August 2020

INSTITUTE OF BANKING PERSONNEL SELECTION

INFORMATION HANDOUT FOR CANDIDATES FOR THE POSTS OF

ANALYST PROGRAMMER (WINDOWS), ANALYST PROGRAMMER (LINUX),
IT - ADMINISTRATOR AND PROGRAMMING ASSISTANT

This handout is meant to give the candidates information in respect of the online examination.
Part-I of this handout gives you broad outline about the structure of the examination and some sample questions.

Part-II of this handout describes the details of online objective type test and details of method of indicating
answers, revising answers etc.
Part-III of this handout gives you a broad outline about the interview process.
PART I :

The structure of examination will be as follows :

For Analyst Programmer (Windows), Analyst Programmer (Linux)

Test No. Name of the Test No. of questions Version Duration

I Aptitude 50 English Composite
time of
II Professional Knowledge 50 English 90 minutes

III Skill Test 02 English 45 minutes

For Programming Assistant

Test No. Name of the Test No. of questions Version Duration

I Aptitude 50 English Composite
time of
II Professional Knowledge 50 English 90 minutes

III Skill Test 03 English 45 minutes

For IT - Administrator

Test No. Name of the Test No. of questions Version Duration

I Aptitude 50 English Composite
time of
II Professional Knowledge 50 English 90 minutes

III Skill Test 05 English 45 minutes

Total composite time of 90 minutes for Tests I & II. You may attempt the tests/questions in any order you like.
However in your interest you are advised not to spend too much time on any one of the tests because to qualify in the
online test you have to pass each one of the tests, separately and also obtain sufficiently high mark in the merit order.
All the questions will be of objective type with multiple choices. Out of the five answers to each question only one
will be correct answer. You have to find out the correct answer and indicate it by ‘Mouse-clicking’ on the computer.
You are advised not to answer questions by guessing.

There will be penalty for wrong answers. For each wrong answer 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will
be deducted as penalty.

Test III will be Descriptive in nature. You have to type your answers in the space provided onscreen.
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 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
APTITUDE
REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.
Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a group of letters or words given. Four of the five are alike in a
certain way, while one is different. Find out the one which is different.
Q.1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) yellow (5) paint

Now try to solve the following question.

Q.2. (1) XZ (2) MN (3) PQ (4) BC (5) ST
Following are the questions based on analogy.

Q.3. “Foot” is related to “Man” in the same way as “Hoof” is related to –––––
(1) Leg (2) Horse (3) Dog (4) Boy (5) Shoe
Q.4. “Day” is related to “Night” in the same way as “Kind” is related to –––––
(1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude
Q.5. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last letter
of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no such word
can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X
Q.6. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences definitely follows
from these two statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest (3) Some leaders are honest
(4) Leaders are generally dishonest (5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation, quantitative
reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs.
Directions : In each of the following questions one number is missing. The place where the number is missing is
shown by a question mark (?). You have to find out which one of the answers shown against 1, 2, 3 and 4 can replace
the question mark. If none of these four can replace the question mark, you will indicate (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your
answer.
Q.7. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) None of the given options

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Q.8. 20 × = ?
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(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) None of the given options

The correct answer for Q. 8 is 10. But none of the 1, 2, 3, or 4 shows this answer. Therefore your answer is 5.
Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.9. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 61 (5) 610
Q.10. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) None of the given options
Q.11. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) None of the given options

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Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six attributes that
help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that follow :

Attribute Percent of Employees Giving Different Ranks

I II III IV V VI

Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13

Q.12. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the highest
percentage. So your answer is “Seniority”, which is answer No. (2).
Q.13. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10

Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for intelligence.
You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700 is 70. So your
answer should be (4).

Q.14. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?

(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability

PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

ANALYST PROGRAMMER (WINDOWS)

Q.15. Which of the following statements is correct about Managed Code ?

(1) Managed code is the code that is compiled by the JIT compilers.
(2) Managed code is the code where resources are Garbage Collected.
(3) Managed code is the code that runs on top of Windows.
(4) Managed code is the code that is written to target the services of the CLR.
(5) Managed code is the code that can run on top of Linux.

Q.16. Which of the following are NOT true about .NET Framework ?

1. It provides a consistent object-oriented programming environment whether object code is stored

and executed locally, executed locally but Internet-distributed, or executed remotely.
2. It provides a code-execution environment that minimizes software deployment and versioning
conflicts.
3. It provides a code-execution environment that promotes safe execution of code, including code
created by an unknown or semi-trusted third party.
4. It provides different programming models for Windows-based applications and Web-based
applications.
5. It provides an event driven programming model for building Windows Device Drivers.

