Dr.G.R.

Damodaran College of Science

(Autonomous, affiliated to the Bharathiar University, recognized by the UGC)Re-accredited at the 'A' Grade Level by the NAAC and ISO
9001:2008 Certified
CRISL rated 'A' (TN) for MBA and MIB Programmes

II MCA (2018-2021 BATCH)

SEMESTER IV
CORE:SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT-454A
Multiple Choice Questions.

1. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as___
A. Project
B. Job
C. Process
D. Task
ANSWER: A

2. __________ formalizes acceptance and bnngs project to an orderly end.

A. planning.
B. closing process.
C. control process.
D. executing process.
ANSWER: B

3. The Stepwise Project Planning has 0-____ steps

A. 9
B. 10
C. 8
D. 11
ANSWER: B

4. Software systems are likely to be subject to a high degree of ________.

A. performance
B. change
C. time
D. strength
ANSWER: B
5. In ________ type of system, system interfaces with the machine.
A. embedded
B. stock control
C. process control
D. information
ANSWER: A

6. Projects may be distinguished by whether their aim is to produce a ________ or meet certain _______.
A. product, objective
B. product, tasks
C. tasks, objective
D. tasks and null objects
ANSWER: A

7. The first stage of the software project is a ________which results in a recommended course of action.
A. system driven project
B. software driven project
C. hardware driven project
D. objectives driven project
ANSWER: D

8. The second stage of software project is _________.

A. to create software product
B. to meet the objective
C. to make up resources
D. to close the project
ANSWER: C

9. In case of product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms of ___________.
A. functional requirements only
B. resource and non-functional requirements
C. functional and quality requirements
D. resource requirements only
ANSWER: C

10. ________ defines what the end product of the project is to do.
A. product perspective.
B. Non-functional requirements.
C. Quality requirements.
D. Functional requirements.
ANSWER: D
11. ________ is a system analysis and design method designed primarily to provide functional requirements.
A. SSTD.
B. SADT.
C. SGTH.
D. STDH.
ANSWER: B

12. Quality requirements in requirement specification include__________.

A. response time.
B. ease of using the system.
C. reliability.
D. a, b and c.
ANSWER: D

13. _______ is record of how much the organization is willing to spend to the system
A. Resource requirements.
B. Functional requirements.
C. Security requirements.
D. Non-functional requirements.
ANSWER: A

14. Projects are by definition __________ and therefore more uncertain than normal undertakings.
A. routine
B. non-routine
C. specific
D. controllable
ANSWER: B

15. _________is tabular representation of the expected risks in a project

A. Risk Table
B. Assessment Table
C. Time Table
D. Round Table
ANSWER: A

16. CCTA stands for___________.

A. central commission of telecommunication agency.
B. central computing and telecommunication agency.
C. central computing and telecom agency.
D. an NGO.
ANSWER: B
17. __________ standards are needed so that various systems can communicate with each other.
A. Hardware.
B. Hardware and software.
C. Software.
D. Shareware
ANSWER: B

18. The organization as part of its monitoring and control policy may have a ________ programme in place which dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at
various stages of a project.
A. measurement.
B. system.
C. software.
D. testing.
ANSWER: A

19. The products handed over to the clients at the end of projects are called as __________.
A. software
B. application program
C. deliverables
D. intermediate products
ANSWER: C

20. __________ is the result of an activity.

A. Software.
B. System.
C. Control.
D. Product.
ANSWER: D

21. Product description contains___________.

A. name of the product
B. form of the product
C. quantity of the product
D. both a and b
ANSWER: D

22. The relationship between program design and program specification can be portrayed in _________.
A. PFD.
B. DFD.
C. PDF.
D. DDF.
ANSWER: A
23. Which one of the following is NOT an agile method?
A. SCRUM
B. Extreme Programming (XP)
C. DSDM
D. Waterfall
ANSWER: D

24. Same generic fragment relates to more than _________ instance of the particular type of the product.
A. one.
B. two.
C. three
D. four
ANSWER: A

25. _________ is the amount of work that needs to be done.

