LEVEL III

QUESTIONS LIQUID PENETRANT TESTING METHOD

1. Chemical, water-base cleaners are often used for very dirty, grease
parts. If used :
a. the surface must be subsequently cleaned with a solvent cleaner
b. the surface must be thoroughly rinsed free of any residue
c. heat must be used to ensure openings
d. the surfaces must be subsequently cleaned with a volatile solvent
cleaner

2. Generally, vapor degreasing is considered to be one of the best

methods of preparing a part for liquid penetrant inspection because:
a. it totally removes all surface contaminants
b. the solvent vapor removes all petroleum based materials
c. the method is easily adapted to virtually any size of the part
d. the solvent vapor removes all inorganic soils

3. When penetrant is applied to parts by dipping, the parts should be:

a. left in the tank during the entire dwell time
b. set aside until the dwell time is up
c. placed on a rack designed to return any excess drainage to the dipping
station
d. placed in the alkaline solvent rinse tank immediately

4. Penetrant stations that have reservoir tanks with recovery systems

incorporated:
a. do not need an agitation system because penetrants are
homogeneous
b. should have an agitation system to prevent the settling of possible
contaminants
c. do not need an agitation system since penetrants are pasteurized
d. do not need an agitation system because organic contaminants are not
present
5. When removing penetrant from the surface by spray water wash,
penetrant in a crack would be harder to remove if it has :
a. low viscosity
b. high viscosity
c. medium viscosity
d. viscosity is not important

1
6. The most desirable objectives governing the cleaning operations
when removing surface penetrant are to:
a. remove little penetrant from defects and leave a minimum of residual
penetrant remaining on the surface
b. remove little penetrant from a defect and leave no residual penetrant
remaining on the surface
c. remove no penetrant from defects and leave a minimum of residual
penetrant on the part surface
d. remove no penetrant from defects and leave no residual penetrant on
the part surface

7. The best method of removing the excess water-washable penetrant is

to :
a. immediately immerse the part in the water rinse tank
b. use water running directly from a tap
c. boil in hot water or steam spray
d. use a hose and nozzle with forceful droplets

8. When removing excess post-emulsifiable penetrant in a production

situation involving small irregularly-shaped parts, you may use a:
a. strong forceful spray
b. strong water blast
c. commercial solvent
d. hot water immersion

9. The sensitivity of wet developers can be seriously impaired:

a. when the developer temperature is greater than the ambient
temperature
b. when the thickness of the coating becomes too heavy
c. if the corrosion inhibitors are added to the developer
d. if the surface of the part is polished

10. When is a non-aqueous wet developer generally preferred?

a. when the dryer oven temperature is above 121 o C (250o F)
b. when it is essential to obtain as smooth and as even a coating as
possible
c. when using a fluorescent penetrant on an as-cast surface
d. when using a fluorescent penetrant on a wire brushed weld

11. The best method of drying after the application of a wet developer is
normally:
a. blotting the surface gently with absorptive paper toweling
b. allowing the part to dry slowly at or slightly above the ambient
temperature
c. rapid drying with a normal room temperature air blast
d. rapid drying with circulating hot air at 77-107 o C (170-225o C)

2
12. Removal of residual penetrant or developer materials by a suitable
post-cleaning technique is advantages in which of the following
cases?
a. where it could interface with subsequent processes or with service
b. where it could provide a contrasting background
c. where it could assist in the emulsification of the penetrant bleed-out
d. where it could assist in the lattice structure breakdown

13. Post-cleaning is particularly important where residual penetrant or

developer materials may combine with other materials in service to
produce:
a. corrosive action
b. a contrasting background
c. false penetrant indications
d. proper surface tension

14. Post-cleaning should be performed:

a. as soon as possible because the materials will be easier to remove
b. after several hours because the drier the materials are, the easier they
can be wiped off
c. with the part warm to enhance the solubility of penetrant material
d. with the part chilled to cause the materials to lose their cohesion

15. When using post-emulsifiable fluorescent penetrant on small parts

where sulphur or chlorine residue is deemed harmful:
a. low sulphur and low chlorine content penetrant materials should be
post-cleaned by solvent wipe
b. fluorescent materials should be used and the part should be detergent-
washed
c. low sulphur and low chlorine penetrant materials should be used and
the part should be post-cleaned in an automatic detergent wash
d. color contrast should be used so that any residue can be readily seen
and removed

