BioMedical Admissions Test 4500/11

Thursday 2 November 2017 1 hour

SECTION 1 Aptitude and Skills

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Please read this page carefully, but do not open the question paper until you are told that you
may do so.

This paper is Section 1 of 3. Your supervisor will collect this question paper and answer sheet before
giving out Section 2.

A separate answer sheet is provided for this section. Please check you have one. You also require a
soft pencil and an eraser.

Please complete the answer sheet with your:

• BMAT candidate number

• Centre number
• Date of birth
• Name

Speed as well as accuracy is important in this section. Work quickly, or you may not finish the
paper. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only points for correct answers, so you should
attempt all 35 questions. All questions are worth one mark.

Answer on the sheet provided. All questions ask you to show your choice between options by shading
one circle. If you make a mistake, erase thoroughly and try again.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

You can use the question paper for rough working or notes, but no extra paper is allowed.

Calculators are NOT permitted.

Please wait to be told you may begin before turning this page.

This paper consists of 28 printed pages and 8 blank pages.

PV4

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1 Hugh painted a room 60% pink and 40% orange.

Before he began he had three full 1.5 litre pots of paint: one red, one yellow and one white. He
mixed equal amounts of red and yellow to create the orange paint and he mixed red and white
in the ratio 1 : 3 to create the pink paint.

He made exactly the amounts of orange paint and pink paint that he needed. After doing so, he
had 900 ml of the yellow paint left.

How much of the red paint did Hugh have left?

A 150 ml

B 300 ml

C 450 ml

D 500 ml

E 700 ml

F 1050 ml

G 1350 ml

2 There were 61 million prescriptions for antidepressant drugs in the UK in 2015. This was
double the number of prescriptions in 2005. In 2014, there were 1.1 million mental health
disability claimants. This was double the number in 1995.

Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above information?

A While antidepressant drugs can help combat mental illness in the short term, data
suggests that in the long term their use leads to worse outcomes for patients.
B Doctors are being increasingly encouraged to prescribe drug treatment for people suffering
from depression regardless of how effective a treatment it is.
C Antidepressant drugs are clearly not an effective solution in the long term treatment of
mental illness.
D Figures for drug prescriptions and disability claimants provide no evidence that
antidepressant drugs are improving the long term mental health of people in the UK.

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3 Mr and Mrs Joelson and their twin sons intend to move house. They have a budget of
$900 000.

Ideally, they would like a house with at least four bedrooms, a double garage and a medium or
large size garden. They would also like to be no more than 2 km from the nearest grocery store
and within 6 km of sports facilities. They realise that their wish list may not be met in full, so
they decide that they will be happy with a house, within budget, that satisfies at least four of
their five wishes. If more than one house satisfies at least four of their wishes, then they will
choose the one for which dividing the cost of the house by the number of bedrooms gives the
lowest price.

The Joelson family have found five houses which satisfy at least some of their wishes.

house number of garage garden distance to distance to cost

bedrooms grocery store sports facilities
Acorns 5 double large 2.0 km 8 km $825 000
Bellavista 3 single medium 2.5 km 4 km $810 000
Chestnuts 6 double large 3.0 km 3 km $930 000
Dayview 4 double medium 1.0 km 7 km $640 000
Everglade 4 none small 1.5 km 5 km $860 000

Which house should the Joelson family buy?

A Acorns

B Bellavista

C Chestnuts

D Dayview

E Everglade

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4 Nuclear power is often suggested as a ‘cleaner’ or ‘greener’ alternative to power production

using fossil fuels such as coal and oil. Nuclear power may be less air-polluting than fossil fuels,
but it still poses an unacceptable risk to the environment and to humanity. The expansion of all
nuclear power production should therefore be stopped and existing plants shut down. Despite
what the nuclear industry tells us, building enough nuclear power stations to make a
meaningful reduction in greenhouse gas emissions would create tens of thousands of tons of
lethal, high-level radioactive waste. Instead, we need an energy system that can fight climate
change, based on a mix of renewable energy sources (such as wind, solar and tidal) and
energy efficiency. Nuclear power already delivers less energy globally than renewable energy.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument?

A There are established procedures for managing and safely storing nuclear waste, funded
by electricity users.
B The share of global energy delivered by nuclear power will continue to decrease in the
coming years.
C Wind power typically costs much more than nuclear power and cannot provide power on
demand.
D Currently, nuclear energy saves the emission of 2.5 billion tonnes of CO2 relative to coal.

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5 A piece of a puzzle is shown below.

Which one of the following blocks could fit onto this piece to make a solid cube?

A B C

D E

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6 Researchers have found that middle-aged men with bigger waist measurements have an
increased risk of developing prostate cancer. They found that, for every extra ten centimetres a
man had on his waist, his risk of developing the most aggressive form of prostate cancer was
raised by 13 per cent. Early results suggest the increased risk is linked with the disruption to
testosterone and other hormones that occurs with weight gain. This shows that middle-aged
men can prevent the development of prostate cancer by eating a healthy diet and taking
regular exercise.

Which one of the following best expresses a flaw in the above argument?

A It ignores the fact that weight gain is a factor in other forms of cancer.

B It assumes that major changes to diet and exercise are achievable by all men.

C It assumes that losing weight is sufficient to avoid developing prostate cancer.

D It fails to note the role of hormone disruption in other forms of cancer.

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7 The chart below shows the results of a survey of the favourite sport of each child in a school.

16
14 14
14
12 12
11 11
10 10 10 10 10
8 8
6 6 6 6 6 6
4 4
2
0
swimming running football rounders

year 3 year 4 year 5 year 6

An equal number of girls and boys took part in the survey.

No girls chose swimming and no boys chose rounders.

Equal numbers of girls and boys chose running.

