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Fiitjee All India Test Series: JEE (Advanced) - 2020

This document is a practice test for the JEE Advanced exam. It contains 54 total questions across physics, chemistry, and math. Questions are divided into multiple choice and numerical answer types. Section A contains multiple choice questions that can have one or more correct answers, while Section C contains numerical answer questions. The test aims to prepare students for the question formats and level of difficulty on the actual JEE Advanced exam.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views19 pages

Fiitjee All India Test Series: JEE (Advanced) - 2020

This document is a practice test for the JEE Advanced exam. It contains 54 total questions across physics, chemistry, and math. Questions are divided into multiple choice and numerical answer types. Section A contains multiple choice questions that can have one or more correct answers, while Section C contains numerical answer questions. The test aims to prepare students for the question formats and level of difficulty on the actual JEE Advanced exam.

Uploaded by

Deepak Yadav
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES


FULL TEST – VIII

JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 186

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.


 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
1. Section-A (01 – 08, 19 – 26, 37 – 44) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the four option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

Section-A (09 – 12, 27 – 30, 45 – 48) contains 6 List-Match sets with 12 questions (each set has 2
questions). Each question has 4 statements in LIST-I & 6 statements in LIST-II. The codes for Lists
have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which only one is correct.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.

2. Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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AITS-FT-VIII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)

This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
2
1. If the acceleration of wedge in the figure shown is a m/s towards
left, then at this instant acceleration of the block (magnitude only)
would be
2
(A) 4a m/s
2
m
(B) a 17  8 cos  m/s
M
(C) 17a m/s2


(D) 17 cos × a m/s2
2

2. System is released from rest. Only pulley 1 is fixed. Determine the acceleration
Pulley-1
of A
g g A m
(A) downward (B) upward
2 2
g g m
(C) downward (D) upward
4 4

m

3. 0.5 mole of an ideal gas at constant temperature 27ºC kept


inside a cylinder of length L and cross section area A
closed by a mass less piston. The cylinder is attached with
1 27ºC
conducting rod length L cross section area   m2 and L
9
  0ºC
thermal conductivity K, whose other end is maintained at
0ºC. If piston is moved such that rate of heat flow through L
the conducting rod is constant then velocity of piston when
L
it is at height from the bottom of cylinder [neglect any kind of heat loss from system)
2
K K
(A) m/s (B) m/s
R 10R
K K
(C) m/s (D) m/s
100 R 1000 R

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4. An infinite non conducting sheet having charge density  and there is



a small hole as shown in figure and there is rod of length  having
linear charge density  and hinged in the hole as shown. If the mass /2

of rod is m then time period of oscillation for small angular 
displacement
m 0 2m 0 /2
(A)  (B) 2 
3 3
 m 0
(C) (D) None of these
2 3

dB × × × × × ×
5. A uniform magnetic field decrease at a constant rate = – K where K
dt × × × × × ×
is a positive constant. A circular loop of wire of radius 'a' containing a M
resistance R and a capacitance C is placed with its plane normal to the ×R × × × C× N ×
field × × × × × ×
(A) maximum charge on the capacitor will be a2CK × × × × × ×
(B) maximum charge on the capacitor will be 2a2CK
(C) upper plate M, will be at higher potential when it is fully discharged
(D) lower plate N, will be at higher potential when it is fully discharged

a
6. A convex lens of focal length and a plane mirror are
2 45º
arranged as shown. The plane mirror is inclined at an angle O
45º with the axis and the distance between lens and mirror is
equal to focal length of the lens.
A point source is placed at a distance 'a' from lens at its axis. The distance between the source
and the image formed after reflection from the mirror will be
a 5a
(A) (B)
2 2
10 a
(C) (D) None of these
2

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7. A thermally insulated chamber of volume 2V0 is divided by a B


frictionless piston of area S into two equal parts A and B. Part
A has an ideal gas at pressure P0 and temperature T0 and in
part B is vacuum. A massless spring of force constant k is A
connected with piston and the wall of the container as shown.
Initially spring is unstretched. Gas in chamber A is allowed to
expand. Let in equilibrium spring is compressed by x0. Then -
kx
(A) final pressure of the gas is 0
S
1
(B) work done by the gas is kx02
2
1
(C) change in internal energy of the gas is kx02
2
(D) temperature of the gas is decreased

