UNIVERSITY OF ILORIN

DEPARTMENT OF PHYSICS

B.Sc. & B.Sc (Ed). Rain Semester Examinations, May 2009

PHY 142: Atomic and Nuclear Physics I Credits: 2Cr
Instruction: Answer 30 questions. TIME: 45min
-34
Constants: Planck’s constant h = 6.6 x 10 Js
Speed of light= 3 x 108 m/s
Electron charge = 1.6 x 10-19 C.
Mass of electron = 9.1 x 10-31 kg
Me = 9.109390 x 10-31Kg
Mp = 1.672623 x 10-27Kg
M n = 1.674929 x 10-27Kg
1eV = 1.60 x 10-19 J
Ryberg Constant R = 1.097 x 10 7m-1
1 Wave-particle duality theory implies that:
A Light wave can diffract and scatter.
B Light wave can effect Compton effect
C Light wave can undergo interference and cause photoemission of electrons
on a metal.
D Light wave can be seen as a particle and as well effect photoelectric effect.
2 Compton effect obtained when X-rays are scattered by a plane of lattice electrons
Implies:
A Radiation absorption.
B Particle nature of electromagnetic waves.
C X-rays control.
D Crystallographic application of X-rays.
3 An entity exhibits particle nature by possessing:
A Energy and wavelength.
B Momentum and frequency.
C Energy and momentum.
D Wavelength and frequency.
4 Calculate the mass of a de Broglie’s particle traveling at a speed of 30m/s
with wavelength 1.49x10-26 nm:
A 0.43 x 10-3 kg.
B 0.15 kg.
C 0.35 x 10-3 kg.
D 0.96 kg.
5 Bohr proved electrons as a particle while Schrödinger proved it as a wave. The two
ideas can be combined and represented as:
A Angular momentum =h/mv
B Angular momentum =nh/2π
C Angular momentum = nλ/2π
D Angular momentum = 2 π r/n
6 Calculate the wavelength of the electron-wave for electrons fixed round an orbit
whose diameter is 1.2 nm if 24 complete waves are formed round the orbit:
 A 1.6 x 10 -10 m
B 3.4 x 10 -12 m
C 4.3 x 10 -10 m
D 9.6 x 10 -12 m
7 ‘HARD` X-rays can be produced by:
A. Increasing the cathode temperature.
B Altering the accelerating voltage
C Evacuating the tube completely.
D Making the electrons move faster
8 All of these are components in X-ray production tube except:
A. Concave cathode, Lead shield, Lead anode.
B X-ray window, cooling fins, hot cathode.
C Accelerating voltage, Electron beam, Low melting point target metal.
D A and C.
9 The following are the properties of X- rays except:
A. They are not deflected by electric fields.
B. ‘Soft` X-rays can pass through human skull.
C. They can be used to discharge gold-leaf electroscope.
D. They can release photoelectrons.
10 Reflection of X-rays that fell on two electron planes separated by distance
3.1 x 10 -10 m were obtained. Calculate Bragg’s glancing angle, if the total path
difference between the reflected waves from the two planes is 6.2 x 10-10 m.

A 60 ○ B 45 ○ C 73 ○ D 90 ○

11 Calculate the wavelength of X-rays emitted when electrons accelerated through

30kV strike a target, given that charge electron
A. 4.1 x 10-11 m B.17.11 x 10 -10m C. 0.5 x 10-11m D. 5.7 x 10-10 m.

12 What is the minimum potential difference between the cathode and anode of an X-
ray tube if rays of wavelength 0.05nm where produced

A 16 kV B 45 kV C 25 kV D 99 kV

13 Calculate the thickness of the patient’s skin if 40% of the incident X-rays were
absorbed by his flesh, let absorption coefficient be 2 units.

A 0.53m B 0.30m C 27 cm. D 1.2 cm.

14 Diode valve works on principle of :

A. Photoemission B. Thermionic emission. C. Compton scattering.
D. Electron drifting.
15 If sodium surface in a vacuum is illuminated with 200 nm wavelength beam.
Calculate the maximum velocity of the photoelectrons released [Take work
function of sodium to be 2.0 x 10-19 J.}
 A. 19.2 x 108 m/s , B. 4.7 x 108 m/s , C .16.0 x 107 m/s , D .1.9 x 108 m/s .