How many girls chose football?

A 5

B 18

C 20

D 24

E 30

F 31

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Questions 8–11 refer to the following information.

The following set of data is from a nine-year study of reoffending and reconviction rates in the
UK. The study followed a cohort of 42,721 offenders who were released from prison in 2000 or
given a non-custodial sentence in 2000.

Reconviction rates, frequency rates, and severity rates

for different follow-up periods

Follow-up Reconviction Reconviction Rate of severe

period rate1 frequency rate2 reconvictions3

3 month 19.9% 50.3 0.2

6 month 30.8% 98.9 0.4
9 month 37.9% 142.6 0.6
1 year 43.0% 185.1 0.8
2 year 55.2% 347.5 1.6
3 year 61.9% 498.5 2.5
4 year 65.8% 632.9 3.1
5 year 68.4% 741.7 3.8
6 year 70.4% 833.9 4.4
7 year 71.8% 912.3 5.0
8 year 73.0% 986.4 5.5
9 year 74.0% 1,057.5 6.0

1
Reconviction rate: the proportion of offenders who were
reconvicted for one offence or more during the follow-up
period
2
Reconviction frequency rate: the number of offences
per 100 offenders in the cohort resulting in a reconviction
3
Rate of severe reconvictions: the number of severe offences
(e.g. violence or armed robbery) per 100 offenders

All figures are cumulative and relate only to offences that resulted in a conviction. No
adjustment was made for factors that might account for a decline in the rate of reconvictions
over time.

Additional data was collected on offenders who had served custodial sentences and who were
released from prison in 2000. Offenders who received longer sentences (four years and over)
formed 2.3 per cent of the cohort. Offenders who received shorter sentences (less than twelve
months) formed 24.2 per cent of the cohort, but committed 39 per cent of all offences that led to
a conviction in the first year of the follow-up.

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8 According to the data in the table, what was the average number of reconvictions
per re-offender by the end of the nine year follow-up period?

A 7.8

B 10.6

C 14.3

D 40.4

9 Which of the following statements is supported by the table and accompanying information?

1 Over 77 per cent of all offenders who were reconvicted within the two year follow-up
period were actually reconvicted in the first year.
2 Of all offences resulting in a reconviction in the nine year follow-up period, at least
one third occurred in years 2 and 3.
3 In the first year of the follow-up period there were at least 77,000 reconvictions.

A 1 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E 1 and 3 only

F 2 and 3 only

G 1, 2 and 3

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10 In the first year of the follow-up period, approximately how many offences leading to a
reconviction were committed by prisoners who had served sentences less than 12 months?

A 7,400

B 19,000

C 31,000

D 180,000

11 Which of the following factors might feasibly account for a decline in the year-on-year
rate of reconvictions as indicated by the study?

1 substantial numbers of re-offenders being sent to prison

2 normal mortality rate over a decade

3 a deterrent effect created by harsher sentencing

A 1 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E 1 and 3 only

F 2 and 3 only

G 1, 2 and 3

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12 The theatre show called Gracie’s World needs 8 characters to be performed. Gracie, Sarah
and Rose are characters who must be played by female performers and Teddy, Graham and
Carl must be played by male performers. There are two guards in the show who can be played
by either a male or female performer. Each performer can play more than one character but
each character can only be played by one performer. The performer who plays the role of
Gracie cannot play any other characters. The table below shows the characters involved in
each scene:

scene characters
1 Teddy, Graham, Guard 1 and Guard 2
2 Teddy, Sarah, Carl and Guard 2
3 Teddy, Gracie and Rose
4 Teddy, Rose and Carl
5 Gracie and Graham
6 Teddy and Sarah
7 Teddy, Gracie, Rose and Graham
8 Rose and Carl
9 Gracie, Carl and Guard 1
10 Teddy, Rose and Sarah
11 Teddy and Sarah
12 Teddy, Rose and Gracie
13 Carl and Gracie

In this year’s production, the performer who plays Rose also plays Guard 1.

Which of the following pairs of characters could be played by the same person in this year’s
production?

A Gracie and Sarah

B Teddy and Guard 1

C Sarah and Guard 1

D Graham and Carl

E Sarah and Graham

F Rose and Guard 2

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13 In the history of the Earth there have been three extinctions of marine animals, which as yet we
cannot explain. Earlier this year, researchers discovered that periods when the oceans had
high levels of trace elements, such as zinc, copper, manganese and selenium, seemed to
overlap with periods when most groups of living animals first appeared. These minerals are
called essential trace elements because without them we die. Now new research has shown
that drops in selenium levels in the oceans correlate well with each of the extinction events at
the end of the Ordovician, Devonian and Triassic periods. Thus the level of selenium in the
oceans ...

Which one of the following most logically completes the last sentence in the above passage?

A … must be the explanation as to why marine animal life developed on Earth.

B … could be a contributory factor in the three incidences of extinction of marine animals.

C … is more crucial than the other trace elements to the survival of marine animal species.

D … must have caused the extinctions of marine animals at the end of the Ordovician,
Devonian and Triassic periods.

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14 There are three political parties in Xanthia: the Citron Party, the Jonquil Party and the
Saffron Party. Before last month’s General Election the Jonquils held 126 of the 240 seats in
the Xanthian Parliament, the Citrons held 80 and the Saffrons held 34.

In last month’s General Election:

• the Citrons gained 47 seats from the Jonquils and 10 seats from the Saffrons;
• the Jonquils gained 11 seats from the Citrons and 15 seats from the Saffrons;
• the Saffrons gained 18 seats from the Citrons and 33 seats from the Jonquils.

Which one of the following pie charts, suitably labelled, shows the current state of the parties in
the Xanthian Parliament?

