
P. Stagnation temperature stays constant.
Q. Stagnation pressure decreases.
R. Entropy increases.
S. Stagnation pressure increases.
T. Stagnation temperature increases.

(A) P, Q. R (B) Q. R. S (C) R. S, T (D) S, T. P

Q.34 A model airfoil in a wind tunnel that is operating at 50 m1s develops a minimum pressure co-efficient
of - 6.29 at some point on its upper surface. The local airspeed at that point is

(A) 50 m1s (B) 125 m1s (C) 135 m1s (D) 150 m1s

Q.35 A symmetrical airfoil section produces a lift coefficient of 0.53 at an angle of attack of 5 degrees
measured from its chord line. An untwisted wing of elliptical planform and aspect ratio 6 is made of
this airfoil. At an angle of attack of 5 degrees relative to its chordal plane. this wing would produce a
lift coefficient of

(A) 0.53 (B) 0.48 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.36

AE 7/t6
2009 AF.

Q.36 Consider an ideal flow of density p through a variable area duct as shown in the figure below :

V
,!
( 1) ~--+---
(»
Let the cross-sectional areas at sections (I ) and (2) be A and A, respectively . The velocity measured
at section (I) using a Pitot static probe is V" Then the static pressure drop P, - PI is

I
( A) - - P 1 - -
2 (
2 VI
AI
Ai
J 2 I
(B) -p 1 - -
2
2 VI
(
AI
Ai
J 2

I
(C) -p 1+- VI
2 2
AI
( A22J
2
(D)
1
--p 1+-
2 VI
2
2 (
AI
A2
J 2

Q.37 Two vortices of the same strength and sign are placed a distance d apart as shown below. Assume that
the vortices are free to move and the fluid is ideal.
r
Y-o.. Y-o..
r
• Ip •
1
--I
tf
Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Vortices 1 and 2 spiral inwards with an initial angular speed ~ to finally merge and form one
2nd
vortex of twice the strength.

(B) Vortices 1 and 2 spiral inwards with an initial angular speed ~ to finally merge and form one
nd
vortex of twice the strength.

(C) Vortices 1 and 2 perpetually revolve about the midpoint P with radius of revolution :!.- and angular
2
r
speed - - 2 '
2nd
(D) Vortices I and 2 perpetually revolve about the midpo int P with radius of revolution d and angular
2
r
speed --2'
nd

Q.38 The laminar boundary layer ove r a large flat plate held parallel to the flow is 7.2 mm thick at a point
0.33 m downstream of the leading edge. If the free stream speed is increased by 50%, then the new
boundary layer thickness at this location will be approximately

(A) 10.8 mm (B) 8.8 mm (C) 5.9 mm (D) 4.8 mm

AE &'1'
2009 AE

Q.39 Consider a simply supported beam of length 2L with an overhang of length L, loaded by an end
moment M, as shown below.

The bending moment distribution for this beam is

(A)

(B)

(C)
~---
(D)

QAO For the spring-mass system shown below, the natural frequencies are

-fJ=;J;-;~
(A) 0 and
k("" + /Il2) (B) 0 and
k("" + /Il2)
/Il''''2 2"'1"'2

k k
(C) 0 and (D) 0 and
(1111 +1112) 2(1Il, +1Il2)

QAI The buckling load for a simply supported column of rectangular cross section of dimensions
9
I emx 1.5 em and length 0.5 m made of steel (E = 2 l Ox 10 N/m') is approximately

(A) 10kN (B) 4 kN (C) 23 kN (D) 46 kN

E 9/16
2009 \I:

Q.42 A wing root cross section is idea lized using lumped areas (booms) as shown below .

The wing root bending moment in steady level flight is My = 10 N-m. If the airplane flies at a load
factor /I = 3.5, the maxim um bending stress at the root is

(A) IxIO' N/m 2 (B) 3.5x106 N/m'

(C) 7 x10' N/m' (0) 0.286xlO· N/m 2

Q.43 A uniform rigid bar of mass 111 = I kg and length L = I 10 is pivoted at A. It is supported by a spring of
stiffness k =I N/m and a viscous dam per of dampi ng constant C =I N-s/m , with a Y../3
= 10 as

IIIL'
shown below . The moment of inertia of the rigid bar is I A =--
3

k
c

I~ a .'

L
The system is
(A) overdarnped
(B) underdamped with natural frequency w" = 1 rad/s
(C) critically damped
(0) underdamped with natural frequency w, = 2 rad/s

Q.44 A 2-celled tube with wall thickness 0.5 10m is subjected to a torque of 10 N-m. The resulting shear
flows in the two cells are q, and q, as shown below.
~O 10m

0!A ~ O 10m

~ ~O mm

The torque balance equation (Bredt-Batho formula) for this section leads to

(A) q, - q, = 2000 N/ m (B) q, + 2q, = 2000 N/m

(C) q, + q, = 2000 N/m (0) 2q, + q, = 2000 N/m
AE 10116
2009 AE

n
Q.45 The value of the integral fo I + x dx+ sm. x evaluated using the trapezoidal rule with two equal intervals is
approximately

(A) 1.27 (B) 1.8 1 (C) 1.41 (D) 0.71

Q.46 The product of the eigenvalues of the matrix [~ ~ :] is

1 1 4

(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 9 (D) 17

Q.47 In the interval 1:0; x:O; 2. the function f(x) = e"x + sin TrX is

(A) maximum at x = 1 (B) maxim um at x = 2

(C) maximum at x = 1.5 (D) monotonically decreasing

(s + I)
Q.48 The inverse Laplace transform of F (s) = is
(s + 4)(s -3)

(A) ~e4t +~e-3t 3

(B) _e--l l +_e 3t
4
7 7 7 7
(C) ~e--lt +~e31
7 7

Q.49 The linear system of equations Ax = b where A = [~ ~] and b = {~} has

(A) no solution (B) infinite ly many solutions

={:} (D) a unique solution x =

D.5}
(C) a unique solution x
{0.5

Q.50 The correct iterative scheme for finding the square root of a positive real numbe r R using the ewton
Raphson method is

(A) xII+1 =JR (B) xII+1 =2.(XII +~)

2 XII

(C) x ll +\ = ~ (.,G,;" + .JXII-I ) (D) x,,+1 = ~ (JR +x,,)

.U 11/16
2009 AE

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 51 and 52:

The roots of the characteristic equation for the longitudinal dynamic s of a certain aircraft are:
A, =-D.02 + 0.2i; ~ =-D.02 - 0.2i; A:J =-2.5 + 2.6i; .1.4 =-2.5 - 2.6i , where i =J::j .
Q.51 The pair of eige nvalues that represent the phugoid mode is

(A) A, and A:J (D) A, and ~

Q.52 The short period damped frequency is

(A) 2.6 radls (8) 0.2 radls (C) 2.5 radls (D) 0.02 radls

Common Data for Questions 53 and 54:

Consider the vector field A =(l +Z3)i + (x3 + z3 ) J + (~ + y3)k defined over the unit sphere
x2 + i + Z2 =I.

Q.53
....
The surface integral (taken over the unit sphere) of the component of A normal to the surface is

(Al n ( 8) I (C) 0 (D) 4rr

Q.54 The magnitude of the component of A normal to the spherical surface at the point ( ~, ~ , ~ ) is

I 2 3 4
(A) - ( 8) - (C) - (D) -
3 3 3 3

Common Data for Questions 55 and 56:

The partial differential equation for the torsional vibration of a shaft of length L, torsional rigidity GJ, and mass
2 2
poI ar moment 0 f inertia
merna oer uni Iength I, 'IS l - 2
per unit e = GJ - 2 a
e ' were a
h e 'IS the tWISt.
.
at ax

Q.55 If the shaft is fixed at both ends, the boundary conditions are:

ael ael (8) e(o) =0 and eeL) =0

(A) - =0 and - =0
ax x=O ax :c= L

(el - ael =0 and e eL) =0 (D) e(o) =0 and ael

- =0
ax x=o ax x=L

AE 12116
2009 At:

Q.56 If the nth mode shape of torsional vibration of the above shaft is Sin( n~x) then the nth natural

frequenc y of vibration, i.e., wn ' is given by

(A) W = -ntt JGJ

- (B) W = (2n + l )n JGJ
n L I n 2L I

(C ) W =nn
- JGJ
-- (0 ) W = (2n + l )n JGJ
n 2L I n L I

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 57 and 58:

Air enters the combustor of a gas-turbine engine at a total temperature To of 500 K. The air stream is split into
two parts: primary and secondary streams. The primary stream react s with fuel supplied at a fuel-air ratio of
0.05. The resulting combustion products are then mixed with the secondary air stream 10 obtain gas with total
temperature of 1550 K at the turbine inlet. The fuel has a heatin g value of 42 MJ/kg. The specific heats of air
and combustion products are taken as c p = 1 kJlkglK .

Q.57 If the sensibl e enthalpy of fuel is neglected, the temperature of combustion products from the reaction
of primary air stream with fuel is approximately
(A) 2100 K (B) 3200 K (C) 2600 K (0) 1800 K

Q.58 The approximate ratio of mass flow rates of the primary air stream to the secondary air stream required
to achieve the turbine inlet total temperature of 1550 K is

(A ) 2:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:1.5 (0) I: I

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 59 and 60:

.E--
A piston compresses I kg of air inside a cylinder as shown

Alr ---
_ _ _ _---J

The rate at which the piston does work on the air is 3000 W. At the same time, heat is being lost through the
walls of the cylinder at a rate of 847.5 W.

