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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

GCE Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

MARK SCHEME for the June 2005 question paper

9696 GEOGRAPHY

9696/01 Paper 1 (Core), maximum raw mark 100

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and students, to indicate the
requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were initially
instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place
at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began. Any substantial changes to the mark
scheme that arose from these discussions will be recorded in the published Report on the
Examination.

All Examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated.

Mark schemes must be read in conjunction with the question papers and the Report on the
Examination.

• CIE will not enter into discussion or correspondence in connection with these mark
schemes.

CIE is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2005 question papers for most IGCSE and
GCE Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level syllabuses and some Ordinary Level
syllabuses.
Grade thresholds for Syllabus 9696 (Geography) in the June 2005 examination.

maximum minimum mark required for grade:

mark A B E
available
Component 1 100 65 61 42

The thresholds (minimum marks) for Grades C and D are normally set by dividing the
mark range between the B and the E thresholds into three. For example, if the difference
between the B and the E threshold is 24 marks, the C threshold is set 8 marks below the
B threshold and the D threshold is set another 8 marks down. If dividing the interval by
three results in a fraction of a mark, then the threshold is normally rounded down.
June 2005

GCE AS/A LEVEL

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK: 100

SYLLABUS/COMPONENT: 9696/01

GEOGRAPHY

(Core)
 Page 1 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper
AS/A LEVEL – JUNE 2005 9696 1

Hydrology and fluvial geomorphology

1 Fig. 1A and Fig. 1B show two hydrographs for the same river in 1994 and 2004.

(a) What term is used for X as shown on the hydrographs? [1]

Lag time (1 mark)

(b) Describe the difference in the discharge shown in 2004 and that of 1994.
[4]

1A has a longer lag time (1)

1B has higher peak discharge (1)
1B has steeper rising limb (1)
1B has steeper recession (falling limb) (1)

(c) Explain how the changes in land use have affected the river discharge.
[5]

The replacement of woodland by pasture has led to a reduction in interception

and hence interception storage (via leaves, stemflow canopy storage). This
slows the passage of water to the soil surface and reduces overland flow
(quick flow). Infiltration is greater under woodland and the water progresses to
the river by throughflow and groundwater flow rather than overland flow.
Hence the effect on the pattern of discharge seen in the hydrograph. If only
interception is mentioned (i.e. no effects of flows) give up to 3 marks.

[Total for Question 1: 10]

Atmosphere and weather

2 Fig. 2 shows land and sea breezes in A, daytime, and B, night-time.

(a) Describe the differences shown in the circulation of air in the daytime
(Fig. 2A) and the night-time (Fig. 2B). [2]

Simple reversal of surface winds and upper air returns. Onshore surface
breeze during the day and offshore at night with returns above to complete the
cells.

(b) Explain how the daytime and night-time patterns of circulation are
brought about. [6]

As the land surface is heated during the day, radiant heat (LWR) heats the air,
which then rises, causing cooler air from the sea to be drawn in. The sea
heats more slowly than the land and cools down more slowly at night. Hence
the sea is warmer at night than the land, and the process reverses, as the land
loses heat faster, cooling the air above the surface. May be expressed in
terms of the creation of localised pressure cells – low over land in daytime and
high at night (not required for the marks, however). (6 marks)

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005

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(c) Give TWO effects that land and sea breezes have upon local weather.
[2]

Cooling onshore wind during the day which lowers temperatures close to the
coast whilst an ameliorating effect at night-time. (2 marks)

[Total for Question 2: 10]

3 Table 1 shows the ageing of the world’s population between 1960 and 2020.

(a) Which decade (ten year period) shows: [2]

A the smallest percentage increase in population aged over 65 in

MEDCs?

1980-90 (1)

B the greatest percentage increase in population aged over 65 in

LEDCs?

