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CSAT TEST - 3 17-Apr-20 15-22

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59 views

CSAT TEST - 3 17-Apr-20 15-22

Uploaded by

Mritunjoy Roy
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
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Total Marks : 200

Online Prelims CSAT TEST - 3


( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 ) Mark Scored : 91.67

1 Two, trains, one from Mumbai to New Delhi and the other from New Delhi to Mumbai, start
simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours
respectively. What is the ratio of their speed?

A. 5:4
B. 4:3
C. 3:2
D. 2:1

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Standard Formula: If two objects A and B begin their journey at the same time from two points P
and Q towards each other and after crossing each other they take a and b hours in reaching Q and P
respectively, then 13 7
2
A’s speed/ B’s Speed = (√b/√a) 8 25
3
- hours. 86
By looking at the above problem, we can say that, a=9 hours, b=16
o m
a or 4:3
Therefore, Ratio of speeds of two trains = √16/√9 = 4/3 il.c
@ gm
Hence, option (b) is correct.
05
6
5 12
r7 There are nine less English books than the Biology books and
2 A library contains three types of books.
m
y - the Chemistry books. If there are 54 English books, then how many
fifteen more English books than
o
R
books are there in the library?
y
n j o
A. 154 tu
B.M ri
155
C. 146
D. 156

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Given that English books in the library = 54.


Since, the number of Biology books are nine more than the number of English books, the number of
Biology books = 54 + 9 = 63.
Since, number of Chemistry books are fifteen less than English books. So, the number of Chemistry
books = 54 – 15 = 39.
Hence, the total number of books in library = 54 + 63 + 39 = 156.
Hence, option (d) is the correct.

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Total Marks : 200
Online Prelims CSAT TEST - 3
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3 A milkman sells milk at the rate of Rs 50 per liter. The milk sold contains 25% water. Assuming that
the cost of the milk is Rs. 40 per liter, what is the profit per liter made by the milkman?

A. Rs. 20
B. Rs. 15
C. Rs. 10
D. Rs. 25

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Milk contains 25% water and 75% milk.


Therefore, 1 liter milk contains only 750 ml of milk.
Cost of 750 ml milk = 40 * (750/1000) = 40 * 3/4 = Rs. 30
1 3
27
25
38per liter.
Since, 750 ml of milk is diluted to one liter and sold at the rate of Rs. 50
6
Selling price of 1 Liter milk = Rs. 50.
- 8
Profit per liter = Rs. 50 – Rs. 30 = Rs. 20. m o
.c
ail
Hence, option (a) is the correct. @ gm
0 5
6
4 A candidate is required to answer 6 7out
12
5 of 10 questions which are divided into two groups each
containing 5 questions. He is notm r
permitted to attempt more than 4 from each group. In how many
y -
ways he can make up the choice?
o
j oyR
A. 210 n
r
B. 200it u
C.M190
D. 42

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Number of ways of choosing 6 from 10 = 10C6 = 210.

Number of ways of attempting more than 4 from a group, = 2*5C5 *5C1=10. ⇒Required number of
ways = 210 −10= 200

Hence, option (b) is correct.

5 In a class, the number of girls is 20% more than that of the boys. The strength of the class is 66. If 4 more girls are admitted to
the class, then what will be the ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls?

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A. 1:2
B. 3:4
C. 5:4
D. 4:3

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Let the number of boys = x


Then, the number of girls (20% more than that of boys) =x+(20/100)x =(120/100)x =(6/5)x
Total number of boys and girls in class is 66.
Therefore, x + (6/5)x = 66

 x= 30
1 3
The number of girls = 66 – 30 = 36 27
2536 + 4 = 40
Now, the number of total girls after 4 new girls are admitted to the class8=
46
New ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls = 30 : 40 = 3 :8
3
-
Hence, option (b) is the correct m o
.c
ail
gm of the tank is filled, two more taps with same
6 A tap can fill a water tank in 8 minutes. After one fourth
@
capacity are opened. What is the total time taken5 to fill the tank completely?
0
6
5 12
A. 6 minutes 7
B. 4 minutes
- mr
y
Ro
C. 3 minutes
D. 5 minutes
j oy
u n
rit : C
Your Answer
M Answer : B
Correct

Answer Justification :

Since 1 part is filled in 8 minutes.


Therefore, 1/4 part is filled in 8×1/4 = 2 minutes.
Remaining part = 1 - ¼ = 3/4.
Since 1 part is filled in 8 minute, therefore, in 1 minute 1/8 part is filled.
Hence, in 1 minute, part filled by 3 (=1+2) taps = 3/8.

Since 3/8 part is filled in 1 minute.


Therefore, 1 part is filled in 1/(3/8) = 8/3 minutes.
Therefore, 3/4 part is filled in (8/3)×(3/4) = 2 minutes.
So, the total time taken = 2 + 2 = 4 minutes.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

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Total Marks : 200
Online Prelims CSAT TEST - 3
( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 ) Mark Scored : 91.67

7 If a train travels at 60 km/hr from Bangalore to Hyderabad and at 80 km/hr on return trip from
Hyderabad to Bangalore. What is its average speed for the entire trip?

A. 70 km/hr
B. 65.5 km/hr
C. 68.5 km/hr
D. 75 km/hr

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Standard Formula: If a certain distance is covered at x km/hr and the same distance is covered at
y km/hr, then

Average speed =[2xy/(x+y)] km/hr 1 3


5 27
2
By looking at the above problem, we can say that, x= 60 km/hr and
6 38
y= 80km/hr. -8
.c om
a il
Therefore, average speed = [(2 * 60 * 80)/(60+80)] km/hr

@ gm
9600/140 = 68. 57 km/hr 6 05
5 12
m r7
y-
Hence, option (c) is correct.
o
j oyR
u n
8 There are four consecutive numbers in a series. The product of the first three and the last three
t
i series are 504 and 720 respectively. What is the sum of first and the last numbers?
numbers ofrthe
M
A. 18
B. 26
C. 17
D. 12

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Let the consecutive numbers be x, x+1, x+2 and x+3 .

It is given that product of the first three numbers= 504.

Therefore, x * (x+1) * (x+2) = 504 ----(Eq 1)

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Also, it is given that product of the last three numbers= 720

Therefore, (x+1) * (x+2) * (x+3) =720 ….(Eq 2)

Dividing Eq 1 by Eq 2, we get

[x * (x+1) * (x+2)]/[ (x+1) * (x+2) * (x+3)] = 504/720

x/(x+3) = 7/10

10x = 7x+21

3x = 21 or x = 7 and x+3= 10.

1 3
Thus, sum of first and last number = 10+7 =17.
5 27
2
Hence, option (c) is correct.
6 38
-8
m
9 A report consists of 10 sheets each of 110 lines and each such
i l .coline consists of 65 characters. This
a line consists of 22 characters. The
report is retyped into sheets each of 65 lines such that each
approximate percentage change in number of sheets gmare
@
5
2 60
A. 200 1
B. 800 r 75
m
y-
C. 400
D. 350 o
j oyR
n
it u
Your Answer :
Correct rAnswer : C
M
Answer Justification :

Total volume of first report = (110 × 10 × 65) = 71500


Let n be the number of pages.
Therefore, the new volume will be (65 × 22 × n) = 1430n
As the volume remains same, we can say that 71500 = 1430n
 n = 50 sheets.
Clearly, the sheets increased by (50 –10 = 40)

Therefore, percentage increase in number of sheets = (40/10) * 100 = 400 %

Hence, option (c) is correct.

10 Carpenter A can make a chair in 8 hours, carpenter B in 7 hours and carpenter C in 6 hours. If each
carpenter works for 8 hours per day, how many chairs will be made in 21 days?

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A. 73
B. 63
C. 83
D. 75

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

It is given that:

Carpenter A can make a chair in 8 hours.

Carpenter B can make a chair in 7 hours.

Carpenter C can make a chair in 6 hours


1 3
27
25 of hours worked is
Now, if each carpenter works for 8 hours per day for 21 days, then total number
8
21 * 8 or 168 hours by each carpenter. 63
-8
Now , in 168 hours Carpenter A can make (168/8) chairs =o
21mchairs.
a il.c
In 168 hours Carpenter B can make (168/7) chairsm = 24 chairs.
@ g
0 5chairs
In 168 hours Carpenter C can make (168/6)
2 6 = 28 chairs.

