FIRST VIRTUAL MCAT MOCK TEST

(BY ; THE VIRTUEX)

ENGLISH

Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate option, from

the given lettered choices (A to D) below each.
1. Birds usually _____ eggs in their nests.
(A) Laid
(B) Lain
(C) Lay
(D) Lie

2. The house ______ before we moved in.

(A) Paint
(B) Painted
(C) Has painted
(D) Was painted

3. Her hair was hanging ______ her back.

(A) Beyond
(B) By
(C) Down
(D) From

4. We must _____ back by six o’clock.

 (A) Be
(B) Can
(C) Has
(D) Have
Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence
to be correct.

5. It’s too late to go for a walk now; besides, it’s beginning to rain.
(A) It’s
(B) Go
(C) Besides
(D) Beginning
(E) No error

6. The guests broke a dozen glass at the party.

(A) The guests
(B) Broke
(C) Glass
(D) At
(E) No error

7. In Maxwell’s day no instruments had been made which could

register the greatly enormously long waves of electricity.
(A) No
(B) Could
(C) Greatly
(D) Long

8. When I go into a bank, I get frighten.

(A) When
(B) A
(C) Get
(D) Frighten
Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one.

9. DEMONSTRATE :
(A) Establish
(B) Invent
(C) Produce
(D) Show

10. FLEE.
(A) Escape
(B) Face
(C) Fear
(D) Flow

11. SHABBY.
(A) Organized
(B) Untidy
(C) Reluctant
(D) Sensible

12. FORBID.
(A) Prohibit
(B) Chide
(C) Permit
(D) Constraint

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is mostly nearly opposite in

meaning to the word in capital letters.

13. BRILLIANT:
(A) Adequate
(B) Dull
 (C) Troubled
(D) Unprejudiced

14. INVADERS:
(A) Characteristics
(B) Historians
(C) Inhabitants
(D) Results

15. SUPERMACY:
(A) Excellency
(B) Sovereignty
(C) Inferiority
(D) influence

16. PATRIOTISM:
(A) Nationalism
(B) Socialism
(C) Obsession
(D) Disloyalty

Questions 17-18:-
That freedom means freedom only from foreign dominations, is an
outworn idea. It is not merely governments that should be free but the
people themselves who should be free; and no freedom has any real
value for the common man or woman unless it means freedom from
want, freedom from disease, freedom from ignorance. This is the main
task which confronts us if we are to take our rightful place in the
modern world. We cannot hold the clock back, and therefore it is we
who must go forward at a double pace, bending all our resources and
all our energies to this great purpose.

17. An “outworn” idea is ______.

 (A) Great
(B) Now new
(C) Scientific
(D) Undeveloped
18. “ The great purpose” mentioned by the writer at the end of the
passage refers to ______________.
(A) Freedom from foreign domination
(B) People themselves should be free
(C) The real value of freedom
(D) Taking out rightful place in the modern world

Questions 19-20:-
Television is typical of many new scientific words which are deliberately
invented from old Greek and Latin words. In this case the prefix ‘tele’ is
Greek and means ‘far’ (of telephone, telegram), while the root ‘vision’
is derived from the Latin verb meaning ‘to see’.

19. The word “Television” is invented from:

(A) English and Spanish
(B) French and Arabic
(C) Dutch and German
(D) Greek and Latin

20. Which of the following gives the meaning of the prefix “tele”?
(A) Near
(B) Close
(C) Far
(D) Away
 PHYSICS

21. A student is performing a lab experiment on simple harmonic

motion. He has two different springs (with force k1 and k2) and
two different blocks of (masses m1 and m2). If k1 = 2k2 and
m1 = 2m2. Which of the following combinations would give the
student the spring-block simple harmonic oscillator with the
shortest period?
(A) The spring with force constant k1 and the block of mass
m1
(B) The spring with force constant k1 and the block of mass
m2
(C) The spring with force constant k2 and the block of mass
m1
(D) The spring with force constant k2 and the block of mass
m2
(E) All the combinations above would give the same
period.

22. Consider the following examples of motion:

I. The daily motion if the earth about its own axis
II. The motion of planets around the sun
III. Sugar cane crushing machine is run by a camel that moves
in circular path around the machine
IV. Rotation of fly wheel about its axle.
 Which of the following is correct?
(A) I and II are examples of spin motion
(B) I and II are examples of orbital motion
(C) II and IV are examples of spin motion
(D) III and IV are examples of orbital motion
(E) I and IV are examples of spin motion II and III are
examples of orbital motion

23. Two Capacitors C1 (6μF) and C2 (12μF) are in series across a 180
volts dc supply. Calculate the potential difference across capacitor
(C1 and C2) :

(A) 98 volts ….. 32 volts

(B) 120 volts ….. 60 volts
(C) 68 volts ….. 96 volts
(D) 30 volts ….. 65 volts
(E) 25 volts ….. 25 volts

24. Charges of +2μC and -2μC are situated at point P and Q

respectively, as shown below. X is midway between P and Q :
 Which of the following correctly describes the electric field and
the electric potential at point X?

Electric Field Electric Potential

(A) Towards Q zero

(B) Towards Q negative
(C) Towards P zero
(D) Towards P positive

235
25. If 𝑈92 decays by emitting two α one β and two γ –rays the new
daughter element y is :
227
(A) 𝑦88

227
(B) 𝑦89

227
(C) 𝑦90

231
(D) 𝑦89

26. Which process is shown in graph between pressure and volume?

(A) Adiabatic
(B) Isabaric
 (C) Isochoric
(D) Isothermal

27. Assume that you have two balls of identical volume, one
weighing 2 newtons and the other 10 newtons. Both are falling
freely after being released from the same point simultaneously.
Which of the following will be true?

I. The 10 N ball falling freely from rest will be accelerated at a

greater rate than the 2 N ball.
II. At the end of 4s of free fall, the 10 N ball will have 5 times the
momentum of the 2 N ball.
III. At the end of 4s of free fall, the 10 N ball will have the same
kinetic energy as the
2 N ball.
IV. The 10 N ball possesses greater inertia than the 2 N ball.

(A) I, II and III only

(B) I and III only
(C) IV only
(D) None of the above.