2010-20 (1)

(b) For LEDCs, compare the trend in average annual growth rate of total
population (r) with the trend in average annual growth rate of population
aged over 65 (r65). [3]

Total population growth rate rises but then falls. (1)

However, ‘over 65’ growth rate fluctuates/is uneven. (1)
Some data support for one or both trends (dates and/or %) (1)

(c) Identify TWO effects of a country’s ageing population and explain the
significance of each. [5]

A number of valid effects are possible; demographic, social, economic and

political, most of which are seen as “negative,” but some of which may be
“positive,” e.g. growth in grey power or of third and fourth age
markets/services.

“Negative” effects may include,

- negative NIR as replacement level is not reached and DR is sustained

below BR in a DTM “Stage 5” context
- introduction of pro-natalist population policy and measures
- pensions/healthcare burden (on governments and taxation of individuals)
- shortage of labour/unfilled jobs/lack of economically active
- reduced threshold/closure of services e.g. nurseries and schools
- other

The significance may be for the individual or family as well as the country.

Credit effects 2/3 or 3/2. If more than two, credit the two best.

[Total for Question 3: 10]

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005

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4 Fig. 3 is a map showing the rates of urban expansion in China, 1989-2000. Urban
expansion is the spread of towns and cities into the surrounding rural-urban
fringe and countryside.

(a) Name the TWO regions which experienced the lowest rate of urban
expansion, 1989-2000. [2]

Gansu (1)
Yunnan (both < 5%, value not needed). (1)

(b) Describe the distribution of the areas which experienced rates of urban
expansion of 11-20% for the period. [3]

The distribution is mixed but may be seen in two clusters:

Six areas in the NW and N from Xinjiang to Inner Mongolia, separated by

Gansu and with Beijing as an “island.”
Two in the S, costal Guangxi and the island of Hainan.

For one of the clusters only max 2, or for a list of names max 1.

(c) In 1980, the Chinese Government made many cities Special Economic
Zones which stimulated their growth.

Explain the action of economic pull factors in rural-urban migration in

LEDCs. [5]

Note: there is no need to answer this with reference to China, although some
candidates may do so.

Economic pull factors need to be selected from the array of factors which
candidates have. The factors may operate at the scale of the individual,
family, rural source, urban destination or country/countries chosen. Seeking
jobs, better jobs and betterment generally may dominate responses
appropriately.

Indicators of quality may be the use of named places or incidents; the

recognition that rural-urban migration is age and gender-specific or the
observation that there is much wrong information and ‘travelling hopefully’.
Better answers may be clearly linked to explicit economic sectors such as
manufacturing or services e.g. tourism, and should be directed to the pull
aspects, rather than the push ones. High quality observations include the
decision-making process for migrants and how potential reward overcomes
barriers and obstacles to migration e.g. distance, family ties.

[Total for Question 4: 10]

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005

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5 Fig. 4 is a model of changes in population density over time within a city in a

MEDC. For each time period, t1-t6, a shaded population density gradient is
shown.

(a) Outline how central population densities have changed over time,
according to this model. [2]

Increased gently/steadily to t4, (1)

then declined. (1)

(b) Compare the city’s population density gradient at time t1 with that at
time t6. [3]

Short and steep in t1, whilst in t6 it was long(er) and gentle(r) with the zone of
maximum density occurring some distance from the centre (so a rising and
falling gradient as you move outwards).

(c) Suggest reasons why many city residents in MEDCs choose to live in the
cities’ peripheral areas rather than near the centre. [5]

Simply explained by positive externalities of peripheral areas (space, quiet,

greenery, cleaner air, better services etc.) and the negative externalities of
central areas (congestion, crime, air pollution, noise etc.) by facilitating factors
such as affluence, car ownership and decentralisation and by other factors
such as bide-rent, the life cycle, housing markets and new working practices
and home offices.

Mark on merit but beware double credit for externalities’ absence/presence.

[Total for Question 5: 10]

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005

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Section B : The Physical Core

Hydrology and Fluvial Geomorphology

6 (a) (i) Define the terms ‘water-table’ and ‘levee’. [4]

Water-table is the upper level of the zone of groundwater saturation in

permeable rocks. It could be shown as a diagram. (2 marks)

Levee is an elevated bank flanking the channel above the level of the flood
plain. Formed during flooding by deposition of coarser sediments. Annotated
diagram acceptable. (2 marks)

(ii) Briefly describe what is meant by the term ‘delta’. [3]

A fan shaped alluvial deposit at the rivers mouth. Coarser material is

deposited first and finer sediments are carried further out. The river channel is
divergent (distributaries). Some may divide into arcuate, birds foot and
cuspate, but not necessary for the marks.

