Test Booklet Code

No. :
KANHA
E1 This Booklet contains 24 pages.

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E1 2
1. Which of the following is not an attribute of a 7. Choose the correct pair from the following :
population ?
(1) Ligases - Join the two DNA
(1) Sex ratio
molecules
(2) Natality
(3) Mortality (2) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
(4) Species interaction fragments

2. The process of growth is maximum during : (3) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
(1) Log phase of DNA
(2) Lag phase
(4) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
(3) Senescence
positions within DNA
(4) Dormancy

3. The roots that originate from the base of the stem 8. Select the correct match.
are :
(1) Haemophilia - Y linked
(1) Fibrous roots
(2) Primary roots (2) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
dominant trait
(3) Prop roots
(4) Lateral roots (3) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal
recessive trait,
4. Match the following diseases with the causative chromosome-11
organism and select the correct option. (4) Thalassemia - X linked
Column - I Column - II
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria 9. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella Column - I Column - II

(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus (a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias

pest
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
symmetry and larva
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
with bilateral symmetry
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
5. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
are transferred to assist those females who cannot (a) (b) (c) (d)
conceive ? (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) ZIFT and IUT
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) GIFT and ZIFT
(3) ICSI and ZIFT (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) GIFT and ICSI (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

6. Identify the wrong statement with reference to

the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. 10. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
the human body is :
(1) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(2) A person will have only two of the three (1) Trophozoites
alleles. (2) Sporozoites
(3) When IA and IB are present together, they
(3) Female gametocytes
express same type of sugar.
(4) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (4) Male gametocytes
 3 E1
11. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and 16. Which of the following statements about inclusion
peptide bond, respectively in their structure : bodies is incorrect ?
(1) Chitin, cholesterol (1) They are not bound by any membrane.
(2) These are involved in ingestion of food
(2) Glycerol, trypsin
particles.
(3) Cellulose, lecithin (3) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(4) Inulin, insulin (4) These represent reserve material in
cytoplasm.
12. The plant parts which consist of two generations -
17. Which is the important site of formation of
one within the other :
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Peroxisomes
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
(3) Golgi bodies
gametes
(4) Polysomes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
18. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule can be visualized with the help of :
(1) (a) only (1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) (a) and (d)
19. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
transport of oxygen.
13. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are : (1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
(1) Ammonia alone
(2) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
(2) Nitrate alone O2 binding with haemoglobin.
(3) Ammonia and oxygen (3) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(4) Ammonia and hydrogen
(4) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin.
14. Identify the correct statement with regard to
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase. 20. Ray florets have :
(1) DNA synthesis or replication takes place. (1) Inferior ovary
(2) Superior ovary
(2) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
place. (3) Hypogynous ovary
(4) Half inferior ovary
(3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
not replicate its DNA. 21. The specific palindromic sequence which is
(4) Nuclear Division takes place. recognized by EcoRI is :
(1) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
15. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
is found in : (2) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
(1) lining of intestine 3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(3) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
(2) ducts of salivary glands
3' - GAATTC - 5'
(3) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(4) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
(4) eustachian tube 3' - CCTAGG - 5'
E1 4
22. Identify the wrong statement with regard to 26. Which of the following statements are true for
Restriction Enzymes. the phylum-Chordata ?
(1) Each restriction enzyme functions by (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. head to tail and it is present throughout
their life.
(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
sites. the embryonic period only.
(3) They are useful in genetic engineering. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
hollow.
(4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
ligases. Hemichordata, Tunicata and
Cephalochordata.
23. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge (1) (d) and (c)
digester for further sewage treatment ? (2) (c) and (a)
(1) Primary sludge (3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)
(2) Floating debris
(3) Effluents of primary treatment 27. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(4) Activated sludge
thuringiensis
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
24. Select the correct events that occur during
inspiration. aquaticus first rDNA
molecule
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles tumefaciens
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
typhimurium
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a) and (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (c) and (d)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) only (d) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

28. Match the following concerning essential elements

25. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for
and their functions in plants :
few days because :
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(1) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
abdomen. (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
biosynthesis
(2) the cockroach does not have nervous system. (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(3) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous Select the correct option :
system while the rest is situated along the (a) (b) (c) (d)
ventral part of its body. (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
while the rest is situated along the dorsal (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
part of its body.
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
 5 E1
29. Identify the incorrect statement. 34. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits
(1) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives highest species diversity ?
mechanical support. (1) Western Ghats of India
(2) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water (2) Madagascar
and minerals from root to leaf. (3) Himalayas
(3) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem (4) Amazon forests
and is lighter in colour.
(4) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., 35. Which of the following statements is not
heart wood is dark in colour. correct ?
(1) In man insulin is synthesised as a
30. Match the following : proinsulin.
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin (2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
C-peptide.
activity
(3) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin (4) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
fungi in E-Coli.
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
Choose the correct option from the following : 36. The transverse section of a plant shows following
anatomical features :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) surrounded by bundle sheath.
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) tissue.
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
31. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is Identify the category of plant and its part :
completed : (1) Monocotyledonous stem
(1) Prior to ovulation (2) Monocotyledonous root
(2) At the time of copulation (3) Dicotyledonous stem
(3) After zygote formation (4) Dicotyledonous root

(4) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an

ovum 37. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
Column - I Column - II
32. According to Robert May, the global species
diversity is about : (a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon
(1) 1.5 million gill slits
(2) 20 million (b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
(3) 50 million caudal fin
(4) 7 million (c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
33. The first phase of translation is :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Binding of mRNA to ribosome (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) Recognition of DNA molecule (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) Recognition of an anti-codon (4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
E1 6
38. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino 44. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : of organisms which have evolved due to changes
in environment brought about by anthropogenic
(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C
action ?
(2) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(4) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
39. Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by : (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
like dogs.
(1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(2) Alfred Wallace
(1) only (a)
(3) Charles Darwin
(2) (a) and (c)
(4) Oparin
(3) (b), (c) and (d)

40. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water (4) only (d)
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night
and in early morning is :
45. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
(1) Transpiration immunity.
(2) Root pressure (1) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
(3) Imbibition antibodies are produced in the host’s body.
It is called “Active immunity”.
(4) Plasmolysis
(2) When ready-made antibodies are directly
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
41. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
and caffeine are produced by plants for their : (3) Active immunity is quick and gives full
response.
(1) Nutritive value
(4) Foetus receives some antibodies from
(2) Growth response
mother, it is an example for passive
(3) Defence action immunity.
(4) Effect on reproduction
46. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
42. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
photorespiration leads to the formation of : rams ?
(1) 2 molecules of 3-C compound (1) Out crossing
(2) 1 molecule of 3-C compound (2) Mutational breeding
(3) 1 molecule of 6-C compound (3) Cross breeding
(4) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule (4) Inbreeding
of 2-C compound

43. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the 47. Identify the correct statement with reference to
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis human digestive system.
(Bt) is resistant to :
(1) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(1) Insect pests
(2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
(2) Fungal diseases alimentary canal.
(3) Plant nematodes (3) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
(4) Insect predators (4) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
 7 E1
48. Match the following columns and select the 52. Match the following with respect to meiosis :
correct option.
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
Column - I Column - II (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata

(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over

butylicum (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis

(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid Select the correct option from the following :
polysporum (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
purpureus
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
lowering agent
53. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
(a) (b) (c) (d) algae ?
(1) Laminaria and Sargassum
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Anabaena and Volvox
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (4) Chlorella and Spirulina
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
54. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
49. Presence of which of the following conditions in follicle ?
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ? (1) High concentration of Estrogen
(1) Uremia and Ketonuria (2) High concentration of Progesterone
(3) Low concentration of LH
(2) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(4) Low concentration of FSH
(3) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
55. Match the following columns and select the
(4) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
correct option.
Column - I Column - II
50. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(1) Starch and cellulose
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
(2) Amylopectin and glycogen deaminase
(3) Mannitol and algin deficiency

(4) Laminarin and cellulose (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV

infection

51. Select the option including all sexually transmitted (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
diseases. thuringiensis

(1) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
E1 8
56. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control 61. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
of : Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
in one character with contrasting traits ?
(1) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
from one country to another (1) 4
(2) 2
(2) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(3) 14
(3) Release of Green House gases (4) 8
(4) Disposal of e-wastes
62. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
57. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
Column - I Column - II
(1) They have RNA with protein coat.
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
(2) They have free RNA without protein coat. ear and pharynx
(3) They have DNA with protein coat. (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
(4) They have free DNA without protein coat. labyrinth
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the
58. The ovary is half inferior in : oval window
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
(1) Brinjal
basilar
(2) Mustard
membrane
(3) Sunflower (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Plum (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
59. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(1) protein into polypeptides
63. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
(2) trypsinogen into trypsin
place by :
(3) caseinogen into casein (1) insects or wind
(4) pepsinogen into pepsin (2) water currents only
(3) wind and water
60. Match the trophic levels with their correct species (4) insects and water
examples in grassland ecosystem.
64. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length
of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture crop.
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit (1) Cytokinin
(2) Gibberellin
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
(3) Ethylene
Select the correct option : (4) Abscisic acid
(a) (b) (c) (d)
65. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) transfer of electrons from :
(1) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) PS-I to NADP+
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) PS-I to ATP synthase
 9 E1
66. Which of the following is not an inhibitory 70. Match the following columns and select the
substance governing seed dormancy ? correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(1) Gibberellic acid
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(2) Abscisic acid
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(3) Phenolic acid Gonadotropin
(hCG)
(4) Para-ascorbic acid
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
glands
67. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
helix during transcription. Penis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) DNA ligase
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) DNA helicase (2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) RNA polymerase
71. Strobili or cones are found in :
(1) Salvinia
68. Which of the following would help in prevention of (2) Pteris
diuresis ? (3) Marchantia
(4) Equisetum
(1) More water reabsorption due to
undersecretion of ADH 72. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
(2) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :
tubules due to aldosterone
(1) M phase
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor causes (2) G1 phase
vasoconstriction (3) S phase
(4) G2 phase
(4) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
73. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
of :
69. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net (1) Adaptive radiation
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
of the following statements is correct ? (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Industrial melanism
(1) Gross primary productivity is always less (4) Natural selection
than net primary productivity.
74. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
(2) Gross primary productivity is always more is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
than net primary productivity. DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is
(3) Gross primary productivity and Net primary approximately :
productivity are one and same.
(1) 2.0 meters
(4) There is no relationship between Gross (2) 2.5 meters
primary productivity and Net primary (3) 2.2 meters
productivity. (4) 2.7 meters
E1 10
75. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents : 80. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Repolarisation of auricles correct option.
(2) Depolarisation of auricles Column - I Column - II
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of ventricles (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease

76. Match the following columns and select the (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
correct option.
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
Column - I Column - II
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
histaminase,
destructive (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
enzymes
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
containing (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
histamine
(a) (b) (c) (d) 81. Select the correct statement.
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (2) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
adipocytes.
77. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
H-bonds.
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through one 82. Which one of the following is the most abundant
H-bond. protein in the animals ?
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
H-bonds. (1) Haemoglobin
(4) Adenine does not pair with thymine. (2) Collagen
78. The sequence that controls the copy number of the (3) Lectin
linked DNA in the vector, is termed :
(1) Selectable marker (4) Insulin
(2) Ori site
(3) Palindromic sequence 83. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
(4) Recognition site theory of inheritance was done by :

79. Identify the basic amino acid from the following. (1) Mendel
(1) Tyrosine (2) Sutton
(2) Glutamic Acid
(3) Boveri
(3) Lysine
(4) Valine (4) Morgan
 11 E1
84. Match the following columns and select the 89. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
correct option. from :
Column - I Column - II (1) Squamous epithelial cells
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between (2) Columnar epithelial cells
second and (3) Chondrocytes
seventh ribs (4) Compound epithelial cells
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
Humerus 90. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (1) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
temperature
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
(2) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of
with the sternum
UV-B radiation
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) High reflection of light from snow
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 91. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(1) He2
85. The number of substrate level phosphorylations (2) Li2
in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(3) C2
(1) Zero
(4) O2
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three 92. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is
2×10−15.
86. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs
(1) 2×10−13 M
during :
(2) 2×10−8 M
(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene (3) 1×10−13 M
(3) Diplotene (4) 1×108 M
(4) Leptotene
93. Identify the correct statements from the
87. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals following :
are exemplified by : (a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
(1) Ctenophora and frozen food.
(2) Platyhelminthes (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
(3) Aschelminthes carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(4) Annelida (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline.
88. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle (d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
at :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(1) Hilum
(2) Micropyle (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) Nucellus (3) (b) and (c) only
(4) Chalaza (4) (c) and (d) only
E1 12
94. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following 96. Identify the incorrect match.
reaction. Name IUPAC Official Name
Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
will be : (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(1) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013) (d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(2) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013) (1) (a), (i)
(3) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013) (2) (b), (ii)
(4) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013) (3) (c), (iii)
(4) (d), (iv)
95. Identify compound X in the following sequence of
reactions :
97. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic
radius is :