(1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 4 (3) 4, 5 (4) 1, 2, 4 (5) 1, 2, 3

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Q.17. Which of the following component is not installed by SQL Server setup 2012 required by the product ?
(1) NET Framework 3.5 SP11 (2) Named Pipes
(3) SQL Server Setup support files (4) All the given options
(5) None of the given options

ANALYST PROGRAMMER (LINUX)

Q.15. http://127.0.0.1 is the address of

(1) ISP (Internet Service Provider) (2) Own Machine (3) windows
(4) Linux (5) None of the given options
Q.16. ______ command is used to remove jobs from the print queue ?
(1) lpq (2) lpr (3) lprm (4) lpc (5) None of the given options
Q.17. Which command is used to copy all files having the string chap and any two characters after that to
the progs directory?
(1) cp chap[12] /progs/*.* (2) cp chap* progs (3) cp chap?? progs
(4) cp chap?? /progs/* (5) None of the given options

IT - ADMINISTRATOR

Q.15. What security device tends to be implemented in many different forms, including hardware and software ?
(1) WLC (2) Firewall (3) Access Point (4) Router (5) Switch
Q.16. What command ensures your DHCP server does not lease out addresses you have statically configured
elsewhere ?
(1) no dhcp-server assign-address (2) no dhcp-lease address
(3) ip dhcp no-lease address (4) ip dhcp excluded-address
(5) no dhcp-server config-address

Q.17. A software update service that allows the administrators to manage updates released for Microsoft products
is _______
(1) DNS (2) AD (3) WSUS (4) Group Policy (5) SCOM

PROGRAMMING ASSISTANT

Q.15. Which command is used to extract specific columns from the file ?
(1) cat (2) cut (3) grep (4) paste (5) None of the given options
Q.16. Which command sends the word count of the file infile to the newfile.
(1) wc infile>newfile (2) wc<infile>newfile (3) wc / infile - newfile
(4) wc infile | newfile (5) None of the given options
Q.17. The Octal number to be given along with chmod command to make a file readable, writable and executable to
the owner, readable and executable to group and others is:
(1) 000 (2) 755 (3) 744 (4) 555 (5) None of the given options

SKILL TEST

For the post of Analyst Programmer (Windows), Analyst Programmer (Linux) and Programming Assistant
Candidates’ skill in Programming will be tested.
For Analyst Programmer (Windows)
Candidates will be asked to write a code on C Sharp / SQL QUERY for the given questions.
For Analyst Programmer (Linux) and Programming Assistant
Candidates will be asked to write a code in Python / Fortron / C / Any Scripting language for the given questions.
For IT - Administrator
Candidates will be asked questions related to handling of Systems, Networks etc.
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Part II
Details about On-line Test Pattern
1. The test would be conducted on-line on a computer.

2. A login screen will be displayed to the candidate. The candidate has to log in using his/her User ID and
Password which is provided on the Call Letter.
3. After logging in Candidate’s profile (Name, Roll No. & photograph etc.) will be displayed and the candidate has
to confirm the same by clicked on the ‘I confirm’ button confirming the profile is correct.
4. Thereafter the instructions will be displayed on the screen.

5. A candidate should read the instructions carefully and indicate that he has done so by ‘checking’ (click) the box
at the bottom of the screen, after which the ‘I am ready to begin’ button is activated.
6. After clicking on the ‘I am ready to begin’ button the actual test time will begin.
7. In Test I & II there will be 100 Questions and each question is followed by 5 alternatives/options. In Test III there
will be 2 questions for Analyst Programming (Windows), Analyst Programming (Linux) and IT Administrator and
3 questions for Programming Assistant.

8. The questions will be available in English Language only.

9. Only one question will be displayed at a time.
10. All the questions in Tests I & II will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will
be the correct answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’
that alternative which he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked
on will be treated as the answer to that question. Answer to any question will be considered for
final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted the answers by clicking on “Save & Next”
or “Mark for Review & Next”.
11. The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display
the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are
not required to end or submit your exam.

12. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the
following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again.
If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will be considered in the evaluation.
13. To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to
the next question in sequence.
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14. To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
15. To change your answer, click another desired option button.
16. To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.

17. To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.
18. To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question that is
Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
19. To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option followed
by a click on the Save & Next button.

20. Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for evaluation.
21. Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the
section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.
22. After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to the
first question of the next section.

23. You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that section.
24. You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the test as per your convenience in the time
allotted.
25. The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any candidate
does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/adoption of unfair means
and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for tests for a period as
decided by IBPS.

26. The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the test.
27. After the expiry of Test, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their answers.
The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer system even if he/ she
has not clicked the “Submit” button.
28. Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test
time.

(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the exam
starts as this will lock the exam.

General Instructions

SOCIAL DISTANCING MODE CONDUCT OF EXAM RELATED INSTRUCTIONS

Different reporting time will be printed for a set of candidates. Candidates must report much before the
Reporting time to avoid crowding.