28. A 70 kg man runs up a ball through a height of 3 meters in 2

seconds. His average power output is (g = 10 m/sec2):
(A) 1050 watts
(B) 970 watts
(C) 1500 watts
(D) 1300 watts
(E) 500 watts
29. The half-life of C14 is approximately 5730 years, while the half-life
of C12 is essentially infinite. If the ratio of C14 to C12 in a certain
sample is 25% less than the normal ratio in nature, how old is the
sample?
(A) Less than 5730 years.
(B) Approximately 5730 years
(C) Significantly greater than 5730 years but less than
11460 years
(D) Approximately 11460 years
(E) Approximately 15730 years.

30. A car covers the first half of a certain distance with a speed v1
and the second half speed v2. Find the average speed during the
whole journey.

v1 v2
(A)
2(𝑣1−𝑣2)

2𝑣1𝑣2
(B)
𝑣1+𝑣2

2𝑣13𝑣2
(C)
𝑣1+5𝑣2

𝑣1+𝑣2
(D)
5𝑣1𝑣2

𝑣1−𝑣2
(E)
4𝑣1+9𝑣2

31. A ball moving horizontally with speed ‘v’ strikes the bob of a
simple pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob is equal to that of
the ball. If the collision is elastic the bob rise to the height :
 𝑣2
(A)
𝑔

𝑣2
(B)
2𝑔

𝑣2
(C)
4𝑔

𝑣2
(D)
8𝑔

𝑣2
(E)
7𝑔

32. Projectile must be launched at which angle with the horizontal to

attain maximum range ?
(A) 90o
(B) 45o
(C) 75o
(D) 105o
(E) 145o

33. In Compton Scattering experiment the X-ray wavelength change

∆𝜆 is _____________. Here h is the Plank Constant, ma is rest
mass of electron and Ø is angle after scattering.

ℎ
(A) ∆𝜆 = (1 + cosθ)
𝑚𝑎 𝑐

ℎ
(B) ∆𝜆 = (1 - cos2θ)
𝑚𝑎 𝑐
 ℎ
(C) ∆𝜆 = (1 - cosθ)
𝑚𝑎 𝑐

ℎ
(D) ∆𝜆 = (1 + cosθ)
𝑚𝑎 𝑐2

34. In an inelastic collision:

(A) The momentum of the system as well as the kinetic

energy of the system before and after the collision is
conserved i.e. remains same.
(B) The momentum of the system before and after the
collision changes but the kinetic energy before and
after the collision remains conserved.
(C) The momentum of the system before and after the
collision is conserved but the kinetic energy before and
after the collision changes.
(D) The momentum of the system as well as the kinetic
energy of the system before and after the collision
changes.
(E) None of the above.

35. In nuclear reactor cadmium rods are used as :

(A) Fuel
(B) Moderator
(C) Control Rods
(D) None

36. Yellow light of wavelength 2250μm is incident on a metal sheet,

the UV light emitted from the metal will have a wavelength equal
to:
 (A) 2250 m
(B) 2250 μm
(C) 1000 μm
(D) Not Possible

37. A photon is moving with speed of light, its rest mass will be:
(A) Equal to that of electron
(B) Zero
(C) Equal to that of proton
(D) None

38. When a conductor of cross-sectional area 5.0 x 10-6 m2 carries a

current of 6.0 A, the drift velocity of the conduction electrons is
1.2 x 10-4 ms-1. What is the number density (number per unit
volume) of the conduction electrons?
(A) 4.0 x 10-28 m-3
(B) 1.6 x 10-27 m-3
(C) 2.5 x 1027 m-3
(D) 6.3 x 1028 m-3
(E) 1.3 x 1034 m-3

39. Two blocks, X and Y , of masses m and 2m respectively , are

accelerated along a smooth horizontal surface by a force F
applied to block X , as shown in figure below :

What is the magnitude of force exerted by block Y and X during

this acceleration ?
 (A) 0
(B) F/3
(C) F/2
(D) 2F/3
(E) F

40. A Galvanometer has a resistance of 10 Ohms and gives full scale

defelction when a current of 0.001 Ampere flow in it. Find out the
value of shunt resistance to convert it into an ammeter of range
10 Ampere :
(A) 0.001 Ohms
(B) 0.002 Ohms
(C) 0.003 Ohms
(D) 0.004 Ohms
(E) 0.005 Ohms

41. The heat at which phase change takes place is called :

(A) Latent heat.
(B) Power
(C) Sensible heat.
(D) None

42. In an npn transistor, the current IE that flows in the emitter

circuit is:
(A) IC + IB
(B) IC - IB
(C) IC x IB
(D) Zero
43. Candela is the luminous intensity, in the perpendicular direction
of a surface _________ square meter of a black body at the
temperature of freezing platinum under a pressure of 101325
Newton per square meter.
(A) 1/300000
(B) 1 /600000
(C) 1/9000000
(D) 1/1200000
(E) 1/1500000

44. Two capacitors C1 (12µF) and C2 (24µF) are in series , connected

across a 360 volts D.C. supply. Calculate the charges on C1 and C2

respectively.

(A) 2880 × 10 -6C, 2880 × 10 -6C

(B) 4770 × 10-6C, 4770 × 10-6C
(C) 5810 × 10-6C , 6610 × 10-6 C
(D) 7170 × 10-6 C , 8140 × 10-6 C
(E) 9090 × 10-6 C, 8880 × 10-6 C
45. A transverse wave on a long horizontal rope with a wavelength
of 8 m travels at 2 m/s. At t=0 , a particular point on the rope has
a vertical displacement of +A , where A is the amplitude of the
wave. At what time Will the vertical displacement of this same
point on rope be equals to -A ?
1
(A) t= 𝑠
8
1
(B) t= 𝑠
4
1
(C) t= s
2
(D) t=2s
(E) t=4s

46. The formula for Paschen series for Hydrogen spectrum is

_________ :

47. The circuit diagram shows a network of resistors each of

resistance R.
 What is the effective resistance between the points X and Y?
(A) 2R/7
(B) R/2
(C) 5R/5
(D) 2R/3
(E) 3R/4

48. Three dimensional images of objects obtained by using lasers in

a process called:
(A) Lasering
(B) Laserography
(C) Holography
(D) Both a and b
(E) None of the above

