Policy Aptitude Test (PAT) – 2015 Admit Card No.

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National Law School of India University, Bangalore

Instructions:

1) There are two sections for this Test. First section contains 100 questions. You need to
choose one answer from the options provided below each question. You need to mark (x) as
demonstrated below for each question. There is a negative mark of -0.25 for each incorrect
answer. For each question, only one option has to be chosen. More than one choice marked
or overwriting done, will not be evaluated.
2) Second section to PAT will be evaluated for only those candidates who obtain a minimum of
40 marks in the first section.
3) Second section requires you to descriptively write on an issue provided there. You are
expected to write only in the space provided in legible manner. Please do not use rough
sheet to continue your answer for this question. This question carries 50 marks.
4) Three pages are provided as rough work sheet towards the end of this question-booklet.
They should be used strictly for rough work. Any answers provided there will not be
evaluated. You should not detach the same from this booklet. You need to submit the whole
of this question booklet to the invigilator at the end of the examination before leaving the
hall.

Demonstration about marking correct answer:

Question: Indian constitution came to effect on the following date:

a) 15 August 1947 c) 15 August 1950

b) 26 January 1947 d) 26 January 1950

Option d is correct answer, and is marked with X

Section I

General Knowledge (1-20)

1. The highest civilian award of the country, instituted in the year 1954 is:

a) Padma Shri b) Padma Bhushan

c) Padma Vibhushan d) Bharat Ratna

2. One man who was awarded the Padma Bhushan posthumously in 2014, but whose
family refused to accept the award is:

a) Madan Mohan Malviya b) Justice J.S.Verma

c) Dhirubhai Premshanker Thaker d) Bhupen Hazarika

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3. The International Human Rights Day is celebrated on :

a) 25th January b) 15th August

c) 8th March d) 10th December

4. The World Aids Day is held on:

a) 1st December b) 1st May

c) 24th October d) 10th December

5. The first International Conference on Human Rights is known as:

a) Vienna Conference b) Tehran Conference

c) Beijing Conference d) Washington Conference

6. Who is the current chairperson of the National Commission for Protection of Child
Rights?

a) Ms. Shanta Sinha b) Ms. Mamta Sharma

c) Ms. Kushal Singh d) Ms. Girija Vyas

7. Ms. Lalitha Kumaramangalam is the current chairperson of:

a) National Human Rights Commission

b) National Commission for Minorities

c) National Commission for Safai Karamcharis

d) National Commission for Women

8. Which of the ones given below are not the main organs of the United Nations?

i) International Court of Justice ii) The United Nations Entity for Gender Equality
and the Empowerment of Women iii) UNICEF iv) the Trusteeship Council

a) i & iv b) i & ii

c) ii & iii d) ii & iv

9. The spread of which movement in India is described euphemistically as

‘Tirupati to Pashupati’?

a) Adivasi movement b) Maoist movement

c) Women’s rights movement d) Telengana movement

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10. The book ‘Argumentative Indian’ was written by:

a) Chetan Bhagat b) Amartya Sen

c) Sukhdeo Thorat d) V.S.Naipaul

11. Which countries are not member states of the Non-Aligned Movement?

i) Egypt ii) Singapore iii) China iv) Russia

a) i & ii b) iii & iv

c) i and iii d) ii and iv

12. Which country is not a member of the Commonwealth of Nations?

a) Canada b) Kenya c) New Zealand d) Thailand

13. The Narmada river does not flow through which of the following state:

a) Madhya Pradesh b) Maharashtra c) Goa d) Gujarat

14. Which country has the largest railway network in the world in terms of the length of the
railroad?

a) India b) Russia c) China d) USA

15. Which of the following states has the highest percentage of forest cover in relation to total
geographical area according to the India State of Forest Report 2011:

a) Lakshadweep b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands

c) Mizoram d) Manipur

16. "The Emergency" refers to a 21-month period when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi unilaterally
had a state of emergency declared across the country. This was officially issued by President
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed under Article 352(1) of the Constitution for "internal disturbance". When
did this happen?

a) 1975-77 b) 1976-78 c) 1977-79 d)1974-75

17. There are 2,00,000 varieties of rice in India. Among these, how many are cultivated?

a) 10000 b) 500 c) 4000 d) 1000

18. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is a part of which of the following:

a) Asian Development Bank b) World Bank

c) New Development Bank d) International Monetary Fund

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 19. As of 1 May 2015, which is the sentence that accurately describes the number of
states and union territories in India?