3
(1) × 288 pm
4

2
(2) × 288 pm
4
4
(3) × 288 pm
3
(1)
4
(4) × 288 pm
2

98. Which of the following set of molecules will have

zero dipole moment ?
(1) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
(2) 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(2) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(3) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(4) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
(3) carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

99. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using

Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
anode will be :
(1) Hydrogen gas
(2) Oxygen gas
(4)
(3) H2S gas
(4) SO2 gas
 13 E1
100. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium 103. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give : ion is :
(1) Isopropyl alcohol (1) 3.87 BM
(2) 4.90 BM
(2) Sec. butyl alcohol
(3) 5.92 BM
(3) Tert. butyl alcohol
(4) 2.84 BM
(4) Isobutyl alcohol
104. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
101. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has gas under adiabatic condition is :
−O−O− linkage ? (1) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
(1) H2SO3, sulphurous acid (2) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0

(2) H2SO4, sulphuric acid (3) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0

(4) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
(3) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(4) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
105. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
102. Which of the following amine will give the depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
carbylamine test ? containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1) 0.20 K
(2) 0.80 K
(3) 0.40 K
(1)
(4) 0.60 K

106. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce

20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(2)
(3) 3
(4) 4

107. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone

in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(1) Aldol condensation
(3) (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(3) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(4) Cross Aldol condensation

108. Paper chromatography is an example of :

(1) Adsorption chromatography
(4) (2) Partition chromatography
(3) Thin layer chromatography
(4) Column chromatography
E1 14
109. An increase in the concentration of the reactants 114. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form
of a reaction leads to change in : pent-2-ene is :
(1) activation energy (a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(2) heat of reaction
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(3) threshold energy
(d) Dehydration reaction
(4) collision frequency (1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
110. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains (3) (b), (c), (d)
7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the
(4) (a), (b), (d)
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
partial pressure of N2 is :
115. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
[Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40] Raoult’s law is :
(1) Ethanol+Acetone
(1) 9 bar
(2) Benzene+Toluene
(2) 12 bar
(3) Acetone+Chloroform
(3) 15 bar (4) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(4) 18 bar
116. Which of the following is the correct order of
111. Identify the correct statement from the increasing field strength of ligands to form
following : coordination compounds ?
(1) Wrought iron is impure iron with (1) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
4% carbon.
(2) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
(2) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
to evolution of CO2. (3) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
(3) Vapour phase refining is carried out for (4) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(4) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of 117. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
shapes. (1) Serine
(2) Alanine

112. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a (3) Tyrosine

secondary butyl carbocation because of which of (4) Lysine
the following ?
118. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
(1) −I effect of −CH3 groups and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
(2) +R effect of −CH3 groups crystallise(s) ?
(1) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) −R effect of −CH3 groups
(2) Only NaCl
(4) Hyperconjugation
(3) Only MgCl2
(4) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
113. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate 119. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?
(1) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(2) Sodium stearate
(2) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide (3) polybutadiene
(4) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate (4) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
 15 E1
120. Which of the following is not correct about carbon 125. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
monoxide ? in the following reaction ?

(1) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin. CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)

(2) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(1) +4 to +4
(3) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
bound to CO) is less stable than (2) 0 to +4
oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) −4 to +4
(4) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
(4) 0 to −4

121. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :

(1) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose 126. Identify the incorrect statement.

(2) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose (1) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than

Fe2+(d6) in water.
(3) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose

(4) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose (2) The transition metals and their compounds

are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
122. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, states and to form complexes.
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce
ATP and with Na, is responsible for the (3) Interstitial compounds are those that are
transmission of nerve signals. formed when small atoms like H, C or N
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
(1) Iron metals.
(2) Copper
(4) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24−
(3) Calcium
and Cr2O72− are not the same.
(4) Potassium

127. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct

123. Which one of the followings has maximum number option is :
of atoms ?
(1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
(1) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108]
(2) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
(2) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24]

(3) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16] (3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0

(4) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7] (4) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0

124. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 128. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining
175 which property of colloidal solution ?
71 Lu , respectively, are :

(1) 71, 104 and 71 (1) Viscosity

(2) 104, 71 and 71 (2) Solubility

(3) 71, 71 and 104 (3) Stability of the colloidal particles

(4) 175, 104 and 71 (4) Size of the colloidal particles

E1 16
129. Urea reacts with water to form A which will 133. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of
decompose to form B. B when passed through the product. Its structure is :
Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
What is the formula of C from the following ?
(1) CuSO4
(2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(3) Cu(OH)2
(4) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2 (1)

130. Match the following and identify the correct

option.
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+
Ca(HCO3)2
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
hardness of deficient hydride
water (2)
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
structure
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

131. Match the following :

Oxide Nature
(a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic (4)
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
134. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) n-Hexane
132. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is : (2) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(1) 100 s
(2) 200 s (3) n-Heptane
(3) 500 s
(4) 1000 s (4) n-Butane
 17 E1
135. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives : 139. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of
249 kPa and temperature 278C.
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(1) 0.5 kg/m3
(1) (2) 0.2 kg/m3
(3) 0.1 kg/m3
(4) 0.02 kg/m3

140. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one

surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface.
(2)
If the refractive index of the material of the prism
is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal
to :
A
(1)
2µ
2A
(3) (2)
µ
(3) µA
µA
(4)
2

141. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are

(4) connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly
opened. The process is :
136. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not (1) isothermal
valid ?
(2) adiabatic
(1) Hydrogen atom
(2) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (3) isochoric
(3) Deuteron atom (4) isobaric
(4) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
142. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
137. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field
(1) 4.5×1016 J
and magnetic field components to the intensity of
an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of (2) 4.5×1013 J
electromagnetic waves) (3) 1.5×1013 J
(1) c:1 (4) 0.5×1013 J
(2) 1:1
(3) 1:c 143. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
(4) 1 : c2 What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
equal to half the radius of the earth ?
138. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be :
(1) 48 N
(1) 08 < ib < 308
(2) 32 N
(2) 308 < ib < 458
(3) 458 < ib < 908 (3) 30 N
(4) ib = 908 (4) 24 N
E1 18
144. The solids which have the negative temperature 149. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
coefficient of resistance are : ∧
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is
(1) metals ∧
2k m .
(2) insulators only
∧
(3) semiconductors only (1) 6i N m
∧
(4) insulators and semiconductors (2) 6j Nm
∧
145. The phase difference between displacement and (3) −6 i N m
∧
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic (4) 6k N m
motion is :
(1) π rad 150. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
3π surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
(2) rad
2 surface during time span of 1 minute is :
π (1) 10×103 J
(3) rad
2 (2) 12×103 J
(4) zero
(3) 24×103 J

146. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and (4) 48×103 J
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
The pitch of the screw gauge is : 151. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
(1) 0.01 mm of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is
the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
(2) 0.25 mm
from the centre of the sphere ?
(3) 0.5 mm
(4) 1.0 mm  1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π 0 
147. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same (1) 1.28×104 N/C
material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
(2) 1.28×105 N/C
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. (3) 1.28×106 N/C
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original (4) 1.28×107 N/C
frequency of B will be :
(1) 523 Hz 152. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3,
(2) 524 Hz the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout.
The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
(3) 536 Hz
(1) zero
(4) 537 Hz
(2) 0.5 N/C

148. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively (3) 1 N/C

are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length (4) 5 N/C
1 m with negligible mass.
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg 153. The increase in the width of the depletion region
particle is nearly at a distance of : in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(1) 33 cm (1) forward bias only
(2) 50 cm (2) reverse bias only
(3) 67 cm (3) both forward bias and reverse bias

(4) 80 cm (4) increase in forward current

 19 E1
154. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz 159. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is
ac supply. The rms value of the current in the 10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
circuit is, nearly : (1) 6
(1) 1.7 A (2) 0.6
(2) 2.05 A (3) 0.06
(3) 2.5 A (4) 0.006
(4) 25.1 A
160. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the
155. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular ends of a massless string. The string passes over
diameter d and number density n can be expressed a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The
as : acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration
1 due to gravity (g) is :
(1)
2 n πd
1
(2)
2 n πd2
1
(3)
2 n2 πd2
1
(4)
2 n2 π2 d2 (1) g
(2) g/2
156. For transistor action, which of the following
(3) g/5
statements is correct ?
(4) g/10
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same doping concentrations.
(2) Base, emitter and collector regions should 161. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging
have same size. from a fixed support. The length of the wire
(3) Both emitter junction as well as the collector changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its
junction are forward biased. free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
(4) The base region must be very thin and lightly MgL1
doped. (1)
AL
157. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold Mg(L1 − L)
(2)
frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. AL
What will be the photoelectric current if the MgL
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ? (3) AL1
(1) doubled MgL
(2) four times (4) A(L1 − L)
(3) one-fourth
(4) zero 162. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas
is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
235 temperature)
158. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons 1
(1) kBT
and : 2
144 3
(1) 56 Ba (2) kBT
2
91
(2) 40 Zr 5
(3) kBT
(3) 101 2
36 Kr
7
(4) 103 (4) kBT
36 Kr 2
E1 20
163. Which of the following graph represents the 166. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
copper ? The permittivity of the medium is :
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)
(1) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
(1)
(2) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
(3) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2

167. Dimensions of stress are :

(2)
(1) [ M L T−2 ]
(2) [ M L2 T−2 ]
(3) [ M L0T−2 ]
(4) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
(3)
168. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope
whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
(1) 3.66×10−7 rad
(2) 1.83×10−7 rad
(4)
(3) 7.32×10−7 rad
(4) 6.00×10−7 rad

169. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage

164. The color code of a resistance is given below : source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
phase difference between current and voltage
π
is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
3
π
the phase difference is again between current
3
and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, (1) zero
are : (2) 0.5
(1) 470 kΩ, 5% (3) 1.0
(4) −1.0
(2) 47 kΩ, 10%
(3) 4.7 kΩ, 5% 170. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
(4) 470 Ω, 5% 16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
165. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation
between coherent sources is halved and the angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is  1 
doubled, then the fringe width becomes :  = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0 
(1) double
(1) 50 V
(2) half (2) 200 V
(3) four times (3) 400 V
(4) one-fourth (4) zero
 21 E1
171. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a 177. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
permeability of the material of the rod is : the ground after some time with a velocity of
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
(1) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1 (1) 360 m
(2) 340 m
(2) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1
(3) 320 m
(3) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1
(4) 300 m
(4) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1
178. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
172. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
the centre of the solenoid is : tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) of water that will rise in this tube is :
(1) 6.28×10−4 T (1) 2.5 g
(2) 3.14×10−4 T (2) 5.0 g
(3) 6.28×10−5 T (3) 10.0 g
(4) 3.14×10−5 T (4) 20.0 g
179. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
173. A charged particle having drift velocity of
metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of
right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1
in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
of :
wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
(1) 2.25×1015
resistance wire is :
(2) 2.5×106 (1) 1.0×10−2 m
(3) 2.5×10−6 (2) 1.0×10−1 m
(4) 2.25×10−15 (3) 1.5×10−1 m
(4) 1.5×10−2 m
174. The quantities of heat required to raise the
180. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :
temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
ratio :
27
(1)
8
9 (1) A B Y
(2) 0 0 0
4
0 1 0
3
(3) 1 0 0
2 1 1 1
5 (2) A B Y
(4)
3 0 0 0
175. An electron is accelerated from rest through a 0 1 1
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie 1 0 1
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the 1 1 1
potential difference is : (3) A B Y
(1) 10 V 0 0 1
(2) 102 V 0 1 1
(3) 103 V 1 0 1
1 1 0
(4) 104 V
(4) A B Y
176. Taking into account of the significant figures, what 0 0 1
is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ? 0 1 0
(1) 9.9801 m 1 0 0
(2) 9.98 m 1 1 0
(3) 9.980 m
(4) 9.9 m -o0o-
E1 22
Space For Rough Work
 23 E1
Space For Rough Work
E1 24
Space For Rough Work
Test Booklet Code
No. :
KANHA
F1 This Booklet contains 24 pages.

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For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
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5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator
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same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the
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9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
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Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and
dealt with as an unfair means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
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in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
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Attendance Sheet.