16 . The major use of diode valve is for:

A Rectification B Amplification C Filtering D Modification.

17. The appropriate characteristics curve for diode valve’s I/V curve in the absence of
External high tension potential is
I (A) A I (A) B C
I (A)

V (v) V (v) V (v)

I (A) D

V (v)

18 The major impression of Moseley’s law pertaining the line spectra obtained during
the production of X-rays holds that:
A The frequency of the line is proportional to the X-ray intensity.
B The frequency of the line is smaller for atom with one atomic number, than
for those with higher atomic numbers.
C The frequency of the line is proportional to the wavelength of the X-rays
D The frequency of the line reduces time.
19 All of these are correct about photoelectric emission except:
A No emission if work function and photon energy are equal.
B High work function makes the photoelectrons to move faster.
C A and B.
D Excess energy of photon serves as kinetic energy for the photoelectrons to
move.
20 Calculate threshold frequency in a photoelectric emission process if a photon of
1.6 x 10 -19 J released an electron to move with velocity of 2.4 x 10 5 m/s

A. 1.4 x 1015 Hz B 9.1 x 10 -18 Hz C 4.1 x 10-17 Hz D 2.0 x 1014 Hz

21 If ΔE, Δx and Δp are the smallest uncertainty measurements within the smallest
uncertainty time Δt, in energy, position and momentum the uncertainty principle
can be stated as:
A. ΔE. Δx = h/2π
B. Δp. ΔE = h/2π
C. Δp. Δx = h/2π
D. Δt. Δx = h/2π

22 All of these are instances when an entity behaves like a particle:

A Compton effect and diffraction.
B Photoelectric effect and refraction.
C X-Ray production and interference.
D Photoemission and Compton effect.

23 A Photon of 1.6 x 10 -19 J did a work of 0.3 x 10 -19 J to free an electron whose
mass is 9.1 x 10 -31 Kg. Calculate the velocity of the electron after been released.
A 5.3 x10 5 m/s B 60.1 x 105 m/s C 9.2 x 105 m/s D 1.12.x 10 5 m/s

24 One of the following is not a proper use of X-rays:

A Crystallographic study
B Identification of alteration made on artistic works
C Mapping the internal organ such as bone marrow in human body
D to analyze the internal organ of metal machines

25 Current dies down in a working diode value, without an accelerating potential,

because:
A Anode is shielded.
B Of the presence of space charge
C Temperature of the cathode reduces.[p
D Diode values usually have short life span.

26 Which of the following is not true of J .J Thomson model of atom?

a. There is a central nucleus in which protons are bound
b. Positive charges are spread throughout the atom forming a kind of paste in
which electrons are suspended
c. Electrons move around the nucleus randomly.
d. Electron occupy only discrete shells

27 In Ernest Rutherford experiment

a. Alpha particles were bombarded by gold particles
b. No alpha particles were deflected
c. All alpha particles were deflected
d. Atoms of gold were bombarded with alpha particles
28 According to Ernest Rutherford
a. Electrons are concentrated at the centre of the atom
b. Electrons are occupying different orbits or energy levels
c. Electrons revolve randomly around the nucleus
d. Electrons maintain their fixed position around the nucleus

29 The shortest wavelength of the Balmer’s series is obtained when n is

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

30 Which of the following represents the wavelength of the Paschen series

a. 1/⋋ = R (1/32 – 1/n 2)
b. 1/⋋ = R (1/22 – 1/n 2)
c. 1/⋋ = R (1/12 – 1/n 2)
d. 1/⋋ = R (1/02 – 1/n 2)

31 An atom is assumed to have zero energy in the ground state and its energy in the
first, second and third excited states are 1.635 x 10-18J, 1.93 x 10-18J and 2.024 x
10-18J respectively. What is the wavelength of the photon which would excite the
atom from the first excited state to the second excited state?
a. 6.61 x 10-7m
b. 4.24 x 10-7m
c. 3.24 x 10-7m
d. 3.0 x 10-7m