A B C

D E

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15 How did Earth get its water? It seems it had it all along. There are two possible sources for our
water: either bombardment by meteorites soon after Earth’s formation, or it was present in the
dust from which our planet formed. So a team from the University of Glasgow looked at the
ratio of heavy hydrogen – an isotope known as deuterium – and normal hydrogen in water
trapped for 4.5 billion years in volcanic rock. They found little sign of deuterium, which rules out
meteorites since they have much more of this isotope. Instead the water must have originated
in the dust cloud from which the solar system, including Earth, condensed.

Which one of the following most closely matches the reasoning in the above argument?

A Soil is either acidic or alkaline, but there are camellias growing here, which cannot tolerate
alkalinity, so this soil must be acidic.
B Were the dinosaurs warm-blooded or cold-blooded? Obviously they were cold-blooded
since they were reptiles and all reptiles are cold-blooded.
C A planet that is neither too hot nor too cold to support life is known as a ‘Goldilocks planet’.
Since many of these exist in the universe, there must be life on some of them.
D There are two possible ways to get to the airport, bus or taxi. A taxi will get you there
faster, but since the bus is cheaper, most people travel by bus instead.

16 I have two credit cards, each of which has a four-digit PIN. Together the two PINs consist of
eight different non-zero digits, whilst the four digits of each of them individually add up to 19.

Which non-zero digit does neither of the two PINs contain?

A 1

B 3

C 5

D 7

E 9

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17 We often hear about childhood stars having breakdowns in later life. Celebrity gossip
magazines regularly feature stories revelling in the decline of a once innocent and adored child
actor into a troubled twenty-something going through painful relationship break-ups and battles
with drug addictions. Their fate is inevitable given the moral bankruptcy of show business: the
industry is steeped in sex, alcohol and drugs. Parents choosing to expose their children to
these evils at such a vulnerable age must take the blame for their struggles with them in later
life. Given the lasting damage, I would argue that it is actually child abuse to place a minor into
such an environment. As part of our policy of child protection, it should be illegal to let your
child work in show business.
Which of the following expresses a flaw in the above argument?

1 Break-ups and mental breakdowns do not occur only to childhood stars; they can
happen to anyone.
2 Being adored as a child is not an adequate explanation for addictions or broken
relationships in later life.

A 1 only

B 2 only

C both 1 and 2

D neither 1 nor 2

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18 I need to do some baking for my son’s birthday party. I am going to bake a chocolate cake and
some chocolate biscuits, and then after that I would like to make some pancakes.

The ingredients required for each of these are as follows:

8 pancakes 1 chocolate cake 60 chocolate biscuits

100 g flour 225 g flour 400 g flour

2 eggs 330 g sugar 100 g cocoa powder
200 ml milk 85 g cocoa powder 200 g sugar
50 g butter 2 eggs 400 g butter
20 g sugar 250 ml milk
1 lemon 150 g butter

In my kitchen I have the following provisions available:

500 g tin of cocoa powder

12 eggs
600 g bag of sugar
5 lemons
2.5 litre carton of milk
600 g of butter
1 kg bag of flour

After baking the cake and making 60 chocolate biscuits, how many pancakes can I make with
what I have left?

A 0

B 8

C 16

D 24

E 32

F 40

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Questions 19–22 refer to the following information.

A fifth of genomics papers between 2005 and 2015 contained errors in spreadsheets

A recent study in the journal Genome Biology looked at papers published in 18 genomics
journals between 2005 and 2015, and found spreadsheet-related errors in 20% of articles that
provided supplementary data alongside their text. Although the quality of the papers was not
necessarily affected, such errors can create complications for other scientists trying to replicate
or build on previous work. The charts and the table below summarise the findings.
% of papers with spreadsheet errors,
Number of papers affected per journal,
2005–2015
2005–2015

Journal title No. of

papers
affected

PLoS One 170

BMC Genomics 158
Genome Res 68
Nucleic Acids Res 67
Genome Biol 63
Genes Dev 55
Hum Mol Genet 27
Nature 23
BMC Bioinformatics 21
RNA 15
Nature Genet 9
Supplementary files with gene name errors
Bioinformatics 6
PLoS Comput Biol 6
PLoS Biol 5
Mol Biol Evol 4
Science 3
Genome Biol Evol 2
DNA Res 2

Total 704

The syntax of genomics makes it particularly difficult for off-the-shelf software to digest. For
example, spreadsheets often mistake gene symbols for dates. The authors found that Microsoft
Excel would often interpret ‘SEPT2’, which corresponds to the gene Septin 2, as ‘September
2nd’. Such hiccups can be quickly resolved, but they are easy to overlook.
The paper’s most worrying finding is that mistakes seem to be proliferating. The authors found
that the number of genomics papers packaged with error-ridden spreadsheets increased by
20% a year over the period, far above the 10% annual growth rate in the number of genomics
papers published. If we extrapolate current trends indefinitely into the future, soon every
spreadsheet attached to a genetics paper will have an error.

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19 Which one of the following, if true, weakens the support that the data gives to the claim made in
the headline?

A Scientific fields other than genomics do not have a similarly high prevalence of error-ridden
spreadsheets.
B The study counted empty cells (which indicate that data is unavailable and are perfectly
normal) as spreadsheet errors.
C The findings of the majority of papers observed in this study have been successfully
replicated.
D New versions of Microsoft Excel allow the user to turn off the automatic conversion of
entries like ‘SEPT2’ to dates.

20 Which of the following is supported by the information given?

1 In 2015, at least half of the journals observed published a paper whose

supplementary files contained spreadsheet errors.
2 In 2011, the number of files with gene name errors was more than twice as high
as in 2009.
3 During the observed period, Nature published twice as many papers with
spreadsheet errors as BMC Bioinformatics.