(b) With the aid of a labelled diagram, explain how rivers transport their
load. [8]

Diagram should show solute load, suspended load and traction with
appropriate scale of materials and depths. Explanations need only be
developed in terms of river flows and appropriate materials. Most marks (5)
for the diagram, if well done.

(c) Describe the channels of:

(i) Meandering, and (ii) Braided streams.

Explain how they are produced. [10]

Diagrams would be a sensible approach to demonstrate the sinuosity of a

meandering channel as against the divergent channel, with its islands of
sediment that characterise braided channels. Good answers (10-8 marks) will
develop pool and riffle sequences in conjunction with helicoidal flow in the
formation of meanders. Braided streams are due to unstable flow regimes
(i.e. large changes in discharge), the transport of large bed loads and
incoherent banks. Sand and gravel banks develop in periods of low
discharge. Many may concentrate upon channel features (slop off slopes in
meandering streams, vegetated island in braided etc.). These are not
necessary for good marks but can be afforded some credit.

[Total for Question 6: 25]

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Atmosphere and Weather

7 (a) (i) Define the term ‘relative humidity’. [4]

It is the ratio of the amount of moisture in the air to the maximum amount that
the air could hold at that temperature.

(ii) Give one reason why relative humidity is important in the study of
weather. [3]

Relative humidity is important because it gives and indication of the humidity

of an air mass and its capacity to hold moisture. This it allows some estimate
of the chances of precipitation.

(b) (i) Draw a labelled temperature/height diagram to show instability in the

atmosphere. [4]

Simple temperature/height diagram showing DALR and SALR to the right of

the ELR. Allow 3 marks if conditional instability is shown.

(ii) Describe a circumstance under which instability may occur. [4]

Instability will generally occur where an air mass is heated from below,
causing air to rise. This could be by convection heating from the surface or by
the passage of an air mass over a warmer surface.

(c) Explain the factors that influence the global distribution of surface
temperatures. [10]

The amount of solar radiation received is the major variable and the means by
which surpluses and deficits are adjusted by heat transfers. Air movements
expressed through such features as the Hadley cell can be employed to
produce equatorial cloud cover, which limits solar radiation received at the
equator. Winds distribute heat as well as ocean currents and northerly
migrations of such things as tropical storms. The configuration of continents
and oceans will also have an effect due to differing thermal capacities. A lot to
cover so extensive cover of all the factors cannot be expected.

[Total for Question 7: 25]

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005

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Rocks and Weathering

8 (a) (i) Define the terms ‘crystal growth’ and ‘pressure release’ as they apply to
weathering. [4]

Salt crystals grow just beneath a rock surface due to evaporation or where
moisture lingers.

‘Pressure release’ of rocks formed under pressure due to the removal of

overburden by erosion.

(ii) Describe the effects that crystal growth and pressure release have upon
rocks. [3]

Crystal growth leads to stresses within the rock, producing surface scaling
(large scale weathering pits and tafoni).

Pressure release leads to tensional stresses at right angles to the surface,

leading to sheet jointing and possibly large scale exfoliation.

(b) Explain how chemical weathering processes act upon either granite or
limestone rocks. [8]

Granite rocks are particularly prone to hydrolysis, leading to the weathering of

the feldspar. Kaolinite is produced (clay minerals) and other materials
removed in solution A’s granite is well jointed. These areas are vulnerable
both on the surface and at depth – hence tors etc.

Limestone is most susceptible to carbonation, whereby calcium carbonate is

changed to calcium bicarbonate by acidulated rainwater. The bicarbonate is
then removed in solution.

Many will illustrate these processes by reference to landforms (inselbergs, tors

etc. or caves, pavements, dolines in the case of limestone). This is
acceptable, but for full marks there must be a clear exposition of chemical
weathering processes.

