HOMEWORK ON CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK

FOR FINANCIAL REPORTING (2018)

Chapter 3 – Financial Statements and the Reporting Entity

25. Which of the following statements is correct about the underlying assumption?
I. The financial statements are normally prepared on the assumption that an entity is a going concern and
will continue in operation for the foreseeable future.
II. It is assumed that the entity has neither the intention nor the need to liquidate or curtail materially the
scale of its operations; if such an intention or need exists, the financial statements may have to be
prepared on a different basis and, if so, the basis used is disclosed.
A) I only C) both I and II
B) II only D) neither I nor II

26. Which of the following statements is incorrect about financial statements?

A) The objective of financial statements is to provide financial information about the reporting entity’s
assets, liabilities, equity, income and expenses that is useful to users of financial statements in
assessing the prospects for future net cash inflows to the reporting entity and in assessing
management’s stewardship of the entity’s economic resources.
B) Financial statements include information about transactions and other events that have occurred
after the end of the reporting period if providing that information is necessary to meet the objective
of financial statements.
C) To help users of financial statements to identify and assess changes and trends, financial statements
also provide comparative information for at least one preceding reporting period.
D) Financial statements provide information about transactions and other events viewed from the
perspective of any particular group of the entity’s existing or potential investors, lenders or other
creditors.

27. Which of the following statements is least likely a description of a reporting entity?
A) A reporting entity is not necessarily a legal entity.
B) A reporting entity is required to present consolidated financial statements.
C) A reporting entity is an entity that is required, or chooses, to prepare financial statements.
D) A reporting entity can be a single entity or a portion of an entity or can comprise more than one
entity.

28. Which of the following statements is not within the scope of the reporting entity under the Conceptual
Framework?
A) If a reporting entity comprises both the parent and its subsidiaries, the reporting entity’s financial
statements are referred to as ‘consolidated financial statements’.
B) If a reporting entity is the parent alone, the reporting entity’s financial statements are referred to as
‘unconsolidated financial statements’.
C) If a reporting entity comprises two or more entities that are not all linked by a parent-subsidiary
relationship, the reporting entity’s financial statements are referred to as ‘combined financial
statements’.
D) If a reporting entity prepares financial statements for a period shorter than a full financial year, the
reporting entity’s financial statements are referred to as “interim financial report”

Chapter 4 – The Elements of Financial Statements

29. The elements directly related to a reporting entity’s financial position are defined as follows: (choose the
incorrect one)
A) An asset is a present economic resource controlled by the entity as a result of past events.
B) A liability is a present obligation of the entity to transfer an economic resource as a result of past
events.
C) Equity is the residual interest in the assets of the entity after deducting all its liabilities.
D) Liabilities and stockholders’ equity are sources of financing for economic resources.
30. The three aspects of the definition of an asset and an economic resource include all of the following,
except
A) right C) control
B) potential to produce economic benefits D) obligation

31. Which of the following statements about asset is incorrect?

A) An asset is a present economic resource controlled by the entity as a result of past events.
B) An economic resource is a right that has the potential to produce economic benefits.
C) All of an entity’s rights are assets of that entity.
D) Conceptually, the economic resource is the set of rights, not the physical object.

32. Which of the following statements about the potential of an economic resource to produce economic
benefits is incorrect?
A) The potential to produce economic benefits does not need to be certain, or even likely, that the
right will produce economic benefits.
B) For an economic resource to have the potential to produce economic benefits, it is only necessary
that the right already exists and that, in at least one circumstance, it would produce for the entity
economic benefits beyond those available to all other parties.
C) A right can meet the definition of an economic resource, and hence can be an asset, even if the
probability that it will produce economic benefits is low.
D) Although an economic resource derives its value from its present potential to produce future
economic benefits, the economic resource is the future economic benefits that the right may
produce.

33. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) There is a close association between incurring expenditure and acquiring assets, but the two do not
necessarily coincide.
B) When an entity incurs expenditure, this may provide evidence that the entity has sought future
economic benefits, but does not provide conclusive proof that the entity has obtained an asset.
C) The absence of related expenditure does not preclude an item from meeting the definition of an
asset.
D) The expenditures incurred by an entity which benefits the current period is recognized as an asset.

