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AIIMS June 2020 - PSM Questions

This document provides summaries of 17 questions that appeared on the AIIMS May/June 2020 PSM exam. The questions cover topics like diseases screened under RBSK, waste disposal categories in hospitals, nutritional support programs, scales of measurement, parametric vs non-parametric tests, vaccine types, epidemiological ratios and more. The document aims to help students recall questions and answers from the exam through brief descriptions of each question topic and correct response.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
236 views

AIIMS June 2020 - PSM Questions

This document provides summaries of 17 questions that appeared on the AIIMS May/June 2020 PSM exam. The questions cover topics like diseases screened under RBSK, waste disposal categories in hospitals, nutritional support programs, scales of measurement, parametric vs non-parametric tests, vaccine types, epidemiological ratios and more. The document aims to help students recall questions and answers from the exam through brief descriptions of each question topic and correct response.

Uploaded by

adi
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Some of the AIIMS May/June 2020 PSM questions as recalled by students (These

are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of
questions may slightly vary from original questions)
((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))

1. Disease not screened under Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)


A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Congenital cataract
D. Retinopathy of prematurity
The correct answer is B. Congenital Glaucoma
Defects Deficiencies Diseases Developmental
Delays
1. Neural tube 10. Anemia 15. Skin 21. Vision
defect (Severe conditions impairment
2. Down’s Anemia) (Scabies, 22. Hearing
syndrome 11. Vit A Eczema & impairment
3. Cleft lip and deficiency fungal 23. Neuro – motor
Palate (Bitot’s infections) impairment
4. Club foot spots) 16. Otitis 24. Motor delay
5. Developmental 12. Vit D Media 25. Cognitive delay
Dysplasia of deficiency 17. Rheumati 26. Language
Hip (Rickets) c heart delay
6. Congenital 13. Severe disease 27. Behavior
Cataract Acute 18. Reactive disorder
7. Congenital Malnutritio Airway (Autism)
deafness n Disease 28. Learning
8. Congenital 14. Goitre 19. Dental disorder
Heart diseases Caries 29. Attention Deficit
9. Retinopathy of 20. Convulsiv Hyperactivity
Prematurity e Disorder
disorders 30. Congenital
Hypothyroidism
, Sickle cell
Anemia, Beta
thalassemia

Ref: Park 25th Edition, Pg No. 498

2. Rubber gloves discarded in


A. Red bag
B. Blue bag
C. Yellow bag
D. White bag

The correct answer is A. Red bag (Gloves – recyclable waste; Recyclable waste –
Red bag)

3. Pacemaker from cardiac wing in hospitals is discarded in


A. Red bag
B. Blue bag
C. Yellow bag
D. White bag
The correct answer is B. Blue bag (Pacemaker – Metallic Implant; Metallic Implant
& glassware – Blue bag)

4. Nikshay Poshan Yojana is


A. Diet counselling
B. Mid-day meal everyday
C. Rs. 500/Month financial benefit
D. Rs. 500/week financial benefit
The correct answer is C. Rs. 500/month. Financial benefit of Rs. 500/month for
nutritional support for tuberculosis patients until completion of treatment is being
provided.

5. Glassgow Coma scale is


A. Nominal scale
B. Ordinal scale
C. Ratio scale
D. Interval scale
The correct answer is B. Ordinal Scale. Glassgow Coma Scale has perfect ranking
and order. Score of ≤ 8 – Severe Brain Injury; 9 – 12 – Moderate brain injury; ≥13
– Mild brain Injury

6. Which among the following is a non-parametric test


A. Student t test
B. ANOVA
C. Pearson correlation test
D. Friedman test
The correct answer is D. Friedman test.
Non Parametric Test Used for
1-sample sign test Estimates the median of a population and
compare it to a reference value or target
value.

1-sample Wilcoxon signed rank test Estimates the median of a population and
compare it to a reference value or target
value for symmetric distribution

Goodman Kruska’s Gamma Test of association for ranked variables


Friedman test Test for differences between groups with
ordinal dependent variables.
Mann-Kendall Trend Test trends in time-series data
Kruskal-Wallis test Ranks of data points are compared
Mann-Whitney test Compare differences between two
independent groups when dependent
variables are either ordinal or continuous
Mood’s Median test Used instead of the sign test when there
are two independent samples
Spearman Rank Correlation to find a correlation between two sets of
data
Chi Square test Compare two or more independent
samples