7 51 together = 21+24+28 = 73 chairs


mr
Therefore, total number of chairs done

y -
Hence, option (a) is o correct.
y R
j o
t
11 The length iof ua nrectangle is decreased by 20% and breadth increased by 20%. What will be the net
Mr increase/decrease in the area of the rectangle?
percentage

A. Increase by 44%
B. Remain the same
C. Increase by 4%
D. Decrease by 4%

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Let the original length of the rectangle is x units

Let the original length of the rectangle be y units.

Thus, original area of rectangle = xy units^2 .

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Total Marks : 200
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If the length of a rectangle is decreased by 20%, then new length will be 0.8 x units.

If breadth of rectangle is increased by 20%, then new breadth will be 1.2 y units.

Area of new rectangle will be 0.8x * 1.2y units^2

Area of new rectangle will be = 0.96 xy units^2

Hence, Area of new rectangle will be 4 % less than the area of original rectangle.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

12 A man buys an article for 20% less than its value and sells it for 20 % more than its value. What is his
gain in percentage?

1 3
A. 50%
5 27
2
38
B. 0%
6
-8
C. 30%
D. Cannot be determined
o m
il.c
ma
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A
@ g
0 5
Answer Justification : 126
5
Unconventional Method: m r7
-
oy
yR
Let’s assume actual value of article is Rs. 100.

u njo
itbuying price is 100-20 = Rs. 80 (As man bought with 20% less than actual value).
Therefore,
r
M
Selling price of article is 100 + 20 = Rs. 120 (As man sold with 20% more than actual value).

Therefore, gain in percentage = [(120-80)/80] * 100

 (40/80) * 100 = 50 %

Hence, option (a) is correct

Formula Method:

Let the original price of the article be ‘x’.

Buying price will be (80/100)x = 0.8x.

Selling price will be (120/100)x = 1.2x

Therefore, gain in percentage =(profit/buying price) * 100

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[(1.2x-0.8x)/0.8 x]* 100

0.5x * 100 = 50 %

Hence, option (a) is correct.

13 Two trains of lengths 150 m and 180 m respectively are running in opposite directions on parallel
tracks. If their speed is 50 km/hour and 58 km/hour respectively. In how much time will they cross
each other?

A. 11 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 22 seconds
D. 9 seconds
1 3
Your Answer : A 5 27
2
Correct Answer : A
6 38
-8
Answer Justification :
o m
il.c
Standard Formula:
gma
@
05 L1 and L2 respectively, and their speeds are S1 and
Suppose A and B are two objects with lengths
6
12direction, then
S2 respectively and moving in opposite
5
7
mr
- of the objects)/(Relative speed of the objects)
Crossing Time (Ct)= (Length

R oy
j oy +S2)
Thus, Ct= (L1+L2)/(S1

i t un
Mr
By looking at the above problem, we can say that,

L1= 150 m,

L2= 180 m,

S1= 50 km/hr

S2= 58 km/hr

Relative speed= (S1+S2)= 108 km/hr or (108 * 5/18) m/s = 30 m/s.

Therefore, crossing time Ct= (L1+L2)/ Relative speed

Ct= (150 m+180 m)/ 30 m/s

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Ct= 330 m / 30 m/s = 11 seconds

Hence, option (a) is correct.

14 Somebody has asked Amit about his age he said “My age is neither a perfect square nor a perfect
cube”. He also said “My age is less than 60 years and more than 70 years”. What is Amit’s age if it is
known that Amit always lies?

A. 64 years
B. 72 years
C. 81 years
D. Cannot be determined.

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : A
1 3
5 27
Answer Justification : 2
6 38
-8
Since, it is known that Amit always lies, we should reverse his statements.

.c om
a l
Therefore, his age is both perfect square as well as iperfect cube as he said “My age is neither a
perfect square nor a perfect cube”.
@ gm
5 than 70 years as he said My age is less than 60
0less
Also, his age is more than 60 years and 6
years and more than 70 years” 5 12
m r7
y-
Thus, we have to find out for a number between 60 and 70 which is both perfect square as well as
perfect cube. Hence R 64o(i.e 8^2 and 4^3) is the required number.
j oy
Hence, option
i t un (a) is correct.
Mr
15 Directions for the following 3 (three) items
Study the given information carefully and answer the question that follows:
There are six members A, B, C, D, E and F in a family having different professions such as Doctor,
interior decorator, teacher, engineer, doctor and lawyer but not necessarily in respective order.
There are two married couples in the family. D is a doctor and his wife is an interior decorator. A is
the granddaughter of F and sister of C, who is a teacher. B is the grandfather of C and is married to a
professor. A’s mother is an interior decorator and is the daughter-in-law of an engineer.
Q. What is the profession of A?

A. Professor
B. Engineer
C. Lawyer
D. Cannot be determined

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C

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Answer Justification :

From the above given information, we can have following observations:

D is doctor and married. D’s wife is interior designer.

A is sister of C who is a teacher.

A is granddaughter of F.

A’s mother is interior designer.

A’s mother is daughter in law of Engineer, thus A is granddaughter of Engineer.

B is grandfather of C. Since, A is sister of C, thus B is grandfather of A as well.

1 3
527
2
Since, both B and F are grandparents to A and C, B and F are married8couple.
6 3
Since, B is married to professor, F’s profession is professor. -8
.c om
Since, A is granddaughter of Engineer, B’s profession a ilis Engineer.
@ gm
05
Remaining person is E, who is mother of A and is interior designer by profession. D and E are
6
12
married couple.
5
Remaining, profession is Lawyer.
m r7Therefore, A’s profession is lawyer.
y -
Hence, option (c) is o
Rcorrect.
y
u njo
r itfollowing is a married couple?
16 Which of the
M
A. B, E
B. B, F
C. B, D
D. A, B

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

As the observations made in the previous problem it is clear that married couple are B and F as well
as D and E.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

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17 Who is the wife of D?

A. E
B. F
C. A
D. B

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

As the observations made in the previous problem it is clear that married couple are B and F as well
as D and E.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


1 3
527
18 Ramesh sold an article for Rs. 6,750 after giving a discount of 10% on the8 2 price. He would
labeled
3
have earned a profit of 50%, had there been no discount. What was the6actual percentage of profit
earned? -8
o m
il.c
ma
A. 26%
B. 30%
@ g
C. 35% 0 5
D. 45% 126
5
m r7
Your Answer : C -
Correct Answer : C oy
j oyR
i t un
Answer Justification :

Mr
Let the marked price of the article be Rs. x

Discount = 10%
Then, the selling price = – 10% of = (9x/10)
Now,= (9x/10)= 6750 Or x = Rs. 7,500
As per the question, if the selling price is Rs. 7,500, then the profit earned by the Ramesh is 50%.
So, the cost price = Rs. 5,000
Therefore, the actual percentage of profit earned by selling the article for Rs. 6,750 = (Profit/CP) ×
100 =(1750/5000)× 100 = 35%
Hence, option (c) is the correct.

19 What can be the maximum sum of Sundays and Mondays in a leap year?

A. 106
B. 104
C. 103

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D. 101

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

A leap year has 366 days, that is exactly 52 full weeks and 2 extra days.

For maximum Sundays and Mondays , year has to be started with Sunday.
So maximum required days = 52 * 2 + 2 = 106.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

20 If total 66 handshakes occurred when each student shakes hand with every other student inside a
classroom, how many students are there in the classroom?
1 3
5 27
A. 10 2
B. 12 6 38
C. 11 -8
D. 15 o m
il.c
Your Answer : gma
Correct Answer : B 5 @
0
126
Answer Justification : 5
m r7
y - of handshakes = 66
It is given that total number

y Ro
no
Let the numberjof students be n.
u
ithandshakes = n (n-1)/2
r
Then, total
M
Therefore, n (n-1) = 66 *2

n^2 – n =132
n^2 – n – 132 = 0
By solving quadratic equation we get, n= 12.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

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21 Directions for the following 5 (five) items:


The following information is about the production of cars by 3 different companies from
Monday to Friday in a specific week.
Read the information carefully and answer the following question:–

The total production by 3 companies on Monday was 540 out of which one- third cars were produced
by Tata.
The number of cars produced by Renault on Monday is less than the cars produced by Tata on
Monday by the same extent as the number of cars produced by Maruti on Monday is more than the
cars produced by Tata on
Monday. The difference between cars produced by Renault and Maruti on Monday is 40.
150 cars are produced by Tata on Tuesday, which is 100 less than the cars produced by the same
company on Wednesday. A total of 910 cars were produced by Tata from Monday to Friday.
The ratio between cars produced by Tata on Thursday to cars produced by the same company on
Friday is 5 : 6.
220 cars were produced by Renault on Tuesday, which is 80 less than the cars produced by Maruti on
Wednesday. A total of 570 cars were produced on Tuesday, which is 76% of the total cars produced
on Wednesday.
The number of cars produced by Maruti on Thursday is two-third more than cars 7 13 by Tata on
produced
the same day. Total 580 cars were produced on Thursday. 2 52
38 140 cars were
The number of cars produced by Maruti on Friday is same as that on Monday.
6
produced by Renault on Friday. -8
mon Wednesday?
Q. Find the ratio between total cars produced on Monday to that
o
.c
ail
A. 18 : 29
@ gm
B. 18 : 25
05
6
12
C. 18 : 31
D. 3:5
7 5
- mr
Your Answer : y
Correct Answer : B
y Ro
n j o
it u
Answer Justification :
Mr
By the deducing the information given above, we can get the following table

Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday


Toyota 180 150 250 150 180
Renault 160 220 200 180 140
Maruti 200 200 300 250 200
Total 540 570 750 580 520

The ratio between total cars produced on Monday to that on Wednesday

= 540/750 = 18 : 25

Hence, option (b) is correct.

