Industrial Security Management

Post Test- 2016

1. The form of security which involves safeguarding of personnel, processes, properties

and operations of business enterprises against pilferage, espionage, sabotage or other
hazards refers to
a. Physical security
b. Industrial security
c. Document and information security
d. Operational security
2. The form of security which generally involves measures taken to prevent unauthorized
access to the installation refers to
a. Physical security
b. Document and information security
c. Industrial security
d. Personnel security
3. The system of barriers placed between a potential intruder and the material or
installation to be protected pertains to
a. Physical security
b. Industrial security
c. Document and information security
d. Security
4. This deals primarily with the protection of processes, formulas, patents and other
industrial and manufacturing activities from espionage, infiltration, loss, compromise or
photocopying
a. Communication security
b. Industrial security
c. Operational security
d. Document and information security
5. The form of security that employs cryptography to protect information refers to
a. Document and information security
b. Communication security
c. Operational security
c. Industrial security
6. Rivers, cliffs and ravines are example of
a. Natural barriers c. Energy barriers
b. Structural barriers d. None of them
7. Walls, ceilings and fences are examples of
a. Natural barriers c. Energy barriers
b. Structural barriers d. All of them
8. The most common animal barrier used is
a. Dog c. Turkey
b. Goose d. All of them
9. The highest scoring dog for security work is
a. German Sheperd d. Doberman Pincher
b. Chihuahua e. German Sheperd
c. Pitbull
10. Protective lighting is an example of
a. Structural barrier c. Both of them
b. Energy barrier d. None of them
11. The generic term for a structure or physical device capable of restricting, impeding or
delaying entry to an installation is
a. Perimeter fence c. Barrier
b. Physical measure d. Wall
12. The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow complete visual access between
two areas is
a. Solid fence c. Semi-solid fence
b. Full-view fence d. All of them
13. The following are the disadvantages of a full-view fence, except:
a. It allows visual access to the installation which aids the intruder in planning
b. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the movements of persons in the
installation
c. It does not create shadows which could provide concealment in the intruder
d. none of them
14. The code uttered by security personnel when he is forced by armed men to enter the
installation which gives alarm to other personnel of the installation refers to
a. Duress code c. Activation code
b. Pass code d. Alarm code
15. The authenticated document containing the names of authorized person to enter the
installation is known as
a. Pass system c. Access list
b. Spot identification pass d. Employee logbook
16. The most secured form of visit control in an installation, though expensive is
a. Escort c. Visitor log
b. Timed travel d. Visitor entrance control
17. The following are the principle of physical security, except:
a. There is no impenetrable barrier
b. Defense in depth is barrier after barrier
c. Each installation is different
d. None of them
18. This refers to an additional overhang of barbed wire, place on vertical perimeter fences
facing upward and outward at 45 degrees angle
a. Tower guard c. Overhang
b. Top guard d. Hanover
19. The house-like structure above the perimeter barrier is known as
a. Lighthouse c. Tower house
b. Penthouse d. Tower guard/guard tower
20. This term is used to describe vital buildings, storage depots, vulnerable control points in
communication, power, light and water distribution systems
a. Vulnerable areas c. Sensitive areas
b. Weak areas d. Trouble points
21. The mechanical, hydraulic or electrical device designed to prevent entry in building,
room, container or hiding place refers to
a. Lock c. File room
b. Vault d. safety cabinet
22. The portable and detachable lock having a sliding hasp which passes through a staple
ring which is fastened or secured refers to
a. Padlock c. Tumbler lock
b. Warded lock d. Coded lock
23. The term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers and penetrators of restricted
areas or rooms refers to
a. Peterman c. Peter bright
b. Bright man d. Peter boy
24. This refers to a key that will open everything in a system involving two or more master
key groups
a. Grand master key c. Sub-master key
b. Master key d. Change key
25. The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an office or
installation refers to
 a. Safe c. File room
b. Vault d. All of them
26. The heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container, usually a part of the
building structure, which is made of steel of at least six inches in thickness and used to
keep cash, documents and negotiable instruments is called
a. Safe c. File room
b. Vault d. Cubicle
27. The device that is designed to alert personnel to consummated or attempted intrusion
into an area refers to
a. Alarm c. Detector
b. Activator d. All of them
28. This term refers to the critical on site examination and analysis of a public or private
installation to ascertain its current status and make recommendation for improving the
overall level of security
a. Security inspection c. Security assessment
b. Security survey d. Security evaluation
29. The device that is designed to provide illumination to areas that to be protected refers
to
a. Protective lighting c. Protective lighting
b. Alarm d. Illuminator
30. The following are the major aspects of security, except:
a. Physical security
b. Document and information security
c. Personnel security
d. Asset security
31. The state or condition of being free from danger or hazard is known as
a. Security c. Surety
b. Solemnity d. All of them
32. The classification of information and materials, the unauthorized disclosure of which
would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation is
a. Top secret c. Confidential
b. Secret d. Restricted
33. The evaluation of intelligence information that is completely reliable and confirmed by
other sources is
a. A1 c. B1
b. A2 d. B2
34. This refers to any potential danger to an installation personnel, document and
information