8. A capacitor with air as dielectric has capacity C as


shown in figure is completely filled with dielectric slab
of mass M and is connected to a block of mass M. The
K
system is released form rest at time t = 0 when the •
capacitor is completely filled with dielectric. Then:
(Dielectric constant of slab = K)
V

 M
( K  1)CV
(A) Charge on the plate of the capacitor when it is half filled with air is
2
(B) The kinetic energy of the block when the capacitor is half filled with dielectric is
mg  CV 2 ( K  1)

4 8
(C) The potential difference between the plates when the capacitor is half filled with air is V
K
(D) The energy stored in the capacitor when it is half filled with dielectric is CV2.
2

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(Matching List Type)

This section contains TWO (02) List-Match Sets. Each List-Match set has TWO(02) Multiple Choice
Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and
(IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U). FOUR options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.

In a thermodynamic process on an ideal monatomic gas, the infinitesimal heat absorbed by the gas is

given by T∆X, where T is temperature of the system and ∆X is the infinitesimal change in a

3  T   v 
thermodynamic quantity X of the system. For a mole of monatomic ideal gas X  R In    R In  .
2  TA   vA 
Here, R is gas constant, V is volume of gas, TA and VA are constants.
The List-I below gives some quantities involved in a process and List-II gives some possible values of
these quantities.

List – I List – II
(I) (P) 1
RT0 In2
3
Work done by the system in process 1 → 2 → 3

(II) (Q) 1
RT0
3
Change in internal energy in process 1 → 2 → 3

(III) (R) RT0

Heat absorbed by the system in process 1 → 2 → 3

(IV) (S) 4
RT0
3
Heat absorbed by the system in process 1 → 2

(T) 1
RT0  3  In 2 
3
(U) 5
RT0
6

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9. If the process carried out on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is as P


1 3P0 3
shown in figure in the PV diagram with P0 V0  RT0 . The correct 2
3
match is
(A) I  Q,II  S,III  R,IV  U P0
1
2
(B) I  S,II  R,III  Q,IV  T V0 2V0 V
(C) I  Q,II  R,III  P,IV  U
(D) I  Q,II  R,III  S,IV  U

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10. If the process carried out on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is T
1 T0 3
as shown in the TV – diagram with P0 V0  RT0 . The correct
3
match is
(A) I  P,II  R,III  T,IV  P T0
1
3 2
(B) I  P,II  R,III  T,IV  S V
V0 2V 0
(C) I  S,II  T,III  Q,IV  U
(D) I  P,II  T,III  Q,IV  T

Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.

A musical instrument is made using four different metal strings, 1, 2, 3 and 4 with mass per unit length 
2 3 and 4 respectively. The instrument is played by vibrating the strings by varying the free length in
between the range L0 and 2L0. It is found that in string-1  at free length L0 and tension T0 the
fundamental mode frequency is f 0.
List-I gives the above four strings while list-II lists the magnitude of some quantity.

List – I List - II
(I) String – 1  (P) 1
(II) String – 2 (2 (Q) ½
(III) String – 3 (3 (R) 1/ 2
(IV) String - 4 (4 (S) 1/ 3
(T) 3/16
(U) 1/16

11. If the tension in each string is T0, the correct match for the highest fundamental frequency in f 0
units will be
(A) I – Q, II – S, III – R, IV – P
(B) I – P, II – R, III – S, IV – Q
(C) I – P, II – Q, III – T, IV – S
(D) I – Q, II – P, III – R, IV – T

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3L 0 5L 0 7L
12. The length of the strings 1,2,3 and 4 are kept fixed at L0, , and 0 , respectively. Strings
2 4 4
1,2,3 and 4 are vibrated at their 1st, 3rd, 5th and 14th harmonics, respectively such that all the
strings have same frequency. The correct match for the tension in the four strings in the units of
T0 will be
(A) I – P, II – R, III – T, IV – U
(B) I – P, II – Q, III – T, IV – U
(C) I – T, II – Q, III – R, IV – U
(D) I – P, II – Q, III – R, IV – T

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

13. A circular loop of radius R is bent along a L


diameter and given a shape as shown in the y
figure. One of the semicircles (KNM) lies in the L
M
x-z plane and the other one (KLM) in the y-z
L
plane with their centres at the origin. Current I is N x
flowing through each of the semi circles as
shown in figure.
K I z
A particle of charge q is released at the origin

with a velocity v = v0iˆ .