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22 Find the total number of cars produced by Renault from Monday to Friday.

A. 900
B. 980
C. 950
D. 960

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The total number of cars produced by Renault from Monday to Friday

= 160+220+200+180+140

= 900 13
5 27
2
Hence, option (a) is correct.
6 38
-8
m Monday to Friday. (approximate)
23 Find the average number of cars produced per day by Marutiofrom
il .c
m a
@g
A. 230
B. 220 0 5
C. 270
126
5
D. 240
m r7
-
Your Answer :
R oy
y
Correct Answer : A
u njo
it
AnswerrJustification :
M
The average number of cars produced per day by Maruti from Monday to Friday =
(200+200+300+250+200)/5

= 1150/5

= 230

Hence, option (a) is correct.

24 On which pair of days out of the following, the number of cars produced by Tata is the same?

A. Tuesday and Wednesday


B. Wednesday and Thursday
C. Tuesday and Thursday
D. Monday and Wednesday

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Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

The number of cars produced by Tata is the same on Monday and Friday (180) as well as Tuesday
and Thursday (150).

Hence, option (c) is correct.

25 On which day the total number of cars produced was the maximum?

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday
1 3
5 27
2
38
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C 6
-8
om
il.c
Answer Justification :
a
@ gm
From the table, it is clear that on Wednesday (750 cars), total number of cars produced was the
maximum. 5 0
6
Hence, option (c) is correct. 5 12
7
mr
y-
Ro is equal to the selling price of 12 pens, what is the profit in percentage?
26 If the cost price of 16 pens
y
n j o
A. 25%tu
B.M ri
33.33%
C. 20%
D. 75%

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

It can be clearly seen from the given data that selling 12 pens equals to cost price of 16 pens.

Therefore, selling 3 pens = cost price of 4 pens.

So, profit in percentage = [(4-3)/3] * 100 = 33.33 %

Hence, option (b) is correct.

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27 Amit and his grandfather differ in their ages by 50 years. If the sum of their ages is 152 after 6 years
from now, then what are their present ages (in years)?

A. 25, 75
B. 30, 80
C. 45, 95
D. 50, 100

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

It is given that Amit and his grandfather differ in their ages by 50 years.

Let the age of Amit be x.


1 3
Then, age of Amit’s grandfather = x + 50.
5 27
2
6 38
-8
After 6 years from now, age of Amit will be x+6 years.

After 6 years from now, age of Amit’s grandfather will be c om + 6 years.


(x+50)
a il.
m 6 years from now.
Also, it is given that, the sum of their ages is 152gafter
5 @
So, substituting the values, we get x+6 + 6 0
(x+50) +6 = 152.
5 12
2x+62 =152
m r7
2x= 90
o y-
yR
x=45.
j o
un present age = 45 years.
Therefore,tAmit’s
i
M r
Present age of Amit’s grandfather = 95 years

Hence, option (c) is correct.

28 A team of 11 is to be selected from 7 batsmen and 6 bowlers available. The team must have at least 5
bowlers. In how many ways can it be done?

A. 51
B. 48
C. 44
D. 63

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

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As the team must have at least 5 bowlers, two cases are possible:

Case I: Team has 5 bowlers out of 6 bowlers and 6 batsmen out of 7 batsmen. Number of ways of
choosing such a team = Number of ways of choosing 5 bowlers out of 6 and 6 batsmen out of 7 =
6C5 * 7C6 = 6 * 7 = 42.

OR

Case II: Team has 6 bowlers out of 6 bowlers and 5 batsmen out of 7 batsmen. Number of ways of
choosing such a team = Number of ways of choosing 6 bowlers out of 6 and 5 batsmen out of 7 =
6C6 * 7C5 = 1 * 21 = 21.
Hence, total ways possible = 42 + 21 = 63.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

29 In a group of 1500 people, 700 can speak Hindi, 500 can speak English and 150 can speak both. Find
3
the number of people who can speak at most one language? 71 2
5
A. 1250 3 82
6
B. 600 -8
C. 1350 o m
D. 1050 il.c
gma
Your Answer : C 5 @
0
Correct Answer : C
126
5
Answer Justification : m r7
-
oy
people who canjo
y R who can speak at most one language = Total number of people – Number of
The number of people
speak both the languages
n
itu = 1350
 1500 – 150
Mr
Hence, option (c) is correct.

30 The monthly income of Ramesh and Suresh are in the ratio 4:3 and the ratio of their expenditure is
3:2. If each of them saves Rs. 6000 then by what percentage is Ramesh income more than that of
Suresh income?

A. 45%
B. 33.33%
C. 60%
D. 20%

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

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Let the income of Ramesh and Suresh be 4x and 3x respectively


And the Expenses of Ramesh and Suresh are 3y and 2y respectively.
As it is given that each of them saves Rs. 6000 monthly.

Therefore,
Savings of Ramesh = 4x – 3y = 6000 ......(Eq 1)
Saving of Suresh = 3x -2y = 6000 .......(Eq 2)
Subtracting (2) from (1) gives
x –y = 0, i.e. x = y ................(Eq 3)
Using (Eq 3) in (Eq 1) we get, x = 6000.
So, Ramesh’s Income = 4x = 24000
Suresh’s income = 3x =18000
Net difference = 24000 – 18000 = 6000
Required percentage = 6000/18000 × 100% = 33.33%
Hence, option (b) is the correct

1 3
31 Directions for the following 5 (five) items: 27
Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that
8 25
follow.
8 63
-
Total number of students studying in various colleges over the years
o m
il.c
gma
5 @
0
126
5
m r7
-
oy
j oyR
n
rit u
M

Q. What is the ratio of the number of students studying in College A to the number of students
studying in College E in the year 2012?

A. 15 : 14
B. 7:8
C. 9:8
D. 10 : 11

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

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The number of students studying in College A in the year 2012 = 980.

The Number of students studying in College E in the year 2012 = 1120

Therefore, the required ratio = 908:1120 = 7 : 8.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

32 What is the difference between the average number of students studying in College A over the given
period and the average number of students studying in College ‘C’ over the same period?

A. 30
B. 40
C. 25
D. 20

1 3
Your Answer :
5 27
Correct Answer : D 2
6 38
Answer Justification : -8
.c om
l the given period
The average number of students studying in College Aiover
a
= (860 + 910 +930 + 990 + 980 +940)/6 @ gm
6 05
= 5610/6
5 12
m r7
y-
= 935
o
The average number
j oy Rof students studying in College C over the given period
i t un
Mr
= (780 +820 + 910 + 980 + 980 +1020)/6

= 5490/6

= 915

Therefore, difference = 935 – 915 = 20

Hence, option (d) is correct.

33 What is the difference between the total number of students studying in College B over the given
period and the total number of students studying in College D over the same period?

A. 202
B. 112
C. 32
D. 212

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Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

The total number of students studying in College B over the given period

= 890 + 980 + 1040 + 1000 + 940 + 960

= 5810

The total number of students studying in College D over the given period

= 900 + 970 + 908 + 940 + 960 + 920

= 5598

Therefore, the difference = 5810 – 5598 = 212. 13


5 27
2
Hence, option (d) is correct.
6 38
-8
m the given period?
oover
34 What is the average number of students studying in College E
il .c
m a
@g
A. 908
B. 980 0 5
C. 960 126
5
D. 940
m r7
-
Your Answer :
R oy
y
Correct Answer : B
njo
i tu
AnswerrJustification :
M
The average number of students studying in College E over the given period

= (840 + 880 + 990 + 1000 + 1050 + 1120)/6

= 5880/6

= 980

Hence, option (b) is correct.