A. Effort.
B. Energy.
C. Capacity.
D. Strength.
ANSWER: A

26. Project planning is an _________ process.

A. continuous.
B. iterative.
C. time consuming.
D. conventional
ANSWER: B

27. In order to carry out a successful strategic assessment of a potential project there should be strategic plan clearly defining the organization's _________.
A. objectives.
B. rules.
C. conditions.
D. ideas.
ANSWER: A

28. The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is to carry out a ________ analysis.
A. price-benefit.
B. cost-benefit.
C. cash flow.
D. fund flow.
ANSWER: B
29. The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved in the development project and all associated costs are____________.
A. operational cost.
B. development cost.
C. setup cost
D. direct cost.
ANSWER: B

30. Long term or benefits that are considered very difficult to quantify is called _______.
A. direct benefits.
B. assessable benefits.
C. indirect benefits.
D. intangible benefits.
ANSWER: D

31. _________ will indicate when expenditure and income will take place.
A. Cash flow forecast.
B. Cost analysis.
C. Fund flow.
D. Technical forecast.
ANSWER: A

32. _________ is the time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment.
A. Back period.
B. Payback period.
C. Cash back period.
D. Rate of Return.
ANSWER: B

33. Uncertainties are associated with ________.

A. products, processes and resources.
B. products, properties and resources
C. products, prosperities and resources.
D. products, processes and recoveries.
ANSWER: A

34. The availability of staff and experience will be under ___________.

A. process uncertainty.
B. product uncertainty.
C. resource uncertainty.
D. profit uncertainty.
ANSWER: C
35. Number of interrelated activities can be organized in different ways are called ______.
A. activity model.
B. network model.
C. hierarchical model.
D. process model.
ANSWER: D

36. RAD is _______.

A. Resource Application Development.
B. Resource Allocation Development.
C. Rapid Application Development.
D. Rapid Action Development.
ANSWER: C

37. JAD is _________.

A. J2EE Application Development.
B. J2ME Allocation Development.
C. J2SE Application Development.
D. Joint Action Development.
ANSWER: D

38. The alternate name for Waterfall model is _________.

A. two-shot.
B. phase shot.
C. three-phase.
D. one-shot.
ANSWER: D

39. The first phase of waterfall model is ____________.

A. analysis.
B. feasibility Study.
C. coding.
D. user requirements.
ANSWER: B

40. The spiral model is originated by __________.

A. B.W.Boehm.
B. B.W.Williams.
C. B.W.Britto.
D. B.W.Hackman.
ANSWER: A
41. An Elaboration of Waterfall which stresses the necessity for validation activities is known as __________.
A. extended Waterfall.
B. iterative Model.
C. V-Process model.
D. spiral Model.
ANSWER: C

42. ________prototypes are used and discarded when the true development of the operational system is commenced.
A. Evolutionary.
B. Throw away.
C. Operational.
D. Real.
ANSWER: B

43. ______ is as when copies of input screens are shown to the users on a workstation, but the screens cannot actually be used.
A. Simulation.
B. Annealing.
C. Mock-ups.
D. RAD system.
ANSWER: C

44. Partial working model is classified as __________.

A. vertical and horizontal.
B. vertical and straight.
C. bended and horizontal.
D. elevated and horizontal.
ANSWER: A

45. The scope of the deliverables for an increment is rigidly constrained by an agreed deadline called as ____________.
A. sand boxing.
B. time boxing.
C. time delaying.
D. local delaying.
ANSWER: B

46. ______ would mean the change can be implemented without software development.
A. One cost.
B. Total cost.
C. Zero cost.
D. No cost.
ANSWER: C
47. SSADM means ___________.
A. Straight Systems Analysis Design Method.
B. Structured Systems Analysis Design Method.
C. Software Systems Analysis Design Method.
D. Solutions Systems Analysis Design Method.
ANSWER: B

48. Frequent redesigns of the code is often called as ________.

A. refactoring.
B. redesigning.
C. recoding.
D. rearranging.
ANSWER: A

49. Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch?

A. Micro and Macro processes.
B. Inter and Intra processes.
C. Internal and External processes.
D. Small and Large processes.
ANSWER: A

50. What is SLOC?

A. Secret Lines of Code.
B. Source Lines of Code.
C. Selected Lines of Code.
D. Suppressed Lines of Code.
ANSWER: B

51. Homogeneity refers to ______.

A. not similar.
B. similarity.
C. singleness.
D. house full.
ANSWER: B

52. "Work expands to fill the time available"is _________.