A 1 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E 1 and 3 only

F 2 and 3 only

G 1, 2 and 3

21 Consider the journals in which the proportion of papers affected was higher than the average.

What percentage of the total number of affected papers were published in these journals?

A 40%

B 43%

C 52%

D 63%

E 66%

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22 Suppose that 80% of all genomics papers published in 2015 were affected. Using the growth
rates expressed in the last paragraph to make predictions about the future, what is the first year
in which every genomics paper would be affected?

A 2016

B 2017

C 2018

D 2019

E 2020

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23 The following diagram shows how the pieces fit together in a child’s 15-piece jigsaw puzzle:

The area shaded in black indicates where two pieces are missing.

Which one of the following pairs could be the missing pieces?

A B

C D

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24 Two hundred years ago the average woman in a rich nation could expect to give birth
to 8.5 children and to die around her fifty-fifth birthday. By 1920 the birth rate had halved
to 4.2 children and women’s life expectancy had risen to almost seventy years. We can
conclude, therefore, that the heavy biological toll of childbirth on women means that the more
times they give birth, the faster they age and the more likely they are to die early.

Which one of the following best expresses the flaw in the above argument?

A It assumes that, historically, women were ignorant of the toll childbirth takes.

B It draws conclusions which relate only to women in rich nations.

C It fails to note falling infant mortality rates in the given time period.

D It implies that all women who have multiple pregnancies will die early.

E It fails to consider other factors that might have improved women’s life expectancy.

25 A bus service runs between the towns of Restler and Soper. The average speed for one
journey, including stops, is 30 kilometres per hour. Residents are beginning to move into a new
housing development and the Restler–Soper bus service will be re-routed with extra stops. The
buses will travel 4 kilometres further per journey than at present. The average speed, including
stops, will be reduced by 3 kilometres per hour. The journey time will increase by 25%.

How far will the bus travel on its new route from Restler to Soper?

A 20 kilometres

B 22 kilometres

C 28 kilometres

D 32 kilometres

E 36 kilometres

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26 Research about a ‘health check’ programme operated by the National Health Service (NHS) is
receiving a lot of attention amongst UK health policymakers. The study found that the ‘health
checks’, dedicated screening appointments offered to everyone in middle age, have uncovered
thousands of cases of high blood pressure and other serious health risk factors not previously
diagnosed in the people attending the appointments. Government officials have been
especially keen to highlight the fact that this level of detection of such risk factors could equate
to the prevention of over 2,000 heart attacks and strokes. The researchers did not, however,
continue to monitor the health of the individuals identified to have the risk factors or track
whether they went on to take the prescribed medications or make the other lifestyle changes
recommended to them as a result of their ‘health checks’.

Which one of the following can reliably be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage?

A The cited research can be used to justify fully the resources spent on the ‘health checks’.

B Screening programmes alone cannot influence people’s health-related behaviours.

C The cited study does not prove conclusively that the ‘health checks’ have prevented
over 2,000 heart attacks and strokes.
D More NHS resources should be used to monitor the long-term health outcomes of
individuals.
E The ‘health checks’ would be even more effective if they were offered to people in
other age groups.

27 Charlie is preparing plates of seafood salad for the lunchtime menu. She will put 50 grams of
each of prawns, cockles, whelks, squid, and smoked salmon on each plate.

The prawns are available in 400 gram packs, the cockles, the whelks and the smoked salmon
are available in 200 gram packs, and the squid is available in 300 gram packs.

All packs of each seafood item cost €4.08, but the wholesaler offers a deal of ‘buy any two
packs of one item and get another pack of the same item free’.

If Charlie orders the smallest number of packs to prepare whole plates of seafood salad and
not have any of the seafood left over, what will be the unit cost per plate of seafood salad?

A €2.83

B €2.89

C €3.06

D €4.25

E €4.42

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28 Police departments across the world should require the use of body-worn video cameras for
their officers. Research has shown that filming police public interactions can lower levels of
violence within these encounters because the known presence of the camera encourages
police officers to better regulate their own behaviour. While it is now common for bystanders to
capture footage of police public encounters on their camera phones or similar devices, police
implementation of body-worn video cameras is preferable for a number of reasons. Chief
amongst these reasons is the fact that police procedures for body-worn cameras require that
an officer issue a clear warning from the start that everyone in an interaction is being filmed.

Which of the following are underlying assumptions of the above argument?

1 The level of force used by police in some interactions with the public exceeds that
which is required by the situation.
2 It is now possible for police departments in different countries to agree on what levels
of force are appropriate within police public interactions.
3 In cases where police public interactions have been filmed by bystanders, the
individuals involved may not have been aware of the filming.
A 1 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E 1 and 3 only

F 2 and 3 only

G 1, 2, and 3

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29 The total number of spots on any two opposite faces of conventional dice should always be
seven.

Below are two views of a dice that has lost one spot from each of three of its faces.

Which one of the following is another view of the same dice?

A B C

D E F

G H

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30 Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is a neuroimaging procedure that maps brain
activity by detecting blood flow changes. One recent finding of fMRI research relates to
variation amongst individuals with respect to patterns of connectivity across regions of the
brain. People with strong brain region connectivity were found more likely to exhibit various
‘positive’ lifestyle traits, including high educational attainment and high levels of life satisfaction.
People with weaker connectivity were more likely to exhibit ‘negative’ qualities, including higher
levels of mental illness and substance abuse issues. A beneficial use of fMRI technology would
be to conduct ‘brain training’ for those with weaker connectivity. If exercises were developed to
help people learn to regulate their brain activity so that their brain connectivity was improved,
they too could benefit from more ‘positive’ lifestyle attributes.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?