34. Which of the following statements about the control of an economic resource is incorrect?
A) An entity controls an economic resource if it has the present ability to direct the use of the
economic resource and obtain the economic benefits that may flow from it.
B) Control includes the present ability to prevent other parties from directing the use of the economic
resource and from obtaining the economic benefits that may flow from it.
C) Control of an economic resource usually arises from an ability to enforce legal rights.
D) For an entity to control an economic resource, the future economic benefits from that resource
must directly flow to the entity rather than to another party.

35. For a liability to exist, all of the following criteria must be satisfied, except
A) the entity has an obligation
B) the entity has a future obligation
C) the obligation is to transfer an economic resource
D) the obligation is a present obligation that exists as a result of past events

36. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning an obligation?

A) An obligation is a duty or responsibility that an entity has no practical ability to avoid.
B) An obligation is always owed to another party (or parties) and the other party (or parties) could be
a person or another entity, a group of people or other entities, or society at large.
C) If one party has an obligation to transfer an economic resource, it follows that another party (or
parties) has a right to receive that economic resource.
D) It is necessary to know the identity of the party (or parties) to whom the obligation is owed.
37. Which of the following statements is true about obligation?
I. Many obligations are established by contract, legislation or similar means and are legally enforceable
by the party (or parties) to whom they are owed.
II. Obligations can also arise from an entity’s customary practices, published policies or specific
statements if the entity has no practical ability to act in a manner inconsistent with those practices,
policies or statements, sometimes referred to as ‘constructive obligation’.
A) I only C) both I and II
B) II only D) neither I nor II

38. Which of the following statements related to obligation is incorrect?

A) In instances when an entity’s duty or responsibility to transfer an economic resource is conditional
on a particular future action that the entity itself may take, the entity has an obligation if it has no
practical ability to avoid taking that action.
B) The factors used to assess whether an entity has the practical ability to avoid transferring an
economic resource may depend on the nature of the entity’s duty or responsibility.
C) Intention to make a transfer and a high likelihood of a transfer are sufficient reasons for concluding
that the entity has no practical ability to avoid a transfer.
D) A conclusion that it is appropriate to prepare an entity’s financial statements on a going concern
basis also implies a conclusion that the entity has no practical ability to avoid a transfer that could
be avoided only by liquidating the entity or by ceasing to trade.

39. Which of the following statements about transfer of economic resource is incorrect?
A) Obligation must have the potential to require the entity to transfer an economic resource to another
party (or parties) to satisfy the transfer of economic resource criteria.
B) The potential for transfer of economic resource does not need to be certain, or even likely, that the
entity will be required to transfer an economic resource—the transfer may, for example, be
required only if a specified uncertain future event occurs.
C) For potential for transfer of economic resource to exist, it is only necessary that the obligation
already exists and that, in at least one circumstance, it would require the entity to transfer an
economic resource.
D) An obligation cannot meet the definition of a liability if the probability of a transfer of an
economic resource is low.

40. Which of the following statements about present obligation as a result of past event is incorrect?
A) The enactment of legislation is sufficient to give an entity a present obligation.
B) The enactment of a new legislation and an entity’s customary practice or published
policy/statement gives rise to a present obligation only when, as a consequence of obtaining
economic benefits or taking an action to which that legislation, practice, policy or statement
applies, an entity will or may have to transfer an economic resource that it would not otherwise
have had to transfer.
C) A present obligation can exist even if a transfer of economic resources cannot be enforced until
some point in the future.
D) An entity does not yet have a present obligation to transfer an economic resource if it has not yet
obtained economic benefits, or taken an action, that would or could require the entity to transfer an
economic resource that it would not otherwise have had to transfer.