A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's Law.
D. Brokers Law.
ANSWER: C
53. The statement "Putting more people on a late job makes it later" is from _________.
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's Law.
D. Brokers Law.
ANSWER: A

54. The statement "If a system does not have to reliable, it can meet any other objective" is from __________.
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's first Law.
D. Weinberg's Zeroth Law.
ANSWER: D

55. KLOC indicates ___________.

A. hundred lines of code.
B. source lines of code.
C. thousand lines of code.
D. million lines of code.
ANSWER: C

56. Engineering practice to derive estimates of software development is called as ______.

A. algorithmic model.
B. software effort estimation technique.
C. software extra estimation technique.
D. Markov models.
ANSWER: B

57. The top-down approach is normally associated with _______ models.

A. process.
B. product.
C. effort.
D. parametric.
ANSWER: D

58. Effort = __________.

A. system size x productivity rate.
B. system size x KLOC.
C. person in months / SLOC.
D. person in months x productivity rate.
ANSWER: A
59. The estimator seeks out projects that have been completed and that have similar characteristics to the new project is called ____________.
A. code based reasoning.
B. case based reasoning.
C. case based analysis.
D. code based analysis.
ANSWER: B

60. UFP indicates ________.

A. unused function points.
B. unstructured function points.
C. uniform function points.
D. unadjusted function points.
ANSWER: D

61. Effort = c x sizek refers to.

A. parametric Design.
B. COCOMO model.
C. organic mode.
D. embedded Mode.
ANSWER: B

62. ________ is refined by Barry Boehm and his co-workers.

A. COCOMO III
B. COCOMO IV.
C. COCOMO II.
D. COCOMO I.
ANSWER: C

63. ________ the degree to which there is a large dispersed team as opposed to there being a small tightly knit team.
A. Small cohesion.
B. Team cohesion.
C. Process maturity.
D. Team maturity.
ANSWER: B

64. ______ is one of the objectives of activity planning.

A. Designing.
B. Detailed costing.
C. Cooperation.
D. Team work.
ANSWER: B
65. In _________the resources are not a constraint for each activity is.
A. resource planning.
B. schedule production.
C. ideal activity plan.
D. technical Plan
ANSWER: C

66. What is PFD?

A. Process Flow Diagram.
B. Product Flow Diagram.
C. Project Flow Diagram.
D. Procurement Flow Diagram.
ANSWER: B

67. PERT is _________.

A. Process Evaluation and Review Technique.
B. Product Evaluation and Review Technique.
C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique.
D. Project Evaluation and Review Technique.
ANSWER: C

68. CPM is an acronym for _______.

A. Control Path Method.
B. Critical Path Method.
C. Cohesion Path Method.
D. Control Path Model.
ANSWER: B

69. The activities have zero duration but are assumed to start at the same time as the first and the end at the same time as the last one is called__________.
A. hijacked activity.
B. heuristic activity.
C. hammocked activity.
D. hole activity.
ANSWER: C

70. ____ is carried out to calculate the earliest dates on which each activity may be started and completed.
A. Backward pass.
B. Forward pass.
C. No pass.
D. Increasing pass.
ANSWER: B
71. The time by which an activity may be delayed without affecting any subsequent activity is called _________.
A. action float.
B. terminal float.
C. free float
D. null float
ANSWER: C

72. The objective of ________ is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of unforeseen events is called
A. risk management.
B. risk maintenance.
C. risk taking.
D. risky job.
ANSWER: A

73. A _________ is an event that might occur and if it occurs, create a problem for the successful completion of the project.
A. planning.
B. hazard.
C. safety.
D. start.
ANSWER: B

74. ________ = risk likelihood x risk impact.

A. Risk estimate.
B. Risk expenditure.
C. Risk identification
D. Risk exposure.
ANSWER: D

75. RRL is ________.

A. risk reduction leverage.
B. risk relax leverage.
C. risk reading letter.
D. risk resource letter.
ANSWER: A

76. WBS is known as

A. Wealth Breaking Scheme
B. Wealth Brokerage Scheme
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Work Breakup Structure
ANSWER: C
77. The impact of some risks can be transferred away from the project by _______.
A. risk analysis.
B. risk control.
C. risk transfer.
D. risk evaluation.
ANSWER: C

78. The shortest time in which we could expect to complete the activity, barring outright miracles called ________.
A. Optimistic Time
B. Pessimistic Time
C. Most Likely Time
D. Shortest Time
ANSWER: A

79. PERT combines three estimates of time and obtains a single expected duration is ____________.
A. te
B. tp
C. tm
D. ts
ANSWER: A

80. _________ is proportional to the difference between the optimistic and pessimistic estimates.
A. Activity Regression
B. Activity mean
C. Activity Standard Deviation
D. Activity Variance
ANSWER: C

81. The________ value in PERT is calculated for each node that has a target date.
A. x value.
B. y value.
C. t value.
D. z value.
ANSWER: D

82. _________ simulation is an alternate to PERT.