Q.59 After 10 seco nds, the change in specific internal energy of the air is
(A) 21,525 J/kg (B) - 2 1,525 J/kg (C) 30,000 J/kg (0) - 8.475 J/kg

Q.60 Given that the specific heats of air at constant pressure and volume are c p = 1004.5 Jlk g-K and
Cv = 717.5 Jlkg-K respectively, the corresponding chan ge in the temperature of the air is

(A) 21.4 K (B) - 2 1.4 K (C) 30 K (0) -30 K

END OF THE QUESTIO PAPER

AE 131.6
 AE: AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

Dural;OI1: Throe Hours Maxim"", Marks: 100

Read lhe following Inslructlo... carefully.

L This question paper contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. Please check all pages
and report discrepancy. if any.

2. Write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre at the specified
locations on the right half of the Optical Response Sheet (OKS),

3. Using HB pencil, darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and the
letters corresponding to your paper code.

4. All qucstions in this paper are of objective type.

5. Questions must be answered on the OKS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D)
using HB pencil against the question number on the left hand side of the ORS. For eadi queslioa
dIorkm tJu, bubble of lbc coned _ _ ee. In case you wish to change an answer, erase the old
answer completely. More than one answer bubb!ed agai:pst a question will be treated as an illClXTl.'Cl
response.
6. There are a total of 65 questions carryilli 100 marks.

7. QuestiOlUl Q.I -Q.25 will carry I-mar\: each. and questions Q.26 - Q.5S will carry 2-mads each.

8. Questions Q.48 - Q,St (2 pairs) are common data questions and question pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and
(Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer
questions depends 011 the answer to tile first question of the pair. If the first question in the tinked pair
is wrongly answen::d or is un-anempled, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be
evaiuared.

9. Questions Q.S6 ~ Q.6S belong to Genenl Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 - Q.60 will clllT}' l-mark
each, and qoostions Q.61 _ Q.65 will carry 2-mads each. The GA questions will begin on a fresh
page swting from page 11.

10. Un-atternpted quesnces will carry zero marks.

II. Wrong answers will carry NEGATIVE marks. For Q.l _ Q.25 and Q.56 _ Q.60, % mark will be
deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.26 -Q.51 and Q.6l- Q.6S, Jo\ mark will be deducted for each
wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.S2, Q,S3), and (Q.S4, Q.5S) are questions with linked answers.
There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the firSt question of the linked answer question
pair i.e, for Q.52 and Q.S4, fJ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative
marking forQ.53 and Q.SS.

12, Calculator (without data connectivity) i. allowed in the uamlnation hall.

13. Charts, graph sheets or table. are NOT allowed in the e~amiDation hall.

14. Rough work caD be done on tile question paper it.elf. Additionally, blank pages are provided at the
end of the question paper for rough work,

1/16
:WIO AE

Q.l - Q.25 carry one mark each.

Q.I Isentropic efficiency IJd of a subsonic diffuser is defined ""
(Note: 'a' represents lhe ambient, T represents the uit of lhe diffuser and 's' represents an
isentropic process)

(A) Too, I;, p. -p

(B) (C) ", , (0)
Too -T. Poo P"

Q.2 Two posilion vectors are indicaLed by V, = {:: }and If a' + b 2 =' 1. then the

- = b
operation V, [" -b]_ _ _
a V, amounts to obtaining the position vector V, from V. by

(A) transiation
(B) rotation
(C) magnification
(O) combination of tranSlation, rotation, and magnification.

Q,3 An aircraft is climbing at a conSlant speed in a straight line at a steep angle of climb. The load
factor it sustains during the climb is:
(A) equal to l.0 (B) grealerthan 1.0
(C) positive but less than 1.0 (0) dependant OIIlhe weight of tile aircraft

Q.4 In a general case of a homogeneous material under thenne-mechanical loading the number of
distinct components of the state of stress is
(A) 3 (B)4 (C) 5 (D) 6

Q5 The linear second order partial differenlial equation 5 a'~ + 3 a', + 2a'~ +9 = 0 is
ax axay (Jy
(A) Parabolic (B) Hyperbolic (C) Elliplic (D) None of the above

Q,6 All other factors remaining constant. if lhe weight of an aircraft increases by 30% then tile takeoff
distance increases by approximately'
(A) 15% (B) 30% (C) 70% (O) 105%

Q.7 A vertical slender rod is suspended by • hinge at the tOp and hangs freely. It Is healed until it attains
a uniform temperalure, T, Neglecting lhe effecl of gravity, the rod has
(A) Stress but no strain (B) Strain but no mess
(C) Both stress and strain (0) Neither stress nor strain

Q.8 An aircraft stalls al a speed of 40 mls in straight and level flighl_ The slowest speed at which Ihis
aircraft can execute a level tum at a bank angle 0160 degrees is:
(A) 283 mls (B) 40.0 mls (C) 56.6 mls (0) 80.0 mls
Q,9 Theeigen-values of a real symmetric rnalrix are always
(A) positive (B) imagiuary
(C) real (D) complex conjugate pairs

21'0
",,'" AE

Q,lO Tile concentmtion ~

of a certain cilemical species at time I in a cilemical reaction is described by the
.<b
differential equatIon -+ kx = O. with x(l = O} = x" Given that e is the base of the nalUral
d,
logarithms. the concentration ~ at I = i-
(A) falls to the value 0_5xo (8) ri= to tlte value 2x"
(D) rises to the value ex"
(C) falls to tile value x"
e
., <Ix
Q.ll The definite integral J-,
., x
(A) does not exist (B) is equal to 2 (C) is equal to 0 (D) is equal 10 -2
Q_12 The absolute ceiling of an aircraft is tile altitude above which it:
(A) can never reach
(B) cannot sustain levell1ighl at a constant speed
(e) can perform acceleraled l1ight as well as straigh1 and levell1ighl al a constant speed
(D) can perform stl'3ight and level flighl at a constant speed only
Q. 13 A thin rectangular plate made of isotropic material which satisfies the octahedral (i."., Von Misesl
Distortion energy) failure crijerion has yield strength of 200 MPa under uniaxial tension. As shown
in the figure. if it is loaded with uniform tension of 150 MPa along the .. -dtrecuca, the maximum
unifonn lensile stress that can be applied along lhe y-direcl;on before the plate s\arts yielding is
about "",

(J" = 150 MPa

(A) 227 MPa (B)77 MPa (C) 87 MPa (0) J14MPa

Q_14 Consider an incompressible 2-D Conene flow of water belween two walls spaced 1m apart. The
lower wall is kept slalionary. What is the shear me,s arling on the lower wall if the upper wall is
moving at a constant speed of 2 mls? (p_ ,,7x IO"N.slm')
_ _ _ _ _ _ _... 2m"

t
•,
m:,
•
(A) ).5x\O-'N/m' (B) 7xlO-'N/m' (e) IO.5xIO-'Nlm' (D) 14xlO"'N/m'
Q.15 The angular momemum. aooullhe centre of mass of the earlh. of an arlificial ,atellite in a highly
elliptical orbit is ,
(A) a ma.imum when the satellite is fartheSl from the earth
(D) a constant
(e) proponional to the speed oflhe satellile
(0) proportional to the square of the speed of the ,atelhte
.1116
1010
Q.16 A column of lenglh J and flexural rigidily £1. has one end Ilxed and the other end hinged. The
crilical buckling load for the column is

n'EI n"El n'EI

(A) -'7;~ (B) -';'c~ (C) (01
(0.5/)' (0,71)' (21)'
Q.17 A horizontal cantile.ered Sleel beam of rectangular cross-section having width b and depth d is
vibrating in the .ertical plane. The natural frequency of bending vibration is highest when

",
d:L_~~lt
b
(A)b=lO,d= 10 (B)b=20,d=5 (Cjb=5,d=20 (D)b=25.d=4
Q_18 Consider an incompressible 2-D viscous flow Over a curved surface. Lei the pressure distribution

on the surface be p{s) = 2 +sin( ~ + ~-)Nfm" where s is the distance along the curved surface

from the leading edge. The flow separates at

(Al s:(2f3)J!"m (B) s=(3/2)n m (e) .• =(nf2)m (D) sex m

Q.19 For a multi-stage uiaJ compressor with constant diameter hub
(A) Blade height decreases in the flow dsrecnon
(Bl Blade height increases in the flow direction
(C) Blade height remains conSlant
(D) Blade height first increases and then decreases in the flow directinn
Q.20 In a 2-D, steady, fully developed, laminar boundary layer o....,r a nat plate. if x is the Slream-wise
coordinate, y is the wall normal coordinate and u is the stream-wise velocity component, which of
the following is true;

(A)
au
-»-
au (B)
au
-»-
au (C)-e-
au au au au
(D) _ e _ _
a, ily ay ax a, ily
" ily
Q.21 How does the ,pecific thrust, at ccnstantturblne inlet temperature. produced by a turbofan engine
change with an increase in compressor pressure ratio?
(A) Increase' (B) DecreaseS
(C) F1r:sl increases and then decreases (D) First decreases and then increases
Q.22 If I/J is the rotential function for an incompressible irrotational flow, and u and v are the Cartesian
velocity components. then which one of the following combinations is correcl'

al/!
(A)u=ax'v=ax
al/!
(B)U=-ay'
a,
(D)u=-,v=-
ol/! ol/J
ax ily
Q.23 Among the choices given below. the Specific ImpUlse is maximum for a
(A) Cryogenic Rocket (B) Solid Rocket
(C) Liquid Rocket (D) Ramjet
1010 A.E

Q.24 For a flow across an oblique shock which of me following statements is uue?
(A) Component of velocity normal 10 shock decreases while laIlgenlial component iIlCTCascs.
(B) Component of velocity nonnal to shock increases while tangential componellt decreases.
(C) Component of .'elocity normal to shock is unchanged while langenlial componellt decreases.
(D) Componenl of velocity ncrmat tc shock decreases while tangential component is unchanged.
Q.25 The maximum operaling flow rate through a centrifugal compressor at a given RPM is limited by
(A) Impellor stall (B) Surge
(C) Choking of diffuser threat (D) lnlel flow distonion

Q.26 - Q.55 carry two marks each.