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F1 2
1. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the 6. Match the following concerning essential elements
transfer of electrons from : and their functions in plants :
(1) PS-I to NADP+ (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(2) PS-I to ATP synthase (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(3) PS-II to Cytb6f complex (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
(4) Cytb6f complex to PS-I biosynthesis
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
2. The sequence that controls the copy number of the
Select the correct option :
linked DNA in the vector, is termed :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Palindromic sequence
(2) Recognition site (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) Selectable marker (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) Ori site (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. The specific palindromic sequence which is
recognized by EcoRI is :
7. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
(1) 5' - CTTAAG - 3' can be visualized with the help of :
3' - GAATTC - 5' (1) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(2) 5' - GGATCC - 3' (2) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
3' - CCTAGG - 5' (3) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(3) 5' - GAATTC - 3' (4) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(4) 5' - GGAACC - 3' 8. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
helix during transcription.
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(1) DNA polymerase
4. Identify the wrong statement with reference to (2) RNA polymerase
immunity.
(3) DNA ligase
(1) Active immunity is quick and gives full
response. (4) DNA helicase

(2) Foetus receives some antibodies from

mother, it is an example for passive 9. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
immunity. are transferred to assist those females who cannot
conceive ?
(3) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
antibodies are produced in the host’s body. (1) ICSI and ZIFT
It is called “Active immunity”. (2) GIFT and ICSI
(4) When ready-made antibodies are directly (3) ZIFT and IUT
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(4) GIFT and ZIFT
5. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
theory of inheritance was done by : 10. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
(1) Boveri (1) Lysine
(2) Morgan (2) Valine
(3) Mendel (3) Tyrosine
(4) Sutton (4) Glutamic Acid
 3 F1
11. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 16. Choose the correct pair from the following :
transport of oxygen.
(1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
(1) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
of DNA
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(2) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation (2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
of oxyhaemoglobin. positions within DNA
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
(3) Ligases - Join the two DNA
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
molecules
(4) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
O2 binding with haemoglobin. (4) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
fragments
12. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
(1) Mannitol and algin 17. Ray florets have :
(2) Laminarin and cellulose (1) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Starch and cellulose
(2) Half inferior ovary
(4) Amylopectin and glycogen
(3) Inferior ovary

13. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of (4) Superior ovary
sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
rams ? 18. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
(1) Cross breeding
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(2) Inbreeding thuringiensis
(3) Out crossing
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
(4) Mutational breeding
aquaticus first rDNA
14. Match the following columns and select the molecule
correct option. (c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
Column - I Column - II tumefaciens
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease (d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus typhimurium

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus Select the correct option from the following :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
19. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
15. Select the option including all sexually transmitted in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :
diseases.
(1) Ammonia and oxygen
(1) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(2) Ammonia and hydrogen
(2) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(3) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (3) Ammonia alone

(4) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes (4) Nitrate alone

F1 4
20. Name the plant growth regulator which upon 25. Match the following columns and select the
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length correct option.
of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane Column - I Column - II
crop. (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
(1) Ethylene second and
seventh ribs
(2) Abscisic acid
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
(3) Cytokinin Humerus
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(4) Gibberellin
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
with the sternum
21. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle (a) (b) (c) (d)
at : (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Nucellus (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) Chalaza
26. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
(3) Hilum Restriction Enzymes.
(1) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(4) Micropyle (2) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
ligases.
(3) Each restriction enzyme functions by
22. The process of growth is maximum during : inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(4) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(1) Senescence sites.
27. Match the following columns and select the
(2) Dormancy correct option.
(3) Log phase Column - I Column - II
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias
(4) Lag phase pest
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
symmetry and larva
23. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals with bilateral symmetry
are exemplified by : (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(1) Aschelminthes (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) Annelida (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) Ctenophora (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Platyhelminthes 28. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for
few days because :
(1) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous
24. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge system while the rest is situated along the
digester for further sewage treatment ? ventral part of its body.
(2) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
(1) Effluents of primary treatment while the rest is situated along the dorsal
part of its body.
(2) Activated sludge (3) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
(3) Primary sludge abdomen.
(4) the cockroach does not have nervous system.
(4) Floating debris
 5 F1
29. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits 35. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
highest species diversity ? is found in :
(1) Himalayas (1) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(2) Amazon forests (2) eustachian tube
(3) Western Ghats of India
(3) lining of intestine
(4) Madagascar
(4) ducts of salivary glands

30. Which is the important site of formation of

glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
36. Match the following with respect to meiosis :
(1) Golgi bodies
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(2) Polysomes
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(4) Peroxisomes
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over

31. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
algae ?
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) Anabaena and Volvox
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Chlorella and Spirulina
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) Gelidium and Gracilaria (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

32. Which one of the following is the most abundant
protein in the animals ? (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) Lectin
37. Which of the following statements about inclusion
(2) Insulin
bodies is incorrect ?
(3) Haemoglobin
(1) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(4) Collagen
(2) These represent reserve material in
cytoplasm.
33. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs
during : (3) They are not bound by any membrane.
(1) Diplotene (4) These are involved in ingestion of food
(2) Leptotene particles.

(3) Pachytene
(4) Zygotene 38. Which of the following would help in prevention of
diuresis ?

34. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did (1) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except vasoconstriction
in one character with contrasting traits ?
(2) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(1) 14
(3) More water reabsorption due to
(2) 8 undersecretion of ADH
(3) 4
(4) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
(4) 2 tubules due to aldosterone
F1 6
39. The transverse section of a plant shows following 43. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in
anatomical features : photorespiration leads to the formation of :
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles (1) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
surrounded by bundle sheath.
(2) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground of 2-C compound
tissue.
(3) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(4) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
Identify the category of plant and its part : 44. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
(1) Dicotyledonous stem the human body is :
(2) Dicotyledonous root (1) Female gametocytes
(3) Monocotyledonous stem (2) Male gametocytes
(4) Monocotyledonous root (3) Trophozoites

40. Which of the following statements is correct ? (4) Sporozoites

(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through three

H-bonds. 45. Identify the incorrect statement.
(2) Adenine does not pair with thymine. (1) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through two and is lighter in colour.
H-bonds. (2) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc.,
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through one heart wood is dark in colour.
H-bond. (3) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives
mechanical support.
41. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. (4) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water
and minerals from root to leaf.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy 46. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence (1) They have DNA with protein coat.
deaminase (2) They have free DNA without protein coat.
deficiency (3) They have RNA with protein coat.
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV (4) They have free RNA without protein coat.
infection
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus 47. Match the following diseases with the causative
thuringiensis organism and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d) Column - I Column - II

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
42. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples (a) (b) (c) (d)
of :
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(1) Industrial melanism
(2) Natural selection (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) Adaptive radiation (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) Convergent evolution (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
 7 F1
48. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 54. The number of substrate level phosphorylations
the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(1) When IA and IB are present together, they (1) Two
express same type of sugar. (2) Three
(2) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (3) Zero
(3) The gene (I) has three alleles. (4) One
(4) A person will have only two of the three
alleles.
55. Match the following :

49. According to Robert May, the global species (a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
diversity is about : activity
(1) 50 million (b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(2) 7 million (c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin
fungi
(3) 1.5 million
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
(4) 20 million
Choose the correct option from the following :
50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a (a) (b) (c) (d)
population ? (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Mortality (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) Species interaction (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Sex ratio (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Natality
56. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
51. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes of organisms which have evolved due to changes
place by : in environment brought about by anthropogenic
(1) wind and water action ?

(2) insects and water (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.

(3) insects or wind (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(4) water currents only (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
52. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
like dogs.
(1) Depolarisation of ventricles
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) only (d)
(3) Repolarisation of auricles
(3) only (a)
(4) Depolarisation of auricles
(4) (a) and (c)

53. Select the correct match.

(1) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal 57. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter
recessive trait, vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
chromosome-11 stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :
(1) S phase
(2) Thalassemia - X linked
(2) G2 phase
(3) Haemophilia - Y linked
(3) M phase
(4) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
dominant trait (4) G1 phase
F1 8
58. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine 64. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net
and caffeine are produced by plants for their : primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
(1) Defence action of the following statements is correct ?

(2) Effect on reproduction (1) Gross primary productivity and Net primary
productivity are one and same.
(3) Nutritive value
(2) There is no relationship between Gross
(4) Growth response
primary productivity and Net primary
productivity.
59. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is (3) Gross primary productivity is always less
completed : than net primary productivity.
(1) After zygote formation (4) Gross primary productivity is always more
(2) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an than net primary productivity.
ovum
(3) Prior to ovulation 65. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
examples in grassland ecosystem.
(4) At the time of copulation
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow

60. Which of the following statements is not (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
correct ?
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(1) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked together by hydrogen bonds. (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
(2) Genetically engineered insulin is produced Select the correct option :
in E-Coli.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) In man insulin is synthesised as a
proinsulin. (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C-peptide. (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
61. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
(1) High reflection of light from snow 66. Select the correct statement.
(2) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays (1) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
adipocytes.
(3) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
temperature (2) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(4) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of (3) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
UV-B radiation (4) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

62. Strobili or cones are found in :

67. Select the correct events that occur during
(1) Marchantia inspiration.
(2) Equisetum (a) Contraction of diaphragm
(3) Salvinia
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(4) Pteris
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
63. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C (1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C (2) only (d)
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C (3) (a) and (b)
(4) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C (4) (c) and (d)
 9 F1
68. The roots that originate from the base of the stem 73. Match the following columns and select the
are : correct option.
(1) Prop roots Column - I Column - II
(2) Lateral roots (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(3) Fibrous roots (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(4) Primary roots Gonadotropin
(hCG)
69. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified (c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
from :
glands
(1) Chondrocytes
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
(2) Compound epithelial cells Penis
(3) Squamous epithelial cells (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Columnar epithelial cells (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
70. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
of : (4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(1) Release of Green House gases
74. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
(2) Disposal of e-wastes is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
(3) Transport of Genetically modified organisms DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
from one country to another 6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is
approximately :
(4) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(1) 2.2 meters
71. Which of the following statements are true for (2) 2.7 meters
the phylum-Chordata ? (3) 2.0 meters
(4) 2.5 meters
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
head to tail and it is present throughout
their life. 75. The ovary is half inferior in :
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during (1) Sunflower
the embryonic period only. (2) Plum
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and (3) Brinjal
hollow. (4) Mustard
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
Hemichordata, Tunicata and 76. Identify the correct statement with regard to
Cephalochordata. G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) (a) and (b) (1) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
not replicate its DNA.
(2) (b) and (c)
(2) Nuclear Division takes place.
(3) (d) and (c) (3) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(4) (c) and (a) (4) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
place.

72. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and 77. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
peptide bond, respectively in their structure : release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
follicle ?
(1) Cellulose, lecithin
(1) Low concentration of LH
(2) Inulin, insulin
(2) Low concentration of FSH
(3) Chitin, cholesterol (3) High concentration of Estrogen
(4) Glycerol, trypsin (4) High concentration of Progesterone
F1 10
78. Identify the correct statement with reference to 82. The first phase of translation is :
human digestive system. (1) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(1) Ileum is a highly coiled part. (2) Recognition of an anti-codon
(2) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum. (3) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(3) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(4) Recognition of DNA molecule
(4) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
alimentary canal. 83. Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by :
79. Match the following columns and select the (1) Charles Darwin
correct option. (2) Oparin
Column - I Column - II (3) Karl Ernst von Baer
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (4) Alfred Wallace
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis 84. Match the following columns and select the
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release correct option.
histaminase, Column - I Column - II
destructive (a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon
enzymes gill slits
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
containing
caudal fin
histamine
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
80. The plant parts which consist of two generations - (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
one within the other :
85. Match the following columns and select the
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
correct option.
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
Column - I Column - II
gametes
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(c) Seed inside the fruit
butylicum
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(1) (c) and (d)
polysporum
(2) (a) and (d)
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
(3) (a) only
purpureus
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
81. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the lowering agent
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
(Bt) is resistant to : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Plant nematodes (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) Insect predators (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Insect pests (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) Fungal diseases (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
 11 F1
86. Which of the following is not an inhibitory 91. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
substance governing seed dormancy ? 16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
(1) Phenolic acid dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
(2) Para-ascorbic acid centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
(3) Gibberellic acid angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
(4) Abscisic acid
 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
87. Match the following columns and select the  4 π 0 
correct option. (1) 400 V
Column - I Column - II (2) zero