49. A car is travelling with uniform acceleration along a straight

road. The road has marker posts every 100 m. When the car
passes one post , it has a speed of 10 m/s and when it passes the
next one , its speed is 20 m/s. What is car’s acceleration ?
(A) 0.67 m/s2
(B) 1.5 m/s2
(C) 2.5 m/s2
(D) 6.0 m/s2
50. The efficiency of the Carnot’s engine working between 150°C and
50°C is :
(A) 22.3 %
(B) 20.0 %
(C) 23.6 %
(D) 30.6 %
(E) 33.6 %

51. If a car collides with a housefly ,what will be the magnitude of

the force experienced by housefly :
(A) Much greater than the car experienced by housefly
(B) Much lesser than the car experienced by housefly
(C) Same as the car experienced by housefly
(D) 10 times less then the car experienced by the
housefly

52. If 𝐴 = 2𝑖 + 3𝑗 − 𝑘 , 𝐵 = 4𝑖 + 2𝑗 − 2𝑘. Find a vector x parallel to

A parallel to vector A but has a magnitude of vector B :
√12
(A) (2𝑖 + 3𝑗 − 𝑘)
7
√7
(B) (4𝑖 + 2𝑗 − 2𝑘 )
12
√7
(C) (2𝑖 + 3𝑗 + 𝑘)
12
√3
(D) (𝑖 + 2𝑗 − 𝑘 )
5
√5
(E) (3𝑖 + 5𝑗 − 2𝑘 )
12

53. A parallel beam of white light is incident on a diffraction gratiing,

it is noted that second order and third order spectra partially
overlap. Which wavelength in the third order spectrum appears
 at the same angle as the wavelength of600mm in the second
order:
(A) 300 mm
(B) 400 mm
(C) 600 mm
(D) 900 mm
(E) 950 mm
54. A block of mass 50kg is pulled on a frictionless surface by a force
of 210N at 30° to the horizontal. If the block moves 3m then what
is the work done by the force ?
(A) 115 √2𝐽
(B) 215 √2𝐽
(C) 315 √3𝐽
(D) None

55. How much velocity of the moon be increased so that it escapes

away from the gravitational field of the Earth ?
(A) 1%
(B) 21.2%
(C) 45.4%
(D) 81.1%

56. A sphere of charge +Q is fixed in a position. A smaller sphere of

charge +q is placed near the larger sphere and released from rest.
The small sphere will move away from the large sphere with :
(A) Decreasing velocity and decreasing acceleration
(B) Decreasing velocity and increasing acceleration
(C) Increasing velocity and decreasing acceleration
(D) Increasing velocity and increasing acceleration
57. When the component of the force is in the same direction of the
displacement (θ = 0°) , the work is _________,when the direction
of the force is opposite to the direction of the displacement
(θ = 180°), the work is ________ and when the force acts at right
angle to the displacement (θ = 90°) , then the work is________
(A) Negative….zero… positive
(B) Positive…negative…zero
(C) Negative…positive…zero
(D) Zero…positive…negative
(E) Positive… Zero…negative

58. Speed of radiowaves in vacuum is:

(A) 3 × 106 m/s
(B) 3 × 108 m/s
(C) 3 × 109 m/s
(D) 3 × 1010 m/s

59. The S.I unit of electric permittivity is:

(A) Nm2C-2
(B) Am-1
(C) NC-1
(D) C2 N-1 m-2

60. A microscope has objective of 10cm focal length and eyepiece of

25cm focal length. What is the distance between the lenses if
the objective in sharp focus it is 20cm from the objective?
(A) 115 mm
(B) 232.7 mm
(C) 417 mm
(D) 617 mm
 BIOLOGY

61. Stearin (C57 H10 O6) is an important example of:

(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins
(C) Waxes
(D) Acylglycerol
(E) Nucleic Acids

62. The above diagram represents the process of:

(A) Hydrolysis
(B) Condensation
(C) Neutralization
(D) Metabolism

63. Which of the following is none digestible by man:

(A) Maltose
(B) Starch
 (C) Cellulose
(D) Glycogen

64. Which of the following basic structural level of proteins is

indicated by an association of two alpha and two beta chains in
the hemoglobin molecule?
(A) Primary structure
(B) Secondary structure
(C) Tertiary structure
(D) Quaternary structure

65. The diagram shows a metabolic pathway :

What would be the effect of adding a small amount of a non-

competitive inhibitor of enzyme 2?
(A) Enzyme 2 would be partially denatured.
(B) Substance X would increase in concentration.
(C) Substance Y would no longer be formed.
(D) The initial reactant would no longer be metabolized.
(E) The effect would be negligible.

66. The diagram shows the ultra structure of a chloroplast as seen in

section. What are the functions of P, Q and R?
 P Q R
(A) Carbohydrate Carbohydrate light
Storage synthesis absorption
(B) Carbohydrate Carbohydrate light
Synthesis storage absorbtion
(C) Carbohydrate light Carbohydrate
Synthesis absorption storage
(D) Light carbohydrate Carbohydrate
Absorption storage synthesis
(E) Light carbohydrate carbohydrate
absorption synthesis storage

67. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding a

nucleus?
I. Stores wastes and other substances
II. Contains genetic material
III. Helps in cellular transport system
IV. Control centre of the cell
(A) I only
 (B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
(E) III and IV

68. The diagram below shows some of the structures in an animal cell.
Which one of the following structures A, B, C or D would be
involved in the final secretion of digestive enzymes from this cell?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

69. The diagram shows apparatus set up to investigate the effect of

changing the concentration of glucose in the surrounding
solution on the movement of minutes molecules through a
selectively permeable membrane (visking tubibng) in 15 minutes.
 As the concentration of glucose solution in the surrounding
solution increases, which of the following statements are correct?
I. Net diffusion of water increases.
II. Glucose molecules reach an equilibrium quicker.
III. There is less change in the volume of surrounding solution.
IV. Net diffusion of glucose increases.