7. Diphtheria vaccine type


A. Live vaccine
B. Killed vaccine
C. Toxoid
D. Recombinant vaccine
The correct answer is C. Toxoid.
Examples of Toxoid vaccines - Diphtheria, Tetanus, Acellular Pertussis, Anthrax
and Influenza Subunit vaccine
8. Formula for maternal mortality ratio is
A. Total no. of Maternal deaths/Total no. of live births ×1000
B. Total no. of Maternal deaths/ Total no. of pregnant women ×100000
C. Total no. of Maternal deaths/Total no. of live births ×100000
D. Total no. of Maternal deaths/ Total no. of women in reproductive age group ×100000

The correct answer is C. Total no. of Maternal deaths/Total no. of live births
×100000
Current MMR of India (SRS 2019) – 122/ 1lakh live births
9. What should be the minimum dose of tetanus antitoxin in body to provide optimal
protection?
A. 0.1 IU/ml
B. 0.01 IU/ml
C. 0.001 IU/ml
D. 1 IU/ml
The correct answer is B. 0.01 IU/ml. The protective level of antitoxin required is
0.01 IU/ml serum throughout life.
Ref: Park 25th Edition, Pg. No. 340

10. Which of these is possible use of serum antibody testing in a patient affected with
COVID 19?
A. To know the duration of disease
B. To identify previous infection in asymptomatic patient
C. To quantify viral load in patient
D. To identify the type of antigen responsible for disease
The correct answer is B. To identify previous infection in asymptomatic or mild
symptomatic patient

11. Which of these require prevention to prevent spread through droplet infection?
A. Measles
B. Influenza (H1N1)
C. Diphtheria
D. Pertussis
The correct answer is B. Influenza (H1N1).
Ref: Park 25th edition, Pg No. 170.

12. Which of the following are not included in sentinel surveillance of HIV?
A. Antenatal women
B. STD clinic attendees
C. Single migrants
D. Long distance truckers
The correct answer is B. STD clinic Attendees.
Sentinel surveillance includes High risk groups, Bridge population and General
Population
High risk groups includes Intravenous drug abusers, Males having sex with males,
Female sex workers and transgender
Bridge population includes single male migrants and long distance truckers
General population includes pregnant women attending antenatal clinic
Ref: Park 25th edition, Pg. No. 467

13. Which of the following is the best for post exposure prophylaxis of HIV due to needle
prick injury?
A. Zidovudine + Lamivudine
B. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir
C. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine
D. Zidovudine + Nevirapine

The best possible answer can be A. Zidovudine + Lamivudine


The recent WHO guidelines (2016) for Post exposure prophylaxis suggests use of
Tenofovir + Lamivudine

14. Dose of IFA tablet for adolescent girl under Anemia Mukt Bharat
A. 60mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of Folic acid daily once
B. 60 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid weekly once
C. 60 mg of elemental iron and 400 mcg of folic acid daily once
D. 60 mg of elemental iron and 400 mcg of folic acid weekly once
The correct answer is B. 60 mg of elemental iron & 500 mcg of folic acid weekly
once.
Blue colored tablet with dose of 60 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid
is given weekly once to adolescents (10 – 19 years) under Anemia Mukt Bharat
programme.
15. In women to calculate RDA which parameters are used?
A. 1.73 m height
B. 55kg weight
C. 10 hours of work
D. 18 - 30 year age group
The correct answer is B. 55kgs weight.
Reference women – 1.61 meters height, 55 kgs weight, 18 – 29 years age group
and 8 hours of work
16. Identify the vector in the given disease cycle
A. Hard tick
B. Soft tick
C. Louse
D. Trombiculid mite
The correct answer is A. Hard tick.
The life cycle being shown is of Ricketsia ricketsii. Ricketsia ricketsii causes
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Transovarian transmission of Vector is seen.
Human is accidental host.
17. Biosafety level of Covid 19 lab?
A. BSL 1
B. BSL 2
C. BSL 3
D. BSL 4

The correct answer is D. BSL 4

Activities and projects conducted in biological laboratories are categorized by


biosafety level. The four biosafety levels are BSL-1, BSL-2, BSL-3, and BSL-4,
with BSL-4 being the highest (maximum) level of containment.
Safety level of lab Used for
Biosafety Level 1 (BSL 1) Study infectious agents or toxins not
known to consistently cause diseases in
healthy adults
Biosafety Level 2 (BSL 2) Study moderate-risk infectious agents or
toxins that pose a risk if accidentally
inhaled, swallowed, or exposed to the
skin.
Biosafety Level 3 (BSL 3) Study infectious agents or toxins that may
be transmitted through the air and cause
potentially lethal infection through
inhalation exposure
Biosafety Level 4 (BSL 4) Study infectious agents or toxins that
pose a high risk of aerosol-transmitted
laboratory infections and life-threatening
disease for which no vaccine or therapy is
available.

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