Q,26 A spacecraft of mass 100 kg. moving at an iniumtaneous speed of 1.8 x 104 mls. picks up
inlerstellar dust at lhe rale of 3.2 x IO-i kg/so Assuming that the dust was inilially at rest. the
instantaneous rate of retardation of the spacecrafl is:

(A) 7.9 x io-' mis' (B) 2.3 x 10-3 mis' (C) zero

Q.27 Following stress Slate is proposed for a 2-D problem with no body forces; a .. =3~'y+4y'.

an = y' + l4xy. T"" '" -3-')" - 7~' .It satisfies

(A) Equilibrium equations hul nOl compatibilily equation

(B) Compatibility equation but ncr equilibrium equalions
(Cl Neither equilibrium equations nor compatibilily equation
(D) BOlh equilibrium equations and compatibility equation

Q.28 A uniform cross-section rigid rod of mass III and length I. is hinged at its upper end and suspended
tike a pendulum. Its natural frequency for smln Ql.Cillat;ons is

(A)~ (B) Jf (C) Jt

2
(D) Pg
21

Q.29 The Ihin rectangular plate shown in ee figure is loaded wilh uniform shear. to. along all edges and
uniform uniaxial tension lD the y--direclion. The appropriate Airy's stress function 10 solve for
stresses is given by cr.

y ~
... ,
_--~

...
2010 AE

Q,30 A propeller p<;Iwered aircraft, lrimmed to attain maximum range and flying in a straighlline, travels
a distance R from its lake-off point woon ir has consumed a weight of fuel equal 10 20% of ns
lake-off weight. If the aircraft continues 10 fly and consumes a total weigh! of fuel equal 10 50% of
iI' lake-off weigh!, the distance belween it and its lake-off point becomes:
(A) 2.5 R (B)3.1R (C)2,IR CD) 3.9 R

0·31 The given thin wall section of uniform lhickness, I, is symmetric about ..,""is. Moment of inenia is
. LI 35
gIven to "" = - I1,
I . Shear cenler for this section is located al
" 12

(,

3 9 35 17
(A) x=--h (B) x=-~" (e) x=-~h (D) x=-~(,
8 28 36 35

Q.32 During an under..clamped oscillalion of a single degree offreedom system. in the !ime..clisplaeemem
plot lhe third peak is of magnilude 100and the tenlh peak is of magnilude 10. ]he damping ralio ;
is appro~imalely:
(A) 0,052 (B) 0.023 (C) 0.366 (0) 0.159

Q,33 Given lhat lhe Laplace transform of y(t) = [ ' (2cos21-sin 2t)

Laplace transform of y,(I)=e'(2cos21-sin2l) is

2(s-2) (B) 2(.,+2) (C) 2(s + 2) 2(s -I)

(A) (s-i)' +4
(D)
(s+3)'+4 (.'+1)'+4 (s-I)'+4

1
Q,34 In a cenain region a hill is described by the shapez(x, y) = 50 x 4 + y' - xy -3y, where the axeS x
.. .
and y are in the horizontal plane and axis r points vertically upward. If i , j and k are unit veclnrS
along .., y and;;. respeclivcly. lhen allhe point X = 5, y '" 10 the unit vector in the dire<:lion of the
steepesl slope of the hill will be:

(A) i (Il) j (C) k

. . .
(D) i+j+k

Q.35 An aircraft is cruising al an altitude of 9 km. The free-stream static pressure and density al this
allitude are 3.08 x 10' N/m' and 0.467kglm·' respectively. A Pilot lube mounted on the "'ing
senses a pressure of 3,31 X 10' N/m' Ignoring compressibility effects, Ihe cruising speed of lhe
aircraft is approximalely
(A) 50 mls (B) 100 rrvs (C) 150 mls (D) 200 mls
lOIO AE

Q.36 The trim curves of an aircraft are of the formC"" = (O.05-0.20.)-O,ICl. where the elevator
deflection angle. 15•• is in radians. The static margin ,,{the aircraft is:
(A) 0,5 (B) 0.2 (C)O.I (D) 0.05

Q.37 The funclion I(x, y) = x' + y'- .\y- 3y has an extremum at the point

(A) (U) (B) (3,O) (C) (2.2) (OJ (1.1)

Q,38 Consider the flow of air (p = 1.23 kg/m') over a wing of Chord length 0,5 m and span 3 m. Let the
free stream velocity be U ,,100 m1sand thc average circulation around the wing be r = 10 m"ls
per unit span. The lift force acting on the willg is
(A)615N (8) 1845 N (C) 3690N (D) 4920N

Q.39 The stagnation pressure and stagnation temperature inside tbe combustion chamber of a liquid
rocket engine are 15 MPa and 2500 K respectively. The burned gases have y .. 1.2 and
R = 692,83 JlkgK. The rocket has a converging - diverging nozzle with a throat area of 0.02'i m'
and the flow allhe exit of the nozzle is super1'onic. If the flow through the nozzle is isentropic, what
is the mass flow rate of the gases out of the nozzle?
(A) 18,5 kglo (B) 31.2 kgls (C) 29.7 kgIs (D) 19.4 kgls

Q.40 In finding a root of the equation' x' - 6x + 5 '" 0 the Newton-Raphson method achieves an order of
convergence equal to:
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.67 (C) 2.0 (0) 2.5

QAI CollSider a l·D adiabatic, inviscid, compressible flow of air (R = 287 J/Kg_K, ", = 718 JlKg-K)
through a duct of constant cross·sectional area A = 1 m". If the VOlumetric flow rate is
Q = 680 m'ls and stagnation temperalure is 7;, = 580.05 K. lhen the air temperature inside the
duct is
(A) 300 K (B}350K (C) 400K (D) 450 K

Q.42 A two smge chemical rocket, having the same ~pecjfic impulse (/,p) of JO() s for both the stages is
designed in ~uch a way that the payload ralio and the Strue1UIa! ratio are same for both the stages.
The second Stage of the rocket has following mass distribution,
Propellant Mas' = 10208 kg
Structural Mass" 1134 kg
Payload Mass" l70(J kg
g,=9,8m1o'

If the rocket is fired from reSt and it nies in u zero gravity field and a drag free environment, the
final velocity attained by the payload is
(A) 9729.3 mig (B) 897.3 mls (C) 9360.2 mls (D) 8973.2 mig

Q.43 A missile with a Ramjet engine is flying in .,r. The temperature at the inlet and tbe outlet of the
combustor arc I20U K and 2500 K fespecti 'ely. The heating value of the fuel i, 43 MJIkg and the
burner efficiency is 90%. Considering the "'orking nuid to be air (ep = 100S JlkgK and Y= 1-4). the
m
fuel/air ratio (/"..:-'-) for this engine is c<juaJ 10;
"',
(A) 0.032 (B) 0.036 (0 0-042 (D) 0.026
2010 AE

Q.44 The trim Curves of an air<:... ft are of tile formC"". (0.05-0.20.l-0.JCc wllere tile elevator
=0

deflection angle, J" is in radians. The change in elevator deflection needed to increase tile lift
coefficient from 0,4 to 0,9 is:

(A) -0.5 radians (C) 0.25 radians (OJ 0.5 radians

Q.45 If e is the base of the naturallogarithttlS tllen the equation of the langent from the origin to the curve
y=oe'is

(A) y=ox
.r
(B) Y =0 srx (C) y=- (D) y '" ex
e

Q.46 Consider a potential flow over a finite wing with the following circulation distribution

r(Yl",IOOJI-e;')' rn'/s

I" = 100 m'ts

~:
A'" ,
,
• I ,: ~::-;;;:-'::;7-------
•• r=ny) I:
, y=2m

• ,,I "
,
•
• ,,
• y=-2m
lethe free stream velocity is 100 mfs, the induced angle of attack is
(A) 0.125 radians (B) -o.tzs radians
(e) O,125JI-(n' radians (D) -o.125JI-(n' radians

Q.47 The inlet stagnation temperature for a single stage axial compressor is 300 K and the stage
efficiency is 0.80, Following conditions exist at the mean rndius of the rotor blade:
Blade speed = 200 mls
Axial flow velocity = 160 mls
Inlet blade angle P, = 44"
Outlet blade angle Ih = 14"
C p = 1005 JlkgK and y= 1.4

What is the stagnation pressure ratio (PI/S) for this compressor?