(A) I, II, III and IV

(B) I, II and IV only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only

70. Movement of ions and large molecules with the help of protein
molecules in and out of cell is called:
(A) Diffusion
(B) Facilitated diffusion
(C) Passive transport
(D) Osmosis

71. A bacteriophage consists solely of:

(A) DNA and protein
(B) RNA and protein
(C) RNA only
(D) Protein only
 (E) DNA only

72. Which of the following is the simplest form of pathogens causing

diseases?
(A) Fungus
(B) Viruses
(C) Prions
(D) Amoeba

73. Which one of the following is NOT a mode of transmission of AIDS?

(A) Through Unsterilized needles
(B) Through contact with open wounds
(C) Through blood transfusion
(D) Through holding hands

74. HIV (Human Immunodeficient Virus) is:

(A) Paramyxo virus
(B) Retrovirus
(C) Rhino virus
(D) Polio virus

75. A patient is suffering from a disease. S(he) has following

symptoms:
i. Abdominal pain
ii. Jaundice
iii. Liver enlargement
iv. Fatigue

He/She is probably suffering from:

(A) HIV
(B) Rabies
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Septicaemia
(E) Kaposi’s sarcoma
76. Binomial nomenclature was first time proposed by:
(A) Charles Darwin (1859)
(B) Rodolph Virchow (1855)
(C) Louis Pasteur (1862)
(D) Carolus Linnaeus (1707)
(E) Robert Brown (1773)

77. In which of the following growth phase, the number of bacteria

increases most the rapidly:
(A) Lag phase
(B) Log phase
(C) Stationary phase
(D) Death/decline phase

78. Please mark the one kingdom having the most conspicuous living
organisms?
(A) Monera
(B) Protista
(C) Animalia
(D) Plantae

79. Many scientists believe that one of the following is/are

evolutionary origin(s) of animals, plants and fungi?
(A) Protists
(B) Algae
(C) Bacteria
(D) Protozoans

80. Which of these attacked red blood cells?

 (A) Ookinetes
(B) Gametocytes
(C) Sporozites
(D) Merozites

81. Fungi can tolerate pH from:

(A) 3-7
(B) 2-6
(C) 2-9
(D) 3-6

82. Fern has ____ pairs of chromosomes:

(A) 23
(B) 40
(C) 500
(D) 13
(E) 7

83. Which of the following types of cell are found in the secondary
xylem of angiosperms?
(A) Tracheids, parenchyma, fibres, collenchyma but no vessels
(B) Vessels, tracheids, parenchyma, collenchyma but no fibres
(C) Vessels, tracheids, fibres, collenchyma but no parenchyma
(D) Vessels, tracheids, fibres, parenchyma but no collenchyma
(E) Vessels, fibres, parenchyma, collenchyma but no tracheids

84. The botanical name of Imli is:

(A) Cassia fistula
(B) Mimosa pudica
(C) Tamarindus indica
(D) Datura alba
(E) Rosa indica
85. The floral formula of family Caesalpiniaceae or casia family is:
 (A) ⊕ , ⚥ , K(5) , C(5) A5 , G(2)
(B) + , ⚥ , K(5) , C1+2+(2) , A(9)+1 , G1
(C) + , ⚥ , K(5) or 5 , C5 , A10 , G1
(D) ⊕ , ⚥ , K(5) , C5 or (5) , A2 or (10) , G1
(E) None of the above

86. Five words are shown below:

Labium Maxillae Labrum Mandibles Antennae
These words can be used in the spaces P, Q, R, S and T to
complete the sentence below
Cockroaches are omnivorous and can eat any kind of organic
matter. They search their food by their …P…. Their digestive
system is tubular, having a straight slightly coiled digestive tube
opening at both the ends. Hence, the digestive system is
complete. The mouth lies at the base of the pre-oral cavity which
is bounded by the mouth parts, …Q…(upper lip), …R…(lower lip) ,
mandibles and maxillae. The ….S… pick up and bring food to the
…T… for mastication.
Labrum Antennae Maxillae Labium Mandibles

A. P Q R S T
B. Q P S R T
C. R S Q P T
D. S R Q T P

87. Which one of the following is fish?

(A) Star fish
(B) Jelly fish
(C) Cuttle fish
(D) Sea horse
 (E) None of the above

88. Which of these is a fresh water sponge

(A) Sycon
(B) Leucosolenia
(C) Spongilla
(D) Euplectella

89. The table shows some characteristics of four different vertebrates.

Which vertebrate is a reptile?

fins legs scales hair

A ✓ ☓ ✓ ☓
B ☓ ✓ ✓ ☓ KEY :-
C ☓ ✓ ☓ ☓ ✓ = feature present
D ☓ ✓ ☓ ✓ ☓ = feature absent

90. Which of the following endoparasites of human replicates within

human cells?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Leech
(C) Fungi
(D) Helminths

91. The photosynthetic pigments can be separated by a process called:

(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Respiration
(C) Paper chromatography
(D) Hydrolysis
 (E) Bioenergetics

92. The complete aerobic oxidation of glucose results in the synthesis

of as many as _____ molecules of ATP :
(A) 16
(B) 26
(C) 36
(D) 46

93. Which part of the cell does glycolysis occur in?

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Nucleus
(E) Vacuole

94. The diagram shows some organs of the digestive system.

Where is amylase present ?

(A) 1, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 6 and 4
(D) 3, 5 and 4

95. Masses of dilated tortuous veins in the anorectal mucosa are

known as:
(A) Bulimia
 (B) Ulcer
(C) Adipose lining
(D) Hemorrhoids

96. The reaction involved in chemotropic nutrition is:

light
(A) 6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + 6H2
Chlorophyll

light
(B) 2H2S + CO2 (CH2O)n + H2O + 2S

(C) NH4+ + 3O2 2NO2- + 2H2O + 4H+ + energy

Enzyme

(D) CH3.CO.COOH CH3.CHO + CO2

(E) 5GA3P + 3ATP 3RuBP + 3ADP + 2Pi

97. Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for a

transmembrane carrier of:
(A) Na+ ions
(B) K+ ions
(C) Cl- ions
(D) Ca+2 ions
(E) Mg+2 ions

98. The diagram represents the human respiratory system :

 Which structure(s) contain(s) muscles that contract when
breathing in?
(A) X only
(B) X and Y only
(C) X and Z only
(D) Y and Z only
(E) X, Y and Z

99. One type of congenital heart defect is called atrial septal defect
(ASD) where the left and right atria are not completely separated.
ASD usually results in blood moving from the left atrium into the
right atrium. This will cause increased blood pressure in the right
atrium and decreased blood pressure in the left atrium. Which of
the following rows describes the other effect of ASD on blood
pressure and oxygenation?
Blood pressure Blood pressure %oxygenation
in pulmonary in systematic of blood in
artery aorta pulmonary
artery
A. decreased increased decreased
B. decreased increased increased
C. increased decreased decreased
D. increased decreased increased
100. The table refers to blood vessels in the human body :
Blood carried Oxygenated/
Vessels from to deoxygenated
aorta P All organs except oxygenated
lungs
Pulmonary lungs heart Q
vein
Hepatic aorta R oxygenated
artery
Hepatic Alimentary liver S
portal vein canal

What are P, Q, R and S?