(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle (3) 50 V

ear and pharynx (4) 200 V

(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the 92. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
labyrinth source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the phase difference between current and voltage
π
oval window is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
3
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the the phase difference is again
π
between current
basilar 3
and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
membrane
(1) 1.0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) −1.0
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) zero
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) 0.5
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 93. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
frequency is incident on a photosensitive material.
88. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of : What will be the photoelectric current if the
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?
(1) caseinogen into casein
(1) one-fourth
(2) pepsinogen into pepsin
(2) zero
(3) protein into polypeptides
(3) doubled
(4) trypsinogen into trypsin
(4) four times
89. Presence of which of the following conditions in
94. Dimensions of stress are :
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
(1) [ M L0T−2 ]
(1) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(2) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
(2) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(3) [ M L T−2 ]
(3) Uremia and Ketonuria
(4) [ M L2 T−2 ]
(4) Uremia and Renal Calculi
95. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
90. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the
and in early morning is : potential difference is :
(1) Imbibition (1) 103 V
(2) Plasmolysis (2) 104 V
(3) Transpiration (3) 10 V
(4) Root pressure (4) 102 V
F1 12
96. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with 101. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns
air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF. the centre of the solenoid is :
The permittivity of the medium is : (µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2) (1) 6.28×10−5 T
(1) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2 (2) 3.14×10−5 T
(3) 6.28×10−4 T
(2) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 3.14×10−4 T
(3) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2 102. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
the ground after some time with a velocity of
97. The solids which have the negative temperature 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
coefficient of resistance are :
(1) 320 m
(1) semiconductors only (2) 300 m
(2) insulators and semiconductors (3) 360 m
(3) metals (4) 340 m
(4) insulators only 103. The color code of a resistance is given below :

98. For transistor action, which of the following

statements is correct ?
(1) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
junction are forward biased.
(2) The base region must be very thin and lightly The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively,
doped.
are :
(3) Base, emitter and collector regions should (1) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
have same doping concentrations.
(2) 470 Ω, 5%
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should (3) 470 kΩ, 5%
have same size.
(4) 47 kΩ, 10%

99. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and 104. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be :
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. (1) 458 < ib < 908
The pitch of the screw gauge is : (2) ib = 908
(3) 08 < ib < 308
(1) 0.5 mm
(4) 308 < ib < 458
(2) 1.0 mm
(3) 0.01 mm 105. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
(4) 0.25 mm surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface.
100. The phase difference between displacement and If the refractive index of the material of the prism
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal
motion is : to :
(1) µA
π
(1) rad µA
2 (2)
2
(2) zero
A
(3) π rad (3)
2µ
3π 2A
(4) rad (4)
2 µ
 13 F1
106. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are 110. When a uranium isotope 235
92 U is bombarded with
connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons
an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is and :
thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly 101
(1) 36 Kr
opened. The process is : 103
(2) 36 Kr
(1) isochoric 144
(3) 56 Ba
(2) isobaric (4) 91
40 Zr
(3) isothermal 111. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
(4) adiabatic (1) 1.5×1013 J
(2) 0.5×1013 J
(3) 4.5×1016 J
107. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not
(4) 4.5×1013 J
valid ?
(1) Deuteron atom 112. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
diameter d and number density n can be expressed
(2) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
as :
(3) Hydrogen atom 1
(1)
(4) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) 2 n2 πd2
1
(2) 2 2 2
2n π d
108. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the 1
ends of a massless string. The string passes over (3)
2 n πd
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The 1
(4)
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration 2 n πd2
due to gravity (g) is :
113. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging
from a fixed support. The length of the wire
changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its
free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
MgL
(1) AL1
MgL
(2) A(L1 − L)
(1) g/5
MgL1
(3)
(2) g/10 AL
Mg(L1 − L)
(3) g (4)
AL
(4) g/2
114. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is
109. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. from the centre of the sphere ?
The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
 1 
(1) 1 N/C  = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0 
(2) 5 N/C (1) 1.28×106 N/C
(2) 1.28×107 N/C
(3) zero
(3) 1.28×104 N/C
(4) 0.5 N/C (4) 1.28×105 N/C
F1 14
115. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 119. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly : and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
(1) 0.06 the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
(2) 0.006 tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
of water that will rise in this tube is :
(3) 6
(1) 10.0 g
(4) 0.6
(2) 20.0 g
116. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. (3) 2.5 g
What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
equal to half the radius of the earth ? (4) 5.0 g
(1) 30 N 120. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of
(2) 24 N 249 kPa and temperature 278C.
(3) 48 N
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(4) 32 N
(1) 0.1 kg/m3
117. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is : (2) 0.02 kg/m3
(3) 0.5 kg/m3
(4) 0.2 kg/m3

121. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a

magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The
(1) A B Y permeability of the material of the rod is :
0 0 1 (µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
0 1 1 (1) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1
1 0 1 (2) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1
1 1 0
(3) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1
(2) A B Y
(4) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1
0 0 1
0 1 0 122. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
1 0 0 ∧
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is
1 1 0 ∧
(3) A B Y 2k m .
∧
0 0 0 (1) −6 i N m
0 1 0 ∧
1 0 0 (2) 6k N m
∧
1 1 1 (3) 6i N m
(4) A B Y ∧
0 0 0 (4) 6j Nm
0 1 1
123. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas
1 0 1
1 1 1 is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
temperature)
118. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation 5
(1) kB T
between coherent sources is halved and the 2
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is 7
doubled, then the fringe width becomes : (2) kB T
2
(1) four times
1
(2) one-fourth (3) kB T
2
(3) double
3
(4) half (4) kB T
2
 15 F1
124. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming 128. The quantities of heat required to raise the
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
(1) 7.32×10−7 rad
ratio :
(2) 6.00×10−7 rad
(3) 3.66×10−7 rad 3
(1)
2
(4) 1.83×10−7 rad
5
(2)
125. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a 3
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having 27
surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the (3)
8
surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(1) 24×103 J 9
(4)
4
(2) 48×103 J
(3) 10×103 J 129. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
(4) 12×103 J metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
126. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
and magnetic field components to the intensity of resistance wire is :
an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
electromagnetic waves) (1) 1.5×10−1 m
(1) 1:c (2) 1.5×10−2 m
(2) 1 : c2 (3) 1.0×10−2 m
(3) c:1 (4) 1.0×10−1 m
(4) 1:1
130. The increase in the width of the depletion region
127. Which of the following graph represents the in a p-n junction diode is due to :
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for (1) both forward bias and reverse bias
copper ? (2) increase in forward current
(3) forward bias only

(1) (4) reverse bias only

131. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz

ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
circuit is, nearly :
(2) (1) 2.5 A
(2) 25.1 A
(3) 1.7 A
(4) 2.05 A
(3)
132. Taking into account of the significant figures, what
is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ?
(1) 9.980 m
(2) 9.9 m
(4)
(3) 9.9801 m
(4) 9.98 m
F1 16
133. A charged particle having drift velocity of 138. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1 the following ?
of :
(1) −R effect of −CH3 groups
(1) 2.5×10−6 (2) Hyperconjugation
(2) 2.25×10−15 (3) −I effect of −CH3 groups
(3) 2.25×1015 (4) +R effect of −CH3 groups
(4) 2.5×106
139. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
134. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same gas under adiabatic condition is :
material are slightly out of tune and produce beats (1) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. (2) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original (3) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
frequency of B will be :
(4) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0
(1) 536 Hz
(2) 537 Hz 140. Match the following :
(3) 523 Hz Oxide Nature
(4) 524 Hz (a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
135. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively
are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
1 m with negligible mass. (d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg Which of the following is correct option ?
particle is nearly at a distance of : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 67 cm (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) 80 cm (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) 33 cm (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) 50 cm (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

141. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium

136. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(1) Tert. butyl alcohol
(1) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(2) Isobutyl alcohol
(2) Cross Aldol condensation
(3) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) Aldol condensation
(4) Sec. butyl alcohol
(4) Cannizzaro’s reaction
142. The following metal ion activates many enzymes,
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce
137. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining ATP and with Na, is responsible for the
which property of colloidal solution ? transmission of nerve signals.
(1) Stability of the colloidal particles (1) Calcium
(2) Size of the colloidal particles (2) Potassium
(3) Viscosity (3) Iron
(4) Solubility (4) Copper
 17 F1
143. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ? 145. Which of the following is the correct order of
increasing field strength of ligands to form
(1) Tyrosine
coordination compounds ?
(2) Lysine
(1) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
(3) Serine
(2) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
(4) Alanine
(3) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−

144. Identify compound X in the following sequence of (4) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
reactions :

146. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?

(1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(2) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

(3) Sodium lauryl sulphate

(4) Sodium stearate

147. Which one of the followings has maximum number

of atoms ?
(1)
(1) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16]

(2) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7]

(3) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108]

(4) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24]

(2)
148. Identify the incorrect match.

Name IUPAC Official Name

(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium

(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium

(3)
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium

(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium

(1) (c), (iii)

(2) (d), (iv)

(4) (3) (a), (i)

(4) (b), (ii)

F1 18
149. Which of the following amine will give the 152. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
carbylamine test ? 175
71 Lu , respectively, are :
(1) 71, 71 and 104
(2) 175, 104 and 71
(3) 71, 104 and 71
(1) (4) 104, 71 and 71

153. The rate constant for a first order reaction is

4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) 500 s
(2) 1000 s
(3) 100 s
(2)
(4) 200 s

154. Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1) C2
(2) O2
(3) He2
(4) Li2
(3)

155. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following

reaction.

Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
(4) 300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
will be :
(1) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
(2) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)
150. Paper chromatography is an example of : (3) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(1) Thin layer chromatography (4) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)

(2) Column chromatography 156. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
(3) Adsorption chromatography option is :

(4) Partition chromatography (1) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0

(2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
151. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains (3) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the (4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
partial pressure of N2 is : 157. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
[Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40] Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is
2×10−15.
(1) 15 bar (1) 1×10−13 M
(2) 18 bar (2) 1×108 M
(3) 9 bar (3) 2×10−13 M
(4) 12 bar (4) 2×10−8 M
 19 F1
158. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using 163. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
anode will be :
(1) n-Heptane
(1) H2S gas
(2) SO2 gas (2) n-Butane
(3) Hydrogen gas
(3) n-Hexane
(4) Oxygen gas
(4) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
159. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
monoxide ?
(1) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin 164. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin. (1) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose

(2) It is produced due to incomplete combustion. (2) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose

(3) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
(3) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose
(4) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(4) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose
160. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce
20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is : 165. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) 3
(1) Interstitial compounds are those that are
(2) 4 formed when small atoms like H, C or N
(3) 1 are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals.
(4) 2
(2) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24−
161. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form
pent-2-ene is : and Cr2O72− are not the same.
(a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule (3) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+(d6) in water.
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction (4) The transition metals and their compounds
(1) (b), (c), (d) are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
(2) (a), (b), (d) states and to form complexes.
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (c), (d)
166. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
162. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon crystallise(s) ?
in the following reaction ?
CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g) (1) Only MgCl2

(1) −4 to +4 (2) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2

(2) 0 to −4
(3) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) +4 to +4
(4) 0 to +4 (4) Only NaCl
F1 20
167. Identify the correct statements from the 172. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
following :
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
and frozen food.
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(1)
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline.
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
(1) (b) and (c) only
(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only (2)

168. An increase in the concentration of the reactants

of a reaction leads to change in :
(1) threshold energy
(2) collision frequency
(3) activation energy
(4) heat of reaction (3)
169. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+
ion is :
(1) 5.92 BM
(2) 2.84 BM
(3) 3.87 BM
(4) 4.90 BM
(4)
170. Match the following and identify the correct
option.
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+
Ca(HCO3)2 173. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron decompose to form B. B when passed through
hardness of deficient hydride Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
water What is the formula of C from the following ?
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas (1) Cu(OH)2
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar (2) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
structure
(3) CuSO4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
174. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
171. The mixture which shows positive deviation from (rounded off upto two decimal places) :
Raoult’s law is :
(1) 0.40 K
(1) Acetone+Chloroform
(2) 0.60 K
(2) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(3) Ethanol+Acetone (3) 0.20 K
(4) Benzene+Toluene (4) 0.80 K
 21 F1
175. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has 179. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of
−O−O− linkage ? the product. Its structure is :
(1) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid

(2) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid

(3) H2SO3, sulphurous acid (1)

(4) H2SO4, sulphuric acid

176. Identify the correct statement from the

following :

(1) Vapour phase refining is carried out for (2)

Nickel by Van Arkel method.

(2) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of

shapes.

(3) Wrought iron is impure iron with

4% carbon.
(3)
(4) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
to evolution of CO2.

177. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?