32 A blue line of wavelength 5.17 x10-7m is observed in the spectrum of the atom in
question 6 above. The transition between which energy levels will give rise to the
spectral line?
a. E2 to E3
b. E3 to E4
c. E3 to E4
d. E4 to E2

33 The longest and the shortest wavelength of the Balmer’s are

a. 365nm, 656nm
b. 656nm, 365nm
 c. 823nm, 109nm
d. 109nm, 823nm
34 Which of the following is true of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom
a. The total energy of the atom is positive
b. The total energy is dependent on the radius of orbit
c. No force is exerted on electrons inside an orbit
d. Total energy is independent of the radius

35 Bohr model does not apply where more than one electron are present in an orbit
round the nucleus because
a. The model does not account for the electrostatic forces that electrons exert
on each other
b. The energy of such atoms does not follow simple theory
c. The idea of photon and quanta do not apply to such atoms
d. The number of orbit will be more than one

36 What is the energy of the second excited state of hydrogen

a. -13.6eV
b. -3.40eV
c. -15.6eV`
d. +13.6eV

37 The line spectrum emitted by atomic hydrogen when electrons transit from high
energy levels to the third excited state is called
a. Paschen series
b. Balmer’s series
c. Lyman series
d. Bracket series

38 Determine the wavelength that correspond to the transition from ni = 6 to nf =4

a. 4050nm
b. 2629nm
c. 1050nm
d. 3050nm

39 The difference between spontaneous emission and stimulated emission is that

a. Spontaneous emission is a sum of both stimulated emission term and
spontaneous emission
 b. Spontaneous emission is self emission which does not need external photon
c. Stimulated emission does not need external photon
d. Stimulated emission occurs when electrons move lower energy to higher
energy

40 In the production of cathode rays using photoelectric effect, the most important
part in the discharge tube is
a. Cathode space
b. The bright region
c. Faraday dark region
d. The positive column

41 Cathode rays are produced in the discharge tube when voltages between the
plates is increased by means of
a. Break down
b. Acceleration
c. Collision
d. Saturation

42 A beam of electrons moving with a velocity of 1.0 x 10 7m/s enters midway

between two horizontal parallel plates P and Q in a direction parallel to the
plates. P and Q are 5cm long and 2cm apart and have a potential difference V
applied between them. Calculate V, if the beam is deflected so that it just grazes
the edge of the low plate Q (assume e/m = 1.8 x 1011 C/Kg).
a. 17.8V
b. 44.5V
c. 89.0V
d. 178.0V

43 What is the grazing angle of the beam of electrons moving with a velocity of 1.0 x
107m/s entering midway between two horizontal parallel plates P and Q in a
direction parallel to the plates. P and Q are 5cm long and 2cm apart and have a
potential difference V applied between them

a. 5.71
b. 11.0
c. 2.89
d. 16.3
44 Proton with a charge – mass ratio of 1.0 x 108 c/kg is rotated in a circular orbit of
radius r when they enter a uniform magnetic field of 0.5T. Calculate the number
of revolutions.
a. 2 x 106Hz
b. 4 x 106Hz
c. 6 x 106Hz
d. 8 x106Hz

45 The path of a beam of electrons in an electric field is

a. Circle
b. Spiral
c. Parabola
d. Ellipse

46 The maximum wavelength of light that can produce photoelectrons from sodium is
650nm. What is the work function of sodium?
a. 3.05 x 10-17J
b. 3.06 x 10-26J
c. 4.31 x 10-10J
d. 6.50 x 10-9J

47 The maximum wavelength of light that can produce photoelectrons from sodium is
650nm. If light of wavelength 436nm is used to illuminate a sodium surface in a
vacuum, what is the maximum K.E of the photoelectrons?
a. 4.25 x 10-25J
b. 1.42 x 10-40J
c. 1.50 x 10-19J
d. 3.06 x 10-19J