35 The number of students studying in College C in the year 2010 is approximately what per cent of the
total number of students studying in various colleges in that year?

A. 20
B. 23

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C. 17
D. 25

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The number of students studying in College C in the year 2010 = 980.

The total number of students studying in various colleges in that year

= 990 + 1000 + 980 + 940 + 1000

= 4910

Therefore, required percentage = (980/4910) * 100 = 19.95 (Approx 20 %)


1 3
Hence, option (a) is correct. 527
2
38
- 86
36 The difference of cubes of two consecutive numbers is 3 less than the cube of the smaller number.
What is the product of the two numbers? .c om
a il
A. 20 @ gm
B. 30
6 05
C. 42
5 12
D. 12
m r7
o y-
yR
Your Answer :
Correct Answerjo :A

i t un
AnswerrJustification :
M
Let the two consecutive numbers be ‘x’ and ‘x+1’.

As per given condition, (x+1)^3 – x^3 = x^3 – 3.

Formula: [a +b] ^3 = (a^3 + 3ba^2 + 3ab^2 + b^3)

Therefore, x^3 + 3x^2 + 3x + 1 – x^3 = x^3 - 3

 x^3 – 3x^2 – 3x – 4 = 0

 by trial and error we get x= 4, x+1= 5

Therefore product of such numbers = 4 * 5 = 20.

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Hence, option (a) is correct.

37 On dividing a number by 5, we get 3 as remainder. What will be the remainder when the square of
this number is divided by 5?

A. 3
B.
C. 1
D. 4

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

13 5 we get
Unconventional Method: Assume a smallest possible number, which when divided by
7
reminder of 3. The number is (5*0 +3)= 3 2 5
2
Now, 3 ^2 = 9. 6 38
-8
By dividing 9 by 5 we get remainder of 4. o m
il.c
Hence, option (d) is correct
gma
5 @
0
26
Formula Method:
5 1
Let the number be 5x+3. r7
y -m
Ro (25x^2 + 30x + 9)/5
Therefore, [(5x + 3)^2]/5=
y
25x^2/5
u n+jo30 x/5 + 9/5
rit will be 0+0+4= 4
Reminder
M
Hence, option (d) is correct.

38 To five litre of 20% sulphuric acid, seven and half litre of 80% sulphuric acid is added. What is the
strength of the acid in the mixture now?

A. 56%
B. 52%
C. 44%
D. 40%

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

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Percentage strength of the acid in the mixture = Quantity (volume) of the acid in the mixture/Total
volume × 100
= [(5*20/100) + (7.5*80/100)/(5+7.5)] *100 = (5*20+7.5*80) /(5+7.5) = 56%.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

39 The average age of 60 students is 20 years. When 15 new students are admitted, the average
increases by 0.4 years. What must be the average age of the new students?

A. 22 years
B. 23 years
C. 24 years
D. None of these

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A
1 3
527
2
38
Answer Justification :

-
Let the average age of the newly admitted 15 students be x years.
86
Therefore, total age of 15 newly admitted students = 15x com
Since given average age of existing 60 students = 20ail
.
m
g60×20
Therefore, total age of the existing 60 students =
@
Hence, total age of the 75 students = 60×205+ 15x
0 increases by 0.4 years.
26
Since average after admission of new students
1
5
So new average = 20.4 yearsm r7
 60×20 + 15x =75×20.4
o y-
 1200 + 15x = 1530
j oyR
n
 15x = 1530-1200
it u
 15x = r330
 x =M330/15
 x = 22 years

Hence, option (a) is correct.

40 In New Delhi, the mean temperature from Tuesday to Thursday was 35°C and from Wednesday to
Friday was 38°C. If the temperature on Friday was 25% higher than that on Tuesday, then the
temperature in on Friday was:

A. 45°C
B. 40°C
C. 50°C
D. None of these

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Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Mean temperature from Tuesday to Thursday = 35°C


Therefore, (Tuesday + Wednesday +Thursday)/3 = 35°C
or total temperature of (Tuesday + Wednesday + Thursday = 105℃.. (Eq 1)

Mean temperature from Wednesday to Friday = 38 ℃

Therefore, (Wednesday + Thursday + Friday)/3 = 38°C


or Total temperature of Wednesday + Thursday + Friday = 114 °C.. (Eq 2)

By subtracting (Eq 2) – from Eq 1, we get:


1 3
Temperatures of (Friday – Tuesday) = 9 °C
527
Given that temperature on Friday was 25% higher than Tuesday 2
38
Therefore, Friday = 1.25 Tuesday
Friday – Friday/1.25 = 9 - 86
m
(1.25 Friday – Friday)/1.25 = 9
i l .co
ma
0.25 Friday = 9 x 1.25
Friday = (9 x 1.25)/0.25 g
Temperature of Friday = 45℃ 5@ 0
6
Hence, option (a) is correct. 5 12
7
- mr
y
y Ro
n j o
rit u
M

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41 Directions for the following 5 (five) items:


Study the bar graph given below and answer the following questions:
The bar graph below shows the percentage break-up of the number of students who visited various
tourist spots on New Year Evening.

1 3
5 27
2
6 38
-8
o m
il.c The table
ma X, XI and XII.
below shows the total number of students in classes
g
5 @
6 0
5 12
7
- mr
y
y Ro
n j o
rit u
M

Note: No Student went to more than one place.


Q. If the ratio of girls and boys, who went to Manali from class X, was 7 : 8, then what percent of the
total number of students from class X who went to a tourist spot is the number of girls who went to
Manali (approximate)?

A. 19%
B. 21%
C. 24%

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D. 15%

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Number of students from class X who visited Manali = 60% of 250 = 150.

Number of girls from class X who visited Manali =(7/15) * 150 = 70.

Total number of students from class X who went to a tourist place

= 20% of 150 + 30 % of 200 + 60 % of 250 + 26 % of 350 + 20 % of 200

30 + 60 + 150 + 91 + 40= 371


1 3
5 27
2
Therefore, required % = (70/371) * 100 = 19 %
6 38
-8
o m
il.c
Hence, option (a) is correct.

g ma
0 5@
42 What is the difference between the number of students who did not go to any tourist spot from class
26
XI and that from class XII?
1
r 75
-m
A. 19
B. 41 y
C. 27
y Ro
D. 21
u njo
rit
Your M
Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Number of students Class XI who did not visit any tourist place = 480 – (50 % of 150 + 50% of 200
+ 30% of 250 + 40% of 350 + 30% of 200)

480 – (75+100+75+140+60)
480 – 450
30

Number of students Class XII who did not visit any tourist place= 400 – (30% of 150 +20% of 200 +
10% of 250 + 34% 350 + 50% of 200)

400 – (45+40+25+119+100)
400 – 329

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71

Therefore, required difference is 71 – 30 = 41.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

43 If all the students from class XII who did not go to any tourist spot, later changed their mind and
went to Nainital, then calculate the % mark-up in the number of students who visited Nainital?

A. 40%
B. 25.5%
C. 35.5%
D. 33.6%

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
1 3
5 27
Answer Justification : 2
6 38
8 – (30% of 150 +20% of 200 +
- 400
Number of students Class XII who did not visit any tourist place=
10% of 250 + 34% 350 + 50% of 200) om .c
a il
400 – (45+40+25+119+100) m
400 – 329
5 @g
0
71
26
7 51
mr be (71/200) * 100 = 35.5 %
Therefore, required increase will
-
Hence, option (c) is R oy
correct.
j oy
i t un
r
44 What is the difference between the number of students who visited Shimla from class XI and Class
XII? M

A. 60
B. 40
C. 90
D. 20

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Number of students from class XI who visited Shimla = 50% of 200 =100

Number of students from class XII who visited Shimla = 20 % of 200= 40

Therefore, difference = 60

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Hence, option (a) is correct.

45 Find the total number of students who didn’t visit any tourist spot?

A. 153
B. 155
C. 115
D. 150

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Number of students of class X who didn’t visit any tourist spot = 420 – (20% of 150 + 30% of 200 +
60% of 250 + 26% of 350 + 20% of 200) 3 1
7
252
420 – (30+60+150+91+40)
8
420 – 371 63
49 -8
. c om
a il place = 480 – (50 % of 150 + 50% of 200
Number of students Class XI who did not visit any tourist
+ 30% of 250 + 40% of 350 + 30% of 200)
@ gm
5
480 – (75+100+75+140+60) 260
480 – 450
7 51
30
- mr
Number of students R oy XII who did not visit any tourist place= 400 – (30% of 150 +20% of 200 +
Class
j
10% of 250 + 34% oy350 + 50% of 200)
i t un
M r – (45+40+25+119+100)
400
400 – 329
71

Therefore, the total number of students who didn’t visit any tourist spot = 71 + 49 + 30 = 150.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

46 The ages of five friends Amit, Bhuvan, Chinmay, Devdas and Eric, with an age difference of 2 years
each in given order, add up to 60. What is the age of Chinmay if Amit is the youngest of among all?