P Q R S
A. Left deoxygenated kidney deoxygenated
ventricle
B. Left oxygenated liver deoxygenated
ventricle
C. Right deoxygenated kidney oxygenated
ventricle
D. Right oxygenated liver oxygenated
ventricle

101. The causes of cyanosis include:

(A) deficiency of vitamin C
(B) varicella-zoster virus
(C) degeneration of the cartilage of the joints
(D) ventricular septum defect
(E) none of the above
102. As a result of competition among friends, Ahmed eats a lot of
Pakoras, resulting in rise of salts in blood, to compensate,
_________ mechanism will be triggered in the body.
(A) Positive feed back
(B) Negative feed back
(C) Internal feed back
(D) External feed back

103. Humans are ______ and mostly use ______ means for
thermoregulation :
(A) Ectotherm, behavioral
(B) Endotherm, physiological
(C) Ectotherm, physiological
(D) Endotherm, behavioral

104. The diagram shows the human urinary system.

Which substance is not found in the liquid at X in a healthy

person?
(A) Glucose
(B) Salt
(C) Toxins
(D) Water

105. Juxta-medullary nephrons are present only in:

(A) Fishes and amphibians
 (B) Amphibians and birds
(C) Birds and mammals
(D) Mammals and fishes

106. Bones of the skull are joined by:

(A) Fixed joints
(B) Sliding joints
(C) Pivot joints
(D) Hinge joints
(E) Gliding joints

107. The movement of plant in response to touch stimulus is:

(A) Hydrotropism
(B) Chemotropism
(C) Geotropism
(D) Thigmotropism
(E) Phototropism

108. The diagrams shows some of the muscles and bones of the
human arm :

When muscle X contracts, what happened to the arm and what

happens to the muscle Y ?
Arm Muscle Y
A. bends contracts
B. bends relaxes
C. straightens relaxes
D. straightens contracts
109. The following sequence of events occur at the neuromuscular
junction :
Nerve impulse release of V end plate potential W
produced in muscle fibre X released from sarcoplasmic
reticulum formation of Y Muscle contraction

Which one of the following shows the correct sequence from V-Y?
V W X Y
A. acetylcholine Action Calcium ions actomyosin
potential
B. acetylcholine Action actomyosin Calcium
potential ions
C. actomyosin acetylcholine Calcium ions Action
potential
D. Calcium ions Action acetylcholine actomyosin
potential
E. Calcium ions actomyosin acetylcholine Action
potential

110. Deficient production of hormones by adrenal glands results in:

(A) Cushing’s syndrome
(B) Addison’s syndrome
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Goiter
(E) Epilepsy

111. Which diagram illustrates the distribution of sodium and

potassium ions in a section of a non-myelinated axon which is at
resting potential?
 (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

112. Which one is not true for co-ordination in animals?

(A) Transmission by the nervous system is short-lived, whereas

transmission by the hormonal system is long-lasting.
(B) The nervous system uses electrical impulses to send signals
through neurons, whereas the hormonal coordination uses
chemical messengers transported into blood.
(C) Responses are often permanent in the hormonal system,
but temporary and reversible in the nervous system.
(D) In nervous system, secretory chemicals are released in
blood while in hormonal system; secretory chemicals are
released in extracellular fluids.

113. The contraction of the uterus during labour and release of milk
from the mammary glands during breast feeding is stimulated by:
 (A) Prolactin
(B) Oxytocin
(C) Antidiuretic hormone
(D) Somatotropin
(E) FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

114. All of the following are natural cloning except:

(A) Regeneration
(B) Tumor
(C) Monozygotic twins
(D) Dizygotic twins

115. The hormone labelled X in diagram is often used in over-the-

counter diagnostic tests to determine when ovulation ha
occured. This hormone is:
(A) Estrogen
(B) Progestrone
(C) FSH
(D) LH
(E) Testosterone
116. The egg of a chick is laid at which of the following stages:
(A) Gastrula
(B) Blastula
(C) Cleavage
(D) Morula
(E) Neurulation

117. Cytoplasmic localization is a consequence of:

(A) Fertilization
(B) Cleavage
(C) Morula
(D) Blastula
(E) Gastrula

118. An anti codon is the sequence of the nitrogenous bases on the:

(A) Complementary strand of DNA which codes for one amino
acid.
(B) Complementary strand of mRNA which codes for one
amino acid.
(C) tRNA molecule where the amino acid is attached.
(D) tRNA molecule which recognizes the appropriate sequence
of bases on the mRNA.
(E) mRNA molecule which instructs the ribosomes to initiate
protein synthesis.

119. Name the type of the following chromosome :

 (A) Metacentric
(B) Sub metacentric
(C) Telocentric
(D) Acrocentric

120. Cells from a bacterial clone were grown for many generations on
a medium in which all the nitrogen compounds contained only the
isotopes Nitrogen-15 (N15). Adenine comprised 36% of the
nitrogen bases present. A sample of these bacteria was
transferred to a medium in which the only nitrogen source was
N14 and was provided with condition suitable for asexual
reproduction. What was the percentage of guanine in the DNA?
(A) 14%
(B) 18%
(C) 28%
(D) 36%
(E) 64%

121. Identify purine and pyrimidines from the following

figures:

(A) a and b = purines ; c, d, and e = pyrimidines

(B) d and b = purines ; c, a, and e = pyrimidines
(C) a and e = purines ; c, d, and b = pyrimidines
(D) a and c = purines ; b, d, and e = pyrimidine
122. The inherited impairment of haemoglobin production is called:
(A) Leukaemia
(B) Thrombus formation
(C) Thalassaemia
(D) Myocardial inarction
(E) Hypertension

123. The above diagram illustrates:

(A) Haemophilia
(B) Phenylketonuria
(C) Sickle cell anemia
(D) Down’s syndrome

124. In a laboratory while working on a new species, it is found that

the fish has two varieties, red and brown. It was determined by
another group of scientists in another laboratory that brown is a
dominant colour in this species. If we have brown fish with us in
the laboratory, how can we determine whether they are
homozygous or heterozygous for trait ?