a) There are 28 states and 6 union territories, with two states sharing one state
capital
b) There are 29 states and 7 union territories, with two states sharing one state
capital
c) There are 30 states and 7 union territories, with two sets of states sharing one
state capital each
d) There are 30 states and 6 union territories, with two states sharing one state
capital
20. In April 2015, 2 Indians received the Whitley award for wildlife conservation in
developing countries. Who are they?

a) Pramod Patil and Anand Kumar

b) Ramki Sreenivasan and Shekar Dattatri
c) Dipani Sutaria and Dr. Ullas Karanth
d) Shekar Dattatri and Dipani Sutaria

Numerical Problem Solving (21-40)

21. Kumar borrowed Rs. 6500 from Dwang at simple rate of interest. After 4 years
Kumar returned Rs. 2080 more than what he borrowed from Dwang. What is
rate of interest per annum?
a) 6 % b)8% c) 12% d) 7% e) None of these
22. The average marks obtained by Amit in English and History is 95. The average
marks obtained in English and Science by him is 87. What is the difference
between the marks obtained by him in History and science?

a) 20 b)40 c) 12 d) 16 e) None of these

23. Riya and Mita can do a work independently in 15 and 10 minutes respectively. If
they work together then how many minutes they will complete the same work?

a) 4 b)9 c) 6 d) 8 e) None of these

24. A tap can completely fill a water tank in 8 hours. The water tank has a hole in it
through which water leaks out. Leakage will cause the water tank to get empty in
12 hours. How much time will take for the tap to fill water completely in the tank
with hole?

a) 16 hours b) 29 hours c) 24 hours

d) 18 hours e) None of these

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 25. On children’s day, chocolates were to be equally distributed among 250 children.
But, on that day 75 children were absent. Thus each student got 3 chocolates
extra. How many chocolates were distributed totally?

a) 2520 b) 1750 c) 1550 d) 2500 e) None of these

Directions—(Q. 26 to 29) Study the following table carefully to answer questions (26-29).

Percentage of students passing in SSC from 6 different schools over the years

Year
School 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002
A 25 80 50 30 15 75
B 30 35 45 25 60 85
C 65 60 55 40 75 75
D 80 3 20 95 70 55
E 10 25 75 65 70 90
F 55 55 95 88 85 90

26. If the total number of students appearing from school C in the year 2001 was
1204, what is the number of students passing?
a) 900 b) 897 c) 905 d) 850 e) None of these

27. What is the ratio of number of students passing SSC from school A to that of
school E in the year 1999, if the number of students appeared was 2914 and 604
from school A and E respectively in that year?
a) 1457: 453 b) 1450: 457 c) 1277: 527
d) 1834: 627 e) None of these

28. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the number of students passing SSC
from school F in the year 2000 from the previous year?
a) 10 b) 65 c) 17 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

29. If the number of students passing SSC from school D in the year 1997 was 1840,
what is the number of students appeared from that school in the same year?
a) 2500 b) 2300 c) 1900 d) 2800 e) None of these

30. Monthly income of Prashad is 25 % more than the monthly income of Anam.
Anam’s monthly income is 75 % less than that of Bhushan. If the difference
between the monthly income of Prashad and Bhushan’sRs. 26125, what is the
monthly income of Anam?
a) 8000 b) 16000 c) 9500 d) Data is inadequate

e) None of these

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 31. Seven kilograms of sugar was available for Rs. 84 last year. If this year nine
kilograms of sugar is available for Rs. 135, how much is the percentage increase
in the price of sugar?
a) 15 b) 30 c) 20 d) 25 e) None of these

32. The average age of 82 students and the class teacher is 18 years. Total age of all
the students only is 1450 years. What is the age of the class teacher?
a) 32 b) 40 c) 48 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

33. Mr. Patkar earns Rs. 10,000 per month. Every year he spends 18 percent of his
annual income on buying clothes. How much money does Mr. Patkar spend
every month on buying clothes?
a) 1500 b) 1750 c) 2500 d) 2250 e) None of these

34. The number of students majoring in Physics, chemistry and zoology in a college
in the year 2003 were in the ratio 4: 3: 5 respectively. If the number in the three
disciplines increased by 50 %, 25 %, and 10 % respectively in the year 2004,
what was the new respective ratio?
(a) 24: 15: 22
(b) 18: 11: 13
(c) 24: 13: 17
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

35. The present age of A and B is more than that of the total present age of B and C
by 12 years. How much C is younger than A?
a) 12 years b) 24 years c) Data Inadequate
d) C is elder than A e) None of these

Directions (Q.36-40): Following table presents data of sector-wise energy consumption.

