NEET PG 2014

Conducted on

Total time 180 mins

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
ATTEMPT ONLINE: https://www.exambazaar.com/assessment/neet-pg-2014

NEET PG 2014

Duration: 180 mins Max Score: 360

Test Instructions
1. Total number of questions in this paper are 90.
2. The question paper consists of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ).
3. For the correct answer, four marks will be allotted to the candidates. There will be 25% (one
mark) negative marking for every wrong answer.
4. Multiple choice type questions have four choices A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. Select the answer by clicking on the radio button placed before the choice,
with the help of the mouse

Color coding for type s of Q ue stions

Code Type of Q ue stion

Single Option Correct Multiple Choice Question
One or More Options Correct Multiple Choice Question with Multiple Answers
Numerical Numerical

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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Q. 1 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Regarding anterior choroidal artery syndrome, all are true except?

A. Hemiparesis
B. Hemisensory loss
C. Predominant Involvement of anterior limb of internal capsule
D. Hornonymous hemianopia

Q. 2 Single Option Correct +4 -1

The surgeon removes a part of the liver to the left of falciform ligament. Which segment
has the surgeon removed?

A. 1 & 4a
B. 2&3
C. 1 & 4b
D. 1&3

Q. 3 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following passes through foramen magnum?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. Sympathetic Chain
C. Hypoglossal Nerve
D. Vertebral Artery

Q. 4 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Deoxygenated blood is not seen in?

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A. Pulmonary Artery
B. Umbilical Artery
C. Umbilical Vein
D. Right Heart

Q. 5 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All of the following are pneumatic bones except?

A. Frontal
B. Ethmoid
C. Mandible
D. Maxilla

Q. 6 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are seen in injury to common peroneal nerve except?

A. Loss of sensation over sole

B. Foot drop
C. Injury to neck of febula
D. Loss of dorsiflexion of toe

Q. 7 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which among the following is a branch from the trunk of brachial plexus?

A. Suprascapular Nerve
B. Lateral thoracic Nerve
C. Anterior thoracic Nerve
D. Nerve to subclavius

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Q. 8 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Main blood supply of neck of femur?

A. Lateral circumflex femoral artery

B. Medial circumflex femoral artery
C. Profunda femoris artery
D. External Iliac artery

Q. 9 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Right isomerism is?

A. Asplenia
B. Two spleens
C. One spleen
D. Polysplenia

Q. 10 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Urethral crust is situated in?

A. Prostatic urethra
B. Membranous urethra
C. Penile urethra
D. Bulbar urethra

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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Q. 11 Single Option Correct +4 -1

What is the type of joint seen at growth plate?

A. Fibrocartilaginous
B. Primary cartilagenous
C. Secondary cartilagenous
D. Gomphosis

Q. 12 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which among the following is not a component of hypogastric sheath?

A. Broad ligament of uterus

B. Transverse cervical ligament
C. Lateral ligament of uterus
D. Lateral ligament of bladder

Q. 13 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are seen in the floor of 3rd ventricle except?

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A. Infundibulum
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Mammillary body
D. Optic Stalk

Q. 14 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Lines of blaschko are:

A. Lymphatics
B. Blood vessel
C. Nerves
D. Lines of development

Q. 15 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All of the following are affected in low radial nerve palsy except?

A. Extensor carpi radialis longus

B. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
C. Finger extensors
D. sensation on dorsum of hand

Q. 16 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Site not affected in posterior cerebral artery infarct is?

A. Mid brain
B. Pons
C. Thalamus
D. Striate cortex

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Q. 17 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Bifurcation of the common carotid artery is palpated at?

A. Upper border of cricoid cartilage

B. Upper border of thyroid cartilage
C. Hyoid bone
D. Cricothyroid membrane

Q. 18 Single Option Correct +4 -1

In L5 root involvement, which among the following is not affected?

A. Thigh adduction
B. Knee flexion
C. Knee extension
D. Toe extension

Q. 19 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Muscular component of dorsal aorta develops from?

A. Septum transversum
B. Paraxial mesoderm
C. Intermediate mesoderm
D. Lateral plate mesoderm

Q. 20 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Diaphragm develops from all except?

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A. Septum transversum
B. Dorsal mesocardium
C. Right crus of diaphragm
D. Inferior vena cava

Q. 21 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Posterior relations of the head of the pancreas are all except?

A. Common bile duct

B. First part of deodenum
C. Right crus of diaphragm
D. Inferior vena cava

Q. 22 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following is not supplied by the anterior division of the mandibular nerve(V3)?