(1) polybutadiene
(4)
(2) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(3) cis-1,4-polyisoprene

(4) poly (Butadiene-styrene) 180. Which of the following set of molecules will have
zero dipole moment ?
(1) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
178. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) (2) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
radius is : (3) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
1,4-dichlorobenzene
4 (4) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon
(1) × 288 pm dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
3

4 -o0o-
(2) × 288 pm
2

3
(3) × 288 pm
4

2
(4) × 288 pm
4
F1 22
Space For Rough Work
 23 F1
Space For Rough Work
F1 24
Space For Rough Work
Test Booklet Code
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KANHA
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10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and
dealt with as an unfair means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Roll Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Facsimile signature stamp of

Centre Superintendent :
G1 2
1. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging 5. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
from a fixed support. The length of the wire diameter d and number density n can be expressed
changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its as :
free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is : 1
(1)
Mg(L1 − L) 2 n πd2
(1)
AL 1
MgL (2)
(2) 2 n2 πd2
AL1
1
MgL (3) 2 2 2
(3) 2n π d
A(L1 − L)
1
MgL1 (4)
(4) 2 n πd
AL

2. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 6. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
249 kPa and temperature 278C. velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
the ground after some time with a velocity of
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1) 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
(1) 0.2 kg/m3 (1) 340 m
(2) 0.1 kg/m3
(2) 320 m
(3) 0.02 kg/m3
(3) 300 m
(4) 0.5 kg/m3
(4) 360 m
3. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having 7. The color code of a resistance is given below :
surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(1) 12×103 J
(2) 24×103 J
(3) 48×103 J
(4) 10×103 J
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively,
are :
4. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the
(1) 47 kΩ, 10%
ends of a massless string. The string passes over
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The (2) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration (3) 470 Ω, 5%
due to gravity (g) is : (4) 470 kΩ, 5%

235
8. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons
and :
91
(1) 40 Zr
(1) g/2 101
(2) 36 Kr
(2) g/5
103
(3) g/10 (3) 36 Kr
(4) g (4) 144
56 Ba
 3 G1
9. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge 14. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz
of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
circuit is, nearly :
the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
(1) 2.05 A
from the centre of the sphere ?
(2) 2.5 A
 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2  (3) 25.1 A
 4 π0 
(1) 1.28×105 N/C (4) 1.7 A
(2) 1.28×106 N/C
(3) 1.28×107 N/C 15. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field
and magnetic field components to the intensity of
(4) 1.28×104 N/C
an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
electromagnetic waves)
10. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism (1) 1:1
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. (2) 1:c
If the refractive index of the material of the prism (3) 1 : c2
is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal (4) c:1
to :
2A 16. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively
(1) are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length
µ
(2) µA 1 m with negligible mass.

µA The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg

(3)
2 particle is nearly at a distance of :
A
(4) (1) 50 cm
2µ
(2) 67 cm
11. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
(3) 80 cm
connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. (4) 33 cm
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly 17. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
opened. The process is : metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
(1) adiabatic right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
(2) isochoric in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
(3) isobaric wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
resistance wire is :
(4) isothermal
(1) 1.0×10−1 m
12. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a
magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The (2) 1.5×10−1 m
permeability of the material of the rod is : (3) 1.5×10−2 m
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) (4) 1.0×10−2 m
(1) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1
(2) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1 18. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation
(3) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1 between coherent sources is halved and the
(4) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1 distance of the screen from the coherent sources is
doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
13. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is : (1) half
(1) 4.5×1013 J
(2) four times
(2) 1.5×1013 J
(3) 0.5×1013 J (3) one-fourth
(4) 4.5×1016 J (4) double
G1 4
19. A charged particle having drift velocity of 25. The solids which have the negative temperature
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of coefficient of resistance are :
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1
(1) insulators only
of :
(1) 2.5×106 (2) semiconductors only
(2) 2.5×10−6 (3) insulators and semiconductors
(3) 2.25×10−15 (4) metals
(4) 2.25×1015
26. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
20. Dimensions of stress are :
air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a
(1) [ M L2 T−2 ] dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
(2) [ M L0T−2 ] The permittivity of the medium is :
(3) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)
(4) [ M L T−2 ]
(1) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
21. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not
(2) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
valid ?
(1) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (3) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2
(2) Deuteron atom (4) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
(3) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(4) Hydrogen atom 27. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is
10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
22. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
(1) 0.6
source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
(2) 0.06
phase difference between current and voltage
π (3) 0.006
is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
3 (4) 6
π
the phase difference is again between current
3
and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is : 28. The increase in the width of the depletion region
(1) 0.5 in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(2) 1.0 (1) reverse bias only
(3) −1.0 (2) both forward bias and reverse bias
(4) zero
(3) increase in forward current
23. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water (4) forward bias only
and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass 29. The quantities of heat required to raise the
of water that will rise in this tube is :
temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
(1) 5.0 g
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
(2) 10.0 g
ratio :
(3) 20.0 g
(4) 2.5 g 9
(1)
4
24. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming
3
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope (2)
whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is : 2
(1) 1.83×10−7 rad 5
(3)
(2) 7.32×10−7 rad 3
(3) 6.00×10−7 rad 27
(4)
(4) 3.66×10−7 rad 8
 5 G1
30. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is : 33. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :

(1) A B Y  1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
0 0 0  4 π0 
0 1 1 (1) 200 V
(2) 400 V
1 0 1
(3) zero
1 1 1
(4) 50 V
(2) A B Y
0 0 1 34. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
0 1 1 equal to half the radius of the earth ?
1 0 1 (1) 32 N
1 1 0 (2) 30 N
(3) A B Y (3) 24 N
0 0 1 (4) 48 N
0 1 0
35. Which of the following graph represents the
1 0 0 variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for
1 1 0 copper ?
(4) A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 0 (1)
1 0 0
1 1 1

31. For transistor action, which of the following (2)

statements is correct ?
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same size.
(2) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
junction are forward biased. (3)
(3) The base region must be very thin and lightly
doped.
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same doping concentrations.
(4)
32. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz.
36. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3,
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout.
frequency of B will be :
The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
(1) 524 Hz (1) 0.5 N/C
(2) 536 Hz (2) 1 N/C
(3) 537 Hz (3) 5 N/C
(4) 523 Hz (4) zero
G1 6
37. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas 42. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the
temperature) potential difference is :
3 (1) 102 V
(1) kBT
2 (2) 103 V
5 (3) 104 V
(2) kBT (4) 10 V
2
7 43. Taking into account of the significant figures, what
(3) kBT
2 is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ?
1 (1) 9.98 m
(4) kBT
2 (2) 9.980 m
(3) 9.9 m
38. Find the torque about the origin when a force of (4) 9.9801 m
∧
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is 44. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
∧
2k m . there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
∧ The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(1) 6j Nm
(1) 0.25 mm
∧
(2) −6 i N m (2) 0.5 mm
∧ (3) 1.0 mm
(3) 6k N m (4) 0.01 mm
∧
(4) 6i N m 45. The phase difference between displacement and
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic
39. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold motion is :
frequency is incident on a photosensitive material.
What will be the photoelectric current if the 3π
(1) rad
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ? 2
(1) four times π
(2) rad
2
(2) one-fourth (3) zero
(3) zero (4) π rad
(4) doubled 46. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
40. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at thuringiensis
the centre of the solenoid is : (b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
(µ0 =4π×10−7 Tm A−1) aquaticus first rDNA
(1) 3.14×10−4 T molecule

(2) 6.28×10−5 T (c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase

tumefaciens
(3) 3.14×10−5 T
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
(4) 6.28×10−4 T
typhimurium
41. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be : Select the correct option from the following :
(1) 308 < ib < 458 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) 458 < ib < 908
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) ib = 908 (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) 08 < ib < 308 (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
 7 G1
47. Match the following : 51. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
activity (1) Nitrate alone

(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate (2) Ammonia and oxygen
(c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin (3) Ammonia and hydrogen
fungi (4) Ammonia alone
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
Choose the correct option from the following : 52. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) and minerals from root to leaf.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) and is lighter in colour.

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (3) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc.,
heart wood is dark in colour.
48. The plant parts which consist of two generations - (4) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives
one within the other : mechanical support.
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
53. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
gametes (Bt) is resistant to :
(c) Seed inside the fruit (1) Fungal diseases
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule (2) Plant nematodes
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (3) Insect predators
(2) (c) and (d) (4) Insect pests
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (a) only 54. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
algae ?
49. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in (1) Gelidium and Gracilaria
photorespiration leads to the formation of :
(2) Anabaena and Volvox
(1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina
(2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(4) Laminaria and Sargassum
(3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule
of 2-C compound
55. Strobili or cones are found in :
(4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(1) Pteris
50. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net (2) Marchantia
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
of the following statements is correct ? (3) Equisetum
(1) Gross primary productivity is always more (4) Salvinia
than net primary productivity.
(2) Gross primary productivity and Net primary 56. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
productivity are one and same. helix during transcription.
(3) There is no relationship between Gross (1) DNA helicase
primary productivity and Net primary
(2) DNA polymerase
productivity.
(4) Gross primary productivity is always less (3) RNA polymerase
than net primary productivity. (4) DNA ligase
G1 8
57. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 62. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
transport of oxygen. sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
(1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with rams ?
O2 binding with haemoglobin. (1) Mutational breeding
(2) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin. (2) Cross breeding
(3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation (3) Inbreeding
of oxyhaemoglobin.
(4) Out crossing
(4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
63. The number of substrate level phosphorylations
58. Identify the correct statement with regard to in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) Reorganisation of all cell components takes (1) One
place. (2) Two
(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
not replicate its DNA. (3) Three
(3) Nuclear Division takes place. (4) Zero
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

59. Which of the following statements about inclusion 64. Choose the correct pair from the following :
bodies is incorrect ?
(1) These are involved in ingestion of food (1) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
particles. fragments
(2) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(2) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
(3) These represent reserve material in
of DNA
cytoplasm.
(4) They are not bound by any membrane. (3) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
positions within DNA
60. Match the following diseases with the causative
organism and select the correct option. (4) Ligases - Join the two DNA
Column - I Column - II molecules
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium 65. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
the human body is :
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus (1) Sporozoites

(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Female gametocytes

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Male gametocytes
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) Trophozoites
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
66. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
61. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
population ?
completed :
(1) At the time of copulation (1) Natality
(2) After zygote formation (2) Mortality
(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
ovum (3) Species interaction
(4) Prior to ovulation (4) Sex ratio
 9 G1
67. Select the correct events that occur during 72. Select the correct statement.
inspiration.
(1) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(2) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles adipocytes.
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(1) (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
73. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control
(3) only (d)
of :
(4) (a) and (b)
(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances
68. According to Robert May, the global species
(2) Release of Green House gases
diversity is about :
(1) 20 million (3) Disposal of e-wastes
(2) 50 million (4) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
(3) 7 million from one country to another
(4) 1.5 million
74. Match the following columns and select the
69. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
correct option.
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
(2) Depolarisation of ventricles Column - I Column - II
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon
(4) Repolarisation of auricles
gill slits
70. Which of the following statements is not (b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
correct ?
caudal fin
(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
C-peptide. (c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked together by hydrogen bonds. (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced (a) (b) (c) (d)
in E-Coli.
(4) In man insulin is synthesised as a (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
proinsulin. (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
71. The transverse section of a plant shows following
anatomical features : (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
surrounded by bundle sheath.
75. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground Restriction Enzymes.
tissue.
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. (1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
sites.
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
Identify the category of plant and its part : (2) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(1) Monocotyledonous root (3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
(2) Dicotyledonous stem ligases.
(3) Dicotyledonous root (4) Each restriction enzyme functions by
(4) Monocotyledonous stem inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
G1 10
76. Match the following with respect to meiosis : 80. The ovary is half inferior in :
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (1) Mustard
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata (2) Sunflower
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over (3) Plum

(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis (4) Brinjal

Select the correct option from the following :
81. Which one of the following is the most abundant
(a) (b) (c) (d)
protein in the animals ?
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Collagen
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) Lectin
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Insulin
(4) Haemoglobin
77. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
is found in :
82. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
(1) ducts of salivary glands is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
(2) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
(3) eustachian tube 6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is
approximately :
(4) lining of intestine
(1) 2.5 meters

78. Name the plant growth regulator which upon (2) 2.2 meters
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length (3) 2.7 meters
of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane
crop. (4) 2.0 meters

(1) Gibberellin
(2) Ethylene 83. The first phase of translation is :
(3) Abscisic acid (1) Recognition of DNA molecule
(4) Cytokinin (2) Aminoacylation of tRNA

79. Match the following columns and select the (3) Recognition of an anti-codon
correct option. (4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
Column - I Column - II
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy 84. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence follicle ?
deaminase (1) High concentration of Progesterone
deficiency
(2) Low concentration of LH
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV (3) Low concentration of FSH
infection
(4) High concentration of Estrogen
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
thuringiensis 85. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
(a) (b) (c) (d) of :

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) Convergent evolution

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) Industrial melanism
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) Natural selection
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) Adaptive radiation
 11 G1
86. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 90. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. transfer of electrons from :
(1) A person will have only two of the three (1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
alleles. (2) PS-I to NADP+
(2) When IA and IB are present together, they (3) PS-I to ATP synthase
express same type of sugar.
(4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(4) The gene (I) has three alleles. 91. Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by :
87. Select the option including all sexually transmitted (1) Alfred Wallace
diseases.
(2) Charles Darwin
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(3) Oparin
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes 92. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals
are exemplified by :
88. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Platyhelminthes
correct option.
(2) Aschelminthes
Column - I Column - II
(3) Annelida
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (4) Ctenophora
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
93. Which of the following would help in prevention of
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release diuresis ?
histaminase, (1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
destructive tubules due to aldosterone
enzymes (2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
vasoconstriction
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
(3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
containing
histamine (4) More water reabsorption due to
undersecretion of ADH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 94. Match the following columns and select the
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) correct option.
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) Column - I Column - II
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
butylicum
89. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
examples in grassland ecosystem. (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow polysporum

(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture (c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
purpureus
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
lowering agent
Select the correct option :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
G1 12
95. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter 99. Match the following columns and select the
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent correct option.
stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :
Column - I Column - II
(1) G1 phase
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(2) S phase
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(3) G2 phase
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(4) M phase
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(a) (b) (c) (d)
96. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
are transferred to assist those females who cannot (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
conceive ? (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) GIFT and ZIFT (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) ICSI and ZIFT (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) GIFT and ICSI

100. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(4) ZIFT and IUT (1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
H-bond.
97. Which of the following statements are true for (2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
the phylum-Chordata ? H-bonds.