Study the table and answer the questions 36-40.

Sector 1950-51 1960-61 1970-71 1980-81 1990-91

Industry 39.8 40.7 51.6 57.0 50.4
Transport 46.2 44.9 29.4 23.5 24.5
Household 9.9 10.6 14.3 12.3 13.3
Agriculture 1.7 1.8 3.8 6.1 9.0
Others 2.4 2.0 0.9 1.1 2.3

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 36. What was the percentage increase in final energy consumption in the household
sector from 1960-61 to 1970-71?
a) 3.7 b) 35 c) 37 d) 4.2 e) None of these

37. In which of the following years was the percentage energy consumption in
household sector almost equal to the average percentage energy consumption in
the household sector in the given years?
(a) 1970-71 b) 1990-91 c) 1980-81

D) 1950-51 e) None of these

38. In the case of which of the following sectors was there continuous increase or
decrease in consumption over the given years?
a) Transport b) Agriculture c) Industry

d) Household e) None of these

39. What was the difference in the energy consumption in Agricultural sector
between 1960-61 and 1970-71?
(a) 20,000 megawatt
(b) 2,00,000 megawatt
(c) 40,000 megawatt
(d) Data Inadequate
(e) None of these

40. The total consumption of Household, Agriculture and others’ sectors together
was minimum in which of the following period?
a) 1970-71 b) 1990-91 c) 1980-81

D) 1950-51 e) Data is inadequate

Policy Aptitude (41-60)

41. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the union, state and
concurrent lists?
a) Fifth schedule b) Sixth schedule

c) Seventh schedule d) Eighth schedule

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42. Which of the following are tools of good governance?
i. Social audit;
ii. separation of powers;
iii. citizens’ charter;
iv. right to information
a) i and iv b) i, ii and iii

c) ii and iii d) i, ii, iii and iv

43. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two states
falls within which jurisdiction?
a) Advisory jurisdiction b) Original jurisdiction;

c) Appellate jurisdiction d) Writ jurisdiction

44. The state of Jammu and Kashmir has a special status under Article 370 of the
Indian Constitution. This Article limits the power of the Indian Parliament to make
laws for the said state. Which of the following statements given below is not an
accurate statement of the powers of the Indian Parliament in this regard?
a) Its powers are limited to those matters in the Union List and the Concurrent
List which, in consultation with the Government of the State, are declared by
the President to correspond to matters specified in the Instrument of
Accession governing the accession of the State to the Dominion of India
b) Its powers are limited to laws pertaining to communication, defence, finance and
foreign affairs
c) Its powers are limited to such other matters in the Union list and Concurrent list,
which may be specified by the order of the President, in concurrence with the state
government
d) Its powers are limited to situations of declaration of emergency by the President of
India, under Articles 352, 356 or 360 of the Indian Constitution.

45. Which of the statements given below does not accurately describe the provisions
related to Emergency, as stated in the Indian Constitution:
a) The President of India can declare an emergency on the grounds of war or
external aggression, failure of the constitutional machinery in a state or financial
emergency due to threat to financial stability and credit of India
b) The proclamation of emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament
within three months from the date of proclamation
c) The fundamental freedoms granted under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution
are suspended once an emergency is proclaimed
d) Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the right to enforce fundamental
rights guaranteed by Part III of the Indian Constitution except Articles 20 and 21.

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46. Which of the statements below accurately reflect the status of the Transgender
Rights Bill, as of 1 May 2015?
a) The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill 2014 is a private members Bill, passed by
the Rajya Sabha on 24 April 2015
b) The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill 2015 is a Bill moved by a major political
party, passed by the Lok Sabha on 24 April 2015
c) The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill 2015 is a private members Bill, passed by
the Lok Sabha on 25 April 2015
d) The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill 2015 is a private members Bill, passed by
both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in the month of April 2015.
47. Which of the statements given below does not accurately describe the present
legal status with regard to the Scheduled Castes?
a) Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden by the Indian
Constitution
b) The Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 prescribes punishments for offences
pertaining to the practice of untouchability
c) The Constitution (Scheduled Caste Order) 1950, also called the Presidential Order of
1950, states that no person who professes a religion other than the Hindu, Sikh or
Buddhist religion will be deemed to be a member of a Scheduled Caste
d) The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989
provides for prevention and prosecution of atrocities committed, which are both
inter-caste and intra-caste in nature.