A. Temporalis
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Masseter

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Q. 23 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Basal metabolic rate is closely associate with?

A. Lean body mass

B. Body surface mass
C. Daily activity
D. food intake

Q. 24 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Mineralocorticoid receptor is not present in?

A. Liver
B. Colon
C. Hippocampus
D. Kidney

Q. 25 Single Option Correct +4 -1

The primary action of NO in GIT is?

A. Vasodilatation
B. vasoconstriction
C. GI smooth muscle relaxation
D. Slow smooth muscle contraction

Q. 26 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Main site of water absorption is?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. Jejunum
B. Colon
C. Ileum
D. Stomach

Q. 27 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Small airway has laminar flow because?

A. Reynold number more than 2000

B. Diameter is very small
C. The linear velocity of airflow in small airway is extremely low
D. Total cross sectional area low

Q. 28 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Orthopnea is congestive heart failure develops due to?

A. Reservoir function of pulmonary veins

B. Pooling of blood in lower limb veins
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Systematic hypertension

Q. 29 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Nucleus involved in papez circuit-

A. Pulvinar
B. VPL Nucleus
C. Intralaminar
D. Anterior NU . of thalamus

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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Q. 30 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All the following are true about phagocytosis except?

A. Amoeba & other protozoans lives their life out of it

B. Used to ingest particles< 0.5microns in size
C. Used to ingest particles> 0.5microns in size
D. Digestion occurs within phagolysosomes

Q. 31 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because?

A. it is required for the process of transamination

B. it is co-factor in oxidative reduction
C. it is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
D. it is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketogluterate dehydrogenase

Q. 32 Single Option Correct +4 -1

What factor is responsible for deciding whether an antibody will remain membrane-bound
or get secreted?

A. carbohydrate content
B. class switching
C. differential RNA splicing
D. surface charge

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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Q. 33 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Vitamin K is involved in the post-translational modification of?

A. glutamate
B. aspartate
C. tyrosine
D. tryptophan

Q. 34 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which among the following is not a cause of fasting hypoglycemia?

A. Glucagon excess
B. Glucose 6 phospatase defeciency
C. cirrhotic liver damage
D. Glycogen synthase defeciency

Q. 35 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Cell fusion is an innovative method of preparing specific antibodies. The technique to

induce cell fusion includes following all except?

A. attaching inactive viral particle on cell membrane

B. adding ethylene glycol
C. applying a small electric current
D. reducing the viscocity of the membrane

Q. 36 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Urea cycle occurs in?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. Liver
B. Intestine
C. Brain
D. Kidney

Q. 37 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following change in a vector used to increase the yield of protein produced in
recombinant protein synthesis?

A. inducible promoter
B. genes for protease inhibitors
C. tranlation initiation
D. tranlation and transcription termination

Q. 38 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Two plants are grown. One to express green fluorescent pigment and another express
firefly luciferase containing media. Which part will glow in the dark?

A. both plants will glow

B. neither will glow
C. plant expressing green fluorescent pigment will glow
D. plant expressing firefly luciferase will glow

Q. 39 Single Option Correct +4 -1

A patient who was given primaquine develops hemolysis. The probable cause maybe

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

B. Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency
C. Alpha keto glutarate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency

Q. 40 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an alpha-keto acid is done by?

A. Tranaminases
B. Aminases
C. Transketolase
D. Decarboxylase

Q. 41 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following statements about high-density lipoproteins(HDL) is false-

A. HDL increases oxidation of LDL

B. HDL reduces foam cell production by LDL
C. HDL is best predictor of CAD
D. HDL helps to clear lipids from atheroma

Q. 42 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following helps in generating oxygen burst in the neurophils?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. superoxide dismutase
B. NADPH oxidase
C. peroxidase
D. glutathione

Q. 43 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which is not an autoimmune disease?

A. SLE
B. Grave's disease
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Sickle cell disease

Q. 44 Single Option Correct +4 -1

An 8-year-old boy completed 8 out of 10-day course of cefaclor. Now he developed a

generalized erythmatic rash which is mildly pruritic and lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis is?

A. kawasaki disease
B. type3 hypersensitivity
C. anaphylaxis
D. infectious mononucleosis

Q. 45 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which among the following is the hallmark of acute inflammation?

A. Vasoconstriction
B. Stasis
C. Vasodilation and increase in permeability
D. Leukocyte margination

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Q. 46 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Some antigen was injected into a rabbit. What antibody will it produce initially?

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD

Q. 47 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Principle organelle involved in the execution of apoptosis is?