Find the magnitude of instantaneous force F on the particle if 0qv0I = 8R. Assume that space is
gravity free.

r
14. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by, V = V0 ln   where V0 and
 r0 
r0 are constants and r is the radius of the electron orbit around the proton. Assuming Bohr's
model to be applicable, it is found that r is proportional to nx, where n is the principal quantum
number. Find the value of x.

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15. Figure shows a parabolic reflector in x-y plane given by y2 = 8x. y-axis y2=8x
A ray of light traveling along the line y = a is incident on the
line y = a
reflector. Find where the ray intersects the x-axis after reflection. P(0,a)
incident ray
x-axis

16. A hydrogen like atom (atomic number Z) is in a higher excited state of quantum number n. This
excited atom can make a transition to the first excited state by successively emitting two photons
of energies 10.20 eV and 17.00 eV respectively. Alternatively, the atom from the same excited
state can make a transition to the second excited state by successively emitting two photons of
energies 4.25 eV and 5.95 eV respectively. Determine the value of Z. (Ionisation energy of hydrogen
atom is 13.6 eV).

17. A point charge q is placed at a distance 3R from the


centre of a earthed conducting shell of radius R as R
shown in figure R/2
A
Then find magnitude electric potential at point A, R/2 O q
distance away centre, due to charge induce on the shell.
If q = 280R.

18. In the arrangement shown mA = 1 kg and mB = 2 kg while all the pulleys F = 10t
& strings are massless & frictionless. At t = 0, a force F = 10 t starts
acting over central pulley in vertical direction. When B loses contact
with floor the velocity of A is (5n) m/sec. Find out the value of ‘n’.

A B

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)

This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. For the reaction: A  B  Pr oduct; follow ing data is given
Expt. No. [A] [B] Rate(M/sec)

1 0.02 M 0.03 M 4  10-3


-2
2 0.04 M 0.06 M 1.6  10
-3
3 0.01 M 0.06 M 4  10

Which of the following is correct?


(A) Given reaction may be elementary
(B) The value of rate constant is 6.67 M-1sec-1
(C) Given reaction may be complex
(D) If volume of container is doubled in first experiment, rate becomes 10-3 M/sec

20. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct regarding H4P2O6?


(A) It contains P-P linkage
(B) It contains P-O-P linkage
(C) Its basicity may be 3
(D) The number of p  d bonds = 2

21. Select the correct statement(s).


(A) The total number of Bravais lattice in 2-D crystal system is 5
(B) A cubic system contains 9 plane of symmetry
(C) For monoclinic system, a  b  c and       90 0
(D) The packing fraction of BCC is 52%

22. A quantity of 720 gm water is added in 230 gm ethanol at a certain temperature to get 1 L of
solution. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the solution formed?
(A) The density of solution is 950 kg/m 3
(B) The mole fraction of ethanol is 0.11
(C) The molarity of solution is 5 M
(D) The molality of solution is 6.94 m

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23. The correct statement(s) for the following addition reaction is(are)
Br2 /CHCl3
(i)Trans  2  butene  M and N
Br2 /CHCl3
(ii)Cis  2  butene  O and P
(A) (M and O) and (N and P) are two pairs of enantiomers
(B) Bromination proceeds through trans-addition in both the reactions
(C) O and P are identical molecules
(D) (M and O) and (N and P) are two pairs of diastereomers

24. Which of the following are not redox reactions


(A) Mg + N2 
 Mg3N2
(B) K4[Fe(CN)6] + H2SO4 + H2O 
 K2SO4 + CO + FeSO4 + (NH4)2SO4
(C) I2 + 3Cl2 
 ICl3
(D) CuSO4 + NH3 
 [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

25. Consider a parallel reaction,


k1
(X)
k2 Ea = E1
(P)
Ea = E k2
(Y)
Ea = E2
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
k1 [X]
(A) When both the reactions are of 1st order, 
k 2 [Y]
k1 [X]
(B)  is true for all parallel path reactions irrespective of their order.
k 2 [Y]
k E  k2E2
(C) The overall energy of activation is given by E  1 1 , if the two parallel reactions are
E1  E 2
of same order.
(D) For first order reaction, the plot of ln t1 / 2 vs 1 / T is a straight line and slope of the line is
equal to E/R (where R is gas constant).