16. “Eyeball fluorescence” should be considered when arranging black

lights for testing, because direct or reflected black light shining into
the inspector’s eyes:
a. could cause tissue damage
b. is harmless and of no consequence
c. evev though harmless, can become extremely annoying and will impair
inspector effectiveness
d. even though annoying, it will not impair inspector effectiveness

3
17. Residual acids and chromates are more detrimental to the fluorescent
water-wash process than other processes because:
a. the fluorescent dyes in all processes are equally affected
b. acids and oxidizing agents react with the fluorescent dyes only in the
presence of water
c. acids and oxidizing agents react with the fluorescent dyes only in the
presence of emulsifiers which are contained in water-wash penetrants
d. emulsifiers neutralize the effects of the acids and chromates

18. Due to the nature of penetrant material, most methods have which of
the following adverse effects on operator health?
a. penetrants are a hazard due to their inorganic base
b. penetrant methods include materials which can cause dermatils if
proper precautions are not observed
c. penetrant materials contain hallucinogens that can cause a sense of
drunkness
d. modern penetrants have been improved to be virtually hazard free

19. Which of the following is an advantage of post-emulsifiable methods

over water-washable methods?
a. the excess penetrant removal is accomplished by water spray
b. their sensitivity is easy to control
c. the overall test time is shortend
d. they usually exhibit higher sensitivity to tight cracks

20. When compared to other methods, which of the items below are
disadvantages of water-emulsifiable visible dye methods?
a. degree of sensitivity to acidity and alkalinity
b. portability
c. test time
d. requirements of ordinary light

21. The type of penetrant to be used on an investment casting should be:

a. water-washable fluorescent for adequate sensitivity and water
washability
b. solvent removable because of size and shape
c. post-emulsifiable fluorescent for maximum sensitivity and water
washability
d. solvent removable for greater visibility

22. Which of the following techniques has been found to be effective for
aiding penetration in certain instances in commercial application?
a. heating the penetrant
b. vibration
c. vacuum and pressure
d. ultrasonic pumping

4
23. Dentists have used liquid penetrant inspection to:
a. locate fine cracks in teeth prior to the availability of X-rays
b. locate defects in artificial teeth prior to mounting them
c. verify questionable information gathered from X-rays
d. identify the filling material

24. There is a variety of equipment available for pre-cleaning parts prior to

penetrant application. Of the following, the recommended method, if
practical, is :
a. sand or grit blasters
b. solvent or chemical tanks
c. vapor degreasers
d. water-detergent washing machines

25. If modular equipment has been obtained for a penetrant inspection

system using fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant and wet
developer, the dryer should be placed:
a. before the emulsifier tank
b. after the developer tank
c. before the developer tank
d. after the wash unit

26. In a modular equipment system using a water-washable fluorescent

penetrant and dry developer, black light should be available:
a. at the penetrant station
b. at the wash station
c. at the developer station
d. after the oven cycle

27. When a large number of parts are inspected using dry developer that
is applied by dipping, the tank should be equipped with:
a. an exhaust system
b. an agitator
c. an electrostatic charger
d. a developer replenisher

28. Filters for black lights effectively remove:

a. natural white light
b. radiation of wavelength above 300 nm (3 000 A) units
c. visible light from the energy given off by the mercury arc
d. fluorescence from the penetrant

5
29. Super-bright fluorescent penetrants may be:
a. more sensitive in dim daylight than contrast penetrant materials
b. as sensitive in dim daylight as it is darkness
c. more sensitive than normal fluorescent penetrants but they cannot be
used in daylight
d. less sensitive in dim daylight than color contrast penetrant materials

30. The use of high power spot bulbs for color contrast penetrants :
a. should be avoided as too much glare may occur
b. will reduce eye fatigue
c. is acceptable provided that the light is shielded
d. is acceptable provided that the light is not shielded

31. A good penetrant must be :

a. inert with respect to the materials being tested
b. highly viscous
c. highly volatile
d. an inorganic base liquid

32. Wetting ability is measured by the :

a. specific gravity
b. density
c. contact angle
d. surface tension

33. Which of the following functions does a developer perform?

a. “blots” the penetrant by drawing it out of discontinuities
b. masks out non relevant indications
c. dries out the surface of the part
d. provides a non-contrasting background