41. Which of the following statements about unit of account is incorrect?

A) The unit of account is the right or the group of rights, the obligation or the group of obligations, or
the group of rights and obligations, to which recognition criteria and measurement concepts are
applied.
B) A unit of account is selected for an asset or liability when considering how recognition criteria and
measurement concepts will apply to that asset or liability and to the related income and expenses.
C) It is inappropriate to select one unit of account for recognition and a different unit of account for
measurement.
D) If an entity transfers part of an asset or part of a liability, the unit of account may change at that
time, so that the transferred component and the retained component become separate units of
 account.
E) In selecting a unit of account, it is important to consider whether the benefits of the information
provided to users of financial statements by selecting that unit of account are likely to justify the
costs of providing and using that information.

42. Which of the following statements about executory contracts is incorrect?

A) An executory contract is a contract, or a portion of a contract, that is equally unperformed—neither
party has fulfilled any of its obligations, or both parties have partially fulfilled their obligations to
an equal extent.
B) An executory contract establishes a combined right and obligation to exchange economic
resources.
C) The established combined right and obligation to exchange economic resources are interdependent
but can be separated.
D) To the extent that either party fulfils its obligations under the contract, the contract is no longer
executory.

43. Which of the following items about equity claims is incorrect?

A) Equity claims include redeemable preference shares.
B) Equity claims are claims on the residual interest in the assets of the entity after deducting all its
liabilities.
C) Equity claims are they are claims against the entity that do not meet the definition of a liability.
D) Equity claims may be established by contract, legislation or similar means, and include, to the
extent that they do not meet the definition of a liability:

44. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Income is increases in assets, or decreases in liabilities, that result in increases in equity, other than
those relating to contributions from holders of equity claims.
B) Expenses are decreases in assets, or increases in liabilities, that result in decreases in equity, other
than those relating to distributions to holders of equity claims.
C) The contributions from holders of equity claims are not income, and distributions to holders of
equity claims are not expenses.
D) Comprehensive income is no longer part of the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting.

Chapter 5 – Recognition and Derecognition

45. Which of the following statements about recognition is incorrect?
A) Recognition is the process of capturing for inclusion in the statement of financial position or the
statement(s) of financial performance an item that meets the definition of one of the elements of
financial statements—an asset, a liability, equity, income or expenses.
B) Recognition involves depicting the item in one of those statements—either alone or in aggregation
with other items—in words and by a monetary amount, and including that amount in one or more
totals in that statement.
C) Recognition links the elements, the statement of financial position and the statement(s) of financial
performance.
D) The Conceptual Framework allows the recognition in the statement of financial position of items
that do not meet the definition of an asset, a liability or equity.

46. Which of the following items about recognition criteria is incorrect?

A) Only items that meet the definition of the elements of financial statements recognized
B) All items that meet the definition of one of the elements of financial statements are recognized.
C) An asset or liability is recognized only if recognition of that asset or liability and of any resulting
income, expenses or changes in equity provides users of financial statements with information that
is useful.
D) Even if an item meeting the definition of an asset or liability is not recognized, an entity may need
to provide information about that item in the notes.
47. When assessing whether the recognition of an asset or liability can provide a faithful representation of the
asset or liability, it is necessary to consider not merely its description and measurement in the statement
of
financial position, but also (choose the incorrect item)
A) the depiction of resulting income, expenses and changes in equity.
B) whether related assets and liabilities are recognized.
C) presentation and disclosure of information about the asset or liability, and resulting income,
expenses or changes in equity.
D) the tangibility of the assets being acquired.

48. The recognition of a particular asset or liability and any resulting income, expenses or changes in equity
may not always provide relevant information due to
A) measurement uncertainty or other factors.
B) existence uncertainty or measurement uncertainty
C) low probability of an inflow or outflow of economic benefits; or other factors
D) existence uncertainty or low probability of an inflow or outflow of economic benefits.

49. Recognition of a particular asset or liability is appropriate if it provides not only relevant information,
but also a faithful representation of that asset or liability and of any resulting income, expenses or
changes in equity. Whether a faithful representation can be provided may be affected by
A) measurement uncertainty or other factors.
B) existence uncertainty or measurement uncertainty
C) low probability of an inflow or outflow of economic benefits; or other factors
D) existence uncertainty or low probability of an inflow or outflow of economic benefits.