26. By passing 1F of electricity


(A) 1 mol of Zn deposited (B) 12 g of Mg deposited
(C) 1/3 mol of Al deposited (D) 11.2 L of O2 at NTP evolved

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(Matching List Type)

This section contains TWO (02) List-Match Sets. Each List-Match set has TWO(02) Multiple Choice
Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and
(IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U). FOUR options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.

Match the solutions obtained by mixing different volumes of equimolar acid HA and base BOH given in
list–I with the rise in temperature given in list–II if the solution obtained by mixing 10 ml each of the same
acid and base shows an elevation in temperature of 5°C.
LIST - I LIST - II (Rise in temperature)
(I) 100 ml of HA + 100 ml of BOH P. 5°C

(II) 10 ml of HA + 20 ml of BOH Q. 4°C

(III) 20 ml of HA + 30 ml of BOH R. 3.3°C

(IV) 50 ml of HA + 150 ml of BOH S. 0.66°C

T. 2.5°C
U. 2.6°C

27. Which of following is correct combination.


(A) I  P & II  R (B) II  P & III  R
(C) III  S & I  P (D) IV  P & I  Q

28. Which of following is incorrect combination.


(A) I  P & III  Q (B) I  P & II  R
(C) III  Q & IV  T (D) III  S & IV  Q

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Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.

LIST - I LIST - II
(I) CH 3 COOH  NaOH P. pH > 7
5 ml 1N 5 ml 1N

(II) CH 3COOH  NaOH Q. pH < 7


15 ml 1N 10 ml 1N

(III) HCl  NH 4OH R. Buffer


5 ml 1N 15 ml 1N

(IV) HCl  NaOH S. Hydrolysis occurs


1 ml 1N 1 ml 2 N
T. pH < 8

U. pH > 8

29. Which of following is correct combination


(A) I  P & II  Q, R (B) II  P, R & III  Q
(C) III  S & I  P (D) IV  P & I  Q

30. Which of following is incorrect combination.


(A) I  P & III  R (B) I  P & II  R
(C) II  Q & III  Q (D) I  P & IV  P

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

31. 8 gm of methane is burnt with 4.48L of O2 at STP. Find out the volume of CO2 gas produced at
STP and also the weight of CO2 gas.

32. The pKa of the carboxyl group in an amino acid valine, (CH3)2CHCH(NH2)(COOH) is 2.31 and the
pKa for the amino group of the same amino acid is 9.69. Compute the isolectric point (pHi) for
valine and draw the structure of this amino acid when the pH of the solution equals to pHi. Also
draw the structures of valine that predominate at pH=2 and pOH= 2.

33. The relative rate of abstraction per hydrogen atom of 3°H, 2°H and 1°H of alkane during photo
chlorination is 5.0 : 3.8 : 1. The percentage of the major product formed in the chlorination of 2,2
dimethyl butane is x% then the value of x is

34. What is the percent by mass of iodine needed to reduce the freezing point of benzene to 3.5°C?
The freezing point and cryoscopic constant of pure benzene are 5.5°C and 5.12 K/m respectively.

35. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2D. If its bond distance is 1.0Å. What fraction of an
electronic charge exist on each atom?

36. Calculate the standard e.m.f. of the reactionFe3+ + 3e–  Fe(s) 03 = ?
Given Fe3+ + e–  Fe2+ 10 = 0.771V Fe2+ + 2e–  Fe(s) 02 = – 0.44V

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)

This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

37. f(x) = cos   x   x   , then


(A) f is continuous at x = 1/2 (B) f is continuous at x = 0
(C) f is differentiable in (-1, 0) (D) f is differentiable in (0, 1)

38. Tangent are drawn to the circle x 2  y 2  50 from a point ‘P’ lying on the x – axis. These tangents
meet the y – axis at points ‘P1’ and ‘P2’. Possible coordinates of ‘P’ so that area of triangle PP1P2
is minimum, is/are
(A) (10, 0) 
(B) 10 2,0 
(C) (-10, 0) (D)  10 2, 0 

39. Two particle start from the same point (2, -1), one moving 2 units along the line x + y = 1 and the
other 5 units along x – 2y = 4. If the particles move towards increasing y, then their new position
will be

(A) 2  2, 2  1  
(B) 2 5  2, 5  1 
(C)  2  2, 2  1 (D)  2 5  2, 5  1

x y 4
40. If   1 is a tangent to the curve x = 4t, y  , t  R then
a b t
(A) a  0, b  0 (B) a  0, b  0
(C) a  0, b  0 (D) a  0, b  0