48. Which of the following is not considered a milestone in the women’s movement in
India?

a) Agitation subsequent to the Supreme Court judgment in Mathura rape case

b) The publication of the report ‘Towards Equality’ by the Committee on the Status
of Women in India, in 1974
c) Participation of women in the national conference on Millennium Development
Goals, organized by the Reliance Foundation
d) Shah Bano judgment and the protest against the enactment of Muslim Women
(Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act 1986.
49. Which of the below given laws within the body of labour and industrial law, is least
considered as a social security legislation?
a) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act 1946
b) Employees Compensation Act 1923
c) The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act 1952
d) Maternity Benefit Act 1961

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50. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement (LARR) (Amendment) Bill 2015 proved to be
controversial was introduced in the Lok Sabha in February 2015 and its provisions
were bitterly opposed. Which of the statements below is not an accurate
reflection of the key changes made by the Bill?

a) The LARR Act, 2013 requires that the consent of 80% of land owners is obtained
for private projects and that the consent of 70% of land owners be obtained for
PPP projects. The Bill exempts defence, rural infrastructure, affordable housing,
industrial corridors and infrastructure projects including Public Private
partnership projects from this provision of the Act.

b) The LARR Act, 2013 excluded the acquisition of land for private hospitals and
private educational institutions from its purview. The Bill removes this
restriction.
c) While the LARR Act, 2013 was applicable for the acquisition of land for private
companies, the Bill changes this to acquisition for ‘private entities’.
d) The LARR Act, 2013 excluded the acquisition of land for private hospitals and
private educational institutions from its purview. The Bill retains this restriction.

51. Which of the following statements is not an accurate reflection of the present legal
status of the religious minorities in India?

a) The Indian Constitution provides for two sets of rights to religious minorities – those
in common domain, which apply to all citizens of India; and rights that fall in the
separate domain, applicable to minorities only and intended to protect their identity

b) The fundamental right to freedom of religion includes freedom of conscience, and

the freedom to freely profess, practice and propagate religion, subject to reasonable
restrictions

c) The Freedom of Religion Act is a national anti-conversion law, that prohibits all
religious conversions in India except after fulfillment of procedural formalities as
prescribed in the Act, including a prior notice of the conversion to the district
authorities

d) A five judge Bench of the Supreme Court, in Rev. Stanislaus vs. State of Madhya
Pradesh, stated that the right to propagate religion did not include the right to
convert another person.

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52. Which of the following is not an accurate statement about the present legal status
on marital rape in India?

a) Poverty, illiteracy and low level of education of the people are barriers to
criminalizing marital rape in India
b) Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code, which defines and prescribes punishment for
the offence of rape, provides for an exception for sexual intercourse by a man with
his own wife, if she is above 16 years of age
c) An exemption to rape in marriage violates the spirit of the UN Convention on the
Elimination of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW), the UN Declaration on
Violence Against Women and the Constitutional guarantee of equality, non-
discrimination and right to life with dignity
d) Marital rape falls within the purview of the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act 2005 and is a ground for divorce and other matrimonial remedies under
matrimonial laws.

53. The government has sought to introduce the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection
of Children) Bill 2014 to replace the 2000 Act. The Bill permits persons between
16-18 years of age to be tried as adults for heinous offences. Which of the
following is the least convincing argument against this amendment?

a) The essence of the Juvenile Justice Act is reformative in nature, but this provision is
contrary to the same and encourages retributive justice
b) Harsh punishment could make juveniles become hardcore criminals, while a
reformative approach will reduce likelihood of repeating such offences
c) The juveniles in the age group of 16 to 18 will be traumatized if they are brought to
court and tried as adults, for heinous crimes
d) The UN Convention on the Rights of the Child requires all signatory countries to treat
every child under the age of 18 years as equal. The provision of trying a juvenile as
an adult contravenes the Convention.

54. Which of the following is not an accurate statement with regard to the ban on the
sale and consumption of beef in the state of Maharashtra?

a) S. 5D of the Maharashtra Animal Preservation Amendment Act 1995 prohibits

the sale or possession of beef, and prescribes imprisonment of up to five years
and fine up to Rs. 10,000
b) The Maharashtra government has justified the ban by stating that the right to
choice of food guaranteed by Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is not an
absolute right but is subject to reasonable restrictions that the government may
impose

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 c) The opposition to the ban is based on the premise that the law is arbitrary and
deprives people of their right to choose what to eat, thereby violating their
privacy, life and liberty
d) In April 2015, the Bombay High Court directed the Maharashtra government,
particularly the police, to refrain from invading the privacy of citizens and taking
any coercive action for a period of one year.