A. Morris mano.
B. Monte Carlo.
C. Markov.
D. Hidden Markov.
ANSWER: B
83. ___________ talks about how to match the activity plan to the available resources.
A. Risk management.
B. Allocation management.
C. Activity management.
D. Resource management
ANSWER: D

84. A ________ is any item or person required for the execution of the project.
A. risk.
B. allocation.
C. activity.
D. resource.
ANSWER: D

85. According to Bob Hughes and Mike Cotterell, resources fall into _______ categories.
A. five.
B. four.
C. seven.
D. two.
ANSWER: C

86. _______ is a secondary resource. .

A. Money.
B. Time.
C. Materials.
D. Labour
ANSWER: A

87. "Each activity has been scheduled to start at its earliest start date" is called as_________.
A. likelihood.
B. activity schedule.
C. probability.
D. planning.
ANSWER: A

88. In _________ activities are allocated resources in ascending order of total float.
A. total free priority.
B. total float priority.
C. technical float priority.
D. top float priority
ANSWER: B
89. ______ is the selection of individuals in which the final shape of the project team is taken into account
A. Independent building.
B. Construction building.
C. Team building.
D. Recruitment.
ANSWER: B

90. To know whether a particular individual is available when required is known as _____.
A. reliability.
B. consistency.
C. availability.
D. portability.
ANSWER: C

91. Activity plans can be illustrated using _______.

A. activity bar charts
B. activity pie charts.
C. activity ball charts
D. activity flow charts
ANSWER: A

92. _________ represents expenditure that an organization incurs, which cannot be directly related.
A. Under head
B. Over head.
C. Top head.
D. Miscellaneous expenses
ANSWER: B

93. Cost schedule of an activity plan is represented by _________.

A. ascending steps.
B. descending steps.
C. sequence of steps.
D. reverse steps
ANSWER: C

94. ________ is the group to ensure the satisfactory progress of a project.

A. Product board.
B. Purpose board.
C. Project board.
D. Perfect board.
ANSWER: C
95. Check points of a project plan must be _____.
A. regular.
B. irregular.
C. random
D. fixed.
ANSWER: A

96. _______ is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled activity dates and durations frequently augmented with activity floats. .
A. Bar chart.
B. Ball chart.
C. Slip Chart.
D. Gantt chart
ANSWER: D

97. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under ___________ process.
A. monitoring.
B. verification.
C. control.
D. visualization.
ANSWER: D

98. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed throughout the duration of the project.
A. Gantt chart.
B. Bar chart.
C. Timeline.
D. Schedule.
ANSWER: C

99. The total value credited to a project at any point is known as _______.
A. earned value.
B. moral value.
C. money value.
D. recurred value
ANSWER: A

100. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as ______.
A. deciding monitoring.
B. monitoring.
C. tracking.
D. prioritized monitoring.
ANSWER: D
101. Risk management will occur in the step ____________ of step wise planning.
A. 7
B. 8
C. 6
D. 4
ANSWER: C

102. __________ relates to the physical resources used when the software is executed.
A. Functionality.
B. Maintainability.
C. Reliability.
D. Efficiency.
ANSWER: D

103. Deployment diagrams illustrate the ________ view of the system.

A. static.
B. dynamic.
C. behavioural.
D. activities.
ANSWER: A

104. A _________ is a container-like element for organizing other elements into groups.
A. classes.
B. adornments.
C. packages.
D. activities.
ANSWER: C

105. ________ are denoted by a hollow-diamond adornment on the association.

A. Associations.
B. Constants.
C. Messages.
D. Aggregations.
ANSWER: D

106. _________ indicates the range of items in association relationships.

A. Multiplicity.
B. Adornments.
C. Roles.
D. Instructors.
ANSWER: A
107. Generalization/Specialization is implemented in Object Oriented Programming as ______.
A. polymorphism.
B. inheritance.
C. overloading.
D. abstract.
ANSWER: B

108. ___________ are building a software product.