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  3 1 3 1
41. All values of x   0,  such that   4 2 are
 2  sin x cos x
 
(A) (B)
15 12
11 3
(C) (D)
36 10

42. Let a, b, c be distinct complex numbers with a  b  c  1 and z1, z2 be the roots of the
equation az 2  bz  c  0 with z1  1. Also let P and Q represents the complex numbers z1 and
z2 in the complex plane with POQ   where O is the origin then
2 2
(A) b2  ac,   (B)   , PQ  3
3 3

(C) b2  ac, PQ  2 3 (D) 2b2  ac,  
3

43. If the sum of the first 100 terms of an AP is -1 and the sum of the even terms lying in the first 100
terms is 1, then
3 149
(A) common difference is (B) first term is
50 50
7 151
(C) common difference is (D) first term is 
50 50

44. A line segment is divided so that the lesser part is to the greater part is equal to the greater part is
to the whole. If R is the ratio of the lesser part of the greater part, then
(A) R2  R  1  0 (B) R2  R 1  2
R 2
 R 1 
(C) R  R 1  2 (D) R2  R  1  0

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(Matching List Type)

This section contains TWO (02) List-Match Sets. Each List-Match set has TWO(02) Multiple Choice
Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and
(IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U). FOUR options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.

List – I List - II
(I) Two sides of traingle are given by the roots of the (P) 12
equation x2 – 5x + 3 =0. If the angle between
these sides is /3, then the product of inradius
and circumradius of the triangle is
(II) In a triangle ABC, if the radii of ex – circles r1, r2 (Q) 15
and r3 are given by r1 = 8, r2 = 12 and r3 = 24, then
value of the side a is
(III) Let a be a positive integer not exceeding 10, then (R) 3
the probability that the equation 7
x2 – 2(a2 – 1)x + 2a2 – 7a + 3 = 0 has one positive
and one negative roots is
(IV) Let (, ) be a point from which two perpendicular (S) 1
tangents can be drawn to the ellipse 5
4x2 + 5y2 = 20. If F = 4 + 3, then the maximum
value of F
(T) 2
3
(U) 1
3

45. Which of following is correct combination


(A) I  T & II  P
(B) II  P & III  R
(C) III  S & I  P
(D) IV  P & I  Q

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46. Which of following is incorrect combination.


(A) I  Q & III  Q
(B) I  P & II  R
(C) III  Q & IV  P
(D) III  S & IV  Q

Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
List – I List - II

(I) The coefficient of two consecutive terms in (P) 9


the expansion of (1 +x)n will be equal, then
n can be
(II) If 15n + 23n is divided by 19, then n can be (Q) 10
(III) 10
C0
20
C10 -
10
C1
16
C10 - …….is divisible by (R) 11
n
2 , then n can be
(IV) If the coefficient of Tr, Tr+1, Tr+2 terms of (S) 12
(1 + x)14 are in A.P., then r is less than
(T) 14
(U) 16

47. Which of following is correct combination


(A) I  P & II  Q, R
(B) II  P, R & III  Q
(C) III  S & I  P
(D) IV  P & I  Q

48. Which of following is incorrect combination.


(A) I  Q & III  Q
(B) I  P & II  R
(C) I  P & IV  T
(D) II  Q & III  Q

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

49. Given (2 + 6 + 10 + 14 + ……+ 2a) + (2 + 6 + 10 + 14 + ……….+ 2b) = (2 + 6 + 10 + 14 +


………+ 2c), where a + b + c = 21 and a > 6. Then a – b is equal to ____________.

50. Seven digit numbers are formed using digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 without repetition. The
probability of selecting a number such that product of any 5 consecutive digits is divisible by
either 5 or 7 is p. Then 12p is equal to __________.

 1 1 a11
51. If a singular matrix A  aij  always commute with B    such that  k, then k is
2 2
 2 1 a12
equal to___________.

52. If the function f(x) = 2x 3 – 9ax2 + 12a2x + 1 has a local maximum at x = x 1 and a local minimum at
x = x2 such that x2 = x12 , then a is equal to ______________.

xy yz
53. If positive numbers x, y, z are in A.P, then the minimum value of  is equal to____.
2y  x 2y  z

54. The number of odd proper divisors of 24300 is N + 11, then N is equal to _______________.

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