A It assumes that everyone considers high educational attainment levels to constitute a

‘positive’ lifestyle trait.
B It ignores the more critical health care needs that could be addressed through the use
of fMRI technology.
C It assumes that just because ‘positive’ traits are associated with strong brain connectivity
these traits are caused by the strong connectivity.
D It ignores the fact that some people whose brain connectivity has been damaged through
injury are still able to lead productive lives.

31 Six friends are sitting around in a circle discussing which two sports each of them most likes to
play.

The table gives the preferences of the friends sitting either side of, and opposite to, each
member of the group:

favourite sports
name
friend sitting on left friend sitting on right friend sitting opposite
Amir cricket and hockey golf and rugby hockey and snooker
David football and snooker cricket and rugby football and golf
Eli football and golf football and snooker cricket and rugby
George hockey and snooker cricket and hockey golf and rugby
Jess cricket and rugby football and golf football and snooker
Peter golf and rugby hockey and snooker cricket and hockey

Jess discovers that each of the friends sitting either side of her shares one common interest
with her.

Who is sitting opposite Jess?

A Amir

B David

C Eli

D George

E Peter

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Questions 32–35 refer to the following information.

The London Assembly is investigating how to prevent clogged roads from suffocating
the capital

As the London Assembly transport committee investigates what the mayor and Transport for
London (the local government body responsible for the transport system in Greater London)
can do to reduce rising levels of road traffic congestion in London, bear in mind that the price of
gridlock is not only paid in frustration and pollution. A Transport for London (TfL) analysis of
vehicle delays on Greater London’s roads during 2015 estimated the cost of congestion to
London’s GVA (Gross Value Added, the increase in the value of the economy due to the
production of goods and services) to have been an astonishing £5.5 billion a year.

London’s GVA for 2015 was £364 billion. The Centre for Economics and Business Research
think tank put the cost to London’s GVA of the six Underground strikes in 2015 at £10 million
each. This was the most conservative calculation – others think it’s higher – but even the
Federation of Small Businesses estimate of £300 million is dwarfed by the cost of congestion.

In other words, congestion is doing major damage to the city’s economy. And the frustration
and pollution are adding to that cost because they make London less agreeable to function in.
Speaking to the transport committee last week, Grant Davis, chairman of the London Cab
Drivers’ Club, spoke of more and more of his customers getting out of his taxi before reaching
their destinations because his cab was stuck in traffic. Demand for the bus service has started
to decline after years of increase because of slower speeds and worse reliability.

Construction works, the proliferation of private hire vehicles and delivery vans, the halving of
the congestion charge zone and a long-term loss of road space to bus lanes have all
contributed to the growth of the problem over the past two years. This follows a long period of
general stability during which London has seen a big shift away from all forms of private
transport, principally cars, towards public transport.

TfL’s most recent annual Travel in London statistics show that 34 per cent of ‘journey stages’ in
2000 – the components of an excursion from one place to another – were undertaken on public
transport compared with 43 per cent by private vehicles. By 2014, the public transport figure
had risen to 45 per cent and the private transport figure had fallen to 32 per cent.

The pattern for ‘trips’ – entire excursions within London – has followed a similar trend. Just
28 per cent were taken by public transport (including taxis) in 2000 and 47 per cent by private
vehicle. But by 2014 both measures were running at 37 per cent. All other journey stages and
trips were done by bicycle (accounting for 1 per cent in 2000 and 2 per cent in 2014) or on foot.
Car ownership too has been falling, in marked contrast with the rest of England and Wales. So
too has the volume of motor vehicle traffic in London as a whole according to both Department
for Transport estimates of distances travelled in them and TfL’s own traffic flow data. And yet,
for all this progress, the plague of road congestion is now getting worse. The committee’s
investigation continues.

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32 Which of the following could account for the increase in the problem of London’s road
congestion?

1 interventions to prioritise public transport

2 an increase in road works by utility companies

A 1 only

B 2 only

C both 1 and 2

D neither 1 nor 2

33 Using the most conservative estimate how many times greater than the cost of tube strikes was
the cost of congestion to London’s GVA in 2015?

A 3

B 11

C 18

D 55

E 92

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34 Which of the following can be inferred from the information given?

1 The decline of car ownership in London has not reduced the capital’s road
congestion problem.
2 Converting traffic lanes into cycle tracks would make London’s congestion problem
better.
3 The problem of congestion in London is deterring people from using certain methods
of public transport.

A 1 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E 1 and 3 only

F 2 and 3 only

G 1, 2 and 3

35 In an attempt to reduce the loss from London’s GVA, a proposal has been made to restore the
original wider boundaries of the congestion charge zone. Which one of the following would
explain why this proposal might not have the desired effect?

A Three hundred extra buses a day were run in the original wider congestion charge zone.

B The original wider congestion charge zone encompassed some of London’s profitable
retail areas.
C Some owners of luxury cars register their vehicles as mini-cabs to qualify for exemption
from the congestion charge.
D The average length of traffic delay in the last year of the original wider congestion charge
zone was the same as it had been before the charge’s introduction.

END OF TEST

© UCLES 2017
BioMedical Admissions Test 4500/12

Thursday 2 November 2017 30 minutes

SECTION 2 Scientific Knowledge and Applications

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Please read this page carefully, but do not open the question paper until you are told that you
may do so.

This paper is Section 2 of 3. Your supervisor will collect this question paper and answer sheet
before giving out Section 3.

A separate answer sheet is provided for this section. Please check you have one. You also require a
soft pencil and an eraser.

Please complete the answer sheet with your:

• BMAT candidate number

• Centre number
• Date of birth
• Name

Speed as well as accuracy is important in this section. Work quickly, or you may not finish the
paper. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only marks for correct answers, so you
should attempt all 27 questions. Each question is worth one mark.