55. Which of the following is not an accurate statement about the law related to
Scheduled Tribes in India?

a) The Indian Constitution protects tribal interests through the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.
The Fifth Schedule is applicable to Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura, giving tribal
people freedom to exercise legislative and executive powers, while the Sixth Schedule
applies to all other identified tribal regions, granting tribal autonomy and rights over
land
b) The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006 (popularly called the Forest Rights Act) confers ownership rights over
minor forest produces to forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest
dwellers
c) The 73rd amendment to the Indian Constitution and the subsequent enactment of
Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Area (PESA) Act 1996 vested legislative powers in the
gram sabha to manage community resources and resolve disputes according to the
customs and traditions of the people
d) The Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Bill 2013 provides for the protection and
conservation of wild animals, while also protecting the hunting rights of Scheduled
Tribes in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Directions: For questions 56-60 a context is given and a public demand emerges from that
context. You have no information on subjective elements that may be behind the public demand.
Therefore, you are asked to stick to the information available and to make a judgment as to what
normative principle forms the basis of demand.

56. City A has 50,000 households. Only 10,000 households have electricity connections. Other
households depend on oil for lighting purposes. Electricity is cheaper than oil. But,
electricity connections are lower primarily due to poor access to government electricity
offices. Yet, in City A there is a demand from households with no access to electricity
(40,000 households). The demand is primarily based on:
a) Equality b) Liberty c) Security

d) Efficiency e) Special treatment

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 57. City A has 3000 industrial units and City B has 5000 industrial units. Each of these units
produces 40% of total industrial outputs for the state. Since rest of the state produces
only 20% of industrial outputs, the state has been providing bulk of energy required for
industry to both these cities. Each city A and city B gets 45% each of total industrial energy
from the state. Yet, the Mayor of City A is demanding further energy or tax exemption for
the energy used. The demand is primarily based on:
a) Equality b) Liberty c) Security

d) Efficiency e) Special treatment

58. Village A and Village B are separated by a river. A bridge exists over the river and travel
distance from village A to village B is 15 kilometers. Village A has a population size of 4000
residents. Village B has a population size of 10,000 residents. The state administration has
decided to construct the school in Village B citing the reason that there are 500 school
going children in Village B compared to 200 in Village A. The reasoning by the state is
based on the principle of:
b) Equality b) Liberty c) Security

d) Efficiency e) Special treatment

59. A cotton merchant makes a profit of Rs.50 per kilogram if he employs child labour. There
are large number of parents who are ready to send their children to pick up cotton, which
brings them about Rs.5000 per month. Yet, a human rights organization in the locality is
citing the reason of compulsory education for the children and demanding the cotton
merchant not to employ children. The demand is primarily based on:
a) Equality b) Liberty c) Security

d) Efficiency e) Special treatment

60. A highway which charges heavy toll is built through village A. Though the highway was useful
for village A, they protested against the heavy toll since it was unaffordable for them. The state
administration decided to give an exemption to village A on toll since the highway was built
through village A and likely to be used more by the village A than other villages. The decision of
the state administration is based on the principle of:

a) Welfare b) Equity c) Transparency d) Gratuity e) Efficiency

Logical Reasoning(61-80)

Direction for Q 61 to 65: In each Question below are given two statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the two given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

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61. Statements: Some Pens are books. All books are rods.
Conclusions:
I All pens are rods
II Some Pens are rods
III Some Books are Pens
IV All rods are pens
a) Only II and III follow b) All follow c) None Follow

d) Only I and IV follow e) Only II, III and IV follow

62. Statements: All cats are parrot. No parrot is green.

Conclusions:
I No cat is green
II All Parrots are cats
III Some Parrots are cats

IV Some cats are green

a) Only I follow b) All follow c) Only I and III follow

d) Only II and IV follow e) None Follows

63. Statements: All Windows are carpets. Some carpets are rats

Conclusion:

I. All Rats are carpets

II All Carpets are windows

III All Windows are rats

IV All rats are windows

a) Only II, III and IV follow b) Only I,II and IV follow

c) All follow d) Only I, II and III follow e) None follows

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64. Statements: All doors are chairs. All chairs are tables.
Conclusions:
I All doors are tables.
II Some Tables are Chairs
III Some Tables are doors
IV All Tables are doors
a) Only I and II follow b) Only III and IV follow c) All follow

d) Only II, III and IV follow e) Only I, II and III follow

65. Statements: Some cups are tigers. Some tigers are goats
Conclusions:
I Some Cups are goats
II No Cup is goat.
III All cups are goats