(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from (3) Adenine does not pair with thymine.
head to tail and it is present throughout (4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
their life. H-bonds.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
the embryonic period only. 101. Match the following concerning essential elements
and their functions in plants :
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
hollow.
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
Hemichordata, Tunicata and (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
Cephalochordata. biosynthesis
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(1) (c) and (a)
Select the correct option :
(2) (a) and (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (b) and (c)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (d) and (c) (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
98. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to : (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(1) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of

102. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
UV-B radiation
substance governing seed dormancy ?
(2) High reflection of light from snow (1) Abscisic acid
(3) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays (2) Phenolic acid

(4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low (3) Para-ascorbic acid

temperature (4) Gibberellic acid
 13 G1
103. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino 109. The specific palindromic sequence which is
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : recognized by EcoRI is :
(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C (1) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
(2) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
(3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C 3' - GAATTC - 5'
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C (3) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(4) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
104. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
theory of inheritance was done by :
(1) Sutton 110. Select the correct match.
(1) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
(2) Boveri
dominant trait
(3) Morgan (2) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal
(4) Mendel recessive trait,
chromosome-11
(3) Thalassemia - X linked
105. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle (4) Haemophilia - Y linked
at :
111. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
(1) Micropyle
peptide bond, respectively in their structure :
(2) Nucellus (1) Glycerol, trypsin
(3) Chalaza (2) Cellulose, lecithin
(3) Inulin, insulin
(4) Hilum
(4) Chitin, cholesterol

106. Identify the correct statement with reference to 112. The process of growth is maximum during :
human digestive system. (1) Lag phase
(1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the (2) Senescence
alimentary canal. (3) Dormancy
(2) Ileum is a highly coiled part. (4) Log phase
(3) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum. 113. Match the following columns and select the
(4) Ileum opens into small intestine. correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
107. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs
during : ear and pharynx

(1) Zygotene (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the

labyrinth
(2) Diplotene
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the
(3) Leptotene
oval window
(4) Pachytene
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
basilar
108. Floridean starch has structure similar to : membrane
(1) Amylopectin and glycogen (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Mannitol and algin (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) Laminarin and cellulose
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Starch and cellulose (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
G1 14
114. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water 120. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat.
and in early morning is :
(2) They have DNA with protein coat.
(1) Root pressure
(2) Imbibition (3) They have free DNA without protein coat.

(3) Plasmolysis (4) They have RNA with protein coat.

(4) Transpiration
121. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
115. Identify the wrong statement with reference to and caffeine are produced by plants for their :
immunity. (1) Growth response
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly (2) Defence action
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(3) Effect on reproduction
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives full
response. (4) Nutritive value
(3) Foetus receives some antibodies from
mother, it is an example for passive 122. Match the following columns and select the
immunity. correct option.
(4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) Column - I Column - II
antibodies are produced in the host’s body.
It is called “Active immunity”. (a) Placenta (i) Androgens

(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic

116. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
Gonadotropin
place by :
(hCG)
(1) water currents only
(2) wind and water (c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
(3) insects and water glands
(4) insects or wind (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
Penis
117. Which is the important site of formation of
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Peroxisomes (1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) Golgi bodies (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) Polysomes (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

118. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits

123. Ray florets have :
highest species diversity ?
(1) Superior ovary
(1) Madagascar
(2) Himalayas (2) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Amazon forests (3) Half inferior ovary
(4) Western Ghats of India (4) Inferior ovary

124. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge

119. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
digester for further sewage treatment ?
from :
(1) Columnar epithelial cells (1) Floating debris

(2) Chondrocytes (2) Effluents of primary treatment

(3) Compound epithelial cells (3) Activated sludge
(4) Squamous epithelial cells (4) Primary sludge
 15 G1
125. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of : 129. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
(1) trypsinogen into trypsin Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
in one character with contrasting traits ?
(2) caseinogen into casein
(1) 2
(3) pepsinogen into pepsin
(2) 14
(4) protein into polypeptides
(3) 8
126. Match the following columns and select the (4) 4
correct option.
130. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for
Column - I Column - II
few days because :
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias (1) the cockroach does not have nervous system.
pest
(2) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion system while the rest is situated along the
symmetry and larva ventral part of its body.
with bilateral symmetry
(3) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana while the rest is situated along the dorsal
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta part of its body.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) cockroach are situated in ventral part of
abdomen.
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 131. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) of organisms which have evolved due to changes
in environment brought about by anthropogenic
127. Presence of which of the following conditions in action ?
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ? (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(1) Uremia and Renal Calculi (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
(4) Uremia and Ketonuria
like dogs.
128. Match the following columns and select the (1) (a) and (c)
correct option.
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
Column - I Column - II (3) only (d)
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between (4) only (a)
second and
seventh ribs 132. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the (1) Glutamic Acid
Humerus (2) Lysine
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (3) Valine
(4) Tyrosine
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
with the sternum 133. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
(a) (b) (c) (d) can be visualized with the help of :
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (2) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (4) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
G1 16
134. The sequence that controls the copy number of the 139. Identify the correct statement from the following :
linked DNA in the vector, is termed : (1) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
(1) Ori site to evolution of CO2.
(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
(2) Palindromic sequence
Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(3) Recognition site (3) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
(4) Selectable marker shapes.
(4) Wrought iron is impure iron with
135. The roots that originate from the base of the stem 4% carbon.
are :
(1) Primary roots 140. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
decompose to form B. B when passed through
(2) Prop roots Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
(3) Lateral roots What is the formula of C from the following ?
(4) Fibrous roots (1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(2) Cu(OH)2
136. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ (3) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
ion is : (4) CuSO4
(1) 4.90 BM
(2) 5.92 BM 141. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
(3) 2.84 BM reaction.

(4) 3.87 BM Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose

If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
137. Match the following and identify the correct 300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
option. will be :
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+ (1) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
Ca(HCO3)2 (2) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
(3) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
hardness of deficient hydride (4) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
water
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas 142. Identify the incorrect match.

(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar Name IUPAC Official Name

structure (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(1) (b), (ii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (c), (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (d), (iv)
(4) (a), (i)
138. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
Raoult’s law is :
(1) Benzene+Toluene 143. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
(1) Alanine
(2) Acetone+Chloroform
(2) Tyrosine
(3) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(3) Lysine
(4) Ethanol+Acetone (4) Serine
 17 G1
144. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon 150. An increase in the concentration of the reactants
in the following reaction ? of a reaction leads to change in :
CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g) (1) heat of reaction
(1) 0 to +4 (2) threshold energy
(2) −4 to +4 (3) collision frequency
(3) 0 to −4 (4) activation energy
(4) +4 to +4
151. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone
145. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(1) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose
(1) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(2) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose
(3) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose (2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(4) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose (3) Cross Aldol condensation
(4) Aldol condensation
146. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce
20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is : 152. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a
(1) 2 secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
(2) 3 the following ?
(3) 4 (1) +R effect of −CH3 groups
(4) 1 (2) −R effect of −CH3 groups
147. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct (3) Hyperconjugation
option is : (4) −I effect of −CH3 groups
(1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
(2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0 153. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
(3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0 Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is
2×10−15.
(4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
(1) 2×10−8 M
148. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, (2) 1×10−13 M
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce
ATP and with Na, is responsible for the (3) 1×108 M
transmission of nerve signals. (4) 2×10−13 M
(1) Copper
(2) Calcium 154. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(3) Potassium (1) Li2
(4) Iron (2) C2
(3) O2
149. Identify the incorrect statement. (4) He2
(1) The transition metals and their compounds
are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation 155. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form
states and to form complexes. pent-2-ene is :
(2) Interstitial compounds are those that are (a) β-Elimination reaction
formed when small atoms like H, C or N (b) Follows Zaitsev rule
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
metals.
(d) Dehydration reaction
(3) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24−
(1) (a), (c), (d)
and Cr2O72− are not the same. (2) (b), (c), (d)
(4) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than (3) (a), (b), (d)
Fe2+(d6) in water. (4) (a), (b), (c)
G1 18
156. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining 161. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has
which property of colloidal solution ? −O−O− linkage ?
(1) Solubility (1) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(2) Stability of the colloidal particles (2) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(3) Size of the colloidal particles (3) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
(4) Viscosity (4) H2SO3, sulphurous acid

157. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 162. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
175 4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
71 Lu , respectively, are :
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) 104, 71 and 71
(1) 200 s
(2) 71, 71 and 104
(2) 500 s
(3) 175, 104 and 71
(3) 1000 s
(4) 71, 104 and 71
(4) 100 s
158. Identify the correct statements from the
following : 163. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
and frozen food. (1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six (2) n-Heptane
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(3) n-Butane
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline. (4) n-Hexane
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
164. Match the following :
(1) (a) and (c) only
Oxide Nature
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (a) CO (i) Basic
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only (b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
159. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic
Which of the following is correct option ?
radius is :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) × 288 pm
4
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4
(2) × 288 pm (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4
(3) × 288 pm
2 165. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains
7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the
3 mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
(4) × 288 pm
4 partial pressure of N2 is :

160. Paper chromatography is an example of : [Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40]
(1) Partition chromatography (1) 12 bar
(2) Thin layer chromatography (2) 15 bar
(3) Column chromatography (3) 18 bar
(4) Adsorption chromatography (4) 9 bar
 19 G1
166. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of 169. Which one of the followings has maximum number
the product. Its structure is : of atoms ?

(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24]

(2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16]

(3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7]

(1)
(4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108]

170. Identify compound X in the following sequence of

reactions :

(2)

(3)

(1)

(4)

167. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of (2)

benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1) 0.80 K
(2) 0.40 K
(3) 0.60 K (3)
(4) 0.20 K

168. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal

gas under adiabatic condition is :
(1) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0
(2) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0
(4)
(3) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
(4) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
G1 20
171. Which of the following is the correct order of 175. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
increasing field strength of ligands to form monoxide ?
coordination compounds ?
(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(1) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
bound to CO) is less stable than
(2) F < SCN
− −
< C2O42−< CN
−
oxyhaemoglobin.

(3) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−

(3) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.

(4) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−

(4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.

172. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?

(1) poly (Butadiene-styrene) 176. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :

(2) polybutadiene

(3) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(4) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(1)

173. Which of the following set of molecules will have

zero dipole moment ?

(1) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon

dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

(2) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,

water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (2)

(3) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,

carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

(4) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,

1,4-dichlorobenzene

(3)
174. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
crystallise(s) ?

(1) Only NaCl

(2) Only MgCl2

(3) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2 (4)

(4) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2

 21 G1
177. Which of the following amine will give the 179. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using
carbylamine test ? Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
anode will be :

(1) Oxygen gas

(2) H2S gas

(3) SO2 gas

(1)
(4) Hydrogen gas

180. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?