(Al L41 (B)I,37 (e) LSI (D) 1.23

AE
."
lOIO

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Que~tlon5 48 lind 49,
Consider a simply supported beam of length L, carrying a bracket welded at its center, The bracket carries a
venicalload, P, as shown in the figure. Dimensions of bracket are a=O.lL. The beam has a square CTOSS
section of dimension h x h.

'"-,;a
L

Q.48 Bending moment diagram is given by

(A)

O.3PI.;
M

O.2PI.;~~:::::::::~~_=::::~~~.
112
(B)
M

02PLL-__C::::::~_
-Q,3PL
(C)
M

0.3PL

02PLIL:--~~
(D) M

O.3ft

U2

-O,2PL

Q.49 Maximum value of shear siress is

(A) 0.67 P/h' (B) 1.33 P/h' (el 1.5 P/h' (D) 0.9 P/h'

."
Common Data for Questions 50 and S1:

Consider a potential flow over a spinning cylinder. The stream function is given as
R' r r
V/={V-,Sin8)(l-7)+ :mIn R
where
Free stream velocity, V_ = 25 mfs
Cylinder radius, R= I m
Circulation, r =50n m'ls

Q.50 The radial and azimuthal velocities on Ihe cylinder surface at B = n I 2are
(A) V, = 0 mis, V. "-75 mls (B) V, =0 ttvs, V. = 75 mfs
(C) V, = 0 mis, V. = -25 mls (D) V, = 0 mfs, V. = 25 mfs

Q,51 The stagnation points are located at

(A) 210· and 330" (B) 24()° and 300" (C) 30" and ISO" (D) 60· and 120"

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
An air<:raft with an IDEAL Turbojet engine is flying at 200 mls at an altitude where the ambienl pressure is
equal to 0.8 bar. The stagnation pressure and temperature at the inlet of the turbine are 6 bar and 1400 K
respectively. The change in specific enthalpy across the compressor is 335 kJlkg. Assume lhe fuel flow mte
to be very small in comparison to the air flow rale and consider Cp = 1117 JlkgK and y = 1.3,
Q.52 What is lhe stagnation pressure at the inlet of the nozzle?

(A) 2.8 bar (B) 5.7 bar (C) 2.1 bar (D) 6.3 bar

Q.53 What is the specific thrust produced by this engine under the given conditions?
(A) 586 Ns1kg (6) 745 Nslkg (C) 686 Nslkg (D) 500 Nslkg

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

An aircraft is in straight and level flight at a constant speed v. It is disturbed by a symmetric vertical gusI,
resulting in a phugoid oscillation of time period T.
Q.S4 As.suming that g is the acceleration due to gravity, Tis given approximately by:

IA)~
>
l'l -
~
(C) r: '/2n>
(0)--
ng g ,,2ng g

Q,55 If v=200 m/' then the wavelength of the phugoid oscillatiom. assuming g =9.81 mh'. is,
approximately:

(A) 1.28xlO'm (B)I,30xlO'm (C)1.8IxlO'm (0) 918rn

1(>'16
General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q.56 - Q.60 carry one mark Ncb.

Q.56 Which ofthe following oplion~ i~ /hl' rlo.•nl in lIl~ani"g 10 the word below:
Ciuuitous
(A) cyclic
(B) indirect
(C) confusing
(D) crooked
Q.57 The que~!ion below con~is!s of a pair of reuued word~ followed by four pair~ of words. Seleclthe
pair Ihat best expre~~es the relation in the original pair.
Uuemployed : Worker
(A) fallow, land
(8) unaware: sleeper
(C) Wil . jester
(D) renovated: house

Q.58 Choose Ihe mosl appropriate word franl Ih~ oplions given below 10 camp/ell' Ihe following
sente""e:
If we manage to our natural R$O\Irces, we would leave a better planet for
our ~hildreD.
(A) uphold
(B) restrain
(C) cherish
(0) conserve
Q.59 Choose Ihe TTWst appropriale word frolll lhe oprions given below 10 complete /11£ following
sen/ence:
His rather casual remarks On politics his laclr. of seriousness about the subj"",L
(A) masked
(8) belied
(C) belrayed
(D) suppressed
Q.6Q 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them pl~y hockey. 17 of them play football and 10 of them play
both hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing neither hockey nor football is;
(A)2 (8) 17 (C) 13 (D) 3

Q.61 - Q.65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 Modern warfare haJj ~b.anged from large scale dadie:s of armies to suppression of civilian
populations. Chemical. ageul5 that do their work sl.lenUy appear to be suiled to such warfare;
IDd regretfully, there exist people in military establisbmenl5 who think that clJemical agenl5
are nseful tools for their cause.

Which oj Ihe Jollowing ."ateme"'s best .",,11., III' Ihe Illuming oj ,he alJ<,..... p<Usoge:
(A) Mooern warfare ha, re,ulted in civil mife.
(B) Chemical agent' are useful in modem warfare.
(C) Use of chemical agents in warfare would be undesirable.
(OJ Poople in mili1ary establishments like to u,e chemical agents in war.
WICI AE

Q.62 If 137 + 276 = 435 how much is 731 + 6727

(A) 534 (8) 1403 (C) 1623 (D) 1513

Q.63 5 ,killed workers can build a wall in 20 days; 8 semi-skilled worker.; can build a waU in 25 days;
10 unskilled WOOers Can build a wall ;n 30 days. If a ream has 2 skilled. 6 semi-skilled and
5 unskilled workers. how long will il lake 10 build the wall'

(A) 20 days (8) 18 days (e) 16 days (D) 15 days

Q.64 Given dig;l> 2, 2. 3. 3. 3. 4. 4. 4. 4 how many dislincl 4 digil numbers greater than 3000 can be
formed?
(A) SO (B) 51 (C) 52 (D) 54

Q.65 Harl (H), Gila (G), lrfan (I) and Saira (S) are siblings (i.e brothers and sisters). All were born on
I" January. The age difference between any two successive siblings (that is born one after another)
i.le.. lhan 3 years. Given lhe following facl>:
i. Hari' sage + Gila's age > Irtan's age + SaiTa's age.
n. The age difference belween Gita and Saira is I year. However, Gila is not the
oldest and Saira is nol lhe youngest.
Ill. There are no twins.
In what order were they born (oldest firsl)?
(A) HSIG (B)SGHI (e) IGSH (D) mso

END OF THEQUESTION PAPER

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Space for Rough Work
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

AE: AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

ONLINE Examination
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Questions must be answered using computers provided by the GATE at the examination centers. Each
computer shall run specialized examination software that permits a maximum of one answer to be selected
for questions of multiple choice type.
2. Your answers shall be updated and saved on the server periodically and at the end of the examination. The
examination will automatically stop once the duration of the examination is over.
3. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All questions are of objective type.
4. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1-mark each, and questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2-marks each.
5. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 are of numerical answer type. For each of these questions, the correct answer is a
number. All other questions are of multiple choice type. Each of these questions carries four choices for
the answer labeled A, B, C and D. Only one of the four choices is the correct answer.
6. Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions and question pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54,
Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions
depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly
answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1-mark each, and
questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2-marks each.
8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical
answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30. For questions of multiple choice type, wrong answers will result in
NEGATIVE marks. For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
For Q.31 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs
(Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for
wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair, i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will
be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
9. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
10. Rough work can be done in the specified area only.
11. Candidates may use the back side of this page to record their answers for their own convenience.
12. To login, type your Registration Number and password as per instructions provided in the envelope.
13. In order to answer a question, you may select the question using the left side selection panel on the screen
and choose the correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. The answered questions
shall be indicated by a solid black ball on the selection panel. In order to change the answer, you may just
click on another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, you may click
on DESELECT ANSWER button.
14. You may also select questions using NEXT and PREVIOUS buttons.
15. You may also mark questions for reviewing later using MARK button. All marked questions are indicated
by a rectangle in the selection panel. Questions which are answered but are marked for the review are
indicated by a solid black rectangle and questions which are not answered but are marked for the review
are indicated by an outlined rectangle in the selection panel.
16. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination.
DECLARATION
I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.

Paper Code: AE Registration No:__________________Name: ___________________________

Signature

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Consider x, y, z to be right-handed Cartesian coordinates. A vector function is defined in this

coordinate system as v  3 xi  3 xyj  yz 2k , where i, j and k are the unit vectors along x, y and
z axes, respectively. The curl of v is given by
(A) z 2i  3 yk (B) z 2 j  3 yk (C) z 2i  3 yj (D)  z 2 i  3 yk

Q.2 Which of the following functions is periodic?

(A) f ( x)  x 2 (B) f ( x)  log x (C) f ( x)  e x (D) f ( x)  const.

