Chapter 5 Review Questions

1. Object-oriented databases (OODBs) are designed for data that is____________________________

A. Predictable
B. Consistent in structure
C. Variable
D. Fixed-length
2. Which of the following statements best explains a program object in object-oriented
programming?
A. It contains methods and data.
B. Methods are stored separately from data.
C. It contains 100 percent of all methods necessary for every task.
D. It does not provide methods.
3. The advantages of using 4GL software applications include which of the following?
A. Automatically generates the application screens and business logic.
B. Includes artificial intelligence using fuzzy logic.
C. Reduces application planning time and coding effort.
D. The 4GL provides screen-authoring and report-writing utilities that automate database
access. The 4GL tools do not create the business logic necessary for data transformation.
4. Which of the following is the best method of reviewing the logic used in software
written in program script?
A. Black-box test
B. Regression test
C. Crystal-box test
D. User acceptance test
5. Which of the following principles includes the concept of writing all or nothing to the
database?
A. Transaction processing monitor
B. Atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability
C. Runtime processing
D. Referential integrity
6. The best definition of database normalization is to:
A. Increase system performance by creating duplicate copies of the most accessed data,
allowing faster caching
B. Increase the amount (capacity) of valuable data
C. Minimize duplication of data and reduce the size of data tables
D. Minimize response time through faster processing of information
7. Which of the following statements is true concerning the inference engine used in expert
systems?
A. Makes decisions using heuristics
B. Contains nodes linked via an arc
C. Used when a knowledge base is unavailable
D. Records objects in a climactic network
8. The Software Engineering Institute’s Capability Maturity Model (CMM) would best relate
to which of the following?
A. Measurement of resources necessary to ensure a reduction in coding defects
 B. Documentation of accomplishments achieved during program development
C. Relationship of application performance to the user’s stated requirement
D. Baseline of the current progress or regression
9. What is the primary objective of postimplementation review?
A. Recognition for forcing an installation to be successful
B. Authorize vendor’s final payment from escrow
C. Conduct remedial actions
D. Determine that its organizational objectives have been fulfilled
0. Which of the following migration methods provides the lowest risk to the
organization?
A. Phased
B. Hard
C. Parallel
D. Date specified
11. Which of the following best describes a data mart?
A. Contains raw data to be processed
B. Used in place of a data warehouse
C. Contains data collected from snapshots
D. Stores results from data mining
2. What are the advantages of the integrated development environment (IDE)?
A. Simplifies programming and helps debug program code
B. Eliminates the majority of processes in SDLC phase 2
C. Prevents design errors in SDLC phase 3
D. Eliminates the testing requirement in SDLC phase 4
3. What does the term referential integrity mean?
A. Transactions are recorded in before-images and after-images.
B. It’s a valid link between a data entry contained in two tables.
C. It’s a completed tuple in the database.
D. Candidate keys are used to perform a search.
4. What is the difference between certification and accreditation?
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A. Certification is a management process, and accreditation is a technical process.
B. No difference; both include technical testing.
C. Certification is a technical test, and accreditation is management’s view of fitness for
use.
D. Certification is about fitness of use, and accreditation is a technical testing process.
5. An IT steering committee would most likely perform which of the following
functions?
A. Explain to the users how IT is steering the business objectives
B. Issue directives for regulatory compliance and provide authorization for ongoing IT audits
C. Facilitate cooperation between the users and IT to ensure that business objectives are
met
D. Ensure that the business is aligned to fulfill the IT objectives
6. What is the IS auditor’s primary purpose in regard to life-cycle management?
A. To verify that evidence supports the organizational objective and that each decision is
properly authorized by management
 B. To verify that all business contracts are properly signed and executed by
management
C. To verify that internal controls are tested prior to implementation by a third-party review
laboratory
D. To verify that a sufficient budget was allocated to pay for software development
within the allotted time period
7. Which of the software development methods includes planning activities in phase 1 of the
SDLC model?
A. Agile
B. Rapid Application Development (RAD)
C. Upper CASE tools
D. Project management
8. Which of the following design techniques will document internal logic functions used for data
transformation?
A. Entity-relationship diagram
B. Flowchart
C. Database schema
D. Function point analysis
9. Software development uses several types of testing to ensure proper functionality. Which of
the following types of testing is used to test functionality on commercially compiled
software?
A. White-box
B. Code review
C. Black-box
D. Crystal-box
1. Which of the following statements is true concerning regression testing?
A. Used to observe internal program logic
B. Verifies that a change did not create a new problem
C. Provides testing of black-box functions
D. Compares test results against a knowledge base
2. Programming software modules by using a time-box style of management is also referred
to as __________ the method. The purpose is to force rapid iterations of software
prototypes by small teams of talented programmers.
A. Agile
B. Lower CASE
C. Rapid Application Development (RAD)
D. Fourth-generation (4GL)
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3. What should be the basis for management’s decision to buy available software or to build a
custom software application?
A. Cost savings by switching to a recognized best-in-class application used by others in the
industry
B. Converting from existing internal custom processes to the method new software
operates in order to save money by avoiding the cost of customization
C. Competitive advantage of using the same software as everyone else
 D. Data from the feasibility study and business specifications
4. What is the real issue regarding software escrow?
A. The vendor must use a subcontractor for safe storage of the original development
software.
B. The software contains intellectual value that is conveyed to the client.
C. The client is entitled to the benefit of only using the software and not owning it, unless
they pay more money. Escrow may provide some protection if the vendor goes out of
business, but does not prevent software from being discontinued.
D. Commercial software is kept in escrow in case the vendor sells the rights to
another vendor.
5. What is the primary purpose of the reviews at the end of each phase in the SDLC?
A. Approval for the funding to continue development
B. Approval by management to proceed to the next phase or possibly kill the project
C. Approval of the final design
D. Provide the auditor with information about management’s decision for regulatory
compliance
6. Which of the following development methodologies is based on knowledge in
someone’s head, as opposed to traditional documentation of requirements?
A. System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
B. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)
C. Rapid Application Development (RAD)
D. Agile