34. The method that uses a color contrast penetrant in conjunction with a
developer containing a low intensity fluorescent is called :
a. fluorescent developer method
b. reversed fluorescent method
c. contrast fluorescent method reversed contrast method
d. reversed contrast method

35. When inspecting using fluorescent penetrant methods, an indication

will appear as a :
a. soft white glow against a gray background
b. brilliant yellow-green glow against a white background
c. brilliant yellow-green glow against a deep violet-blue background
d. bright yellow-green glow against a black background

6
36. A visible dye indication will usually appear as a:
a. bright red glow against a white background
b. red color against a gray background
c. red color against a white background
d. red color against a glowing white background

37. When the reversed fluorescent method is used and inspection is

performed under black light, indications will show up as :
a. dark spots or lines against a deep violet-blue background
b. yellow-green lines or spots against a glowing background
c. dark spots or lines against a lightly glowing background
d. there is no such method

38. If an indication reappears after the original developer has been

removed and another coat is applied, the discontinuity :
a. contains a reservoir of penetrant
b. is probably shrinkage
c. is most likely porosity
d. is most likely a crack

39. If, upon reprocessing, a faint indication fails to reappear, what could
be the cause?
a. it was probably a false indication
b. the area has been over cleaned
c. the indication is probably due to a small flaw
d. reprocessing has resealed the opening

40. A network of interconnecting jagged lines appearing in hard fired,

unglazed ceramic products would be an indication of :
a. thermal shock
b. fatigue cracks
c. shrinkage cracks
d. grinding cracks

41. Porosity indications in ceramics would appear :

a. more intense than porosity indications in metals
b. essentially the same as porosity indications in metals
c. less intense than porosity indications in metals
d. as minute cracks

42. When inspecting glass and looking for very fine cracks, the preferred
method is :
a. post-emulsifiable fluorescent
b. water-washable fluorescent
c. post-emulsifiable color contrast
d. electrified particle

7
43. When inspecting a hard-fired ceramic that is very porous, the bset
inspection method would be the:
a. filtered particle method
b. electrified particle method
c. brittle enamel method
d. emulsifiable color contrast method

44. A partially welded forging lap would probably :

a. give no indication
b. appear as a very thin, continuous line
c. appear as a broad, continuous line
d. appear as an intermittent line

45. A ragged line, variable width and numerous branches on castings

caused by a difference in cooling rates between thick and thinner
sections, would most likely be an indication of :
a. shrinkage
b. cold shut
c. hot tear
d. lap

46. A deep crater crack will frequently appear as a :

a. small tight crack
b. rounded indication
c. fine linear indication
d. faint intermittent line

47. The forces generated by capillary attraction cause a liquid to rise

spontaneously in a capillary tube. These forces are also involved in
the:
a. entry of a liquid into a crack
b. solubility of a liquid
c. flash point of a liquid
d. chemical inertness of a liquid

48. Viscosity has a considerable effect on some of the practical aspects

of the use of a penetrant. It is an important factor in the:
a. solubility of contaminants
b. wash ability of a penetrant
c. degree of fluorescent emitted
d. speed with which a penetrant will enter a defect

8
49. One of the two most important properties of a good penetrant is
wetting ability. Wetting ability is:
a. measured by contact angle and is not related to surface tension
b. a function of viscosity and increases as surface tension decreases
c. measured by contact angle and decreases as surface tension
increases
d. measured by surface tension and increases as contact angle
decreases

50. To make water a relatively good penetrant :

a. a wetting agent must be added to reduce surface tension
b. a wetting agent must be added to reduce wetting ability
c. a wetting agent must be added to increase surface tension
d. water is a good penetrant as is: no additives are needed

51. A penetrant that will spread over the surface of the test area in a
smooth, even film despite a small amount of surface contamination is
said to have:
a. low viscosity
b. high viscosity
c. wetting ability
d. low evaporation

52. The sensitivity of two penetrants for crack detection is bast compared
by:
a. using a hydrometer to measure specific gravity
b. suing cracked aluminum blocks
c. measuring the contact angles in a wetting test
d. the meniscus test

53. For post-emulsifiable penetrants, a good method for establishing

emulsifying time is by:
a. experimentation
b. the water drop-through test
c. the water-tolerance test
d. using published book values

54. A newly mixed batch of wet developer should:

a. be checked by a hydrometer
b. be agitated for 30 to 40 minutes
c. have 0.03 to 0.04 L per 3.8 L ( 1 to 1.5 oz per 1 gal) of ammonia added
to stabilize the mixture
d. stand for 4 to 5 hours prior to use