Q.3 The function f ( x1 , x2 , x3 )  x12  x22  x32  2 x1  4 x2  6 x3  14 has its minimum value at

(A) (1, 2, 3) (B) (0, 0, 0) (C) (3, 2, 1) (D) (1, 1, 3)

Q.4 x x
Consider the function f ( x1 , x2 )  x12  2 x22  e 1 2 . The vector pointing in the direction of
maximum increase of the function at the point (1, -1) is

 2   1    0.73   2 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
  5   5   6.73    4

Q.5 Two simultaneous equations given by y    x and y  x   have

(A) a unique solution (B) infinitely many solutions

(C) no solution (D) a finite number of multiple solutions

Q.6 In three-dimensional linear elastic solids, the number of non-trivial stress-strain relations, strain-
displacement equations and equations of equilibrium are, respectively,
(A) 3, 3 and 3 (B) 6, 3 and 3 (C) 6, 6 and 3 (D) 6, 3 and 6

Q.7 An Euler-Bernoulli beam in bending is assumed to satisfy

(A) both plane stress as well as plane strain conditions
(B) plane strain condition but not plane stress condition
(C) plane stress condition but not plane strain condition
(D) neither plane strain condition nor plane stress condition

Q.8 A statically indeterminate frame structure has

(A) same number of joint degrees of freedom as the number of equilibrium equations
(B) number of joint degrees of freedom greater than the number of equilibrium equations
(C) number of joint degrees of freedom less than the number of equilibrium equations
(D) unknown number of joint degrees of freedom, which cannot be solved using laws of mechanics

Q.9 Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system with mass, damping and stiffness
of m , c and k , respectively. The logarithmic decrement of this system can be calculated using
2c c 2c 2c
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4mk  c 2
4mk  c 2
mk  c 2
mk  4c 2

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.10 Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass system of spring stiffness k1 and mass m which
has a natural frequency of 10 rad/s. Consider another single degree of freedom spring-mass system
of spring stiffness k 2 and mass m which has a natural frequency of 20 rad/s. The spring stiffness
k 2 is equal to

(A) k1 (B) 2k1 k1 (D) 4k1

(C)
4

Q.11 Consider a simply supported two-dimensional beam

If the beam is converted into a fixed-fixed beam as

then the degree of static indeterminacy will

(A) increase by 3 (B) increase by 2 (C) decrease by 1 (D) decrease by 3

Q.12 An impulsive launch of a rocket minimizes the loss of burn-out velocity due to
(A) aerodynamic drag force only
(B) gravitational force only
(C) both aerodynamic drag and gravitational forces
(D) reaction jet control force

Q.13 Multi-staging in rockets improves the burn-out performance by increasing mainly stage-wise
(A) payload mass ratios (B) structural mass efficiencies
(C) propellant masses (D) control system masses

Q.14 In an un-powered glide of an aircraft having weight W, lift L and drag D, the equilibrium glide
angle is defined as

L D L W 

(A) tan 1  (B) tan 1  (C) tan 1   (D) tan 1  
D L W  L

Q.15 Lift on an aircraft climbing vertically up is

(A) equal to its weight (B) zero
(C) equal to the drag (D) equal to the thrust

Q.16 If an aircraft is performing a positive yawing manoeuvre, the side slip angle
(A) is always zero (B) is never zero (C) is always negative (D) could be any value

Q.17 For an airplane to be statically stable, its centre of gravity must always be
(A) ahead of wing aerodynamic centre (B) aft of the wing aerodynamic centre
(C) ahead of neutral point (D) aft of neutral point

Q.18 It is seen that the drag polar of a certain aerofoil is symmetric about the Cd axis. This drag polar
could refer to
(A) NACA 0012 (B) NACA 4415 (C) NACA 23012 (D) None of the above

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.19 The aerodynamic centre of a supersonic aerofoil, with chord c, is located at

(A) the leading edge (B) 0.25c (C) 0.5c (D) 0.75c

Q.20 Winglets are used on wings to minimize

(A) skin friction drag (B) profile drag (C) wave drag (D) induced drag

Q.21 Consider a potential flow with free stream velocity V∞, over a spinning circular cylinder of radius R
and circulation . The stream function, ψ, where ψ = 0 on the cylinder surface, in cylindrical
coordinates (r,) is given by

 R2   r  R2   r
(A) V r cos  1  
2 
ln (B) V r cos  1  
2 
ln
 r  2 R  r  2 R
 R2   r  R2   r
(C) V r sin  1  2   ln (D) V r sin  1  2   ln
 r  2 R  r  2 R

Q.22 A main objective of by-pass in a turbo-fan engine is to increase

(A) mass flow rate through engine inlet (B) turbine inlet temperature
(C) mass flow rate through exhaust nozzle (D) compressor pressure ratio

Q.23 The pressure ratio in any one stage of a jet engine compressor is limited by
(A) entry stagnation temperature in that stage
(B) entry Mach number in that stage
(C) pressure gradient induced separation in that stage
(D) mass flow rate in that stage

Q.24 Thermodynamic cycle on which the jet engine operates can be

(A) open Rankine cycle only (B) either open or closed Rankine cycle
(C) open Brayton cycle only (D) either open or closed Brayton cycle

Q.25 Propulsion efficiency of a jet engine is

(A) directly proportional to both the thrust power and the air mass flow rate
(B) inversely proportional to both the thrust power and the air mass flow rate
(C) directly proportional to the thrust power and inversely proportional to the air mass flow rate
(D) inversely proportional to the thrust power and directly proportional to the air mass flow rate

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Questions Q.26 to Q. 30 are numerica l answer type. The answ er to each of these questio ns is
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.

Q.26 Consider a cantilever beam having length L=1 m, square cross-section (width = depth = 0.01 m)
and Young’s modulus 50 GPa. The beam is subjected to a transverse load P = 1 N at the mid-span
(L/2) at the center of the cross-section. Under the small deformation theory, the transverse
deflection of the beam (in mm) at its free-end is
P

L/2

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.27 Consider a beam in bending with a solid circular cross-section of 1 mm2, which is subjected to a
transverse shear force of 1 N. The shear stress at the center of the cross-section (in N/mm2) is

Q.28 A simply supported slender column of square cross section (width=depth=d) has to be designed
such that it buckles at the same instant as it yields. Length of the column is given to be 1.57m and
it is made of a material whose Young’s modulus is 200 GPa and yield stress is 240 MPa. The
width, d, of the column (in cm) should be

Q.29 A turbojet powered aircraft is flying at Mach number 0.8 at an altitude of 10 km. The inlet and exit
areas of the engine are 0.7 m2 and 0.4 m2 respectively. The exhaust gases have velocity of 500 m/s
and pressure of 60 kPa. The free stream pressure, density and speed of sound are 26.5 kPa, 0.413
kg/m3 and 299.5 m/s respectively. The thrust of the engine (in kN) is

Q.30 A low speed wind tunnel has a contraction ratio of 14:1 and the cross-sectional area of the test
section is 1 m2. The static pressure difference between the settling chamber and the test section is
40 cm of water column. Assume g  9.81 m/s 2 ,  air  1.2 kg/m 3 and  water  1000 kg/m 3 . The
speed of air in the test section (in m/s) is

Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

Q.31 Consider the function f ( x)  x  sin( x) . The Newton-Raphson iteration formula to find the root of
the function starting from an initial guess x ( 0 ) at iteration k is

sin x ( k )  x ( k ) cos x k sin x ( k )  x ( k ) cos x k

(A) x ( k 1)  (B) x ( k 1) 
1  cos x ( k ) 1  cos x ( k )
sin x ( k )  x ( k ) cos x k sin x ( k )  x ( k ) cos x k
(C) x ( k 1)  (D) x ( k 1) 
1  cos x ( k ) 1  cos x ( k )

Q.32 2 a 
Consider the matrix   where a and b are real numbers. The two eigenvalues of this matrix
 b 2 
1 and 2 are real and distinct 1  2  when
(A) a  0 and b  0 (B) a  0 and b  0 (C) a  0 and b  0 (D) a  0 and b  0

Q.33 dy
The solution of  y 3et t 2 with initial condition y (0)  1 is given by
dt
1 9
(A) et (t  3) 2 (B)
9
5  2e (t 2  2t  2)
t

4et 1
(C) (D)
(t  2) 2 5  2et (t 2  2t  2)

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.34 A jet engine is operating at a Mach number of 0.8 at an altitude of 10 km. The efficiency of the air
intake is 0.8 and that of the compressor is 0.87. The total temperatures (in K) at the exits of the air
intake and the compressor respectively are
(Ambient pressure = 26.5 kPa; Ambient temperature = 223.3 K; Gas constant,  = 1.4; prc  8 )

(A) 251.9 and 458.2 (B) 234.9 and 486.8 (C) 251.9 and 486.8 (D) 234.9 and 458.2

Q.35 A rocket engine is tested on a test bed under the ideal condition of fully expanded jet. The exhaust
velocity is 2 km/s through a nozzle of area 2.5 m2. The mass flow rate is 200 kg/s. The specific
impulse of the propellant and the thrust developed respectively are (assume g = 9.81 m/s2)
(A) 175.87 s and 200 kN (B) 203.87 s and 400 kN
(C) 231.87 s and 200 kN (D) 280.87 s and 400 kN

Q.36 A body undergoes deformation under plane strain conditions when subjected to the following
stresses (in MPa):  xx  450,  yy  450,  xy  75,  xz  0,  yz  0 . What are the remaining
components of stresses (in MPa) and strains? Assume the material to be isotropic and linear-elastic
with Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa and Poisson’s ratio = 1/3.
(A)  zz  0,  xx  0.00225,  yy  0.00225,  xy  0.002,  xz  0,  yz  0
(B)  zz  300,  xx  0.001,  yy  0.001,  xy  0.001,  xz  0,  yz  0
(C)  zz  300,  xx  0.00225,  yy  0.00225,  xy  0.001,  xz  0,  yz  0
(D)  zz  0,  xx  0.001,  yy  0.001,  xy  0.002,  xz  0,  yz  0