A. Acquirere.
B. Developers.
C. Independent evaluators.
D. All the above.
ANSWER: B

109. An ______ is a named property of a class that describes the object being modeled.
A. method.
B. constant.
C. message.
D. attribute.
ANSWER: B

110. A Class symbol in UML has ___ chambers.

A. 4.
B. 2.
C. 5.
D. 3.
ANSWER: D

111. _______ is a description of a set of objects that share the same attributes,operations, relationships, and semantics.
A. Object.
B. Class.
C. Process.
D. Instance
ANSWER: B

112. _______ will divide the domain of the task hierarchy in activity diagrams.
A. Swim lane.
B. Activity.
C. Interface.
D. Split.
ANSWER: A
113. _______ is the task/process which describes the way in which the actor interact the system.
A. Class.
B. Flow.
C. Object.
D. Use case.
ANSWER: D

114. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
ANSWER: B

115. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

116. What are the Types of Integration Testing?

A. Big Bang Testing
B. Bottom Up Testing
C. Top Down Testing
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

117. Component Level is implemented using ________ software tools.

A. client.
B. server.
C. middleware.
D. peer.
ANSWER: C

118. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc Testing
B. Unit Testing
C. Regression testing
D. Functional testing.
ANSWER: A
119. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors
and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
A. White Box Testing
B. Grey Box Testing
C. Black Box Testing
D. Open Box Testing
ANSWER: C

120. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting
ANSWER: B

121. Defects are less costly if detected in which of the following phases
A. Coding
B. Design
C. Requirements Gathering
D. Implementation
ANSWER: C

122. User Acceptance testing is

A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Gray box testing
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

123. Error guessing is a

A. Test verification techniques
B. Test execution techniques
C. Test control management techniques
D. Test data management technique
ANSWER: D

124. Histogram refers to

A. Bar chart
B. Run chart
C. Pareto diagram
D. Correlation diagram
 ANSWER: A

125. Pareto principle advocates

A. 20-80 rule
B. 80-20 rule
C. 40-60 rule
D. 60-40 rule
ANSWER: B

126. Which one is not Structural Testing?

A. Regression
B. Parallel
C. Acceptance
D. Stress
ANSWER: C

127. Testing comes under which category of cost of quality?

A. Preventive.
B. Appraisal
C. Failure.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: B

128. Which of the following is not true about Incremental testing?

A. Top-Down approach can be used
B. Use of stubs or drivers are required
C. All modules need to be completed prior to testing
D. Bottom up approach is also possible
ANSWER: C

129. Which of the following is not a part of test plan?

A. Scope
B. Mission
C. Objective
D. Risk
ANSWER: B

130. Which one is not Statistical Tool?

A. Cause and effect Graphing
B. Stratification
C. Run Chart
D. Regression Analysis
 ANSWER: A

131. The 'V' represent the following term:

A. Verification and validation
B. Static testing and Dynamic testing
C. Black box testing and white box testing
D. Software development process and software testing process
ANSWER: D

132. Function point is a measure of

A. Effort
B. Complexity
C. Usability
D. Size
ANSWER: D

133. You are told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. You review the software defect reports, which categories the defects of coding
errors, requirement errors, documentation errors, etc. The best tool to report this information is
A. A histogram
B. A pareto diagram
C. A cause and effect diagram
D. A scatter plot
ANSWER: A

134. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process is
A. Pareto chart
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Histogram
ANSWER: B

135. The following are incremental testing approaches_____.

A. Top-down approach
B. Bottom-up approach
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C

136. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the terms as
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Calibration
 D. Ease of use and simplicity
ANSWER: A

137. Test Readiness review is conducted by the

A. Project manager
B. Test manager
C. Quality assurance personnel
D. User/Customer
ANSWER: B

138. To which phase will training cost fall?

A. Failure
B. Prevention
C. Build
D. Appraisal
ANSWER: B

139. You are performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a drop down box containing a list of values.
What kind of testing are you doing?
A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Load testing
D. Regression testing
ANSWER: B

140. Which is the reputed testing standard?

A. M Bridge awards
B. QAI
C. ISO
D. Microsoft
ANSWER: C

141. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
A. Test Matrix
B. Checklist
C. Test bed
D. Traceablity Matrix
ANSWER: D

142. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. ReTesting
 C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
ANSWER: B

143. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not. It is a static process
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: B

144. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: A

145. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hieraechy

A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

146. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
A. Usability Testing
B. Security Testing
C. Unit testing
D. Block Box Testing
ANSWER: A

147. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle
& Deals with Process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: C

148. Variance from product specifications is called?

A. Report
 B. Requirement
C. Defect
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C

149. White box testing is not called as___________

A. Glass box testing
B. Closed box testing
C. Open box testing
D. Clear box testing
ANSWER: B

150. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called
as
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Cause and Effect Diagram
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Pie Charts
ANSWER: A

Staff Name
Sujatha S .