A. Nucleus
B. Lysosome
C. Mitochondria
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Q. 48 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Psammoma bodies are seen in all except?

A. Follicular carcinoma thyroid

B. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
C. Cystadenocarcinoma
D. Meningioma

Q. 49 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Not a predisposing factor for atherosclerotic plaque formation?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. ApoE
B. Alpha 2-macroglobulin
C. Oxidised LDL
D. Increased homocystiene

Q. 50 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Most potent activator of T cells?

A. B cells
B. Follicular dendritic cells
C. Mature dendritic cells
D. Macrophages

Q. 51 Single Option Correct +4 -1

True about platelet function defect?

A. Normal platelet count with prolonged bleeding time

B. Thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleeding time
C. Normal bleeding time with normal platelet number
D. Normal platelet count with decreased bleeding time

Q. 52 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are true about blood coagulation except?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. Factor 10 in a part of both intrinsic and extrinsic pathway

B. Extrinsic pathway is activated by contact with plasma and negatively charged proteins
C. Calcium is very important for coagulation
D. Intrinsic pathway can be activated in vitro

Q. 53 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All of the following are neuronal tumors except?

A. Gangiocytoma
B. Ganglioglioma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Ependymoma

Q. 54 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which complement is the first common point between classical and alternate pathway?

A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4

Q. 55 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are true about xanthogranulomatous inflammation except?

A. Presence of foamy macrophages

B. Presence of tuberculous infection
C. Multinucleated giant cell
D. Presence of yellow nodules

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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Q. 56 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are involved in generating free oxygen radical for the killing of bacteria except?

A. Superoxide dismutase
B. Fenton's reaction
C. NADPH oxidase
D. Glutathion peroxidase

Q. 57 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which is false about Bernard Soulier syndrome-

A. Ristocetin Aggregation is normal

B. Aggregation with collagen & ADP is normal
C. Large platelets
D. Thrombocytopenia

Q. 58 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Slide fixing in pathology most commonly done by-

A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohol
C. Picric Acid
D. Glutraldehyde

Q. 59 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following is given to treat thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppresive

therapy?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. Iron Dextran
B. Oprevelkin(interleukin-11)
C. Tranexamic Acid
D. Erthropoietin

Q. 60 Single Option Correct +4 -1

True about MRSA resistance is-

A. Due to production of Penicillinase

B. Due to alteration in penicillin binding proteins
C. Plasmid mediated
D. Treated with amoxicillin & clavulinic acid

Q. 61 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Treatment with INH leads to a deficiency of?

A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Pantothenic acid

Q. 62 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which drug not used to control bleeding while delivery of a woman with heart disease?

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A. Methylergometrime
B. Carboprost
C. Syntocin
D. Misoprostol

Q. 63 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All true about Fulvestrant(selective estrogen receptor downregulator)

A. used for treatment of advanced breast cancer

B. also known as pure anti estrogen
C. is slower acting,have shorter duration of action & lower safety profile than SERM
D. Administered as once monthly intramuscularinjection

Q. 64 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are true about Ranalozine except?

A. has hypotensive effects

B. 1st line antianginal drug
C. affects glycemic control
D. induces CYP3A

Q. 65 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus is?

A. Desmopressin
B. Leuperolide
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Insulin

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Q. 66 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Integrase inhibitor approved for the treatment of HIV is-

A. Raltegravir
B. Indinavir
C. Lopinavir
D. Tipranavir

Q. 67 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in a patient on lithium

therapy in order to prevent toxicity?

A. Clonidine
B. Beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Diuretics

Q. 68 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following is not an advance effect of thalidomide?

A. Diarrhoea
B. Teratogenicity
C. DVT
D. Hypothyroidism

Q. 69 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Amphotericin b causes a deficiency of?

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A. Na
B. Ca
C. K
D. Mg

Q. 70 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All of the following decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis except?

A. Alendronate
B. Etidronate
C. Strontium
D. Teriparatide

Q. 71 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which is not seen in digoxin toxicity?

A. Biventricular tachycardia
B. Proxysmal atrial tachycardia
C. Ventricular bigeminy
D. Regularisation of atrial Fibrillation

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Q. 72 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Buprenorphine is?

A. Partial agonist at mu receptor

B. Partial agonist at kappa receptor
C. Full agonist at mu receptor
D. Antagonist at kappa receptor

Q. 73 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which among the following is the best inotrope drug for use in right heart failure due to
pulmonary hypertension?