Q.37 Which of the following Airy’s stress functions could satisfy the given boundary conditions,
assuming constant values of xx = P, yy = Q and xy = R, along the boundary?

y
x

x2 y2 y2 x2
(A)   P  Q  Rxy (B)   P  Q  Rxy
2 2 2 2
2
y x2 x 2
y2
(C)   P  Q  Rxy (D)   P  Q  Rxy
2 2 2 2

Q.38 An aircraft is performing a coordinated turn manoeuvre at a bank angle of 30o and forward speed of
100 m/s. Assume g = 9.81 ms-2. The load factor and turn radius respectively are
(A) (2/3) and 1.76 km (B) 3 and 17.6 km
(C) 2 and 0.18 km (D) (2/3) and 17.6 km

Q.39 An aircraft in a steady level flight at forward speed of 50 m/s suddenly rolls by 180o and becomes
inverted. If no other changes are made to the configuration or controls of the aircraft, the nature of
the subsequent flight path taken by the aircraft and its characteristic parameter(s) (assume g = 9.81
ms-2) are
(A) straight line path with a speed of 50 m/s
(B) upward circular path with a speed of 50 m/s and radius of 127.4 m
(C) downward circular path with a speed of 50 m/s and radius of 127.4 m/s
(D) downward circular path with a speed of 25 m/s and radius of 254.8 m/s

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.40 An aircraft with a mass of 5000 kg takes off from sea level with a forward speed of 50 m/s and
starts to climb with a climb angle of 15o. The rate of climb and excess thrust available at the start of
the climb respectively (assume g = 9.81 ms-2) are
(A) 13.40 m/s and 13146.0 N (B) 12.94 m/s and 12694.1 N
(C) 13.40 m/s and 12694.1 N (D) 12.94 m/s and 13146.0 N

Q.41 A glider having a mass of 500 kg is taken to an altitude of 1000 m with a jeep moving on ground at
54 kmph. Upon reaching the required altitude in 50 s, the glider is released and starts its descent.
Under the assumption of equilibrium glide, the range and endurance of the glider for a constant lift-
to-drag ratio of 15 are
(A) 15.0 km and 1002.2 s respectively (B) 15.0 km and 601.3 s respectively
(C) 1.0 km and 601.3 s respectively (D) 1.0 km and 50 s respectively

Q.42 An elliptic orbit has its perigee at 400 km above the Earth’s surface and apogee at 3400 km above
the Earth’s surface. For this orbit, the eccentricity and semi-major axis respectively are (assume
radius of Earth = 6400 km)
(A) 0.18 and 8300 km (B) 0.18 and 1900 km
(C) 0.22 and 8300 km (D) 0.22 and 1900 km

Q.43 An aircraft in level flight encounters a vertical gust, which excites the phugoid mode. The phugoid
motion completes 10 cycles in 50 s and its amplitude reduces to half of its maximum value in 25 s.
The eigenvalues of the phugoid mode are
(A) −0.05  0.02i (B) −0.5  0.2i (C) −0.028  1.26i (D) 0.028  1.26i

Q.44 Consider the inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream conditions, M1 = 2, p1 = 1 atm and T1 =
288 K around a sharp expansion corner (θ = 20°) as shown below. The Prandtl-Meyer function, ν,
is given as a function of Mach number, M, as  (M)    1 tan 1   1 (M 2  1)  tan 1 M 2  1
 1  1
Assume air to be calorically perfect with  = 1.4. The Mach number, M2, downstream of the
expansion corner is approximately

M1, p1, T1
 M2

(A) 2.00 (B) 1.76 (C) 2.83 (D) 3.14

Q.45 Consider a steady two dimensional zero-pressure gradient laminar flow of air over a flat plate as
shown below. The free stream conditions are U∞ = 100 ms-1, ρ∞ = 1.2 kg m-3, p∞ = 1 atm and
  1.8  105 kg m-1s-1. The ratio of displacement thickness to momentum thickness of the
boundary layer at a distance of 2 m from the leading edge is
U∞ Boundary layer
∞
p∞
∞
2m
(A) 7.53 (B) 2.59 (C) 2.91 (D) 0.39

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.46 In the context of Prandtl’s lifting line theory for a finite wing, which of the following combinations
of statements is TRUE?
P: The bound vortex is responsible for the lift force
Q: The trailing vortices are responsible for the induced drag
R: The bound vortex is responsible for the induced drag
S: The trailing vortices are responsible for the lift force
(A) P,Q (B) Q,R (C) R,S (D) P,S

Q.47 Consider flow over a thin aerofoil at Mach number, M∞ = 0.5 at an angle of attack, . Using the
Prandtl-Glauert rule for compressibility correction, the formula for lift coefficient, cl, can be written
as
(A) 5.44 (B) 6.28 (C) 7.26 (D) 14.52

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

The partial differential equation (PDE) governing free vibrations of a uniform Euler-Bernoulli beam is
4w 2w
given by EI  m  0 , where EI is the flexural stiffness, m is the mass per unit length,
x 4 t 2
w( x, t ) is the bending displacement, x is the coordinate along the beam length, t is time and L is the beam
length.

x0 x xL

Q.48 To solve the PDE, the number of boundary conditions (BC) and initial conditions (IC) needed are
(A) 4 BC, 3 IC (B) 2 BC, 2 IC (C) 2 BC, 4 IC (D) 4 BC, 2 IC

Q.49 For the cantilever beam shown in the figure, which of the following CANNOT be a possible
boundary condition?

2w 2w  3w
(A) w(0, t )  0 (B) ( L, t )  0 (C) (0, t )  0 (D) ( L, t )  0
x 2 x 2 x 3

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

Consider an inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream Mach Number, M∞ = 2, across a compression
corner (θ = 20°) as shown. The free stream total enthalpy is h0∞ = 810 kJ kg-1. Assume that air is calorically
perfect with γ = 1.4, R = 287 J kg-1 K-1.

M∞ P
 1m


Q.50 The shock angle β is

(A) = 20° (B) > 20° and< 30° (C) = 30°  (D) > 30°

Q.51 The total temperature at point P is

(A) 806.37 K (B) 1128.92 K (C) 1612.74 K (D) 2257.84 K

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

A thin-walled (thickness << radius), hollow shaft of length 1m and mean radius, R = 5 cm has to be
designed such that it can transmit a torque, T = 7 kN-m. A survey of different commercially available
materials was made and following data was obtained from the suppliers (E: Young’s modulus, y: yield
stress in shear, : density):
Material E (GPa) y (MPa)  (kg/m3)
X 200 550 7700
Y 70 225 2700
Z 110 375 4875
Q.52 Which of the above materials would you choose such that weight of the shaft is minimum?

(A) X only (B) Y only (C) Z only (D) X or Y

Q.53 If you assume a factor of safety of 2, what should be the approximate thickness of such a shaft?
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1 mm (C) 2 mm (D) 4 mm

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

Prandtl’s lifting line equation for a general wing is given by

b

  y0  1 2
 / y dy ,
  y0     L 0  y0    where U  is the free-stream velocity,  is the
U  c y0  4U  b y0  y

2

angle of attack, y0 is the spanwise location,  L  0  y0  gives the spanwise variation of zero-lift angle, c is
the chord, b is the span, and  y0  gives the spanwise variation of circulation.

Q.54 
The rate of change of circulation with angle of attack   is

(A) inversely proportional to  (B) independent of 
(C) a linear function of  (D) a quadratic function of 

Q.55 b
2
C L
Given that C L    y dy , the corresponding lift curve-slope
b 
is

2

(A) independent of  (B) a linear function of 

(C) a quadratic function of  (D) a cubic function of 

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given
word:
Deference
(A) aversion
(B) resignation
(C) suspicion
(D) contempt

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate word(s) from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
We lost confidence in him because he never __________ the grandiose promises he had made.
(A) delivered
(B) delivered on
(C) forgot
(D) reneged on

Q.58 Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence below.
______________ in the frozen wastes of Arctic takes special equipment.
(A) To survive
(B) Surviving
(C) Survival
(D) That survival

Q.59 In how many ways 3 scholarships can be awarded to 4 applicants, when each applicant can receive
any number of scholarships?
(A) 4 (B) 12 (C) 64 (D) 81

Q.60 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
The _________ of eviden ce was on the side of the plaintiff since all but one witness testified
that his story was correct.
(A) paucity
(B) propensity
(C) preponderance
(D) accuracy

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 If (2y+1)/(y+2) < 1, then which of the following alternatives gives the CORRECT range of y?
(A) - 2 < y < 2 (B) - 2 < y < 1 (C) - 3 < y < 1 (D) - 4 < y < 1

Q.62 A student attempted to solve a quadratic equation in x twice. However, in the first attempt, he
incorrectly wrote the constant term and ended up with the roots as (4, 3). In the second attempt, he
incorrectly wrote down the coefficient of x and got the roots as (3, 2). Based on the above
information, the roots of the correct quadratic equation are
(A) (-3, 4) (B) (3, -4) (C) (6, 1) (D) (4, 2)

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.63 L, M and N are waiting in a queue meant for children to enter the zoo. There are 5 children between
L and M, and 8 children between M and N. If there are 3 children ahead of N and 21 children
behind L, then what is the minimum number of children in the queue?
(A) 28 (B) 27 (C) 41 (D) 40

Q.64 Four archers P, Q, R and S try to hit a bull’s eye during a tournament consisting of seven rounds.
As illustrated in the figure below, a player receives 10 points for hitting the bulls’ eye, 5 points for
hitting within the inner circle and 1 point for hitting within the outer circle.