IV All goats are cups

a) Only either I or IV follows b) Only either II or IV follows
c) Only either II or III follows d) Only either I or II follows e) None of these

66. If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West and all the rest
directions are changed in the same manner, then what will be the direction for West?

a) North-East b) South c) South-East

d) South-West e) North-West

67. A Cyclist goes 30 Km to North and then turning to East he goes 40 Km. Again he
turns to his right and goes 20 Km. After this he turns to his right and goes 40 Km. How
far is he from his starting point?

a) 0 Km b) 10 Km c) 25 Km d) 40Km e) 50 Km

68. If 8th of the month falls 3 days after Sunday what day will be on 17 th of that month?

a) Thursday b) Tuesday c)Wednesday d)Friday e) Sunday

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69. When I found that I was half an hour earlier than the scheduled time of the train,
the train being late by 1.30 hour, arrived at 6.20 hours. I had reached the station at?

a) 4.40 hrs b) 5.10 hrs c) 4.20 hrs d) 5.20 hrs e) None of these

70. A Man has three bags. There are 4 marbles of different colours in first bag, 5
marbles of different colours in second bag and 3 marbles of different colours in third
bag. If two colours are such which are only in first and second bag and one colour is
such which is in all the three bags, how many different colours are in all the three bags?

a) 10 b) 9 c) 7 d) 11 e) 8

71. The managing director reached the conference hall 10 minutes before half past
twelve and he reached 20 minutes before the chairman. If the chairman was already late
by half an hour than the schedule time of interview, what was the schedule time for
interview?

a) 50 min. past 12 b) 10 min. past 12 c) 30 min. past 12

d) 40 min. past 12 e) 12 noon

72. An Elevator has the capacity of 12 adults or 20 children. How many adults can
board the elevator with 15 children?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 6 e) 8

Direction for Q 73 -77: From amongst six boys A,B,C,D,E and F and five girls P,Q, R, S and
T, a team of six is to be selected under the following conditions:

A and D have to be together

B cannot be teamed with E
C and Q have to be together
D cannot go with P
C cannot go with S
B and R have to be together

S and T have to be together

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73. If four members including E have to be boys, the members other than E are:

a) ABCQR b) ACDFQ c) ADFST d) BCFQR e) ADCFT

74. If including P the team has three girls, the other members are:

a) BCFQR b) ADBST c) ADEST d) BCFQR e) ADCFT

75. If four members have to be girls, the members of the team are:

a) BCPQRS b) BCPQRT c) BFPRST d) BCQRST e) ADCFT

76. If there be five boys in the team, the lone girl member is:

a) P b) Q c) R d) S e) L

77. If the team including C consists of four boys, the members of the team other than C
are:

a) BEFRQ b) DEFAQ c) ADEPQ d) ABDQR e) ADCFT

78. Vikas is taller than shyam but shorter than Umesh. Umesh is taller than Rajat but
shorter than Ganesh. If Shyam is taller than Rajat who is shortest among all?

a) Ganesh b) Umesh c) Rajat d) Vikas e) Shyam

79. Hari is six months younger to Sita while Babu is three months younger to Anita.
When Sheela was born, Babu was two months old. Anita belongs to the age group of
five while Hari belongs to the age group of six. Who among the following is oldest?

a) Babu b) Sita c) Anita d) Sheela e) Hari

80. The Cricket ball is lighter than the hockey ball and volleyball is lighter than the
football. Hockey ball is lighter than the football but heavier than the tennis ball. Which
of the following is the heaviest?

a) Hockey ball b) Cricket ball

c) Volley ball d) Foot ball e) Tennis Ball

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English Language (81-100)
Directions for questions 81-86: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 81 to 86.

The first step is for us to realise that a city need not frustrate us; it can be among other things, a
mechanism for enhancing life, for producing possibilities of living which are not to be realized except
through cities. But, for that to happen, deliberate and drastic planning is needed. Towns as much as
animals, must have their systems of organs-those for transport and circulation are an obvious
example. What we need now are organ systems for recreation, leisure, culture, community
expression. This means abundance of open space, easy access to unspoilt Nature, beauty in parks
and in fine buildings, gymnasia and swimming baths and recreation grounds in planty, central spaces
for celebrations and demonstrations, halls for citizens' meetings, concert halls and theatres and
cinemas that belong to the city. And the buildings must not be built anyhow or dumped down
anywhere; both they and their groupings should mean something important to the people of the
place.