A. 18 years
B. 16 years
C. 8 years
D. 12 years

Your Answer : D

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Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Let age of Amit be x years


As we know that ages of Amit, Bhuvan, Chinmay, Devdas and Eric, with an age difference of 2 years
each, add to 60.
Therefore,
Age of Bhuvan = x + 2
Age of Chinmay = x + 4
Age of Devdas = x + 6
Age of Eric = x + 8
It is given that: x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) = 60
 5x + 20 = 60

x=8
13
Therefore, the age of Chinmay = x + 4 = 8 + 4 = 12 years
5 27
2
Hence, option (d) is the correct
6 38
-8
47 Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says - “She is the
.c om
only daughter of the mother-in law of
my only son.” How is the woman related to the man? i l
gma
A. Wife 5 @
0
B. Daughter
126
5
C.
D.
Daughter-in-law
Mother m r7
-
R oy
Your Answer : C y
njo: C
Correct Answer
rit u
M
Answer Justification :

It is better to go from reverse side to solve this kind of problem.

Therefore, it can be translated as she is that man’s only son’s mother-in law’s only daughter.

Thus, she is wife of man’s only son or daughter-in law of that man.

Therefore, “Only daughter of the mother-in-law of one’s son” implies one’s daughter-in-law.

Hence, option (c), correct.

48 If an amount doubles itself in 5 years, then in how many years will it be 8 times of the original
amount, if it grows with an interest rate compounded annually?

A. 20 years
B. 15 years

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C. 25 years
D. 12 years

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Let the initial amount be x.

In 5 years the amount gets doubled, i.e. total amount=2x


In the next 5 years, i.e 10 years amount gets doubled again, i.e. total amount=4x
Similarly, in the next 5 years, i.e 15 years the total amount= 2 × 4x = 8x.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

3
71of the following
49 In an examination if total boys and total girls appear in the ratio 11:13, then which
2
can be the total number of students appearing in the examination? 5 2
8
63
A. 246 -8
B. 171 o m
C. 240 il.c
D. 101 gma
5 @
0
Your Answer :
126
Correct Answer : C 5
r7
Answer Justification : y
-m
y Ro
njo of boys be 11x and total number of girls be 13x.
Let the total number
u
r it
M total students will be 24x.
Therefore,

Therefore, total number of students appearing in the examination must be a multiple of 24.

Looking at the options, option (b) and option (d) can be directly eliminated as they are odd numbers.

By looking at remaining options, it can be clearly seen that 240 is completely divisible by 24.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

50 There are 60 students in a class. Each student gets chocolates that are 20% of the total number of
students in the class. If 30% of the total number of chocolates is distributed among one tenth of the
students, how many chocolates will each student get?

A. 36
B. 24
C. 12

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D. 40

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

It is given that there are 60 students in the class.

Each student gets chocolates that are 20% of the total number of students in the class. So, each
student gets (20/100) * 60 chocolates = 12 chocolates.

Therefore, total chocolates will be 12 * 60 = 720.

It is given that, 30% of the total number of chocolates is distributed among one tenth of the
students. Therefore, 30% of 720 chocolates are distributed among one tenth of the total students i.e
among 6 students. 3 1
7
So, (30/100)*720 = 216 chocolates are distributed among 6 students. 252
8
63
Therefore, each student gets 216/6 = 36 chocolates. -8
o m
Hence, option (a) is correct.
il.c
gma
@
5 questions that follow. Your answer to these
51 Read the following passages and answer0the
2
items should be based on the passage 6
only.
5 1
m r7
Passage 1:
o y-
The underlying “magic”
y Rthat enables economies to grow from low income to middle income and from
o is captured in an economic term called “Total Factor Productivity (TFP)”. TFP is
njtotal
there to high income
a measure oftuthe growth in output that is beyond simply the increase in inputs into the system.
i
In arcane reconomic terms, it is measured by something called the Solow residual—named after the
M
Nobel Prize winning growth economist Robert Solow. In simple English, it is that which allows blood
to be squeezed out of (the labour and capital) stone. In an article written six years ago called
“Escaping The Middle-Income Trap”, Berkeley economist Barry Eichengreen showed that structural
growth pick-ups and slowdowns are almost always because of an increase/decrease in TFP.
Eichengreen accurately predicted that the TFP drop in China caused by over-allocation to
investments would cause a fall in growth rate, and that this growth would only be rebalanced if the
economy were to shift towards consumption and higher value-added manufacturing.

Q. The Author suggests that


1. Structural growth in an economy is reflected through changes in TFP
2. Increasing inputs in economy will aid growth from low income to middle income economy

Which of the above statement is/ are Correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement 2 is wrong as going beyond input is required to aid growth from
Low income to middle income country.

52 Read the passages and answer the questions that follow. Your answer to these items should
be based on the passage only.

Passage 2:
India’s China policy needs a re-structuring based on a fresh perspective that is relevant for the 21st
century. This is because the global power matrix has undergone a paradigm change,
7 13from exclusively
52Thus India China
Atlantic shores-based concerns to emerging Indo-Pacific Ocean strategic issues.
2
relations matter as never before. 8 3
6
Q. The passage suggests that -8
o m
A. India China relations have always been important a il.c
g m
B. Geopolitical theatre has shifted to Asia Pacific which has added importance to India China
relations 0 5@
C. Atlantic shore based concerns 1 26no longer important
are
5
r7on Panchsheel is no longer applicable in changed context
D. India China relations based
m
-
Your Answer : B R oy
Correct Answerjo y
:B

i t un
AnswerrJustification :
M
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement A is wrong as it is unrelated to what is being spoken of in the passage. The fact
mentioned in statement c is wrong as the passage states that Atlantic shore based concerns have
diminished in importance but have not become irrelevant.

53 Passage 3:
India needs to take a long-term view on developing global brands and attaining international
standards in its manufacturing and services. Rather than place small players at a disadvantage, this
transition would equip them to straddle the world stage.

Q. With reference to the above passage, following assumptions have been made;
1. So far, we have hardly focussed on developing global brands
2. Policymakers are wary of the competition that small players will face from the big fish in case of
excess liberalization

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Which one of the following assumption(s) is/are true?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement 1 is extrapolating the first line of the passage. The passage states that we need to focus
more on developing global brands. It doesn’t state that we have not focussed on developing global
brands at all so far. Statement 2 is an assumption as is clear from the last line of the passage.
1 3
527
54 Passage 4:
3 82
The proposed NMC is expected to bring to an end a farcical system where
8 6 regulators were elected by
the regulated. No wonder, a body that was meant to oversee medical - education and practice allowed
malpractices to thrive. Marking a break from the MCI, the NMC o m seeks to create a firewall between
i l
regulation of medical education in terms of setting curriculum.c and standards, and actually
a
to correct the domination of doctors in the MCI,@
gm separate bodies for these aspects. In an effort
monitoring the institutions concerned. It has advocated
the NMC allows for a representation of only five
5 being officials from the Indian Council of Medical
0rest
doctors in the 25-member central body, the 6
Research, the
5 12
r7 and other bodies. This, apart from the suggestion that AYUSH
Directorate General of Health Services
m
- and homoeopathy) will be allowed to practice allopathy after a
(practitioners of ayurveda, siddha
y
o section of the medical community.
bridge course, has incensed a

j oyR
Q. Consider thenbelow Statements:
u
1. There israitlot of anguish in the medical fraternity against the the proposed NMC
2. ThereMare several advantages of the proposed NMC over MCI
3. Concentration of power in any single institution leads to inefficiencies creeping in.

Which of the following statement(s) has/have been implied in the passage?


A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Explanation:

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Statement 1 is mentioned in the last line of the passage. Statement 2 is the contained in the main
body of the passage, where the advantages of NMC over MCI has been explained. Statement 3 is
also implied in the passage where the reason for poor functioning of MCI has been attributed to
concentration of power in MCI.