48 When a metal is illuminated by monochromatic radiation of wavelength 248nm,

the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted is found to be 8.6 x 10-20J.
Calculate the work function of the metal.
a. -8.599 x 10-20J
b. 7.16 x 10-19J
c. -8.58 x10-20J
d. 1.72 x 10-19J

49 Which of the following is the failure associated with the Rutherford’s model of the
atom.
a. atoms are not electrically neutral
 b. electrons can only move round the proton in elliptical orbits
c. the charges are evenly distributed
d. electron will spiral into the proton which is at the center of the nucleus

50 If the energy levels En is related to the principal quantum number “n” by En = -

13.6eV/n2, calculate the ionization energy of the hydrogen atom.
a. -13.6eV
b. 13.6eV
c. 0eV
d. -27.2eV

51 X-rays of wavelength 1.5 x10-10m is incident on a crystal and it gives a third order
diffraction for a glancing angle of 600. What is the separation of the layers of
atoms in the crystal?
a. 2.46 x 10-10m
b. 1.23 x 10-10m
c. 7.38 x 10-10m
d. 4.65 x 107m

52 Which of the following does account for the failure of the Bohr model of atom
a. it is not intellectually satisfactory
b. it could not explain the observed fine structure of the atomic spectra
c. it only explains the single electron atoms
d. it could not explain the observed atomic spectra

53 The potential difference between the target and cathode of an xs-ray tube is 20KV
and the current is 20mA. Only 5% of the total energy supplied is emitted as x-rays.
What is the minimum wavelength of the x-ray emitted?.
a. 6.19 x 10-11m
b. 3.87 x 108m
c. 3.22 x 10-10m
d. 27.22 x 101m

54 Calculate the velocity of electrons accelerated from rest to a target in hot cathode
vacuum tube by a potential difference of 25V.
a. 2.98 x 108m/s
b. 3.98 x 108m/s
c. 2.98 x 103m/s
d. 4.44 x 105m/s

55 Electrons moving with a constant velocity enter a uniform magnetic field B in a

direction perpendicular to B. The path of the electrons in the field is
a. a helix
b. a straight line parallel to B
c. a straight line perpendicular to B
 d. a circle

56 Calculate the De Broglie wavelength of a 0.01kg material having a velocity 0f

10m/s
a. 6.63 x 10-23m
b. 6.63 x 10-33m
c. 6.63 x 10-26m
d. 6.63 x 10-10m

57 The wavelength of the spectral line in the hydrogen spectrum are given empirically
by 1/λm = R( 1/n2 – 1/m2) where R = 1.097 x 10 7/m and n and m are integers.
Calculate the wavelength of Hβ in the Balmer’s series.
a. 4.00 x 10-7m
b. 4.86 x 10-7m
c. 1.37 x 10-6m
d. 7.30 x 10-7m

58 Which of the following is a correct statement of Milikan’s famous experimental

results?
a. electron is a common constituent of all matter
b. all charges are integral multiple of a discrete electronic charge
c. electron can be deflected by both the electric and magnetic field
d. electronic – mass ratio is constant

59 A radioactive source contains 1.0 x 10-6g of platinum239. It is estimated that this

source emits 2300 alpha particles per second. Calculate the T1/2 of platinum.
a. 7.59 x 1011s
b. 7.50 x 1011s
c. 8.00 x 1011s
d. 8.59 x 10 11s

60 Deuterium is represented by the symbol 2H1. What nucleons constitute its nucleus?
a. one proton, one neutron
b. two protons, two neutrons
c. two protons, one neutron
d. one proton, two neutrons

61 Calculate the nuclear binding energy of deuterium 2H1 given that mass of one atom
of deuterium is 2.01410mu, mass of one hydrogen atom is 1.00788mu and rest
mass of a neutron is 1.00867mu. (1mu = 1.66 x 10-27kg).
a. 1.749MeV
b. 2.747MeV
c. 3.247Mev
d. 4.000Mev
 62 In an x-ray tube, electrons each of charge q are accelerated through a potential
difference V and then strike a metal target. If h is Planck’s constant and c is the
speed of light, what is the minimum wavelength of the x-ray produced?
a. h/c
b. hf/c
c. hc/qV
d. hf/V