Answer on the sheet provided. Questions ask you to show your choice between options by shading
one circle. If you make a mistake, erase thoroughly and try again.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

You can use the question paper for rough working or notes, but no extra paper is allowed.

Calculators are NOT permitted.

Please wait to be told you may begin before turning this page.

This paper consists of 23 printed pages and 5 blank pages.

PV3

© UCLES 2017
 3

1 The diagram shows a section through part of a healthy human.

P
Q

Which row in the table shows the correct secretions from P, Q and R?

secretion(s) from P secretions from Q secretion(s) from R

A bile protease, high hydrogen insulin, protease, lipase,

ion concentration amylase
B bile, high hydrogen ion protease, low hydrogen protease, lipase,
concentration ion concentration amylase
C insulin, protease, lipase protease, high hydrogen bile
ion concentration
D protease, lipase, protease, low hydrogen bile, high hydrogen ion
amylase ion concentration concentration
E insulin, protease, lipase, protease, high hydrogen bile
amylase ion concentration
F protease, lipase, protease, low hydrogen insulin
amylase ion concentration

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

 4

2 The diagram shows an electrolysis experiment.

+ – power supply

ammeter
A

+ –
beaker

cathode (copper)

anode (copper)
copper(II) sulfate solution

Which reaction occurs at the anode and which reaction occurs at the cathode for this
experiment?

anode cathode
A SO42– → SO2 + O2 + 2e– Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu

B Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu SO42– → SO2 + O2 + 2e–

C 2H+ + 2e– → H2 Cu → Cu2+ + 2e2–

D Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu Cu → Cu2+ + 2e–

E Cu → Cu2+ + 2e– Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu

© UCLES 2017
 5

3 Below are four statements about electromagnetic waves.

1 Microwaves have a smaller wavelength than visible light.

2 The speed of visible light in a vacuum is higher than the speed of other types of
electromagnetic wave.
3 Gamma rays have the largest wavelength of any electromagnetic wave.

4 Radio waves are used in hospital radiography to look for broken bones.

Which of the statements are correct?

A none of them

B 1 and 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1 and 4 only

E 2 and 3 only

F 2 and 4 only

G 3 and 4 only

H 1, 2, 3 and 4

4 Which one of the following is equivalent to ( 5 −2 ) 2

?

A 1

B 9

C 21

D 29

E 1− 4 5

F 9−4 5

G 21− 4 5

H 29 − 4 5

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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5 SCID is an inherited condition in humans. People with some types of SCID are unable to make
a functional enzyme necessary for the production of healthy white blood cells.

A scientist studying these types of SCID compared features of the DNA and the structure of the
enzyme in people who have this condition and people without SCID.

Which of the following features may have been different?

1 the allele of the gene coding for the enzyme

2 the order of amino acids in the enzyme

3 the order of bases in the gene coding for the enzyme

4 the shape of the active site of the enzyme

A 1 only

B 4 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 2 and 3 only

E 2 and 4 only

F 1, 2 and 4 only

G 1, 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2017
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6 Which of the following atoms and ions contain(s) 20 neutrons and 18 electrons?

34 2 –
1 16S

37 –
2 17Cl

40
3 18 Ar

39 +
4 19K

40
5 20Ca

A 3 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 2 and 4 only

E 2 and 5 only

F 4 and 5 only

G 2, 4 and 5 only

H 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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7 A puddle is left on a road after a rain shower. The water in the puddle slowly disappears by
evaporation.

Three statements about the effect of changing different conditions on this process are given
below.

1 The rate of evaporation is greater at higher temperatures.

2 The rate of evaporation is greater when the air above the puddle is still.

3 The rate of evaporation is greater when the puddle has a larger surface area.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

(Assume for each statement that all other conditions remain the same.)

A none of them

B 1 only

C 2 only

D 3 only

E 1 and 2 only

F 1 and 3 only

G 2 and 3 only

H 1, 2 and 3

© UCLES 2017
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8 In a group of 20 patients at a medical centre, 5 suffered from migraines.

Two patients from the group of 20 were picked at random for a survey on the use of painkillers.

What is the probability that both of the patients picked suffered from migraines?

1
A
19
1
B
16
35
C
76
1
D
2
21
E
38
9
F
16

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9 The diagram shows four experiments used to investigate movement of substances across
dialysis tubing. This tubing is a partially permeable membrane which allows both glucose and
water to pass through it.

experiment 1 experiment 2 experiment 3 experiment 4

10%
glucose
solution
distilled 10%
water glucose
solution
distilled
water
dialysis
tubing

Which row in the table shows the experiment(s) where there will be movement of glucose
through the partially permeable membrane and the experiment(s) where there will be
movement of water through the partially permeable membrane?

experiment(s) with movement of experiment(s) with movement of

glucose through partially water through partially
permeable membrane permeable membrane
A 4 only 3 only

B 3 only 4 only

C 2 and 4 only 1 and 3 only

D 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only

E 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2017
 11

10 A piece of magnesium ribbon is dropped into a beaker of dilute aqueous hydrochloric acid at
room temperature. After a while the production of bubbles of gas slows down.

Which of the following statements can correctly explain this observation?

1 The particles have less energy.

2 The concentration of hydrochloric acid decreases.

3 The activation energy for the reaction increases.

A none of them

B 1 only

C 2 only

D 3 only

E 1 and 2 only

F 1 and 3 only

G 2 and 3 only

H 1, 2 and 3

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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11 Two resistors R1 and R2 are connected in series with a cell.

Resistor R1 has twice the resistance of resistor R2.

R1 R2

Six statements about this circuit are given below.