(c) Describe and explain the differences between convergent and divergent
plate margins. [10]

Much can be achieved by good annotated diagrams of sea floor spreading

divergent margins and subduction at convergent margins. Diagrams and
explanations should include mid-ocean ridges, volcanic islands, island arcs,
ocean trenches and some fold mountains as well as some explanation in
terms of magma circulation, frictional melting in subduction etc. Give up to 6
marks for good diagrams.

[Total for Question 8: 25]

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005

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Section C: The Human Core

9 Fig. 5 is a newspaper report about fertility rates in MEDCs.

(a) (i) Give the meaning of the term ‘fertility rate’. [3]

This may be expressed as an individual rate:

The average (1) number of children (1) each woman in a population bears (1),

Or as a general rate:

The number of births in a year (1) per 1000 women or as a % (1) of

childbearing age, 15-49 (or similar) (1)

Either is creditable.

(ii) Name TWO countries shown on the diagram with fertility rates of less
than 1.7 [4]

Credit (1) for two of Belgium, Germany, Greece, Italy, Japan, Spain, UK. (2)

What does the report say is significant about this level?

‘It is crucial in maintaining a sustainable balance between young and old.’

Direct quotation from paragraph two or a paraphrase. (2)

(b) Explain why many MEDCs experience low fertility rates. [8]

A combination of social and economic factors including:

- the changing roles and expectations of woman (and men)

- longer time in education and career establishment, leading to later
marriage
- contribution of higher divorce rates (although childbirth outside marriage
high)
- costs of raising children
- materialism and choice of other lifestyle options e.g. travel, better houses
- perception of children as a burden rather than a blessing
- norms of contraceptive usage
- legal abortion
- anti-natalist policy e.g. Singapore’s former ‘stop at two’
- other

Suggest credit single factors (1) and developed factors (2).

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005

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(c) To what extent is the changing of traditional attitudes the key to

reducing fertility rates in LEDCs? [10]

The relationship between improving (and lengthening) education and

increasing literacy, especially amongst women, is well-documented as
contributory to lowering FR, as it relates to their emancipation and to their
acceptance and use of contraception.

Candidates may also explore men’s traditional attitudes, cultural factors

(children as labour, male heirs, security, signs of wealth or virility etc.) and
religious factors (Islam, Hinduism, RC teachings, classically).

Traditional attitudes, if unchallenged, would tend to perpetuate large or larger

family sizes, but other factors are of considerable importance also, e.g.
reducing IMR, access to and affordable costs of contraception.

China’s ‘one child’ policy is well-known and would provide a suitable basis
from which to answer.

Candidates will probably:

L3 Develop an assured and perceptive assessment of the relative

significance of changing traditional attitudes, with reference to some
examples and introducing (an)other factor(s). [8-10]

L2 Recognise the significance of changing traditional attitudes and produce

a sound but limited assessment, either lacking development of its valid
ideas or remaining quite general, lacking examples.
[5-7]

L1 Make a few valid points in a response which is simplistic and which may
be descriptive and/or brief. Frameworks and fragmentary responses
remain in this level. [0-4]

[Total for Question 9: 25]

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005

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Settlement Dynamics

10 (a) (i) Give the meaning of the term ‘primate city’. [3]

A primate city is an exception to the rank-size rule as it is well over twice the
size of the second city in a country, or by far the largest if RS is not known. It
is pre-eminently important, e.g. politically (often the capital), economically,
administratively.

(ii) Draw a diagram of a country’s settlement hierarchy with a primate city.

[4]
Whilst a rank-size distribution is anticipated, it is possible to draw a schematic
tiered settlement hierarchy of “wedding cake” shape. Quality can be judged
by shape and by labelling.

(b) Using examples, explain why many countries are dominated by one or
two large cities. [8]

A variety of reasons can be built up towards a full response. This urban

dominance is displayed in both LEDCs and MEDCs. Candidates may identify
factors:

- social, e.g. two ethnic populations/two main cities as in Zimbabwe

- economic, e.g. poverty and the lack of finance to develop more than one
- physical, e.g. small countries or islands where one city is ‘enough’
- political, e.g. as centralised regimes
- historical, e.g. where urbanisation is recent, former colonies or centres of
empires etc.