9
55. The test to measure the sensitivity of a penetrant to water
contamination based on the amount of water is the :
a. water drop-through test
b. hydrometer test
c. photofluorometer test
d. water tolerance test

56. When performing an evaluation of the fluorescent ability of a

penetrant, the value that is normally sought is the :
a. amount of actual light emitted by indications
b. amount of black light necessary to cause the material to fluoresce
c. relative amount of light emitted by the fluorescent material compared to
other penetrants
d. relative amount of light emitted by the fluorescent material compared to
the light emitted by the background

57. The most accurate method for evaluating quantitative values for the
emitted light of fluorescent materials is the use of a :
a. spectrophotometer
b. filter-photometer
c. nefluoro-photometer
d. photofluorometer

58. The ability of indications to be seen can be assigned a value called the
contrast ratio. This ratio is based on the amount of:
a. white light present as opposed to the amount of light absorbed by the
dye
b. light reflected by the background as opposed to the amount of light
absorbed by the dye
c. light absorbed by the background as opposed to the amount of light
reflected by the dye
d. light reflected by the background as opposed to the amount of light
reflected by the dye

59. The contrast ratio of red dye penetrant to a white developer is

normally about:
a. 33 to 1
b. 6 to 1
c. 9 to 1
d. 23 to 1

10
60. Cracked plated strips are sometimes used to compare sensitivity.
These plates usually have a brittle iron plating and are bent on:
a. cantilever bending dies only
b. redial bending dies only
c. circumferential bending dies only
d. cantilever and radial bend dies

61. If a cantilever bending die is used to bend a plated strip, the cracks
produced will :
a. be equally spaced and of uniform width
b. be equally spaced and of graduated depth
c. closer together and tighter near the clamped end
d. cantilever bending dies are not used

62. The test object and standard penetrant materials should be with in a
particular temperature range. One of the reasons an excessively cold
penetrant is undesirable is that as the temperature becomes lower :
a. the viscosity decreases
b. the viscosity increases
c. fewer volatile materials will be lost
d. the dyes degrade

63. If the surface temperature of the test part is excessively hot, the :
a. viscosity of the penetrant may be too high
b. penetrant may lose some of its more volatile materials
c. surface tension of the penetrant increases
d. contact angle increases

64. Which of the following is a criterion for a good dryer?

a. it has the ability to dry, the surface slowly
b. it has the ability to heat the part to an optimum temperature in a
minimum of time so that the part is both dry and warm as promptly as
possible
c. it has the electrical heating elements so that there is a guarantee that
no contaminants can be introduced into the inspection process
d. it is a warm air blast system

65. What are the two most important properties that determine whether a
liquid will have high penetrating ability?
a. surface tension and viscosity
b. viscosity and cosine of contact angle
c. cosine of the contact angle and density
d. surface tension and cosine of the contact angle
e. density and surface tension

11
66. Where pre-cleaning is necessary and a residue-free solvent is used,
which of the following is observed?
a. the solvents are not suitable for removing grease
b. the solvents are not suitable for removing oil
c. the solvents should never be used for removing grease and oils
d. the solvents are suitable for removing grease and oils, but are
generally not adequate if solids are imbedded in void areas

67. When utilizing the fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant method and

performing the rinse cycle, which of the following will prevent over-
rinsing?
a. rinse before the penetrant is completely emulsified
b. rinse after the penetrant is completely emulsified
c. discontinue the rinse as soon as the surface penetrant is removed from
the part
d. rinse only with water hotter than 43o C (110o F)

12
 LEVEL III ANSWERS
LIQUID PENETRANT TESTING METHOD

1. b 21.c 41.b 61.c

2. b 22.b 42.d 62.b
3. c 23.b 43.a 63.b
4. a 24.c 44.d 64.b
5. b 25.b 45.c 65.d
6. d 26.b 46.b 66.d
7. d 27.a 47.a 67.c
8. a 28.c 48.d
9. b 29.a 49.a
10. b 30.a 50.a
11. d 31.a 51.c
12. a 32.c 52.b
13. a 33.a 53.a
14. a 34.b 54.d
15. c 35.c 55.d
16. c 36.c 56.c
17. b 37.c 57.a
18. b 38.a 58.d
19. d 39.a 59.b
20. c 40.a 60.d

13