50. Which of the following items is incorrect concerning derecogntion?

A) Derecognition, which normally occurs when that item no longer meets the definition of an asset or
of a liability, is the removal of all or part of a recognized asset or liability from an entity’s
statement of financial position.
B) Transferred component refers to all those assets and liabilities that have expired or have been
consumed, collected, fulfilled or transferred.
C) No income or expenses are recognized on the retained component as a result of the derecognition
of the transferred component, unless the derecognition results in a change in the measurement
requirements applicable to the retained component.
D) An entity’s transfer of assets to another party should be derecognized.

Chapter 6 – Measurement
51. What are the two measurement basis under the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting (2018)?
A) historical cost and amortized cost C) historical cost and current value
B) historical cost and future value D) current value and future value

52. Which of the following statements about historical cost is incorrect?

A) Historical cost measures provide monetary information about assets, liabilities and related income
and expenses, using information derived, at least in part, from the price of the transaction or other
event that gave rise to them.
B) Historical cost does not reflect changes in values, except to the extent that those changes relate to
impairment of an asset or a liability becoming onerous.
C) One way to apply a historical cost measurement basis to financial assets and financial liabilities is
to measure them at amortized cost.
D) Historical cost provide monetary information about assets, liabilities and related income and
expenses, using information updated to reflect conditions at the measurement date.

53. All of the following measurement bases under current value category are considered exit values, except
A) fair value C) value in use
B) current cost D) fulfillment value
54. Which of the following statements about fair value is incorrect?
A) Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset, or paid to transfer a liability, in an
orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date.
B) Fair value reflects entity-specific assumptions rather than assumptions by market participants.
C) Because fair value is not derived, even in part, from the price of the transaction or other event that
gave rise to the asset or liability, fair value is not increased by the transaction costs incurred when
acquiring the asset and is not decreased by the transaction costs incurred when the liability is
incurred or taken on.
D) Fair value does not reflect the transaction costs that would be incurred on the ultimate disposal of
the asset or on transferring or settling the liability.

55. Which of the following statements about value in use and fulfillment value is incorrect?
A) Because value in use and fulfilment value are based on future cash flows, they do not include
transaction costs incurred on acquiring an asset or taking on a liability.
B) Value in use and fulfilment value include the present value of any transaction costs an entity
expects to incur on the ultimate disposal of the asset or on fulfilling the liability.
C) Value in use and fulfilment value reflect assumptions by market participants rather than entity-
specific assumptions.
D) Value in use and fulfilment value cannot be observed directly and are determined using cash-flow-
based measurement techniques.

56. Which of the following statements about current cost is incorrect?

A) The current cost of an asset is the cost of an equivalent asset at the measurement date, comprising
the consideration that would be paid at the measurement date plus the transaction costs that would
be incurred at that date.
B) The current cost of a liability is the consideration that would be received for an equivalent liability
at the measurement date minus the transaction costs that would be incurred at that date.
C) Current cost, like historical cost, is an entry value: it reflects prices in the market in which the
entity would acquire the asset or would incur the liability.
D) Current cost does not reflect conditions at the measurement date.

Chapter 7 – Presentation and Disclosure

57. Effective communication of information in the financial statements requires all of the following, except
A) Classifying information in a manner that groups similar items and separates dissimilar items.
B) Focusing on presentation and disclosure objectives and principles rather than focusing on rules.
C) Disclosing information about an items that is required to be presented in the financial statements.
D) Aggregating information in such a way that it is not obscured either by unnecessary detail or by
excessive aggregation.

58. Which of the following information about classification is incorrect?

A) Classification is applied to the unit of account selected for an asset or liability.
B) To provide useful information, it is not necessary to classify equity claims separately if those
equity claims have different characteristics.
C) Classification is applied to income and expenses resulting from the unit of account selected for an
asset or liability; or components of such income and expenses if those components have different
characteristics and are identified separately.
D) Offsetting occurs when an entity recognizes and measures both an asset and liability as separate
units of account, but groups them into a single net amount in the statement of financial position.