81. Cities can be made to provide full facilities for life, only if:

(a) these can be mechanically developed.

(b) proper transport system is introduced.
(c) cinemas, theatres and concert halls are established there.
(d) these are thoughtfully and vigorously designed to serve people's needs.

82. "The building must not be built anyhow or dumped down anywhere"....the statement
implies that building:
(a) should be built with suitable material.
(b) should be constructed, according to some suitable design, not indiscriminately.
(c) should be scattered to provide for more of open space.
(d) should be built to enable citizens to enjoy nature.

83. The word 'drastic' in the passage means:

(a) orderly.
(b) powerful
(c) consistent.
(d) determined.

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84. The author talks about 'Unspoilt Nature'. In what way can Nature remain unspoilt?
(a) If Nature is not allowed to interfere with people's day-to-day life.
(b) By building cities with the system of organs like those of animals.
(c) By allowing free access to parks and open spaces.
(d) By allowing Nature to retain its primitive, undomesticated character.

85. According to the author, the function of a city is to :

(a) provide adequate community expression.
(b) make available centres of recreation and public gatherings.
(c) facilitate traffic and communication.
(d) raise the tone of life and make it more meaningful.

86. The opening sentence of the passage implies that :

(a) the possibilities of living a decent life cannot be found in a city.
(b) only a city can provide the means to lead a full life.
(c) among other places, a city can also help man to lead a successful life.
(d) a city provides better opportunities for good living than a village.

Directions for questions 87-96: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 87 to 96.

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times
there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights
of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to
secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are
made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of
communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict
with the rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes
care that everything he does is done
with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from
breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel
the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order
in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the
Inspector General of Police.

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87. The expression 'customs and ceremonies' means :
(a) fairs and festivals.
(b) habits and traditions.
(c) usual practices and religious rites.
(d) superstitions and formalities.

88. A suitable title for the passage would be :

(a) the function of the army.
(b) laws and the people's rights.
(c) the fear of the law and citizen's security.
(d) the functions of the police.

89. Which of the following is not implied in the passage?

(a) Law protects those who respect it.
(b) Law ensures people's religious and social rights absolutely and unconditionally.
(c) A criminal is deterred from committing crimes only for fear of the law.
(d) The forces of law help to transform irresponsible citizens into responsible ones.

90. According to the writer, which one of the following is not the responsibility of the police?
(a) To protect the privileges of all citizens.
(b) To check violent activities of citizens.
(c) To ensure peace among citizens by safeguarding individual rights.
(d) To maintain peace during extraordinary circumstances.

91. Which of the following reflects the main thrust of the passage?
(a) It deals with the importance of the army in maintaining law and order.
(b) It highlights role of the police as superior to that of the army.
(c) It discusses the roles of the army and the police in different circumstances.
(d) It points to the responsibility of the Minister and the Inspector General of Police.

92. "They are made to secure die property of citizens against theft and damage", means that
the law :
(a) helps in recovering the stolen property of the citizens.
(b) assist the citizens whose property has been stolen or destroyed.
(c) initiate process against offenders of law.
(d) safeguard people's possessions against being stolen or lost.

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 93. Out of the following which one has the opposite meaning to the word 'restrained' in the
passage?
(a) Promoted
(b) Accelerated
(c) Intruded
(d) Inhibited

94. Which one of the following statement is implied in the passage?

(a) Peaceful citizens seldom violate the law, but bad citizens have to be restrained by the police.
(b) Criminals, who flout the law, are seldom brought to book.
(c) The police hardly succeed in converting bad citizens into good citizens.
(d) The police check the citizens, whether they are good or bad, from violating the law.

95. Which of the following statements expresses most accurately the idea contained in the
first sentence?
(a) It is the job of the army to ensure internal peace at all times.
(b) It is the police that should always enforce law and order in the country.
(c) Army and the police ensure people's security through combined operations.
(d) It is in exceptional circumstances that the army has to ensure peace in the country.

96. The last sentence of the passage implies that:

(a) The Inspector General of Police is the sole authority in matters of law and order.
(b) In every State maintenance of public peace is under the overall control of the responsible
Minister.
(c) A Minister and a responsible State, Assembly exercise direct authority in matters pertaining
to law and order.
(d) The Inspector General of Police is responsible to the State Assembly for maintaining law and
order.

Directions for questions 97-100: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 97 to
100.