A. Dopamine
B. Isoprenaline
C. Halothane
D. Milrinone

Q. 74 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which among the following does not cause hyperpyrexia?

A. MAO inhibitors
B. Alcohol
C. TCA's
D. Amphetamine

Q. 75 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are true about Aprepitant except?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. Agonist at Nk1
B. Crosses blood brain barrier
C. Ameliorates nausea and vomiting of chemotherapy
D. Metabolised by CYP3A4

Q. 76 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Which of the following is true?

A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition by malathion can be reversed by increasing the level

of atropin
B. Sulphonilamide inhibits folate reductase irreversibly
C. Flouoroacetate competetively inhibits aconitase
D. Ethanol acts by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase when used in methanol poisoning

Q. 77 Single Option Correct +4 -1

A schizophrenic patient started on haloperidol 2 days back, comes with complaints of

torticollis and orofaciolingual movements. What is the diagnosis?

A. Acute dystonia
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Parkinsonism
D. Akathisia

Q. 78 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Mifepristone is used in?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. Molar pregnancy
B. Threatened abortion
C. Fibroid
D. Ectopic pregnancy

Q. 79 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All of the following are true about erlotinib except?

A. Small molecular inhibitor of tyrosine kinase associated with EGFR receptors

B. Food delays its absorption
C. Acniform eruptions and diarrhea are its common side effects
D. Used in non small cell lung cancer when there is no response to other
chemotheraputic agents

Q. 80 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Pulmonary toxicity is seen with?

A. Bleomycin
B. Cisplatin
C. Doxorubicin
D. Actinomycin D

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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Q. 81 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are used in the treatment of hot flushes except?

A. Tamoxifene
B. Venlafaxine
C. Gabapentine
D. Peroxetine

Q. 82 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are true about meglitinides except?

A. Decreases post parandial hyperglycemia

B. Incidence of Hypoglycemia less common than sulfonylureas
C. It decreases insulin resistance
D. Causes stimulation of insulin release from pancreas

Q. 83 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Pregnant mother at 35 weeks of gestation with SLE. Which of the following drug cannot be
used?

A. Prednisolone
B. Methotrexate
C. Sulfsalazine
D. Hydroxychloroquine

Q. 84 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Tolerance in opioids develops to all except?

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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A. Miosis
B. Analgesia
C. Euphoria
D. Nausea and vomiting

Q. 85 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are actions of muscarinic antagonist except?

A. Decreases gastric secretion

B. Prolongs AV conduction
C. Decreases tracheobronchial secretions
D. Causes contraction of radial muscles of iris

Q. 86 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Drugs used in prophylaxis of migraine are all except?

A. Propranolol
B. Flunarizine
C. Topiramate
D. Levetiracetam

Q. 87 Single Option Correct +4 -1

Administration of which of the following drug needs alkalization of urine?

A. Cytosine arabinoside
B. Methotrexate
C. Cisplatin
D. Ifosfarnide

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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Q. 88 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All of the following are true regarding diabetes mellitus except?

A. Type 2 diabetes patients never requires insulin

B. Sliding scale regimen is used in hospitalized patients
C. Low evening insulin dose prevents nocturnal hypoglycemia
D. Regular insulin is used in treatment of gestational diabetes

Q. 89 Single Option Correct +4 -1

All are true regarding serotonin syndrome except?

A. It is not idiosyncratic and unpredictable

B. Dantrolene is a drug of choice
C. can be used by SSRI
D. Features include hyperthermia and hypertension

Q. 90 Single Option Correct +4 -1

About tetanus true is a/e

A. heat resistant spores

B. 3 dosses of vaccine to be given for primary prevention
C. incubation period 6-10 days
D. person to person transmission doesnot occur

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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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NEET PG 2014 Question Paper
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NEET PG 2014
Answers

1. C 2. B 3. D
4. C 5. C 6. A
7. A 8. B 9. A
10. A 11. B 12. A
13. D 14. D 15. A
16. B 17. B 18. A
19. B 20. B 21. B
22. B 23. A 24. A
25. C 26. A 27. C
28. A 29. D 30. B
31. D 32. C 33. A
34. A 35. D 36. A
37. A 38. D 39. B
40. A 41. A 42. B
43. D 44. B 45. C
46. B 47. C 48. A
49. B 50. C 51. A
52. B 53. D 54. C
55. B 56. D 57. A
58. A 59. B 60. B
61. C 62. A 63. C
64. A 65. A 66. A
67. D 68. A 69. C
70. D 71. D 72. A
73. D 74. B 75. A
76. D 77. A 78. C
79. B 80. A 81. A
82. C 83. B 84. A
85. D 86. D 87. B
88. A 89. B 90. B

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