1 You are required to report at the exam venue strictly as per the time slot mentioned in the admit card AND/OR
informed via SMS/Mail on your registered mobile number/mail prior to exam date. It is expected that you strictly
adhere to this time slot – as entry into the exam venue will be provided based upon the individual’s time slot ONLY.
You should report atleast 15 minutes before the Reporting time indicated on the call Letter.

2 Mapping of ‘Candidate Roll Number and the Lab Number’ will NOT be displayed outside the exam venue, but the
same will be intimated to you individually at the time of entry to the exam venue and post your Admit Card/Call
Letter and ID verification.

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3 Items permitted into the venue for Candidates
You will be permitted to carry only certain items with you into the venue.
a. Mask (WEARING A MASK is COMPULSORY)
b. Gloves
c. Personal transparent water bottle
d. Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml)
e. A simple pen
f. Exam related documents (Call Letter/Admit Card, ID card in Original, Photocopy of ID Card, etc.)
g. Call Letter/Admit Card should be brought with the Photocopy of the Photo ID stapled with
it. Original ID (same as Photocopy) is also to be brought for verification. The name on the
ID and on the Call Letter/Admit Card should be exactly the same.
No other Items are permitted inside the venue.
4 You should not share any of their personal belonging/material with anyone

5 You should maintain safe social distance from one another.

6 You should stand in the row as per the instructions provided at venue.

7 A Candidate must have Aarogya Setu App installed on his/her mobile phone. The Aarogya Setu status must show
candidate’s risk factor. A candidate will have to display this status to the Security Guard at the entry into the exam
venue. In case a candidate does not have a smart phone, he/she will have to bring in a signed declaration to this
effect (Declaration Form provided as Annexure in this handout) and show the same to the Security Guard at the
entry into the exam venue. Candidates with Moderate or High Risk Status on Aarogya Setu App will not be allowed
entry. In case any of the responses in declaration suggest COVID 19 infection/symptoms, the candidate will not
be permitted inside the exam venue.

8 After Aarogya Setu status display at the entry gate, candidates will be required to switch off their mobile phones,
and deposit it at the designated location, to be collected while exiting

9 All candidates will be checked with Thermo guns at the entry point for temperature. In case, any person is
observed to be having above normal temperature (> 99.14° F) or displaying any symptoms of the virus, they will not
be allowed entry into the venue

10 Candidate registration :
a. Candidate registration will be done through photo capture.
b. Photograph will be taken while candidate is standing.
c. Seat number will be given to the candidate.

11 Rough sheet call letter and ID proof management

• Rough sheet(s) kept at each candidate desk will be used by candidate. No additional sheets will be provided
during the exam.
• Candidate must follow the instructions related to dropping the call letter with the ID proof copy in the boxes
provided at the exit of lab/venue while leaving or at the designated place.
• Candidate must drop the rough sheets in the boxes provided at the exit of lab/venue while leaving. The drop
box for the roughsheets will be different from that of Call Letter box. Specific instructions will be displayed at
the Venue.

12 Post Examination Controls

• On completion of the examination, the candidates should move out in an orderly manner without crowding as
instructed by the venue staff.

(Some more instructions related to exam may be added or modified depending on the situation on the
scheduled date of exam)
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Please Note : Candidates who are shortlisted after examination will be required to go through a further
process of Selection which may include Interview which will be conducted remotely (online)
tentatively during the month of August/September 2020.

Part III

INTERVIEW :

Each candidate will be interviewed through the digital mode. Using digital platforms such as CISCO WebEx, Microsoft
Team etc. The candidates can participate from their home and the panel will be located in Mumbai.

The candidates will be provided with the link, date, time slot on the day previous to the activity. The candidates are
expected to be available at least 30 minutes before the actual time to establish connectivity and readiness for participation
in the above process.

Wishing You All the Best !

****************

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 Annexure - IV

Self-Declaration
We are concerned about your health, safety & hygiene. In the interest of your well-being and that of
everyone at the venue, you are requested to declare if you have any of the below listed symptoms by
using a ü (Yes, I have) or û (No, I do not have).

Cough

Fever

Sore Throat / Runny Nose

Breathing Problem

Body Ache

I have NOT been in close contact with a person suffering from Covid 19 and am NOT under
mandatory quarantine

I may be subject to legal provision/ action as applicable for hiding any facts on Covid 19 infections
related to me and causing health hazard to others.

I am aware IBPS has taken measures as per advisories of Government of India related to norms
of social distancing and sanitization at the Examination Center.

I’m asked to fill this Self-Declaration, since I do not have “Aarogya Setu” App on my mobile phone.

I’m certifying that I’ve NOT tested Positive for the Coronavirus or identified as a potential carrier of
the COVID-19 virus.

Candidate Name : _________________________________________________

Candidate Roll No : _________________________________________________

Name of the Organisation : _________________________________________________

Date of Exam : _________________________________________________

Exam Center Name : _________________________________________________

Signature of Candidate ________________________________________________

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