59. Which of the following information about aggregation is incorrect?

A) Aggregation is the adding together of assets, liabilities, equity, income or expenses that have
shared characteristics and are included in the same classification.
B) Aggregation makes information less useful by summarizing a large volume of detail.
C) Aggregation conceals some of that detail, hence, a balance needs to be found so that relevant
information is not obscured either by a large amount of insignificant detail or by excessive
 aggregation.
D) Different levels of aggregation may be needed in different parts of the financial statements.

Chapter 8 – Concepts of Capital and Capital Maintenance

60. What are the two capital concepts included in the scope of the Conceptual Framework for Financial
Reporting (2018)?
A) borrowed and invested capital C) accounting and economic capital
B) financial and physical capital D) monetary and non-monetary capital

61. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the concepts of capital?
A) Under a financial concept of capital, such as invested money or invested purchasing power, capital
is synonymous with the net assets or equity of the entity.
B) Under a physical concept of capital, such as operating capability, capital is regarded as the
productive capacity of the entity based on, for example, units of output per day.
C) A physical concept of capital is adopted by most entities in preparing their financial statements.
D) A financial concept of capital is adopted by most entities in preparing their financial statements.

62. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the concepts of capital?
A) The selection of the appropriate concept of capital by an entity should not be based on the needs of
the users of its financial statements.
B) A financial concept of capital should be adopted if the users of financial statements are primarily
concerned with the maintenance of nominal invested capital or the purchasing power of invested
capital.
C) A physical concept of capital should be used if the main concern of users is with the operating
capability of the entity.
D) The concept chosen indicates the goal to be attained in determining profit, even though there may
be some measurement difficulties in making the concept operational.

63. The following statements are concerned with concepts of capital maintenance and the determination of
profit. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Under financial capital maintenance concept, a profit is earned only if the financial (or money)
amount of the net assets at the end of the period exceeds the financial (or money) amount of net
assets at the beginning of the period, after excluding any distributions to, and contributions from,
owners during the period.
B) Under the physical capital maintenance concept, a profit is earned only if the physical productive
capacity (or operating capability) of the entity (or the resources or funds needed to achieve that
capacity) at the end of the period exceeds the physical productive capacity at the beginning of the
period, after excluding any distributions to, and contributions from, owners during the period.
C) Financial capital maintenance can be measured in either nominal monetary units or units of
constant purchasing power.
D) Physical capital maintenance can be measured in either nominal monetary units or units of constant
purchasing power.

64. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the concepts of capital maintenance?
A) It is concerned with how an entity defines the capital that it seeks to maintain.
B) It provides the linkage between the concepts of capital and the concepts of profit because it
provides the point of reference by which profit is measured.
C) It is not a prerequisite for distinguishing between an entity’s return on capital and its return of
capital.
D) Only inflows of assets in excess of amounts needed to maintain capital may be regarded as profit
and therefore as a return on capital.

65. The following statements are concerned with concepts of capital maintenance and the determination of
profit. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) The financial capital maintenance concept requires the adoption of the current cost basis of
measurement while the physical capital maintenance concept does not require the use of a
particular basis of measurement.
 B) The principal difference between the two concepts of capital maintenance (physical & financial) is
the treatment of the effects of changes in the prices of assets and liabilities of the entity.
C) The selection of the measurement bases and concept of capital maintenance will determine the
accounting model used in the preparation of the financial statements.
D) The Conceptual Framework is applicable to a range of accounting models and provides guidance
on preparing and presenting the financial statements constructed under the chosen model.

66. Which of the following statements is correct concepts of capital maintenance?

I. Under the concept of financial capital maintenance where capital is defined in terms of nominal
monetary units, profit represents the increase in nominal money capital over the period.
II. Under the concept of physical capital maintenance when capital is defined in terms of the physical
productive capacity, profit represents the increase in that capital over the period.
A) I only C) both I and II
B) II only D) neither I nor II