Outer circle
1 point

Inner circle
5 points

Bull’s eye
10 points

The final scores received by the players during the tournament are listed in the table below.

Round P Q R S
1 1 5 1 10
2 5 10 10 1
3 1 1 1 5
4 10 10 1 1
5 1 5 5 10
6 10 5 1 1
7 5 10 1 1

The most accurate and the most consistent players during the tournament are respectively
(A) P and S (B) Q and R (C) Q and Q (D) R and Q

Q.65 Nimbus clouds are dark and ragged, stratus clouds appear dull in colour a nd cover the entire
sky. Cirrus clouds are thin and delicate, whereas cumulus clouds look like cotton balls.

It can be inferred from the passage that

(A) A cumulus cloud on the ground is called fog
(B) It is easy to predict the weather by studying clouds
(C) Clouds are generally of very different shapes, sizes and mass
(D) There are four basic cloud types: stratus, nimbus, cumulus and cirrus

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AE
 GATE 2012 Online Examination
AE : AEROSPACE ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.
2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the
examination.
3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button
next to the selected option.

4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30. For all 1
mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark
will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair,
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for
wrong answer to the second question.
9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.
10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination.
________________________________________________________________________________________

DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.
Registration Number AE
Name

Signature

Verified that the above entries are correct.

Invigilator’s signature:
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The constraint A2 = A on any square matrix A is satisfied for
(A) the identity matrix only. (B) the null matrix only.
(C) both the identity matrix and the null matrix. (D) no square matrix A.

Q.2 d 2 y dy
The general solution of the differential equation + − 2 y = 0 is
dt 2 dt
(A) Ae − t + Be 2t (B) Ae −2t + Be − t (C) Ae −2t + Bet (D) Aet + Be 2t

Q.3 An aircraft in trimmed condition has zero pitching moment at

(A) its aerodynamic centre. (B) its centre of gravity.
(C) 25% of its mean aerodynamic chord. (D) 50% of its wing root chord.

Q.4 In an aircraft, constant roll rate can be produced using ailerons by applying
(A) a step input. (B) a ramp input.
(C) a sinusoidal input. (D) an impulse input.

Q.5 For a symmetric airfoil, the lift coefficient for zero degree angle of attack is
(A) – 1.0 (B) 0.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0

Q.6 The critical Mach number of an airfoil is attained when

(A) the freestream Mach number is sonic.
(B) the freestream Mach number is supersonic.
(C) the Mach number somewhere on the airfoil is unity.
(D) the Mach number everywhere on the airfoil is supersonic.

Q.7 The shadowgraph flow visualization technique depends on

(A) the variation of the value of density in the flow.
(B) the first derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
(C) the second derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
(D) the third derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.

Q.8 The Hohmann ellipse used as earth-Mars transfer orbit has

(A) apogee at earth and perigee at Mars. (B) both apogee and perigee at earth.
(C) apogee at Mars and perigee at earth. (D) both apogee and perigee at Mars.

Q.9 The governing equation for the static transverse deflection of a beam under an uniformly distributed
load, according to Euler-Bernoulli (engineering) beam theory, is a
(A) 2nd order linear homogenous partial differential equation.
(B) 4th order linear non-homogenous ordinary differential equation.
(C) 2nd order linear non-homogenous ordinary differential equation.
(D) 4th order nonlinear homogenous ordinary differential equation.

Q.10 The Poisson’s ratio,ν of most aircraft grade metallic alloys has values in the range:
(A) −1 ≤ ν ≤ 0 (B) 0 ≤ ν ≤ 0.2 (C) 0.2 ≤ ν ≤ 0.4 (D) 0.4 ≤ ν ≤ 0.5

AE 2/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.11 The value of k for which the system of equations x + 2 y + kz = 1; 2 x + ky + 8 z = 3 has no

solution is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

Q.12 d 2x
If u (t ) is a unit step function, the solution of the differential equation m 2 + kx = u (t ) in
dt
Laplace domain is
1 1 s 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s (ms 2 + k ) ms + k
2
ms + k
2
s (ms 2 + k )
2

Q.13 dy
The general solution of the differential equation − 2 y = 0 is
dx

(A) y − x + C = 0 (B) y − x + C = 0 (C) y − x +C = 0 (D) y − x+C = 0

Q.14 During the ground roll manoeuvre of an aircraft, the force(s) acting on it parallel to the direction of
motion
(A) is thrust alone. (B) is drag alone.
(C) are both thrust and drag. (D) are thrust, drag and a part of both weight and lift.

Q.15 An aircraft in a steady climb suddenly experiences a 10% drop in thrust. After a new equilibrium is
reached at the same speed, the new rate of climb is
(A) lower by exactly 10%. (B) lower by more than 10%.
(C) lower by less than 10%. (D) an unpredictable quantity.

Q.16 In an aircraft, the dive manoeuvre can be initiated by

(A) reducing the engine thrust alone. (B) reducing the angle of attack alone.
(C) generating a nose down pitch rate. (D) increasing the engine thrust alone.

Q.17 In an aircraft, elevator control effectiveness determines

(A) turn radius.
(B) rate of climb.
(C) forward-most location of the centre of gravity.
(D) aft-most location of the centre of gravity.

Q.18 The Mach angle for a flow at Mach 2.0 is

(A) 30o (B) 45o (C) 60o (D) 90o

Q.19 For a wing of aspect ratio AR, having an elliptical lift distribution, the induced drag coefficient is
(where CL is the lift coefficient)
CL CL2 CL CL2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
π AR π AR 2π AR π AR 2

Q.20 Bernoulli’s equation is valid under steady state

(A) only along a streamline in inviscid flow, and between any two points in potential flow.
(B) between any two points in both inviscid flow and potential flow.
(C) between any two points in inviscid flow, and only along a streamline in potential flow.
(D) only along a streamline in both inviscid flow and potential flow.

AE 3/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.21 The ratio of flight speed to the exhaust velocity for maximum propulsion efficiency is
(A) 0.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

Q.22 The ideal static pressure coefficient of a diffuser with an area ratio of 2.0 is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0

Q.23 A rocket is to be launched from the bottom of a very deep crater on Mars for earth return. The
specific impulse of the rocket, measured in seconds, is to be normalized by the acceleration due to
gravity at
(A) the bottom of the crater on Mars. (B) Mars standard “sea level”.
(C) earth’s standard sea level. (D) the same depth of the crater on earth.

Q.24 In a semi-monocoque construction of an aircraft wing, the skin and spar webs are the primary
carriers of
(A) shear stresses due to an aerodynamic moment component alone.
(B) normal (bending) stresses due to aerodynamic forces.
(C) shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces alone.
(D) shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces and a moment component.

Q.25 The logarithmic decrement measured for a viscously damped single degree of freedom system is
0.125. The value of the damping factor in % is closest to
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Questions Q.26 to Q.30 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.
1

∫ x dx computed using trapezoidal rule with n = 4 intervals is ____.

3
Q.26 The integration
0

Q.27 An aircraft has a steady rate of climb of 300 m/s at sea level and 150 m/s at 2500 m altitude. The
time taken (in sec) for this aircraft to climb from 500 m altitude to 3000 m altitude is ____.

Q.28 An airfoil generates a lift of 80 N when operating in a freestream flow of 60 m/s. If the ambient
pressure and temperature are 100 kPa and 290 K respectively (specific gas constant is 287 J/kg-K),
the circulation on the airfoil in m2/s is ____.

Q.29 A rocket motor has combustion chamber temperature of 2600 K and the products have molecular
weight of 25 g/mol and ratio of specific heats 1.2. The universal gas constant is 8314 J/kg-mole-K.
The value of theoretical c* (in m/s) is ____.

{1 0.5}
Q.30 T
The mode shapes of an un-damped two degrees of freedom system are and

{1 − 0.675} . The corresponding natural frequencies are 0.45 Hz and 1.2471 Hz. The maximum
T

amplitude (in mm) of vibration of the first degree of freedom due to an initial displacement of
{2 1}
T
(in mm) and zero initial velocities is ____.

AE 4/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

1
Q.31 The nth derivative of the function y = is
x+3
(−1) n n ! (−1) n +1 n ! (−1) n (n + 1)! (−1) n n !
(A) (B) (C) (D)
( x + 3) n +1 ( x + 3) n +1 ( x + 3) n ( x + 3) n

Q.32 The volume of a solid generated by rotating the region between semi-circle y = 1 − 1 − x 2 and
straight line y = 1, about x axis, is
4 1 3 3 2
(A) π 2 − π (B) 4π 2 − π (C) π 2 − π (D) π −π
3 3 4 4

⎡ 2 7 10 ⎤
⎢ ⎥
One eigenvalue of the matrix A = 5 2 25 is – 9.33. One of the other eigenvalues is
Q.33 ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣1 6 5 ⎥⎦

(A) 18.33 (B) −18.33 (C) 18.33−9.33i (D) 18.33+9.33i

Q.34 If an aircraft takes off with 10% less fuel in comparison to its standard configuration, its range is
(A) lower by exactly 10%. (B) lower by more than 10%.
(C) lower by less than 10%. (D) an unpredictable quantity.