1 The voltage across each resistor is the same.

2 The voltage across R1 is twice that across R2.

3 The voltage across R2 is twice that across R1.

4 The current is the same in both resistors.

5 The current in R1 is twice the current in R2.

6 The current in R2 is twice the current in R1.

Which pair of statements is correct?

A 1 and 4 only

B 1 and 6 only

C 2 and 4 only

D 2 and 5 only

E 2 and 6 only

F 3 and 4 only

G 3 and 5 only

H 3 and 6 only

© UCLES 2017
 13

12 In triangle PRS, line QT is parallel to side RS.

RS = 1.5 cm

TS = 1.8 cm

QT = 0.3 cm

[diagram not to scale]

R

1.5 cm
Q

0.3 cm

P T S
1.8 cm

What is the length of PS?

A 0.25 cm

B 0.36 cm

C 0.45 cm

D 2.05 cm

E 2.16 cm

F 2.25 cm

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

 14

13 Dolly the sheep was born in 1996. She was unusual because she had no biological father.

Sheep have a diploid number of 54 chromosomes in their body cells.

The diagram shows the process of how she was produced.

1. mammary gland 2. egg cell (gamete)
(udder) cell donor donor

nucleus removed
cultured from gamete
mammary gland
cells
3. cells fused
nucleus from
mammary gland cell
4. grown in culture

early embryo

5. implanted
in uterus
surrogate mother
of a third
sheep

6. development lamb (‛Dolly’)

Which of the following statements about this process is/are correct?

1 The gamete cell nucleus contained 27 chromosomes.

2 The cells produced in step 4 had the same properties as stem cells.

3 None of the cells involved in the process were produced by meiosis.

A none of them

B 1 only

C 2 only

D 3 only

E 1 and 2 only

F 1 and 3 only

G 2 and 3 only

H 1, 2 and 3

© UCLES 2017
 15

14 Disproportionation is the simultaneous oxidation and reduction of the same species in a

reaction.

In which of the following chemical equations does disproportionation occur?

1 Fe + CuCl2 → FeCl2 + Cu

2 Cu2O → Cu + CuO

3 Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HClO

4 BaCl2 + Na2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl

5 Hg2Cl2 → Hg + HgCl2

A 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 3 and 4 only

D 1, 4 and 5 only

E 2, 3 and 5 only

15 Uranium-238 is a naturally-occurring alpha emitter. It can be used in the manufacture of the

isotope plutonium-239, during which it is bombarded by neutrons.

The process of converting a nucleus of uranium-238 to a nucleus of plutonium-239 is a

three-stage sequence of nuclear reactions.

What is this sequence?

(Atomic numbers: uranium = 92; plutonium = 94)

1st stage 2nd stage 3rd stage

A emission of an α particle emission of a β particle absorption of a neutron

B emission of an α particle absorption of a neutron emission of an α particle

C emission of a β particle emission of an α particle absorption of a neutron

D emission of a β particle absorption of a neutron emission of a β particle

E absorption of a neutron emission of an α particle emission of an α particle

F absorption of a neutron emission of a β particle emission of a β particle

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

 16

GM
16 The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of a planet is given by g = 2
, where M and R
R
are the mass and radius of the planet respectively, and G is the gravitational constant.

It is given that

g = 10 N / kg

G = 7 × 10–11 N m2 / kg2

R = 6 × 106 m

What is M, correct to one significant figure?

A 5 × 1024 kg

B 2 × 1024 kg

C 5 × 1020 kg

D 2 × 1020 kg

E 5 × 1018 kg

F 2 × 1018 kg

© UCLES 2017
 17

17 The diagram shows an external view of the human heart.

part of an artery
present on the
surface of the heart

Which of the following statements about the artery shown on the diagram is/are correct?

1 It is the site of diffusion of glucose and oxygen into the muscle cells of the heart.

2 It transports blood at high pressure.

3 It contains muscle cells.

A none of them

B 1 only

C 2 only

D 3 only

E 1 and 2 only

F 1 and 3 only

G 2 and 3 only

H 1, 2 and 3

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

 18

18 Propanoic acid is a monoprotic acid.

Magnesium is a Group 2 metal.

Which of the following chemical equations is correct for the reaction between magnesium
carbonate and propanoic acid?

A 2CH3CH2COOH + MgCO3 → Mg(C3H5O2)2 + H2O

B C3H6O2 + MgCO3 → MgC3H5O2 + CO2 + H2O

C 2C3H6O2 + MgCO3 → Mg(C3H5O2)2 + CO2 + H2O

D 2CH3COOH + MgCO3 → Mg(CH3COO)2 + CO2 + H2O

E C3H6O2 + 3MgCO3 → Mg3C3O2 + 3CO2 + 3H2O

19 A swimming pool is 10 m wide. A loud sound is made in the water 2.0 m from one wall and the
reflected sounds are detected with a microphone placed next to the sound source. The
reflection from the wall 8.0 m away arrives 0.010 s after the reflection from the wall 2.0 m away.

What is the speed of sound in water?

A 270 m / s

B 330 m / s

C 530 m / s

D 600 m / s

E 1200 m / s

© UCLES 2017
 19

1 1 1
20 Express + − as a single algebraic fraction.
2x x −1 x

1
A
2x −1
1
B
2( x − 1)
2x −1
C
x ( x − 1)
x −3
D
2 x ( x − 1)
x +1
E
2 x ( x − 1)
1
F
x ( x − 1)
−1
G
x ( x − 1)

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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21 The family tree shows the inheritance of freckles.