(1) Sodium stearate

(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

(2)
(4) Sodium lauryl sulphate

-o0o-

(3)

(4)

178. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium

chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :

(1) Sec. butyl alcohol

(2) Tert. butyl alcohol

(3) Isobutyl alcohol

(4) Isopropyl alcohol

G1 22
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 23 G1
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G1 24
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Centre Superintendent :
H1 2
1. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct 6. Identify the correct statement from the following :
option is :
(1) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
(1) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0 shapes.
(2) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0 (2) Wrought iron is impure iron with
(3) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0 4% carbon.
(4) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0 (3) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
to evolution of CO2.
2. Which of the following set of molecules will have (4) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
zero dipole moment ? Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(1) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene 7. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
(2) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
1,4-dichlorobenzene depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(3) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon (rounded off upto two decimal places) :
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(1) 0.60 K
(4) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (2) 0.20 K
(3) 0.80 K
3. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
(4) 0.40 K
gas under adiabatic condition is :
(1) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
8. Match the following :
(2) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
Oxide Nature
(3) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0
(a) CO (i) Basic
(4) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
4. Identify a molecule which does not exist. (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(1) O2
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
(2) He2
Which of the following is correct option ?
(3) Li2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) C2
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
5. Match the following and identify the correct (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
option. (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+ (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ca(HCO3)2
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron 9. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
hardness of deficient hydride reaction.
water
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
structure 300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
(a) (b) (c) (d) will be :

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (1) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (2) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
 3 H1
10. Urea reacts with water to form A which will 14. Identify compound X in the following sequence of
decompose to form B. B when passed through reactions :
Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
What is the formula of C from the following ?

(1) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2

(2) CuSO4

(3) [Cu(NH3)4]2+

(4) Cu(OH)2

(1)

11. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?

(1) Lysine

(2) Serine
(2)
(3) Alanine

(4) Tyrosine

12. Paper chromatography is an example of : (3)

(1) Column chromatography

(2) Adsorption chromatography

(3) Partition chromatography

(4)
(4) Thin layer chromatography

15. Identify the correct statements from the

following :
13. The following metal ion activates many enzymes,
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce (a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
ATP and with Na, is responsible for the and frozen food.
transmission of nerve signals. (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(1) Potassium (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline.
(2) Iron (d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
(1) (c) and (d) only
(3) Copper (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) Calcium (4) (b) and (c) only
H1 4
16. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in 21. Which of the following amine will give the
good yield by Wurtz reaction ? carbylamine test ?
(1) n-Butane

(2) n-Hexane

(3) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(1)
(4) n-Heptane

17. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?

(1) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(2) cis-1,4-polyisoprene (2)

(3) poly (Butadiene-styrene)

(4) polybutadiene

18. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using

Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at (3)
anode will be :

(1) SO2 gas

(2) Hydrogen gas

(3) Oxygen gas

(4)
(4) H2S gas

19. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining

22. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
which property of colloidal solution ?
Raoult’s law is :
(1) Size of the colloidal particles (1) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(2) Ethanol+Acetone
(2) Viscosity (3) Benzene+Toluene
(3) Solubility (4) Acetone+Chloroform

23. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+

(4) Stability of the colloidal particles
ion is :
(1) 2.84 BM
20. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 (2) 3.87 BM
and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) (3) 4.90 BM
crystallise(s) ? (4) 5.92 BM

(1) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2 24. An increase in the concentration of the reactants
of a reaction leads to change in :
(2) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(1) collision frequency
(3) Only NaCl (2) activation energy
(3) heat of reaction
(4) Only MgCl2 (4) threshold energy
 5 H1
25. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of 28. Which of the following is the correct order of
the product. Its structure is : increasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds ?

(1) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−

(2) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−

(1)
(3) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−

(4) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−

29. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce

20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :
(2)
(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

30. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium

(3) chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
(1) Isobutyl alcohol
(2) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) Sec. butyl alcohol
(4) Tert. butyl alcohol

(4) 31. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has

−O−O− linkage ?
(1) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
(2) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
26. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
(3) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic
(4) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
radius is :
4 32. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
(1) × 288 pm
2 in the following reaction ?

3 CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)
(2) × 288 pm
4 (1) 0 to −4
2 (2) +4 to +4
(3) × 288 pm
4 (3) 0 to +4
4 (4) −4 to +4
(4) × 288 pm
3
33. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
27. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
(1) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(1) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose
(2) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(3) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose (3) Sodium stearate
(4) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose (4) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
H1 6
34. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 38. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
partial pressure of N2 is :

[Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40]

(1) 18 bar (1)

(2) 9 bar
(3) 12 bar
(4) 15 bar

35. Identify the incorrect statement.

(2)
(1) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24−

and Cr2O72− are not the same.

(2) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than

Fe2+(d6) in water.
(3) The transition metals and their compounds (3)
are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
states and to form complexes.
(4) Interstitial compounds are those that are
formed when small atoms like H, C or N
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals. (4)

36. Identify the incorrect match.

Name IUPAC Official Name

39. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is
2×10−15.
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(1) 1×108 M
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium (2) 2×10−13 M
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium (3) 2×10−8 M
(1) (d), (iv) (4) 1×10−13 M
(2) (a), (i)
40. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form
(3) (b), (ii) pent-2-ene is :
(4) (c), (iii) (a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
37. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(d) Dehydration reaction
(1) Cross Aldol condensation
(1) (a), (b), (d)
(2) Aldol condensation (2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) Cannizzaro’s reaction (3) (a), (c), (d)
(4) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction (4) (b), (c), (d)
 7 H1
41. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 47. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is : rams ?
(1) 1000 s (1) Inbreeding
(2) 100 s (2) Out crossing
(3) 200 s (3) Mutational breeding
(4) Cross breeding
(4) 500 s
48. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
42. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a
(1) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
the following ? (2) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
temperature
(1) Hyperconjugation
(3) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of
(2) −I effect of −CH3 groups UV-B radiation
(3) +R effect of −CH3 groups (4) High reflection of light from snow
(4) −R effect of −CH3 groups
49. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
43. Which one of the followings has maximum number
of atoms ? Column - I Column - II
(1) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7] (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
(2) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108] (b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(3) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24] (c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
(4) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16] histaminase,
destructive
44. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
enzymes
monoxide ?
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
(1) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
containing
(2) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
histamine
(3) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin. (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
45. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
175
71 Lu , respectively, are : 50. Strobili or cones are found in :
(1) 175, 104 and 71 (1) Equisetum
(2) 71, 104 and 71 (2) Salvinia
(3) 104, 71 and 71 (3) Pteris
(4) 71, 71 and 104 (4) Marchantia

46. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes 51. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
place by : completed :
(1) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
(1) insects and water
ovum
(2) insects or wind (2) Prior to ovulation
(3) water currents only (3) At the time of copulation
(4) wind and water (4) After zygote formation
H1 8
52. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents : 56. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(1) Repolarisation of ventricles Column - I Column - II
(2) Repolarisation of auricles (a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
butylicum
(3) Depolarisation of auricles (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(4) Depolarisation of ventricles polysporum
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
purpureus
53. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs (d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is lowering agent
6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is (a) (b) (c) (d)
approximately : (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) 2.7 meters (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) 2.0 meters
57. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
(3) 2.5 meters release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
follicle ?
(4) 2.2 meters (1) Low concentration of FSH
(2) High concentration of Estrogen
(3) High concentration of Progesterone
54. The plant parts which consist of two generations - (4) Low concentration of LH
one within the other : 58. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
of organisms which have evolved due to changes
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther in environment brought about by anthropogenic
action ?
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
gametes (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule like dogs.
(1) only (d)
(1) (a) and (d) (2) only (a)
(3) (a) and (c)
(2) (a) only (4) (b), (c) and (d)
59. Which of the following statements are true for
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
the phylum-Chordata ?
(4) (c) and (d) (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
head to tail and it is present throughout
their life.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
55. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
the embryonic period only.
Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
in one character with contrasting traits ?
hollow.
(1) 8 (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
Hemichordata, Tunicata and
(2) 4 Cephalochordata.
(1) (b) and (c)
(3) 2 (2) (d) and (c)
(3) (c) and (a)
(4) 14 (4) (a) and (b)
 9 H1
60. Match the following : 64. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
Column - I Column - II
activity
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin Gonadotropin
fungi (hCG)
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen (c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
glands
Choose the correct option from the following :
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Penis
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

65. The process of growth is maximum during :

61. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle (1) Dormancy
at :
(2) Log phase
(1) Chalaza (3) Lag phase
(4) Senescence
(2) Hilum

(3) Micropyle 66. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(4) Nucellus
thuringiensis
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
62. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water
aquaticus first rDNA
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night
and in early morning is : molecule
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
(1) Plasmolysis
tumefaciens
(2) Transpiration
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
(3) Root pressure typhimurium

(4) Imbibition Select the correct option from the following :

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
63. Which of the following statements about inclusion
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
bodies is incorrect ?
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) These represent reserve material in (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
cytoplasm.
67. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
(2) They are not bound by any membrane.
(1) Laminarin and cellulose
(3) These are involved in ingestion of food (2) Starch and cellulose
particles.
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen
(4) They lie free in the cytoplasm. (4) Mannitol and algin
H1 10
68. Match the following columns and select the 73. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :
correct option.
(1) pepsinogen into pepsin
Column - I Column - II
(2) protein into polypeptides
(a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon (3) trypsinogen into trypsin
gill slits
(4) caseinogen into casein
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
caudal fin 74. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
Column - I Column - II
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias
pest
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
symmetry and larva
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) with bilateral symmetry
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
69. Presence of which of the following conditions in
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) Uremia and Ketonuria (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
70. Identify the incorrect statement.
75. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
(1) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc.,
is found in :
heart wood is dark in colour.
(2) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives (1) eustachian tube
mechanical support. (2) lining of intestine
(3) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water (3) ducts of salivary glands
and minerals from root to leaf.
(4) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(4) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem
and is lighter in colour.
76. Embryological support for evolution was
71. Which one of the following is the most abundant disapproved by :
protein in the animals ? (1) Oparin
(1) Insulin (2) Karl Ernst von Baer
(2) Haemoglobin (3) Alfred Wallace
(3) Collagen
(4) Charles Darwin
(4) Lectin
77. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
72. Which of the following is not an inhibitory theory of inheritance was done by :
substance governing seed dormancy ?
(1) Morgan
(1) Para-ascorbic acid
(2) Gibberellic acid (2) Mendel

(3) Abscisic acid (3) Sutton

(4) Phenolic acid (4) Boveri
 11 H1
78. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 83. Select the correct events that occur during
the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. inspiration.
(1) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (a) Contraction of diaphragm
(2) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(3) A person will have only two of the three
alleles. (c) Pulmonary volume decreases

(4) When IA and IB are present together, they (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
express same type of sugar.
(1) only (d)

79. Identify the basic amino acid from the following. (2) (a) and (b)
(1) Valine (3) (c) and (d)
(2) Tyrosine (4) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Glutamic Acid
84. The ovary is half inferior in :
(4) Lysine
(1) Plum
80. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs (2) Brinjal
during :
(3) Mustard
(1) Leptotene
(4) Sunflower
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene 85. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in
(4) Diplotene photorespiration leads to the formation of :
(1) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule
81. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter of 2-C compound
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent (2) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :
(3) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(1) G2 phase
(4) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(2) M phase
(3) G1 phase 86. Which of the following statements is not
(4) S phase correct ?
(1) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
82. Match the following columns and select the in E-Coli.
correct option.
(2) In man insulin is synthesised as a
Column - I Column - II proinsulin.

(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease (3) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
C-peptide.
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(4) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus linked together by hydrogen bonds.

(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease 87. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
(a) (b) (c) (d) algae ?
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (1) Chlorella and Spirulina
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) Laminaria and Sargassum
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) Anabaena and Volvox
H1 12
88. Choose the correct pair from the following : 92. Ray florets have :
(1) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific (1) Half inferior ovary
positions within DNA
(2) Inferior ovary
(2) Ligases - Join the two DNA
molecules (3) Superior ovary

(3) Polymerases - Break the DNA into (4) Hypogynous ovary

fragments
(4) Nucleases - Separate the two strands 93. Select the correct statement.
of DNA
(1) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.

89. Identify the wrong statement with reference to (2) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
immunity.
(3) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(1) Foetus receives some antibodies from
mother, it is an example for passive (4) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
immunity. adipocytes.
(2) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
antibodies are produced in the host’s body.
It is called “Active immunity”. 94. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(3) When ready-made antibodies are directly (1) Adenine does not pair with thymine.
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
(4) Active immunity is quick and gives full
H-bonds.
response.
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
90. Which of the following would help in prevention of H-bond.
diuresis ?
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
(1) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
H-bonds.
(2) More water reabsorption due to
undersecretion of ADH
(3) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal 95. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge
tubules due to aldosterone digester for further sewage treatment ?

(4) Atrial natriuretic factor causes (1) Activated sludge

vasoconstriction
(2) Primary sludge
91. The transverse section of a plant shows following
(3) Floating debris
anatomical features :
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles (4) Effluents of primary treatment
surrounded by bundle sheath.
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
96. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
tissue.
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent. crop.