 a. Security risk c. Vulnerable point
b. Security hazard d. Sensitive area
35. The relationship of security to national economy is known as
a. Relative criticality c. Risk
b. Relative vulnerability d. National weakness
36. This refers to a check on how well existing security measures and regulations are being
carried out within a command of alleged security violation. It is intended to determine
compliance with security policies
a. Security survey c. Security evaluation
b. Security inspection d. Security assessment
37. The through, comprehensive and complete investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspects of a person’s life refers to
a. Background investigation
b. Partial background investigation
c. Complete background investigation
d. National and local agency check
38. The investigation of an individual made upon basis of written information supplied by
him to appropriate national and local agencies refers to
a. Agency check
b. Personnel security investigation
c. Complete background investigation
d. Loyalty check
39. The weakest among the three aspects of security is
a. Physical security
b. Document and information security
c. Personnel security
d. All of them
40. Information and materials, the unauthorized disclosure of which, while not endangering
national security, would be prejudicial to the prestige of the nation are classified as
a. Top secret c. Confidential
b. Secret d. Restricted
41. The authority to classify top secret information or material is exclusively vested upon
a. The congress
b. The senate
c. The head of the department concerned
d. All of them
42. The grant of access to classified matters, only to property cleared persons in the
performance of their duties is termed as
 a. Security clearance c. Compartmentation
b. Classification d. Need to know
43. The document authorizing a person to have access to classified matters refers to
a. Security clearance c. Compartmentation
b. Classification d. Authorization
44. The medium or structure which defines the physical limits of an installation and acts as
impediment to intruders refers to
a. Barrier c. Perimeter barrier
b. Divider d. Boundary mark
45. The following are types of physical barriers, except:
a. Natural barriers c. Animal barriers
b. Human barriers d. None of them
46. The following are the categories of automatic alarm system, except:
a. Photoelectric device c. Vibration detection device
b. Audio detection device d. Foot rail activator
47. Which among the following types of stationary lighting has an intensity focused upon
the intruder while the observer guard remains in comparative darkness and is usually
situated towards the entrance of an installation?
a. Glare projection type c. Stand-by lighting
b. Controlled d. Movable lighting
48. The type of light lamp that is most commonly used in protective lighting system is
a. Gaseous discharge lamp c. Mercury vapor lamp
b. Incandescent lamp d. Quartz lamp
49. These are lights projected in concentrated beam and are appropriate for use in instance
which call for illumination of boundaries, building of fences
a. Flood lights c. Fresnel lights
b. Search lights d. Street lights
50. Pedestrian gates should be lighted at least how many feet on either side?
a. 25 feet c. 10 feet
b. 15 feet d. Five feet
51. Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car doors
a. Warded lock c. Lever lock
b. Disc tumbler lock d. Combination lock
52. Disc tumbler lock poses a delay of approximately how many minutes?
a. 15 minutes c. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes d. 20 minutes
53. The type of lock that is opened by pressing a series of numbered button in proper
sequence refers to
 a. Combination lock c. Electromagnetic lock
b. Code operated lock d. Card operated lock
54. Which of the following is not a false key?
a. A picklock or similar tool
b. A duplicate key of the owner
c. A genuine key stolen from the owner
d. Any key other than those intended by the owner
55. The standard weight of a safe is
a. 500 lbs. c. 750 lbs.
b. 1000 lbs. d. 600 lbs.
56. The cubicle in a building constructed to accommodate limited people to work on the
records inside refers to
a. Safe c. File room
b. Vault d. Cubic room
57. The vault should be fire resistive for at least how many hours?
a. 8 c. 5
b. 10 d. 6
58. The following are the purposes of security survey, except:
a. To determine degree of protection needed by the installation
b. To locate weakness in defense
c. To recommend security program
d. None of them
59. The third line of defense of an installation are the
a. Doors, floors, roofs, walls and window
b. Protective locks and keys
c. Perimeter fences
d. Storage systems
60. The ideal clear zone should be at least how many feet?
a. 10 ft. c. 20 ft.
b. 25 ft. d. 30 ft.
61. The measures taken to prevent unauthorized access to classified documents or
information refers to
a. Physical security
b. Personnel security
c. Document and information security
d. Prevention security
62. The private security agency law in the Philippines refers to
a. RA 8294 c. RA 5487
b. RA 9372 d. RA 5478
63. The measures taken to promote the awareness of personnel on the existing security
measures of an installation refers to
a. Security survey c. Security education
b. Security inspection d. Security campaign
64. The measures taken to protect heads of states, foreign national or local dignities, civilian
or military from personal injury, assassination, espionage or sabotage pertains to
a. Personnel security c. Personal protection program
b. VIP security d. Escort service
65. Barbed wire is intended for
a. Fixed structure c. Semi-permanent structure
b. Temporary structure d. Any of them
66. Any person, association or partnership who furnishes or posts any security guard to
provide security assistance to a firm or installation with a corresponding compensation
pertains to
a. Private security agency c. Government security unit
b. Company security force d. All of them
67. One who offers personal services to watch or secure an installation other than members
of the AFP, PNP or other law enforcement agencies of the government refers to
a. Security guard c. Caretaker
b. Guardian d. Detective
68. This refers to a document issued by the PNP Chief or his duly authorized representative
recognizing a person to be qualified to perform his duties as security guard or detective