(A) Breed this fish with a red fish and check F1 generation
(B) Breed this fish with a red fish and check F2 generation
(C) Breed this fish with a brown fish and check F1 generation
(D) Breed this fish with a brown fish and check F2 generation
125. The family tree shows the inheritance of the ability to taste a
certain substance. The allele for the ability to taste this substance
is dominant to the allele for the inability to taste it.

What percentage of children of Pasha and Hina would be “non-

tasters”?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%

126. A cross between a black cat and a tan cat produces a tabby
pattern (black and tan fur together). What percentage of kittens
would have tan fur if a tabby cat is crossed with a black cat?
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 25%
(D) 0%
127. The following results of a cross between two individuals shown in
the picture is:

(A) One that is homozygous dominant and other has a

dominant phenotype, but has a mother with recessive
phenotype.
(B) One that is homozygous recessive and other has a
dominant phenotype, but has a mother with recessive
phenotype.
(C) One that is homozygous recessive and other has a
dominant phenotype, but has a brother with recessive
phenotype.
(D) One that is homozygous recessive and other has a
recessive phenotype, but has a father with dominant
phenotype.

128. If the new born babies get mixed up in a hospital, how can we
determine their parentage from the information given below:
Baby I Type O
Baby II Type B

Mrs. Ali Type A

Mr. Ali Type AB

Mrs. Ahmad Type A

Mr. Ahmad Type A
 (A) Baby I is the child of Mr. and Mrs. Ali
(B) Baby II is the child of Mr. and Mrs. Ali
(C) Baby II is the child of Mr. Ahmad
(D) Both baby I and baby II is the child of Mr. and Mrs.
Ahmad
(E) Inadequate data

129. The technique used for identification of criminals is called:

(A) Cloning
(B) DNA fingerprinting
(C) Restriction analysis
(D) Polymorphism
(E) Gene sequencing

130. Following picture is of ______ technique, as DNA molecules are

separated on the basis of their size and speed in it.

(A) Cloning
(B) Recombinant DNA technique
(C) Cell culture
(D) Gel electrophoresis
131. The enzyme used to seal the DNA is:
(A) Restriction enzymes
(B) Ligase
(C) Polymerase
(D) Lipase

132. In the Hardy-Weinberg principle, p2 +2pq +q2 =1, q2 represents

the frequency of the :
(A) Homozygous dominant
(B) Heterozygous dominant
(C) Heterozygous recessive
(D) Homozygous recessive
(E) Blended genes

133. Identify the incorrect statement about Charles Darwin’s Theory :

(A) The individuals of species have variations among them
(B) There is always a tendency of over reproduction in a
species
(C) Vast gradual changes result in the origin of a new
species
(D) Favourable variations survive and unfavourable will be
exterminated
(E) Intra specific competition occurs between different
species and inter-specific competition occurs among
the individuals in a species

134. At the northern hemisphere, a tundra type of growth:

(A) is impossible
(B) occurs only in winter
(C) lasts only for two to three months
(D) is in the form of a wide land
(E) is in the form of small patches of land
135. Which of the following would be most likely to occur in an
ecosystem?
(A) As the number of prey decreases, the number of
predators increases
(B) As the number of predators increases, the number of
prey increases
(C) As the number of prey decreases, the number of
predators decreases
(D) As the number of prey increases, the number of
predators decreases
(E) As the number of predators decreases, the number of
prey decreases

136. Savannah is an example of ______ ecosystem :

(A) marine water
(B) fresh water
(C) forest
(D) tropical grass land
(E) desert

137. Which processes are essential in making nitrogen in dead plant

material available to growing plants?
I. ammonification
II. deamination
III. nitrification
IV. nitrogen fixation

(A) I, II and II only

(B) I, II and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) II, III and IV only
138. The diagram shows a simplified nitrogen cycle. During which
stage does decomposition start?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

139. It is possible to date the rocks by comparing the amount of

specific radioactivity isotopes they contain. Which of the
statement is correct:
(A) Older sediment layers have equal amount of these
radioactive isotopes as that of the young ones.
(B) Older sediment layers have less amount of these
radioactive isotopes as that of the young ones.
(C) Older sediment layers have greater amount of these
radioactive isotopes as that of the young ones.
(D) Older sediment layers did not have these radioactive
isotopes.

140. Scurvy is caused by deficiency of vitamin ______ :

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
 CHEMISTRY
141. Given the equation:
C3H8 (g) + 5O2  3CO2 (g) + 4H20
At S.T.P , how many litres of 02 are needed to completely
burned 5.0 litres of C3H8 (g)
(A) 5.0
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 25
(E) 10.5

142. When 20cm3 of a gaseous hydro carbon were completely

burned in an excess of oxygen, 60cm3 of carbondioxide and 40cm3
of water vapour were formed all volume were being measured at
the same temperature and pressure. What is the formula of hydro
carbon?
(A) C2H6
(B) C3H4
(C) C3H8
(D) C3H12

143. A compound was found to contain 50% of X (mol. wt = 10) and

50% of Y (mol. wt = 20) the empirical formula will be:
(A) XY
(B) XY2
(C) X2Y
(D) X2Y3
144. The unit cell perameter of mono clinic system are:
(A) a = b ≠ c ; α = β = γ = 90o
(B) a ≠ b ≠ c ; α = γ = 90o , β ≠ 90o
(C) a ≠ b = c ; α = β = 90o , γ ≠ 90o
(D) a = b = c ; α = β = γ = 90o

145. Comparative rates of diffusion of He and SO2 gas will be:

(A) 8
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 16
(E) 64

146. Effusion of gases takes place through a hole with :

(A) Hole dimension
(B) Infinite dimension
(C) Slit like dimension
(D) Molecular dimension

147. A child balloon has a volume 3.80dm3 when temperature is

35oC. If the balloon is put in refrigerator and cooled to 5oc the
approximate value of the balloon is (assume pressure inside
the balloon is equals to atmospheric pressure ) :
(A) 3.00 dm3
(B) 3.43 dm3
(C) 3.08 dm3
(D) 3.25 dm3
(E) 0.54 dm3
148.Which of the following has identical rates of diffusion:
(A) N2O and CO2
(B) NO and CO
(C) NH3 and PH3
(D) H20 and CH4

149.The vanderwaal’s constant “b” of a gas is four times the:

(A) Pressure of the gas
(B) Volume of the gas
(C) Molar mass of that gas
(D) Temperature of a gas

150. Which of the statement is correct:

(A) Faraday’s experiment indicates the existence of electrons.
(B) Crook’s tube experiment shows the presence of electrons
and protons in an atom.
(C) Radioactivity confirms the presence of electrons and
protons.
(D) Chadwick experiment shows the presence of neutrons
(E) All of the above.