Identify the category of plant and its part : (1) Abscisic acid
(1) Dicotyledonous root
(2) Cytokinin
(2) Monocotyledonous stem
(3) Gibberellin
(3) Monocotyledonous root
(4) Dicotyledonous stem (4) Ethylene
 13 H1
97. The roots that originate from the base of the stem 101. Match the following diseases with the causative
are : organism and select the correct option.
(1) Lateral roots Column - I Column - II
(2) Fibrous roots
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(3) Primary roots
(4) Prop roots (b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium

98. The specific palindromic sequence which is (c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
recognized by EcoRI is :
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(1) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(2) 5' - GAATTC - 3' (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
3' - CTTAAG - 5' (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) 5' - GGAACC - 3' (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
3' - CCTTGG - 5' (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
3' - GAATTC - 5' 102. Which is the important site of formation of
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
99. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Polysomes
correct option.
Column - I Column - II (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Peroxisomes
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
second and (4) Golgi bodies
seventh ribs
103. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the population ?
Humerus
(1) Species interaction
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(2) Sex ratio
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
(3) Natality
with the sternum
(4) Mortality
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
104. The number of substrate level phosphorylations
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (1) Three
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) Zero
100. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for (3) One
few days because :
(4) Two
(1) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
while the rest is situated along the dorsal
part of its body. 105. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control
of :
(2) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of (1) Disposal of e-wastes
abdomen. (2) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
(3) the cockroach does not have nervous system. from one country to another
(4) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous (3) Emission of ozone depleting substances
system while the rest is situated along the
ventral part of its body. (4) Release of Green House gases
H1 14
106. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals 111. Match the following columns and select the
are exemplified by : correct option.

(1) Annelida Column - I Column - II

(2) Ctenophora (a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle

ear and pharynx
(3) Platyhelminthes
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
(4) Aschelminthes labyrinth
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the
107. Identify the wrong statement with reference to oval window
transport of oxygen.
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
(1) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation basilar
of oxyhaemoglobin.
membrane
(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is (a) (b) (c) (d)
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
O2 binding with haemoglobin.
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
112. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :
108. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
(1) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
Restriction Enzymes.
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C
(1) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
(3) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C
ligases.
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
(2) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. 113. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits
highest species diversity ?
(3) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
sites. (1) Amazon forests
(2) Western Ghats of India
(4) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(3) Madagascar
(4) Himalayas
109. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
114. Identify the correct statement with reference to
(1) They have free DNA without protein coat. human digestive system.
(2) They have RNA with protein coat. (1) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
(2) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(3) They have free RNA without protein coat.
(3) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
(4) They have DNA with protein coat. alimentary canal.
(4) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
110. The sequence that controls the copy number of the
linked DNA in the vector, is termed : 115. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) Recognition site (Bt) is resistant to :
(1) Insect predators
(2) Selectable marker
(2) Insect pests
(3) Ori site (3) Fungal diseases
(4) Palindromic sequence (4) Plant nematodes
 15 H1
116. Select the correct match. 120. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
transfer of electrons from :
(1) Thalassemia - X linked
(1) PS-I to ATP synthase
(2) Haemophilia - Y linked
(2) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(3) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
dominant trait (3) Cytb6f complex to PS-I

(4) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal (4) PS-I to NADP+

recessive trait,
chromosome-11 121. According to Robert May, the global species
diversity is about :
117. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters (1) 7 million
the human body is :
(2) 1.5 million
(1) Male gametocytes
(3) 20 million
(2) Trophozoites
(4) 50 million
(3) Sporozoites
(4) Female gametocytes 122. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
can be visualized with the help of :

118. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase (1) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are : (2) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(1) Ammonia and hydrogen (3) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) Ammonia alone (4) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) Nitrate alone
123. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
(4) Ammonia and oxygen helix during transcription.
(1) RNA polymerase
119. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. (2) DNA ligase
(3) DNA helicase
Column - I Column - II
(4) DNA polymerase
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy

(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence 124. Match the following concerning essential elements
deaminase and their functions in plants :
deficiency (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water

(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
infection (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
biosynthesis
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
thuringiensis
Select the correct option :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
H1 16
125. Identify the correct statement with regard to 131. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase. are transferred to assist those females who cannot
conceive ?
(1) Nuclear Division takes place.
(1) GIFT and ICSI
(2) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(3) Reorganisation of all cell components takes (2) ZIFT and IUT
place. (3) GIFT and ZIFT
(4) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
(4) ICSI and ZIFT
not replicate its DNA.

126. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine 132. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net
and caffeine are produced by plants for their : primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Effect on reproduction
(1) There is no relationship between Gross
(2) Nutritive value primary productivity and Net primary
(3) Growth response productivity.

(4) Defence action (2) Gross primary productivity is always less

than net primary productivity.
127. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples (3) Gross primary productivity is always more
of : than net primary productivity.
(1) Natural selection (4) Gross primary productivity and Net primary
productivity are one and same.
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Convergent evolution
133. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
(4) Industrial melanism peptide bond, respectively in their structure :
(1) Inulin, insulin
128. The first phase of translation is :
(2) Chitin, cholesterol
(1) Recognition of an anti-codon
(3) Glycerol, trypsin
(2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(3) Recognition of DNA molecule (4) Cellulose, lecithin

(4) Aminoacylation of tRNA

134. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
examples in grassland ecosystem.
129. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
from : (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
(1) Compound epithelial cells
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
(2) Squamous epithelial cells
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(3) Columnar epithelial cells
(4) Chondrocytes (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass

Select the correct option :

130. Select the option including all sexually transmitted
(a) (b) (c) (d)
diseases.
(1) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
 17 H1
135. Match the following with respect to meiosis : 139. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field
and magnetic field components to the intensity of
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata electromagnetic waves)
(1) 1 : c2
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(2) c:1
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis (3) 1:1
(4) 1:c
Select the correct option from the following :
(a) (b) (c) (d) 140. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) diameter d and number density n can be expressed
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) as :
1
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) 2 2 2
2n π d
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 1
(2)
136. An electron is accelerated from rest through a 2 n πd
1
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie (3)
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the 2 n πd2
potential difference is : 1
(4)
(1) 104 V 2 n2 πd2
(2) 10 V 141. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
(3) 102 V source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
(4) 103 V phase difference between current and voltage
π
is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
137. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation 3
π
between coherent sources is halved and the the phase difference is again between current
3
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
(1) −1.0
(1) one-fourth (2) zero
(2) double (3) 0.5
(3) half (4) 1.0

(4) four times 142. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one

surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism
138. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface.
ends of a massless string. The string passes over If the refractive index of the material of the prism
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration to :
due to gravity (g) is : µA
(1)
2
A
(2)
2µ
2A
(3)
µ
(4) µA
143. Taking into account of the significant figures, what
(1) g/10 is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ?
(2) g (1) 9.9 m
(2) 9.9801 m
(3) g/2
(3) 9.98 m
(4) g/5 (4) 9.980 m
H1 18
144. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not 148. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
valid ? connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
(1) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+) an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
(2) Hydrogen atom thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly
(3) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) opened. The process is :
(4) Deuteron atom (1) isobaric
(2) isothermal
145. When a uranium isotope 235
92 U is bombarded with (3) adiabatic
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons (4) isochoric
and :
103 149. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
(1) 36 Kr metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
144 right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
(2) 56 Ba
in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
91
(3) 40 Zr wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
101 resistance wire is :
(4) 36 Kr
(1) 1.5×10−2 m
146. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, (2) 1.0×10−2 m
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. (3) 1.0×10−1 m
The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
(4) 1.5×10−1 m
(1) 5 N/C
(2) zero 150. The quantities of heat required to raise the
(3) 0.5 N/C temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
(4) 1 N/C r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
ratio :
147. Which of the following graph represents the
5
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for (1)
3
copper ?
27
(2)
8

(1) 9
(3)
4
3
(4)
2

151. The color code of a resistance is given below :

(2)

(3)
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively,
are :
(1) 470 Ω, 5%
(2) 470 kΩ, 5%
(4)
(3) 47 kΩ, 10%
(4) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
 19 H1
152. The solids which have the negative temperature 157. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging
coefficient of resistance are : from a fixed support. The length of the wire
(1) insulators and semiconductors changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its
(2) metals free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
(3) insulators only MgL
(4) semiconductors only (1) A(L1 − L)
MgL1
153. For transistor action, which of the following (2)
statements is correct ? AL
(1) The base region must be very thin and lightly Mg(L1 − L)
(3)
doped. AL
(2) Base, emitter and collector regions should MgL
(4) AL1
have same doping concentrations.
(3) Base, emitter and collector regions should
158. A charged particle having drift velocity of
have same size.
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of
(4) Both emitter junction as well as the collector 3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1
junction are forward biased. of :
(1) 2.25×10−15
154. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
(2) 2.25×1015
of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is
(3) 2.5×106
the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
(4) 2.5×10−6
from the centre of the sphere ?

 1  159. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming

 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2  from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope
 4 π 0  whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
(1) 1.28×107 N/C (1) 6.00×10−7 rad
(2) 1.28×104 N/C (2) 3.66×10−7 rad
(3) 1.28×105 N/C (3) 1.83×10−7 rad
(4) 1.28×106 N/C (4) 7.32×10−7 rad

155. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold 160. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. ∧
What will be the photoelectric current if the 3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is
∧
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ? 2k m .
(1) zero ∧
(1) 6k N m
(2) doubled ∧
(3) four times (2) 6i N m
∧
(4) one-fourth (3) 6j Nm
∧
156. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively (4) −6 i N m
are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length
1 m with negligible mass. 161. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
particle is nearly at a distance of : surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(1) 80 cm (1) 48×103 J
(2) 33 cm (2) 10×103 J
(3) 50 cm (3) 12×103 J
(4) 67 cm (4) 24×103 J
H1 20
162. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and 167. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
The pitch of the screw gauge is : tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
of water that will rise in this tube is :
(1) 1.0 mm
(1) 20.0 g
(2) 0.01 mm
(2) 2.5 g
(3) 0.25 mm
(3) 5.0 g
(4) 0.5 mm (4) 10.0 g

163. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with 168. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF. of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
The permittivity of the medium is : decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz.
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2) frequency of B will be :
(1) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2 (1) 537 Hz

(2) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2 (2) 523 Hz

(3) 524 Hz
(3) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 536 Hz
(4) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
169. The increase in the width of the depletion region
164. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is : in a p-n junction diode is due to :

(1) 0.5×1013 J (1) increase in forward current

(2) forward bias only
(2) 4.5×1016 J
(3) reverse bias only
(3) 4.5×1013 J
(4) both forward bias and reverse bias
(4) 1.5×1013 J
170. Dimensions of stress are :
165. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. (1) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
equal to half the radius of the earth ? (2) [ M L T−2 ]
(3) [ M L2 T−2 ]
(1) 24 N
(4) [ M L0T−2 ]
(2) 48 N
(3) 32 N 171. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
(4) 30 N 16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
166. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
the ground after some time with a velocity of
 1 
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)  = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0 
(1) 300 m
(1) zero
(2) 360 m
(2) 50 V
(3) 340 m (3) 200 V
(4) 320 m (4) 400 V
 21 H1
172. The phase difference between displacement and 177. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic
motion is :
(1) zero
(2) π rad
(1) A B Y
3π 0 0 1
(3) rad 0 1 0
2
1 0 0
(4)
π
rad 1 1 0
2 (2) A B Y
0 0 0
173. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz 0 1 0
ac supply. The rms value of the current in the 1 0 0
circuit is, nearly : 1 1 1
(3) A B Y
(1) 25.1 A 0 0 0
(2) 1.7 A 0 1 1
1 0 1
(3) 2.05 A 1 1 1
(4) A B Y
(4) 2.5 A
0 0 1
0 1 1
174. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a 1 0 1
magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The 1 1 0
permeability of the material of the rod is :
178. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas
(µ0=4π×10−7 Tm A−1) is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
(1) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1 temperature)
7
(2) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1 (1) kBT
2
(3) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1 1
(2) kBT
2
(4) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1 3
(3) kBT
2
175. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be : 5
(4) kBT
2
(1) ib = 908
179. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is
(2) 08 < ib < 308 10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
(1) 0.006
(3) 308 < ib < 458
(2) 6
(4) 458 < ib < 908 (3) 0.6
(4) 0.06
176. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns 180. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at 249 kPa and temperature 278C.
the centre of the solenoid is : Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(1) 0.02 kg/m3
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) (2) 0.5 kg/m3
(1) 3.14×10−5 T (3) 0.2 kg/m3
(4) 0.1 kg/m3
(2) 6.28×10−4 T
(3) 3.14×10−4 T -o0o-
(4) 6.28×10−5 T
H1 22
Space For Rough Work
 23 H1
Space For Rough Work
H1 24
Space For Rough Work