55 Passage 5
Technology will play a major role in helping humanity face increasingly volatile weather, depleted
freshwater and scarce soil resources. Unfortunately, there’s a disconnect between the types of
companies that are receiving investment capital and those that are dealing head-long with these
challenges.
Q. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

A. Humanity’s survival is hanging by a thread in light of several challenges


B. There is a need to focus on solving environmental crises if humanity has to survive
C. There is need to optimize allocation of resources to companies that are involved in solving
long term problems
3
D. None of the above 71 2
5
3 82
Your Answer : C 6
Correct Answer : C -8
o m
il.c
ma
Answer Justification :

@ g
05
Answer Justification :
6
12companies are not receiving funds to focus on research that
Explanation:
The thrust of the passage is on how5apt
m
resolves the problems that the r7 faces. The corollary would be to direct money to the right
world
-
companies to resolve theypressing challenges. Hence C is correct.
o
j oyR
56 Passage 6: tu n
risays that while interventions such as remedial education and conditional cash transfers
The Survey
M
are “promising”, focusing entirely on increasing the number of teachers and making building and
computers are not. However, there is now an urgent need to focus on creating excellence among
educators.

Q. What is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?

A. Infrastructural improvement is a necessary but not sufficient condition for improving the
status of education
B. Improving the quality of teachers is a sufficient condition for improving the status of
education
C. Conditional cash transfer is the most efficient means of bringing kids to school
D. None of the above

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
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Answer Justification :
Explanation:

Statement b is wrong as improving the quality of teachers is a necessary but not sufficient condition
to improve the quality of education, as per the passage. Statement c goes astray from the main
thrust of the passage which is on enhancing excellence among educators. Statement a is most
correct as the passage does talk about the limitations of focusing solely on infrastructural
improvement and suggests alternatives to improve quality of education.

57 Passage 7:
India’s need to foster a manufacturing base for solar cells is unquestionable, but the best way to do
that is by allowing market forces free play.

Q. Consider the following statements.


1. Market forces allow for optimum allocation of resources
2. In the absence of market forces, we can never develop a strong manufacturing base for solar cells
1 3
Which one of the above view(s) corroborate(s) the Passage statement? 25
27
A. 1 only 6 38
B. 2 only -8
C. Both 1 and 2
.c om
D. Neither 1 nor 2 ail
@ gm
Your Answer : B
05
6
12
Correct Answer : A
7 5
Answer Justification : mr
o y-
Answer Justification
y R:
Explanation. n j o
Option 1 iistu
correct because the passage advocates for the application of market forces to develop a
r
Mmanufacturing base of solar cells. This is because market forces would allow for optimum
strong
allocation of resources. Statement 2 is wrong as the passage mentions that dependence of market
forces is the best way, but not the only way, to develop manufacturing base for solar cells.

Hence A is correct.

58 Passage 8:
The real problem with the Indian anti-profiteering law as it stands today is that while it requires firms to
pass on commensurate savings from GST cuts or input credit to consumers, it doesn’t specify how firms
must determine what is ‘commensurate’. Enforcing these rules may have been somewhat simpler had
India gone the way of Australia or Malaysia, to lay down a normal unit margin or net profit margin for
each product, say three months ahead of the GST rollout. The task has become doubly difficult now,
especially with the GST Council constantly tinkering with rates. Given the ambiguity, the NAA now
needs to strike a fine balance between protecting consumer interests and
ensuring that its investigations don’t place an undue compliance burden on businesses. Perhaps it can
identify oligopolistic sectors more prone to profiteering and focus its energies on them.

Q. With reference to the above passage, following assumptions have been made;

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1. Subjectivity in law is a recipe for litigations


2. Oligopolistic sectors require less monitoring to protect consumer interests

Which one of the following assumption(s) is/are true?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Explanation:
7 13
The first assumption is implicit in the author’s emphasis on the usage of word “commensurate” and
2
5 Statement 2 is
the potential problems that this subjectivity in law can cause. Hence 1 is correct.
8 2monitoring,
6 3
wrong as the oligopolistic sector, according to the passage, requires more not less.
Hence A is correct. 8 -
om
59 Passage 9: ai l.c
g m
The daily routine of most adults is so heavy and artificial that we are closed off to much of the world.
@
routines. When we hear music or poetry2
05
We have to do this in order to get our work done. I think one purpose of art is to get us out of those
or6stories, the world opens up again. We’re drawn in — or
51 are cleansed, as William Blake said. The same thing can
out — and the windows of our perception
7
happen when we’re around youngrchildren or adults who have unlearned those habits of shutting the
world out. -m
R oy
Q. The most logical
j oyinference that can be drawn from the passage is:
i t un
A.M r children are more open to experiences
Young
B. Art broadens our horizons and opens us up to new experiences
C. Strife in the world today is on account of our narrow thinking
D. Preconceived notions stifle our thinking

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement A is being suggested in the passage, however, it is not the inference that can be drawn
from the passage. Statement C is extrapolatory. Statement D is an assumption in the passage and
not the inference. Hence B, as the passage focuses on the role of art in broadening our perspective.

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60 Passage 10:
The depletion of organic nutrients in the soil has reached alarming proportions, thanks to
indiscriminate use of chemical fertiliser in Green Revolution areas. As against an acceptable level of
‘soil organic carbon’ of well over 5 per cent, soils in Punjab are said to have levels far below 1
percent. The nutrient imbalance has been skewed by the overuse of urea (N) vis-a-vis phosphatic (P in
chemical parlance) and potassic (K) fertiliser. The depletion of soil is being reflected in falling cereal
yields in intensely cultivated regions. The granaries of India are trapped in a dangerous vicious cycle
of input use, where increased dumping of fertiliser in the wrong combinations has rendered the soil
incapable of regenerating itself, which in turn escalates input use. Falling moisture retention abilities
also leads to indiscriminate use of groundwater. The Modi government sought to address the
imbalance by coming out with its soil health cards scheme in 2015, under which farmers can get their
soils tested for NPK contents and get appropriate advise on how to apply these inputs. Over 2.5 crore
soil samples are said to have been covered under scheme, of which about two crore have been
tested.This scheme marks a slight advance over the nutrient balancing scheme of the last
government, under which a reduction in of urea subsidy was expected to trigger a correction in
favour of using P and K fertilisers (or di-ammonium phosphate and muriate of potash) — which did
not happen. However, a major shortcoming of the soil health card initiative is that it is rooted in the
chemical fertiliser framework. It should also suggest introduction of organic inputs. 3
1
5 27
82
Q. With reference to the above passage, following assumptions have been made;
3
1. Organic inputs are more conducive to soil health 6
-8
2. Soil Health Card scheme is better than nutrient balancing scheme
.c om
Which one of the following assumption(s) is/are true?ail
A. 1 only
@ gm
B. 2 only
6 05
C. Both 1 and 2
5 12
D. Neither 1 nor 2
m r7
Your Answer : o y-
Correct Answer : C
j oyR
n
it u
AnswerrJustification :
M
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
In the last statement the author suggests the usage of organic inputs over chemical inputs, implying
that the former is better. Hence 1 is correct. The author mentions that SHC scheme marks an
improvement of NBS. Hence 2 is correct.

61 The passage relates to:

A. Necessity of reforms in soil management to address soil degradation


B. How the schemes of the present government are an improvement over the previous
government
C. Advocacy for organic inputs
D. None of the above

Your Answer :

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Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement B is extrapolatory. Statement C misses the point as usage of organic inputs is a subset of
overall good soil management technique, which is the thrust of the passage. Hence A is correct.

62 Passage 11:
Everywhere I look, I see stats about how there are either too many black people or too few of us in
whatever state of existence we’ve decided is topical. There are stats about how few women there are
in STEM and a cherry-picked list of desirable professions. There’s the inexplicably persistent gender
pay gap narrative, which has been repeatedly debunked by such sexist publications as Harvard (a
female professor at Harvard, to be specific) and Forbes (in an article written by another female
academic). And Thomas Sowell (a black economist) has been admonishing the western world since
the 80s, about the inaccuracies (and dangerousness) of the way we dishonestly politicise
7 13 disparities
in income and opportunity, across race and gender. But I digress… because I don’t
2 52 we—humans—do
have a problem

38 exaltation of
with these statistics, nor am I even here (solely) to debate their validity. It’s what
6
with these statistics that really bothers me. We abuse them with this new-found
-8
subjectivity. We turn victimhood into a mechanism for attaining disproportionately large power, then
do what humans do best when we wield too much power—abuse o mit. So, we say, “evil, therefore the
fact there aren’t more black CEOs must be the fault of whitei l .c people.” Or we say, “gorillas, so the fact
that there aren’t more women in STEM must be the m
a
are social constructs, completely removed from@
g fault of men.” We proclaim that gender and race
science and reality. Women, men and people of
05 interests and aptitudes. This is an incredibly
different races are perfectly uniform in all6abilities,
12 it for a minute. If this were true, then there’d be
subjective stance to take… but let’s entertain
5
absolutely no need for diversity. Ifr7we are all uniform, then we are all interchangeable. If we
acknowledge diversity, we must - m also acknowledge lack of uniformity. And if we acknowledge lack of
y
uniformity, we must alsooacknowledge inequalities of ability. The mistake we make is that our
prejudices cause us y toRvalue some abilities more than others—and we are simplistic enough to
n
assume that being j o
less skilled in these abilities makes people less valuable too.
rit u
Mis the tone of the author in the passage?
Q. What
1. Satirical
2. Non-conformist
3. Cynical.