Q.35 An aircraft has an approach speed of 144 kmph with a descent angle of 6.6o. If the aircraft load
factor is 1.2 and constant deceleration at touch down is 0.25g (g = 9.81 m/s2), its total landing
distance approximately over a 15 m high obstacle is
(A) 1830 m. (B) 1380 m. (C) 830 m. (D) 380 m.

Q.36 An aircraft is trimmed straight and level at true air speed (TAS) of 100 m/s at standard sea level
(SSL). Further, pull of 5 N holds the speed at 90 m/s without re-trimming at SSL (air density = 1.22
kg/m3). To fly at 3000 m altitude (air density = 0.91 kg/m3) and 120 m/s TAS without re-trimming,
the aircraft needs
(A) 1.95 N upward force. (B) 1.95 N downward force.
(C) 1.85 N upward force. (D) 1.75 N downward force.

Q.37 An oblique shock wave with a wave angle β is generated from a wedge angle of θ. The ratio of the
Mach number downstream of the shock to its normal component is
(A) sin(β–θ) (B) cos(β–θ) (C) sin(θ–β) (D) cos(θ–β)

Q.38 In a closed-circuit supersonic wind tunnel, the convergent-divergent (C-D) nozzle and test section
are followed by a C-D diffuser to swallow the starting shock. Here, we should have the
(A) diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser throat.
(B) diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the diffuser
throat.
(C) diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser
throat.
(D) diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the
diffuser throat.

AE 5/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.39 A vortex flowmeter works on the principle that the Strouhal number of 0.2 is a constant over a wide
range of flow rates. If the bluff-body diameter in the flowmeter is 20 mm and the piezo-electric
transducer registers the vortex shedding frequency to be 10 Hz, then the velocity of the flow would
be measured as
(A) 0.1 m/s (B) 1 m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) 100 m/s

Q.40 The stagnation temperatures at the inlet and exit of a combustion chamber are 600 K and 1200 K,
respectively. If the heating value of the fuel is 44 MJ/kg and specific heat at constant pressure for
air and hot gases are 1.005 kJ/kg.K and 1.147 kJ/kg.K respectively, the fuel-to-air ratio is
(A) 0.0018 (B) 0.018 (C) 0.18 (D) 1.18

Q.41 A solid propellant of density 1800 kg/m3 has a burning rate law r = 6.65 x 10-3p0.45 mm/s, where p
is pressure in Pascals. It is used in a rocket motor with a tubular grain with an initial burning area
of 0.314 m2. The characteristic velocity is 1450 m/s. What should be the nozzle throat diameter to
achieve an equilibrium chamber pressure of 50 bar at the end of the ignition transient?
(A) 35 mm (B) 38 mm (C) 41 mm (D) 45 mm

Q.42 A bipropellant liquid rocket motor operates at a chamber pressure of 40 bar with a nozzle throat
diameter of 50 mm. The characteristic velocity is 1540 m/s. If the fuel-oxidizer ratio of the
propellant is 1.8, and the fuel density is 900 kg/m3, what should be the minimum fuel tank volume
for a burn time of 8 minutes
(A) 1.65 m3 (B) 1.75 m3 (C) 1.85 m3 (D) 1.95 m3

Q.43 The propellant in a single stage sounding rocket occupies 60% of its initial mass. If all of it is
expended instantaneously at an equivalent exhaust velocity of 3000 m/s, what would be the altitude
attained by the payload when launched vertically?
[Neglect drag and assume acceleration due to gravity to be constant at 9.81 m/s2.]
(A) 315 km (B) 335 km (C) 365 km (D) 385 km

Q.44 The Airy stress function, φ = α x 2 + β xy + γ y 2 for a thin square panel of size l × l automatically
satisfies compatibility. If the panel is subjected to uniform tensile stress, σ o on all four edges, the
traction boundary conditions are satisfied by
(A) α = σ o / 2; β = 0; γ = σ o / 2. (B) α = σ o ; β = 0; γ = σ o .
(C) α = 0; β = σ o / 4; γ = 0. (D) α = 0; β = σ o / 2; γ = 0.

Q.45 The boundary condition of a rod under longitudinal vibration is changed from fixed-fixed to fixed-
free. The fundamental natural frequency of the rod is now k times the original frequency, where k is

1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
2 2

Q.46 A spring-mass system is viscously damped with a viscous damping constant c. The energy
dissipated per cycle when the system is undergoing a harmonic vibration X Cosωd t is given by

(A) π cωd X 2 (B) πωd X 2 (C) π cωd X (D) π cωd2 X

Q.47 Buckling of the fuselage skin can be delayed by

(A) increasing internal pressure.
(B) placing stiffeners farther apart.
(C) reducing skin thickness.
(D) placing stiffeners farther and decreasing internal pressure.

AE 6/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
A wing and tail are geometrically similar, while tail area is one-third of the wing area and distance between
two aerodynamic centres is equal to wing semi-span (b/2). In addition, following data is applicable:
∈α = 0.3, CL = 1.0, CLα = 0.08 / deg., c = 2.5m, b = 30m, CM ac = 0, ηt = 1. The symbols have their usual
aerodynamic interpretation.
Q.48 The maximum distance that the centre of gravity can be behind aerodynamic centre without
destabilizing the wing-tail combination is
(A) 0.4 m (B) 1.4 m (C) 2.4 m (D) 3.4 m

Q.49 The angle of incidence of tail to trim the wing-tail combination for a 5% static margin is
(A) −1.4o (B) −0.4o (C) 0.4o (D) 1.4o

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

A thin long circular pipe of 10 mm diameter has porous walls and spins at 60 rpm about its own axis. Fluid
is pumped out of the pipe such that it emerges radially relative to the pipe surface at a velocity of 1 m/s.
[Neglect the effect of gravity.]
Q.50 What is the radial component of the fluid’s velocity at a radial location 0.5 m from the pipe axis?
(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.1 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 10 m/s

Q.51 What is the tangential component of the fluid’s velocity at the same radial location as above?
(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.03 m/s (C) 0.10 m/s (D) 0.31 m/s
Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
Air at a stagnation temperature of 15oC and stagnation pressure 100 kPa enters an axial compressor with an
absolute velocity of 120 m/s. Inlet guide vanes direct this absolute velocity to the rotor inlet at an angle of
18o to the axial direction. The rotor turning angle is 27o and the mean blade speed is 200 m/s. The axial
velocity is assumed constant through the stage.
Q.52 The blade angle at the inlet of the rotor is

(A) 25.5o (B) 38.5o (C) 48.5o (D) 59.5o

Q.53 If the mass flow rate is 1 kg/s, the power required to drive the compressor is
(A) 50.5 kW (B) 40.5 kW (C) 30.5 kW (D) 20.5 kW

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

A thin-walled spherical vessel (1 m inner diameter and 10 mm wall thickness) is made of a material with
σ Y = 500 MPa in both tension and compression.
Q.54 The internal pressure pY at yield, based on the von Mises yield criterion, if the vessel is floating in
space, is approximately
(A) 500 MPa (B) 250 MPa (C) 100 MPa (D) 20 MPa

Q.55 If the vessel is evacuated (internal pressure = 0) and subjected to external pressure, yielding
according to the von Mises yield criterion (assuming elastic stability until yield)
(A) occurs at about half the pressure pY . (B) occurs at about double the pressure pY .
(C) occurs at about the same pressure pY . (D) never occurs.

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General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

I ___ to have bought a diamond ring.

(A) have a liking (B) should have liked
(C) would like (D) may like

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

Food prices ___ again this month.

(A) have raised (B) have been raising
(C) have been rising (D) have arose

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

The administrators went on to implement yet another unreasonable measure, arguing that
the measures were already ___ and one more would hardly make a difference.
(A) reflective (B) utopian (C) luxuriant (D) unpopular

Q.59 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

To those of us who had always thought him timid, his ___ came as a surprise.

(A) intrepidity (B) inevitability (C) inability (D) inertness

Q.60 The arithmetic mean of five different natural numbers is 12. The largest possible value among the
numbers is
(A) 12 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 Two policemen, A and B, fire once each at the same time at an escaping convict. The probability
that A hits the convict is three times the probability that B hits the convict. If the probability of the
convict not getting injured is 0.5, the probability that B hits the convict is
(A) 0.14 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.40

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Q.62 The total runs scored by four cricketers P, Q, R, and S in years 2009 and 2010 are given in the
following table:
Player 2009 2010
P 802 1008
Q 765 912
R 429 619
S 501 701

The player with the lowest percentage increase in total runs is

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.63 If a prime number on division by 4 gives a remainder of 1, then that number can be expressed as
(A) sum of squares of two natural numbers
(B) sum of cubes of two natural numbers
(C) sum of square roots of two natural numbers
(D) sum of cube roots of two natural numbers

Q.64 Two points (4, p) and (0, q) lie on a straight line having a slope of 3/4. The value of (p – q) is
(A) -3 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.65 In the early nineteenth century, theories of social evolution were inspired less by Biology than
by the conviction of social scientists that there was a growing improvement in social
institutions. Progress was taken for granted and social scientists attempted to discover its
laws and phases.

Which one of the following inferences may be drawn with the greatest accuracy from the above
passage?

Social scientists
(A) did not question that progress was a fact.
(B) did not approve of Biology.
(C) framed the laws of progress.
(D) emphasized Biology over Social Sciences.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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