a. License to operate
b. License certificate
c. License to exercise profession
d. Both b and c
69. This refers to security force maintained and operated by any private corporation for its
own security requirements only
a. Private security agency c. Government Guard Unit
b. Company Security Guard Force d. CAFGU
70. The operator or manager of the security agency shall be at least how many years of age?
a. 18 c. 25
b. 21 d. 35
71. The initial number of guards employed by a Private Security Agency on its first year of
operation should be at least
 a. 100 c. 300
b. 200 d. 500
72. The minimum number of guards required for a Private Security Agency is
a. 100 c. 300
b. 200 d. 500
73. During the first year of operation, a branch office of a PSA could have an initial
employment of at least
a. 10 guards c. 30 guards
b. 20 guards d. 50 guards
74. The minimum required number of guards to be employed by a branch of PSA starting in
its third year of operation shall not be less than
a. 20 c. 40
b. 30 d. 50
75. The tenure of a security guard is
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. Co-terminus with the service contact
d. It depends upon the services to be provided
76. The following are the qualification of a security manager, except:
a. A Filipino citizen
b. Must not be less than 25 years of age
c. College graduate
d. Active member of the PNP or AFP
77. The minimum educational qualification for a security guard shall be
a. Elementary graduate c. High school graduate
b. High school level d. College level
78. The minimum age qualification of a security guard shall be
a. 18 c. 25
b. 21 d. 20
79. The maximum age qualification of a security guard is
a. 50 c. 56
b. 60 d. 65
80. A security consultant must have at least how many years of experience in the
management and operation of a security business?
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 20
81. New applicant’s for a PSA’s license to operate shall be required to obtain a minimum
capital of
 a. One million pesos
b. Five hundred thousand pesos
c. One hundred thousand pesos
d. Two hundred thousand pesos
82. New applicant for a PSA’s license to operate shall have a minimum bank deposit of
a. One million pesos
b. Five hundred thousand pesos
c. One hundred thousand pesos
d. Two hundred thousand pesos
83. PSA’s with temporary license to operate having 200 guards or more but not exceeding
1000 shall be issued a regular license to operate good for
a. 1 year c. 3 years
b. 2 years d. 6 months
84. The validity of license to operate issued upon a new PSA is
a. 1 year c. 3 years
b. 2 years d. 6 months
85. The extension period for a license to operate upon a PSA that lacks the required
minimum number of guards is
a. 1 year d. 6 months
b. 2 years e. 5 months
c. 1 month
86. The maximum number of guards that a PSA could employ is
a. 500 c. 1000
b. 800 d. 2000
87. PSA’s with 800 to 1000 guards shall have a surety bond of
a. 50,000 pesos c. 200,000 pesos
b. 100,000 pesos d. 250,000 pesos
88. The minimum number of guards required for a company security is
a. 100 c. 30
b. 50 d. 20
89. PSA’s are entitled to possess the following firearms, except:
a. Low power rifle d. Shotgun higher than 12 gauge
b. Caliber .22 pistol e. None of them
c. Caliber .38
90. The minimum firearm-to-security guard is
a. 1:1 c. 1:3
b. 1:2 d. 1:4
91. PSA’s with 100 guards who do not have yet the minimum of firearm required must
initially procure at least how many pieces of licensed firearms?
a. 10 c. 30
b. 20 d. 40
92. PSA’s applying for regular license to operate must possess at least how many pieces of
licensed firearms?
a. 50 c. 70
b. 60 d. 100
93. The total number of high-powered firearms that a PSA should possess must not exceed
how many percent of the total number of guards that it employed?
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 20
94. The total number of high-powered firearms that a company security force should
possess must not exceed how many percent of the total number of guards that it
employed?
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 20
95. The primary training required for a security guard to renew his license is
a. Basic security guard course
b. Re-training course
c. Security officer’s training course
d. Basic security supervisory course
96. Sabotage, espionage, pilferage and theft are examples of
a. Human hazards c. Critical acts
b. Natural Hazards d. All of them
97. The importance of an establishment with reference to the national economy and
security refers to
a. Relative criticality c. Relative susceptibility
b. Relative vulnerability d. Relative economy
98. The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of operations
due to various hazards refers to
a. Relative criticality c. Relative vulnerability
b. Relative economy d. Relative susceptibility
99. The are near or adjacent to limited or exclusive areas where entry is restricted refers to
a. Controlled area c. Restricted area
b. Exclusive area d. Clear zone
100. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a perimeter barrier on the
exterior parallel to afford better observation of the installation refers to
a. Clear zone c. Parallel zone
b. Open zone d. Free zone