Select the Correct answer using the code given below


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. Both 1 and 2

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :

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Explanation:
To accentuate his point, the author mentions about the works of scholar in a satirical manner.
Hence Statement 1.The author challenges the notion of gender and race discrimination in society
and explains how it is being used to gain undue advantage. Hence Statement 2. The author is not
being cynical as he is not talking about the future. He is simply describing an alternate point of
view.

63 What is the author trying to convey by quoting scholars like Thomas Sewell and Harvard
publications?

A. Statistics regarding gender pay gap etc can be misleading. We have politicized gender and
race issues in an unfair manner
B. Individual’s feelings on matters with universal consequences, are more important that the
construction of universally comprehensible and verifiable standards.
C. If we acknowledge diversity, we must also acknowledge lack of uniformity. And if we
13
acknowledge lack of uniformity, we must also acknowledge inequalities of ability.
7
D. gender and race are social constructs, completely removed from science2and reality 5
2
6 38
-8
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
o m
il.c
Answer Justification :
gma
@
Answer Justification :
6 05
12their own right but do not convey the reason why the author
Statement b, c and d are all correct in
chooses to quote these scholarsr75
- m
oy
R in the future with respect to gender and race discrimination, according to
64 What is the ideal scenario
the author? joy
i t un
A.M
r
We must stop glorifying subjectivity at the cost of objective analysis.
B. Lack of uniformity must also be acknowledged and exalted like diversity. In a utopian world,
all manner of skill must be appreciated equally
C. We require more affirmative action policies by the government to ensure a level playing field
for all
D. None of the above

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
B is the most appropriate statement describing the vision that the author has. Statement a is
correct but that is the author’s description of status quo rather than his vision. Statement c is what
the author is arguing against.

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65 Passage 12:
We find social media a convenient way to stay in touch with friends and family, stay on top of the
latest news, laugh at and share memes, and just enjoy the rich, bizarre pageantry of life—right at our
fingertips/ The drawback, almost everything you do online, from the biggest purchase to the single,
solitary “Like,” registers. It leaves a trail and builds a profile of you which companies and others can
mine and develop strategies around. Much like the song, on the surface it seems all about love. Delve
deeper and a more sinister picture arises.

Q. Which of the following is the most logical inference of the passage?

A. Social media is evil


B. Social media use can provide an insight into its user’s personality
C. The insight into one’s personality provided by social media use can be mined for commercial
purpose by companies
D. Social media has both pros and cons

Your Answer : C
1 3
Correct Answer : C
5 27
2
Answer Justification : 6 38
-8
Answer Justification :
.c om
a
A is wrong as the passage attributes no value judgement il on social media. Statement b is partly
@ gm
correct. Social media does provide an insight into its user’s personality. However, the focus of the

6 05
passage is on understanding how this insight can be mined for commercial purposed. Hence C is
2 the focal point of the passage.
correct. D is true per se, however, misses
1
5
m r7
66 Passage 13: y -
R o
The sickness of my generation is a zealous attachment to “authenticity.” It is stultifying, oppressive,
maybe even deadly, jo y
and premised on false assumptions about the nature of personal identity. Bowie
n
tu He taught that persona is performance. If there is anything like authenticity, it is
is the antidote.
fidelity to raihigher-order sensibility, a sort of governing taste, which is mutable but in some sense
M which regulates the style in which you perform yourself, but leaves open the question,
still coherent,
maybe even sets aside the question, of who you really are. Rather than demanding authenticity,
which is inherently paradoxical–trying to be real is embarrassing and fake–Bowie-ism instead asks for
playful imagination in the artful construction and performance of persona. You can’t aspire to Bowie’s
level of virtuosity in this regard, but it is liberating, especially for a Gen X-er drawn toward the grimly
earnest misguided intensity of the authenticity cult, to see life as a playful pageant of role-playing
that can be done with more or less art.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the
passage?

A. The question is not who you are but what connects, how much courage you have, how much
guile, what you can manage to get away with.
B. Being authentic to yourself is a precondition to personal well being
C. Bowie-ism is very relevant for the youth of today
D. None of the above

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Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Statement B is wrong as per the passage. Statement B is correct but is not the main focus of the
passage. The main focus is on understanding that more than being authentic, what is important is to
creatively modify your personality and manage the surrounding around us. Hence A

67 Passage 14:
Life is a coping mechanism. We’re flung randomly into these bodies and we have to find a way to deal
with the existential and practical implications of being alive. We all think differently, although we
share patterns of experience and thought. So, it’s only natural that what works for 1 3 of us is
each
7
different. 52
3 82
Q. Which among the following is the most logical inference that can8be 6 made from the above
passage? -
.c om
A. Life is all about adjusting to different situationsa
il
@
B. Our similarities with other individuals offsetgm our differences
5
60 it is natural that our coping mechanisms would be
C. Since our life experiences are different,
2
different
7 51 needs to be cherished
mr
D. Differences between individuals
-
Your Answer : C R oy
Correct Answerjo y
:C

i t un
MrJustification :
Answer

Answer Justification :
Statement A is wrong as the focus of the passage is on understanding the differing needs of
individuals. Statement B is wrong as this is not being talked about in the passage. Statement D is a
corollary to the passage, not the inference. Hence C is correct.

68 Passage 15:
Feeling of Equanimity (Neutrality, Equilibrium) in situations of loss and profit, favorable and
unfavorable, victory and defeat, birth and death leads to salvation. Feeling extremely happy in
favorable situations and feeling extremely sad or reacting negatively in unfavorable situations
becomes the cause for new karma and binds us further into the clutches of karma.

Q. What is the most crucial message being conveyed by the passage?

A. It is difficult to evade the cycle of karma


B. Extreme of any emotion is a cause of anxiety

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C. Being unfettered by any situation and going about your work dispassionately is a great asset

D. None of the above

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Statement A is not being talked about in the massage. Statement B is partly correct. However, the
focus of passage is on equanimity which is being talked about in statement C

69 Passage 16:
Science places a heavy emphasis on the objectivity of the physical world. As a result, consciousness,
and specifically its subjective aspect, is often understandably ignored. What interests us is not the
13collisions, etc.
experience of heat, but real heat, the underlying physical reality of molecular motion,
7
However, to say that the final scientific “picture” contains nothing subjective 5 2 to ignore a large
seems
(and significant) part of our universe. 8 2
6 3
-8
Q. What is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
o m
a realities
A. Universe comprises of both subjective and objective
il.c
g m
@ reality and mistakes it for the complete picture
B. Science usually tries to find out the objective
6 05
12 obsolete
C. Scientific paradigms have become
5
r7
D. Consciousness is subjective
m
Your Answer : B o y-
Correct Answer : B
j oyR
i t un
AnswerrJustification :
M
Answer Justification :
The passage tries to explain the limitation of science and how ignoring subjective aspects of reality
leads to us seeing only the half truths. Hence B is correct.

70 Passage 17:
If you analyses the concept of untouchability, you will find the fact. The untouchables were the bad
people belonging to all the castes, who were thrown out from the village and this is punishment for
transformation and not for revenge. There were only four castes mentioned in Veda. The fifth caste of
untouchables comes from all the four castes. Their sinful activities were responsible for this
punishment.

Q. What is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?

A. Untouchability has been practiced in India since ages


B. Untouchability is an aberration in modern Indian societies

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C. Untouchables have not been mentioned in Vedas; they were created by the society
D. Untouchability needs to be eradicates

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Only statement C captures the essence of the passage.