A recent report in News Week says that in American colleges, students of Asian origin outperform
not only the minority group students but the majority whites as well. Many of these students must
be of Indian origin, and their achievement is something we can be proud of. It is unlikely that these
talented youngsters will come back to India, and that is the familiar brain drain problem. However
recent statements by the nation's policy-makers indicate that the perception of this issue is
changing. 'Brain bank' and not 'brain drain' is the more appropriate idea, they suggest since the
expertise of Indians abroad is only deposited in other places and not lost.
This may be so, but this brain bank, like most other banks, is one that primarily serves customers
in its neighbourhood. The skills of the Asians now excelling in America's colleges will mainly help the
U.S.A.. No matter how significant, what non-resident Indians do for India and what their

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counterparts do for other Asian lands is only a by-product.
But it is also necessary to ask, or be reminded, why Indians study fruitfully when abroad. The
Asians whose accomplishments News Week records would have probably had a very different tale if
they had studied in India. In America they found elbow room, books and facilities not available and
not likely to be available here. The need to prove themselves in their new country and the
competition of an international standard they faced there must have cured mental and physical
laziness. But other things helping them in America can be obtained here if we achieve a change in
social attitudes, specially towards youth.
We need to learn to value individuals and their unique qualities more than conformity and
respectability. We need to learn the language of encouragement to add to our skill in flattery. We
might also learn to be less liberal with blame and less tightfisted with appreciation, especially.

97. Among the many groups of students in American colleges, Asian students :
(a) are often written about in magazines like News Week.
(b) are most successful academically.
(c) have proved that they are as good as the whites.
(d) have only a minority status like the blacks.

98. The student of Asian origin in America include :

(a) a fair number from India.
(b) a small group from India.
(c) persons from India who are very proud.
(d) Indians who are the most hard working of all.

99. In general, the talented young Indians studying in America :

(a) have a reputation for being hard working.
(b) have the opportunity to contribute to India's development.
(c) can solve the brain drain problem because of recent changes in policy.
(d) will not return to pursue their careers in India.

100. There is talk now of the 'brain bank'. This idea :

(a) is a solution to the brain drain problem.
(b) is a new problem caused partly by the brain drain.
(c) is a new way of looking at the role of qualified Indians living abroad.
(d) is based on a plan to utilize foreign exchange remittances to stimulate research and
development.

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 Section II

Question 1: Read the following piece. What are some of the alternatives that you could visualise to
address the problem presented here. Which alternative would you strongly recommend, and why?
Prepare these answers in the form of a report in the space provided (Please do not use rough sheet
to continue your answer for this question) at the end of reading piece (please do not exceed the
space and write legibly).

“When a law is enacted after considerable debate and consultation, it will be wise to study the
experience of its implementation for some time before it is amended, in order to address
perceived difficulties. Any such amendment within the first year of its entry into force,
especially one pushed through as an ordinance, will be inevitably perceived as hasty, even if
on the positive side it is meant to eliminate delays in land acquisition. In this backdrop, the
Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement (Amendment) Ordinance, 2014, is bound to face criticism that the changes
constitute a significant dilution of a progressive law. The Congress and the Left parties are
likely to oppose the changes when the law comes to Parliament in the form of a bill to replace
the ordinance. In substance, the ordinance makes a significant change by omitting in respect
of a wide range of projects the requirements of a social impact assessment study, the
informed consent of a large section of the families affected by the acquisition of land. These
projects include those that are vital to national security and defence, rural infrastructure,
affordable housing and housing for the poor, besides industrial corridors and infrastructure
and social infrastructure projects. The vital element of making acquisition a consultative and
participative process may thus be subject to bureaucratic discretion.

The principle of ‘eminent domain’, which justifies the compulsory acquisition of land by the
state for a public purpose, normally ought to be accompanied by a duty to give fair
compensation. However, the colonial Land Acquisition Act of 1894 had in effect reduced
compensation to a mere token in relation to the market value, and for decades it was used to
deprive many, mostly farmers, of their land for a pittance. Last year’s law radically altered
this relationship between citizen and state and created a fair compensation right, as well as a
new structure for rehabilitation and resettlement. It also cast a duty on the government to
create specified amenities in every resettlement area. Thankfully, the ordinance does not
dilute these provisions, but additionally extends them to a list of Acts that were previously
exempted. However, this is not its own contribution, as the original Act itself said such a
provision shall be enacted within a year.” (Source:Editorial, 2 January 2015 The Hindu)

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Space for the answer of Section II
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Space for the answer of Section II
Rough Worksheet

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Rough Worksheet

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