151. Most penetrating radioactive rays:

(A) Cathode rays
(B) Beta rays
(C) Alpha rays
(D) Gamma rays

152. In a double – handed carbon atom (C=C) :

(A) Hybridization occurs between the S-orbital and one P-orbital
(B) Hybridization occurs between the S-orbital and two P-orbital
(C) Hybridization occurs between the S-orbital and three P-
orbital
 (D) No hybridization occurs between the S-orbital and P-orbital
(E) Hybridization occurs between the two S-orbitals and one P-
orbital

153. Hydrogen-bonding is maximum in:

(A) Ethyl chloride
(B) Diehtyl ether
(C) Ethanol
(D) None of these

154. Which one of the following has the lowest percentage of ionic
character ?
(A) CCl4
(B) BeCl2
(C) BCl3
(D) LiCl4
(E) HCl

155. Group ________ shows such low electrical conductance that

they can be considered as non-conductors:
(A) 5A , 6A
(B) 6A , 7A
(C) 7A , 8A
(D) 9A , 10A
 156. The orbitals of a nitrogen atom may be represented as
shown :

1s 2s 2p

Which diagram represents the arrangement of electrons in

ground state of the atom?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

157. The amount of heat provided to a system at constant pressure

(qp) is equals to:
(A) change in internal energy (∆E)
(B) change in enthalpy (∆H)
(C) change in Gibb’s free energy (∆G)
(D) change in temperature only (∆T)
(E) change in pressure only (∆P)
158. When 5400 J of heat is added to a system of gas at a constant
pressure of 2x105 N/m2 , its internal energy increases by 1000 J .
Calculate the change in volume of the system :
(A) 0.002 cm3
(B) 0.004 cm3
(C) 0.006 cm3
(D) 0.007 cm3

159. The value of kc for the reaction :

H2 (g) + CO2 (g) ↔ H2O (g) + CO (g)

is 1.08 at 1000oC .If 1.0 mole of each H2 and CO2 are place in 1
liter flask, the final equilibrium concentration of CO at 1000oC will
be:
(A) 0.295 M
(B) 0.385 M
(C) 0.531 M
(D) 0.473 M

160. Consider the following reaction :

N2 (g) + O2 (g) ↔ 2NO (g) ; kc=0.1 at 2000oC.

If the original concentration of N2 and O2 were 0.1 M each,

calculate the concentrations of NO at equilibrium.
(A) 0.028 M
(B) 0.0012 M
(C) 0.18 M
 (D) 0.0018 M
(E) 0.002 M

161. The solubility product for BaSO4 at 18-25*C is:

(A) 1.0x10-10 mole2 dm-6
(B) 8.7x10-36 mole2 dm-6
(C) 1.8x10-21 mole2 dm-6
(D) 8.4x10-28 mole2 dm-6
(E) 3.5x10-52 mole2 dm-6

162. The term active mass means concentration is :

(A) Kg/dm3
(B) Gms/cm3
(C) Mol/dm3
(D) Moles/cm3

163. How will the equilibrium of the following reaction be affected if

additional nitrogen is added ?

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g)

(A) It will be shifted to the right

(B) It will be shifted to the left
(C) It will be unaffected
(D) The effect on the equilibrium cannot be determined without more
information
(E) More NH3 will be produced
164. When 18x10-3 moles/dm3 of acid reacts with 22x10-3
moles/dm3 of ethyl alcohol to from 40x10-3 moles/dm3 of
ethyl acetate and 40x10-3 moles/dm3 of water . Find the
value of equilibrium constant (kc)
(A) 4.04
(B) 3.04
(C) 3.14
(D) 2.02
(E) 1.04

165. In an electrochemical series, element are arranged in order

of their standard electrode potentials, the correct reactivity
order for metals is:
(A) Gold, Silver, Magnesium, Aluminum
(B) Mercury, Calcium, Sodium, Magnesium
(C) Sodium, Aluminum, Lead, Copper
(D) Potassium, Silver, Magnesium, Aluminum

166. Oxidation number of nitrogen in HNO3 is:

(A) +4
(B) +2
(C) +6
(D) +5
(E) +7

167. If the mole fraction of the solvent in a solution decreases

then:
(A) Boiling point of the solution decreases
(B) Vapour pressure of the solution increases
(C) Osmotic pressure increases
 (D) All of the above are correct

168. When the following reaction is balanced, what is the ionic

charge on the right side of the equation ?
__H2+ + __MnO4- + __Fe+2  __Mn+2 +___Fe+3 +__H2O
(A) +5
(B) +7
(C) +10
(D) +17
(E) The net ionic charge on either side must be zero

169. Dissolution of ammonium nitrate in water is an endothermic

process. Which of the following graphs shows how the
temperaturealters as the ammonium nitrate is added to water
and then the solution is left at room temperature?
170. The energy profile diagrams for the reaction in presence and
absence of a catalyst are shown below. In these profile A
represents:

(A) Threshold energy

(B) Energy of activation on absence of catalyst
(C) Average internal energy of reactants
(D) Energy activation in presence of catalyst
(E) None of the above

171. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of N2O4 is
6.2x10-4/sec . The half life period for the decomposition is:
(A) 118s
(B) B.1150s
(C) C.1100s
(D) D.1006s

172. Which of the following are true statements regarding reaction

orders except :
(A) The reaction order ranges from minimum 0 to
maximum 3
 (B) “Rate expression” leads to the concept of orders of
reaction
(C) If doubling the concentration of the reactant doubles
the rate of the reaction, then the reaction is first order
in that reactant
(D) Order of reaction is associated with total number of
molecules present in a reaction, not the experimental
measurement
(E) The order of reaction is defined as sum of all the
exponents of the concentration in terms of the
reactants involved in the rate equation