Key
1 2
male with freckles

female with freckles

3 4 5 6
male without freckles

female without freckles

7 8

Which row in the table shows the probability that the next child produced by parents 1 and 2,
and the probability that the next child produced by parents 5 and 6 will have freckles?

probability that the next child produced probability that the next child
by parents 1 and 2 will have freckles produced by parents 5 and 6 will
have freckles
A 1 1

B 0.5 1

C 1 0.75

D 0.5 0.75

E 1 0.5

F 0.5 0.5

G 1 0.25

H 0.5 0.25

© UCLES 2017
 21

22 Hydrated copper(II) sulfate has the formula CuSO4·5H2O.

100 cm3 of a solution contained 10 g of hydrated copper(II) sulfate. What is the concentration,
in mol / dm3, of this solution?

(Ar values: H = 1.0; O = 16; S = 32; Cu = 64)

A 0.100 mol / dm3

B 0.400 mol / dm3

C 0.495 mol / dm3

D 0.532 mol / dm3

E 0.562 mol / dm3

F 0.625 mol / dm3

23 A book rests on a table, which in turn rests on the floor. The floor exerts a force P on the table.

Force P and one other force constitute a Newton’s Third Law interaction pair of forces.

What is the other force?

A the force that the book exerts on the table

B the force that the book exerts on the Earth

C the force that the Earth exerts on the book

D the force that the Earth exerts on the table

E the force that the floor exerts on the Earth

F the force that the table exerts on the floor

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

 22

24 The diagram shows a shape made from a quarter circle of radius 6 cm and a right-angled
triangle with a hypotenuse of length 9 cm.

[diagram not to scale]

9 cm
6 cm

Which of the following expressions gives the area, in square centimetres, of the shape?

A 3π + 9 5

B 3 π + 9 13

C 9π + 9 5

D 9 π + 9 13

E 9 π + 18 5

F 9 π + 27 5

G 36 π + 9 5

© UCLES 2017
 23

25 The picture shows a Siamese cat. This type of cat has a gene which is sensitive to
temperature. When this gene is inactive in the cells, the coat colour is pale. When the gene is
active, it produces an enzyme which causes the coat colour to be darker. If this cat had grown
up in a warmer environment its ears, front of face, paws and tail would be paler than those
shown in the picture below.

A student wrote the following statements using this information.

1 The enzyme is denatured at the internal body temperature of the cat so the coat
colour is pale.
2 The temperature of the ears, front of face, paws and tail was cooler than the body
temperature so they are darker.
3 The coat colour in Siamese cats depends on both genes and the environment.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

A none of them

B 1 only

C 2 only

D 3 only

E 1 and 2 only

F 1 and 3 only

G 2 and 3 only

H 1, 2 and 3

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

 24

26 What is the volume of hydrogen gas formed (measured at room temperature and pressure)
when 0.23 g of pure sodium reacts completely with an excess of water?

(Ar values: H = 1.0; Na = 23.

Assume that the molar volume of gas at room temperature and pressure is 24 dm3.)

A 0.10 dm3

B 0.12 dm3

C 0.20 dm3

D 0.24 dm3

E 0.48 dm3

27 A graph of kinetic energy, in joules ( y - axis) against the square of the speed in (m / s)2 (x - axis)
is plotted for an object of mass 2.5 kg travelling along the surface of the Earth. The result is a
straight line.

What is the numerical value of the gradient of this line?

A 0.40

B 0.80

C 1.25

D 2.50

E 5.00

F 6.25

END OF TEST

© UCLES 2017
 BioMedical Admissions Test 4500/13

Thursday 2 November 2017 30 minutes

SECTION 3 Writing Task

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Please read this page carefully, but do not open the question paper until you are told that you
may do so.

This paper is Section 3 of 3. A separate answer sheet is provided for this section. Please check you
have one. You must complete the answer sheet in black pen.

Please complete the answer sheet with your:

• Name
• BMAT candidate number
• Centre number
• Initials

This question paper contains a choice of three tasks, of which you must complete only one. There is
space on the question paper for preliminary notes. Your answer must be written on the answer
sheet provided and in English. No additional answer sheets may be used. Candidates with
permission to use a word processor must not exceed 550 words.

The tasks each provide an opportunity for you to show how well you can select, develop and
organise ideas and communicate them effectively in writing.

Before you begin writing, take time to think carefully about what you need to say and the ways in
which the organisation and layout of your response might help convey your message. Diagrams
etc. may be used if they enhance communication.

Take care to show how well you can write and be concise, clear and accurate.

You can use the question paper for rough working or notes, but no extra paper is allowed.

Remember that when you are told that you may begin you will have only 30 minutes to choose and
complete your task, and that your complete response must be contained on the single page
provided for your answer. You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
The disciplines involved in this are regarded as key features of the task.

Dictionaries and calculators may NOT be used.

Please wait to be told you may begin before turning this page.

This paper consists of 3 printed pages and 1 blank page.

PV2

© UCLES 2017
 2

Use this space and the back page for notes etc. if you wish. Remember that your response
must be written on the single page answer sheet provided.

© UCLES 2017
 3

YOU MUST COMPLETE ONLY ONE OF THE FOLLOWING TASKS

Please indicate which task (1, 2 or 3) you have chosen in the ‘Task Chosen’ box on the answer sheet.

Each of the tasks consists of a statement in bold followed by three prompts. It is important that you
address all three parts of your chosen task.

1 ‘He who has never learned to obey cannot be a good commander’. (Aristotle)

Explain what you understand by this statement. Argue to the contrary. To what extent do you
agree that someone cannot be a good leader without learning how to follow?

2 The only moral obligation a scientist has is to reveal the truth.

What is the reasoning behind this statement? Present an argument to the contrary. To what
extent do you agree that the only moral duty a scientist has is to reveal the truth?

3 The health care profession is wrong to treat ageing as if it were a disease.

What do you understand by this statement? Argue that it is not wrong to treat the effects of
ageing as if they were a disease. To what extent do you agree with the statement?

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