Some may have a stronger process basis, considering rural-urban migration

and maybe regional development’s core-periphery. This may be true of
candidates who have already studied the Regional development option.

It is also possible for a candidate to offer a more detailed explanation of the

situation in one country (their own?), suggest max 6, as ‘many’ will be lost.

(c) How successful have government attempts been in discouraging the

further development of the largest urban centres in one or more
countries you have studied? [10]

Two broad government approaches exist. Either is, or both are, creditable:

Restricting development of the largest centres:

E.g. by decentralisation, such as moving government departments to

other centres, as in some Caribbean islands.
E.g. by withholding permission for development, such as TNC
investment or housing.
E.g. by protective measures such as a greenbelt policy.

Encouraging the development of other urban areas:

E.g. the concept of the growth pole, such as Zimbabwe’s growth points,
which proved quite successful.
E.g. a new towns policy.

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Candidates will probably:

L3 Produce a good response in which the evaluation is integrated with and

well-founded in the chosen exemplar(s). Conveys a sense of what has
been achieved and what has not e.g. the remaining difficulties. [8-10]

L2 Pursue a few points in detail or offer a more general view of the topic,
which, whilst soundly based on the chosen country or countries, offers
limited assessment. [5-7]

L1 Make a largely descriptive response, which whilst showing some

knowledge of relevant urban development offers little or no evaluation.
[0-4]

[Total for Question 10: 25]

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11 (a) (i) Explain the term ‘bid-rent’ in relation to urban land use. [3]

Credit the following ideas:

There is competition for land use/spatial competition. (1)

The highest bidder obtains the use of the land. (1)
The highest bidder is the one likely to get the most profit from the location (so
can afford to pay the most rent). (1)

(ii) Draw a bid-rent diagram to show the expected location of manufacturing

industry within an urban area. [4]

Credit three features; vertical axis (rent), horizontal axis (distance), and
manufacture (beyond CBD and before residential land-use). Reserve 1 for
correct verticals from intersects to give zone.

MI manufacturing industry
LIR low income residential
(economic) MIR medium income residential
rent $

CBD MI LIR MIR

distance from centre

(b) With reference to ONE urban area you have studied, describe the
location and character of its manufacturing industry. [8]

Much depends on the size and complexity of the urban area chosen.
Anticipate historic locations e.g. centrally, waterfront and more recent ones as
in industrial estates, EPZs, at route nodes etc. Some cases may be self-
penalisingly simple.

An annotated map could be the basis for an effective answer.

Suggest credit location 5/3 and character 5/3 to benefit the candidate.

(c) To what extent does changing accessibility explain recent changes in

manufacturing location within towns and cities? [10]

In most case accessibility (for workers, raw materials/components and for

distribution) is likely to be fundamental. Candidates may explain the poor or
deteriorating access to central locations and offer some detail on better
accessibility elsewhere in the urban area, e.g. a ring road. It may be linked to
transport changes such as containerisation or personal car ownership.

Other factors may be appealed to, such as planning decisions, concerns over
air and noise pollution or public safety, or the need for space for low rise
factories and their modern production methods.

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Candidates will probably:

L3 Demonstrate good knowledge of examples of changing urban locations

for manufacture and good understanding of accessibility as a concept,
using these as the basis for an effective assessment. Introduce (and
maybe develop) at least one other locational factor, or major on other
factors legitimately for chosen case. [8-10]

L2 Offer a sound but limited assessment of changing accessibility, either

lacking detailed knowledge of examples or skills in assessment. May
consider only one aspect of the topic in some detail but lack a broader
perspective. [5-7]

L1 Struggle to make more than basic observations in relation to the

question set, maybe interpreting either accessibility or manufacturing
weakly, or missing the key word ‘within’. Make a descriptive response in
which assessment is lacking or perfunctory. [0-4]

[Total for Question 11: 25]

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2005