173. The false statement regarding saline hydrides is:

(A) They are formed from hydrogen and most
electropositive element
(B) They are used as reducing agents
(C) They give H2 from H2O
(D) They are covalent in nature

174. Magnesium oxide is used in making of the lining of blast furnace.

It is extracted from seawater as follows:

Aqueous calcium hydroxide is added to seawater

Ca(OH)2(aq) + MgCl2(aq)  Mg(OH)2(s) + CaCl2(aq)

The magnesium hydroxide is then filtered off ad roasted which of

the following comparison between calcium and magnesium
hydroxide forms.
(A) Magnesium is less electropositive than calcium
 (B) Magnesium is lower than calcium in the reactivity
series
(C) The enthalpy change of hydrogen for Mg+2 is less
exothermic than for Ca+2
(D) The solubility product for Mg(OH)2 is lower than that of
Ca(OH)2
(E) The magnitude of the lattice energy of Mg(OH)2 is less
than that of Ca(OH)2

175. Strontium lies b/w calcium and barium in Group 2A in the

periodic table. Which of the following properties could be
predicted for strontium ?
(A) It forms water soluble carbonate which does not
decomposes on heating
(B) It forms a sparring soluble sulphate
(C) It forms a nitrate which decomposes on heating to
form strontium nitrate and oxygen
(D) It is reduced by cold water liberating hydrogen

176. Preparation of vegetable ghee involves:

(A) Halogenation
(B) Hydrogenation
(C) Dehydrogenation
(D) Hydroxylation

177. For the reaction (where X is halogen)

2M + X2  2MX
(A) If M is metal, it is more likely to be:
(B) Alkaline earth metal
(C) Alkali metal
 (D) Outer transition metal
(E) Inner transition metal
(F) None of the above

178. Which of the following is strongest oxidizing agent:

(A) Ozone
(B) Oxygen
(C) Chlorine
(D) Flourine

179. Which of the following statement about H2S is false?

(A) It is a covalent compound
(B) It is a gas with bad smell
(C) It is a strong reducing agent than H20
(D) It’s molecules is non-linear
(E) It is a weak base in water

180. The best antidote in case of H2S poisoning:

(A) Very strong chlorine
(B) Very dilute chlorine
(C) Very strong sulphur
(D) Very dilute sulphur
(E) Very dilute hydrogen

181. Transition element and their compound are commonly used

due to :
(A) Involvement of inner-d orbitals
(B) Due to the presence of unpaired electron
(C) d-d transition of electrons
 (D) Variable oxidation state
(E) Suitable surface area

182. The chemical name of [Zn(OH)4]-2 is:

(A) Tetrahydroxy zinc (II)
(B) Tetrahydroxo zincate (IV)
(C) Tetrahydroxo zincate (II)
(D) Pentahydroxy zincate (II)

183. The electronic configuration of Iron is:

(A) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d5,4s2
(B) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d5,4s2
(C) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d6,4s2
(D) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d3,4s2
(E) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d2,4s2

184. Wrought iron contain_______% of carbon :

(A) 0.12 – 0.25
(B) 0.12 – 0.39
(C) 0.25 – 0.6
(D) 0.2 – 0.78

185. The _______ arise due to the unequal distribution of carbon

atoms on either side of the functional group
(A) Tautormerism
(B) Metamerism
(C) Position isomerism
(D) Structural isomerism
186. IUPAC names of this (CH3)2 – CH – CH(C2H5)—C(CH3)3 :
(A) 3—ethyl—2,2,4—trimethyl pentane
(B) 4—ethyl—2,2,4—trimethyl pentane
(C) 5—ethyl—2,2,4—trimethyl pentane
(D) 2—ethyl—2,2,4—trimethyl pentane
(E) 1—ethyl—2,2,4—trimethyl pentane
187. Substances which are weakly attracted by strong magnetic field
are called:
(A) Diamagnetic substances
(B) Ferromagnetic substances
(C) Paramagnetic substances
(D) None

188. What would be the major product of the following reaction ?

189. How would an ammonium group affect on benzene ring for
subsequent reactions?

(A) deactivate the ring; meta directing

(B) activate the ring, ortho-para directing
(C) deactivate the ring; ortho-para directing
(D) activate the ring; meta directing

190. Which of the following does not give Iodoform test ?

(A) CH3OH
(B) CH3CH3OH
(C) CH3CHO
(D) CH3COCH3

191. What are the major products of reaction shown below?

HBr

(A) Phenol and bromopronane

(B) Bromobenzene and propanol
(C) Bromobenzene and propane
(D) Benzene and propane
192. Primary alcohol is produced by reaction of Grignard’s reagent
_________ followed by hydrolysis in acidic medium.
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Formaldehyde
(C) Acebaldehyde
(D) Ketone
(E) Methyl chloride

193. Which of the following is true regarding methyl alcohol ?

(A) It is a colorless, volatile, thin liquid with specific gravity
0.796 at 15oC
(B) It is used for low temperature thermometer and as fuel
substitute
(C) It is extensively used in the formation of different
beverages
(D) It is used as a base for perfumes
(E) It is used as an antiseptic & disinfectant

194. Glycerine is an example of:

(A) Alpha—amino acid
(B) Beta—amino acid
(C) Gama—amino acid
(D) Neutral amino acid

195. Early discovered carbohydrates could be represented by the

general formula:
(A) Cx(H2O)y
(B) Cx(H2O)y+1
(C) Cx(H2O)y-1
 (D) Cx+1(H2O)1

196. Glass is a/an:

(A) Pure solid
(B) Super cooled liquid
(C) Mixture of sodium and calcium
(D) Crystalline form of Na2CO3
(E) Alloy

197. It is a structure of :
(A) Menadione
(B) Alpha tocopherol
(C) Calciferol
(D) Pyridoxine

198. ________ is the natural or artificial substance containing the

chemical elements that improve growth and productiveness of
plants :
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Fertilizers
(C) Proteins
(D) Amino acids
199. _________is the sheet of material made up of the network of
natural cellulosic fibers:
(A) Foil
(B) Paper
(C) Wire gauze
(D) None

200. Pyrex glass is a:

(A) Sodium calcium silicate
(B) Sodium aluminum boro silicate
(C) Potassium calcium borate
(D) Calcium iodate