71 Passage 18:
In India, corruption is a form of patronage; a politician or bureaucrat who takes the bribe then has to
let it cascade among a series of lesser bureaucrats and elected officials, who will make sure that the
pet projects are completed. An honest politician has no goodies to toss around. This limits his
effectiveness profoundly, because political power in India is dispersed throughout a multi-tiered
7 13
federal structure; a local official who has not been paid off can sometimes stop a billion-dollar
52 evidence to back
project. This is why many Indians have a sneaking suspicion – and there is anecdotal
2
this up – that only corrupt politicians are effective ones. 8 3
6
Q. What does the above passage imply? -8
o m
il.c
A. ma to be a sign of effectiveness
Corruption among politicians in India is perceived
g
B. Corruption has become all pervasive in @ Indian bureaucracy
C. Honest politicians can not survive 6
5
in0Indian political scenario
2
D. None of the above 51 7
r
Your Answer : C
y -m
Correct Answer : A
y Ro
njo
tu
Answer Justification
i :
Mr
Answer Justification :
The passage focuses on how corruption has become a means for efficiently finishing projects. This is
how corruption is perceived in Indian society. Honest politicians find it difficult to implement
projects. Hence A

72 Passage 19:
Not only can hemp be used for an astonishing number of products, its net environmental benefit is
impressive. Among the more salient features, hemp grows in a variety of climates and soil types, is
naturally resistant to most pests, and grows very tightly spaced allowing it to outcompete most
weeds. A natural substitute for cotton and wood fiber, hemp can also be pulped using fewer
chemicals than wood because of its low lignin content. Its natural brightness can obviate the need to
use chlorine bleach.

Q. The passage focuses on:

A. Hemp as a substitute for chemicals

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B. Hemp as a pest resistant


C. Hemp as a crop of varied climate
D. Ecological and industrial benefits of hemp

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Statement A, B and C are all describing traits of hemp. However, the overall focus is on explaining
the industrial and ecological benefits of hemp.

73 Passage 20:
It has been remarked that ‘post-truth’ is very different from similar terms with the prefix post-, such

13 ‘post-truth’
as postcolonialism and postmodernism. No one who uses postcolonialism or postmodernism argues
that colonialism and modernism are no longer relevant. However, the assumption7behind
is that the concept of truth is no longer relevant. It is worth asking: why do 2 52
we not talk of
8
8 63
‘postfalsehood’? After all, the opposite of truth is not post-truth but falsehood.
have an age of post-truth, we should be able to talk of an age of post-falsehood
In that case, if we can
too. Having gone past
truth, we should also be able to go past its opposite: falsehood.m
-
This, however, is not the case.
.c o
Q. The passage seems to suggest that: ail
#118921
@ gm
5
A. Post truth is not very different 1from
60
2 other similar terms which use the prefix post
5
B. Colonialism and modernism
m r7are relevant in this age too
C. Truth and falsehood -are subjective realities
D. Post-truth is a R oy
phenomena of the Internet age
j oy
n
it u
Your Answer :
Correct rAnswer : A
M
Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Statement B is wrong as it is not what the passage tries to convey. Colonialism and Modernism have
been juxtaposed with post colonialism and post modernism to understand the phenomena of post
truth. Statement C and D are extraneous to the passage. Hence A is correct.

74 Passage 21:
In the chaos that prevails around us, there is a growing feeling of desolation and misery. The pace of modern times has upset
the rhythm of life and the music is slowly ebbing out. Living in a harsh world we have developed cynicism and hatred. Our
inner life is marked by wrestling of competing forces. Love and jealousy, pleasure and pain, hope and fear, life and death,
ideal and reality, dream and truth; they are all in a state of eternal conflict. The most authentic hope comes from mystics
whose philosophy combines the virtuous message of formal religion with the transcendental values of love and harmony.
Sufism is the lodestar for all mystical schools. It enables an individual to purge his mind of all toxic emotions and helps
restore balance and harmony. It is both therapeutic and transcendent and the most gentler and colorful form of mysticism.

Q. The passage relates to:

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A. The harshness of life


B. The chaos of life
C. The growing cynicism
D. The growing relevance of Sufism

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
The focus of the passage in talking about the harshness and chaos of life is to set the stage for the
solution he is about to propose. The purpose of the passage is to recount that in the ideology of
Sufism, lies the solution to many of the problems.

75 What is the most logical corollary to the above passage?


1 3
527
A. The philosophy of Sufism, if understood and implemented, can solve
3 82many of the issues we
face currently
- 86
m
B. The roughness of life can be softened only by finding refuge in religion and god
C. Mystics are wanderers who evade responsibility .co
D. None of the above ail
@ gm
Your Answer : A 05
6
Correct Answer : A
5 12
7
Answer Justification : - mr
y
y :
Answer Justification
Ro
n j o
Refer to theuprevious answer. The corollary derives from the purpose of the passage.
rit
M
76 Passage 22:
Multiverse, as it is called, explains the long-standing mystery of why the constants of nature appear
to be fine-tuned for the emergence of life. The reason is that intelligent observers exist only in those
rare bubbles in which, by pure chance, the constants happen to be just right for life to evolve. The
rest of the multiverse remains barren, but no one is there to complain about that.

Q. The passage relates to:

A. The authenticity of multiverse theory


B. The lucid explanation that multiverse theory provides for existence of life on Earth
C. The reason why we are all alone in the universe
D. None of the above

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

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Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
The passage explains how multiverse theory provides an explanation to the coincidence that
condition on Earth were exactly perfect for life to thrive. Hence B is correct.

77 Passage 23:
What is consciousness? It is something we are all intimately familiar with, in fact, it produces the
experiences of both intimacy and familiarity, but remains maddeningly ineffable.

Q. The author suggests that consciousness

A. Can be easily understood


B. Can be experienced but remains indescribable
C. Produces experience of intimacy
D. Produces experience of familiarity
1 3
5 27
Your Answer : B 2
Correct Answer : B 6 38
-8
Answer Justification : om
a il.c
Answer Justification :
@ gm C and D. However, the thrust of the author is
05 ineffable which means that it is too great a feeling
The author does say the facts described in statement
6
on telling us that consciousness is maddeningly
2
to be described in words. 51 7
r
y -m
78 Passage 24:
R o
y
Existentialism is aophilosophy that emphasizes individual existence, freedom and choice. It is the view
u nj their own meaning in life, and try to make rational decisions despite existing in
that humans define
r ituniverse. It focuses on the question of human existence, and the feeling that there is no
an irrational
purposeMor explanation at the core of existence. It holds that, as there is no God or any
other transcendent force, the only way to counter this nothingness (and hence to find meaning in life)
is by embracing existence.

Q. Which of the following statement is closest to the meaning of the passage?

A. God plays no significant role in our lives


B. Humans do not have free will
C. The secret to existence is to embrace it and not look for meaning elsewhere
D. Human existence is meaningless and futile

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :

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The passage is about the philosophy of existentialism which says that existence is prior to essence.
Hence C is correct.

79 Passage 25:
Gaining public support is the first and most decisive prerequisite for a successful transition to
renewable energy. Therefore, policy makers should adopt favourable political frameworks and
instruments, promoting fast and steady growth of renewables on the one hand and phasing out all
subsidies to fossil fuel and nuclear power generation on the other hand.

Q. Consider below Statements:


1. Renewables are cheaper alternatives to fossil fuel
2. Subsidies provided to fossil fuels hamper the growth of renewables

Which of the following statement(s) is/are assumption(s) made in the passage?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 7 13
2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 25 8
3
Your Answer : B - 86
Correct Answer : B
.c om
a il
m
@g
Answer Justification :
5
Answer Justification :
2 60
51 mentions that subsidies to fossil fuels need to be removed
Statement 2 is right because the passage
7
r
to ensure the growth of renewable.
m
-
R oy
80 Passage 26:
j oy
i t un
There are shortcomings caused by the global proliferation of digital technologies. Such risks include

M r
a lack of privacy, accessibility to personal information and the easy dissemination of “fake news”.
But, in general the opportunities outweigh the challenges. Digital technologies offer everyone the
possibility of connecting to a truly global community. This reality has the potential to open up new
perspectives, jobs, friendships, learning opportunities, etc. Digital technologies create a flatter and
de-centralized world where empowering and experimentation prevail over controlling and planning.
Everybody can now be an “entrepreneur”, a “creator” or an “artist” without first being accepted and
acknowledged by any centralized authority. Think of the new opportunities provided by YouTube,
Medium and other content platforms. Anyone with a good idea and the drive and talent to implement
their idea can reach a global audience or market. One of the most important benefits of
digital technology is the possibility of being globally connected.

Q. What is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?

A. Despite the risks, digital technology has helped us tread unchartered territories, opening up
several new avenues
B. Digital technology has created many new challenges which far outweigh the benefits
C. Digital technology is disruptive technology
D. None of the above

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Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Answer Justification :
Statement B is wrong as it is against what’s written in the passage. Statement C is wrong as it is
extraneous to the passage. The passage talks about the myriad benefits of digital technology which
overpower the few problems that it might have created.

1 3
5 27
2
6 38
-8
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il.c
gma
5 @
0
126
5
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rit u
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