63 Calculate the minimum wavelength of the x-ray produced of electrons on the

screen of a television set where the accelerating potential is 20KV.
a. 1.551 x 10-19m
b. 1.260 x 10-26m
c. 0.995 x 10-29m
d. 0.095 x 10-19m

64. Calculate the energy and momentum of a photon of light of wavelength 500nm.
(a) . 6.63 x 10-17J, 1.330 x 10-25kgm/s
(b) 2.98 x 10-19J, 0.133 x 10-25kgm/s
(c) 3.98 x 10-19J, 0.013 x 10-25kgm/s
(d) 4.00 x 10-19J, 1.330 x 10-25kgm/s

65. If the fission of an atom of 235U yields energy of 200MeV, how much energy
would be released by the fission of 1g of 235U?
(a) 8.20 x 10 10J
(b) 8.20 x 106J
(c) 8.2 x 1010J
(d) 8.2 x 10-6J

66 The most abundant isotope of helium has a 42He nucleus whose mass is
6.6447 x 10 -27 kg. For this nucleus, find the mass defect ∆m.

(a) 0.0620 x 10 -27kg

(b) 0.0503 x 10 -27 kg
(c) 0.0412 x 10 -27 kg
(d) 0.0205 x 10-27 kg.

67 The most abundant isotope of helium has a 42He nucleus whose mass is
6.6447 x 10 -27 kg. For this nucleus , find the binding energy of the nucleus

(a) 28.3 MeV

(b) 26.4 MeV
(c) 27.2 MeV
(d) 30.0 MeV

68 Determine the energy released when 23892U decays into 23490Th.

 238
92U = 238.0508u
234
90Th = 234.0436u
4
2He = 4.0026u

1u = 931.5 MeV.

(a) 7.8 MeV (b) 2.8 MeV (c) 5.6 MeV (d) 4.3 MeV.

69 When Uranium 23892U is decays to Thorium 23490Th a gamma ray of 0.0496 MeV is
also emitted. What is the wavelength of the emitted gamma ray

(a) 4.3 x 10 -11m

(b) 3.66 x 10 -11m
(c) 2.51 x 10-11m
(d) 1.21 x 10 -11m

70 Radon 22286Rn was produced when radium 22688Ra undergoes α – decay. Suppose
3.0 x 10 7 radon atoms are trapped and the half-life of radon is 3.83 days. How
many radon atoms remain after 31 days.

(a) 4.2 x 105 (b) 1.1 x 105 (c) 2.3 x 105 (d) 3.0 x 10 5 .

71 Radon 22286Rn was produced when radium 22688Ra undergoes α – decay. Suppose
3.0 x 10 7 radon atoms are trapped. The half-life of radon is 3.83 days.
Find the activity for element
(a) 63Bq (b) 50Bq (c) 45Bq (d) 70Bq.

72 A 146C activity of about 0.18 Bq per gram of carbon was measured on a scroll.
Determine the age of the scroll, If activity A0 = 0.23Bq and the half life is
730years.

(a) 4.0 x 103yr (b) 3.0 x 103yr (c) 2.0 x 10 3yr (d) 1.0 x 103yr.

73. A device that can be used to detect α , β and γ rays is

(a) Geiger counter (b) Newton counter (c) Thompson counter

(d) Compton counter.

74. What is the wavelength of the 0.186 MeV γ– ray that is emitted by radium 22688Ra.
(a) 5.72 x 10-12m
(b) 4.68 x 10 -12m
(c) 6.68 x 10-12m
 (d) 7.11 x 10 -12

75. Determine the symbol AZX for the parent nucleus whose α – decay produces the
same daughter as the β- decay of thallium 20881Tl.
(a) 20076Po
(b) 21081Po
(c) 21485Po
(d) 21284Po
16
76 What is the binding energy (in MeV) for oxygen 8O,atomic mass = 15.994915u.
.
(a) 127.6 MeV (b) 125 MeV (c) 123.6 MeV (d) 120.6 MeV.

77 Nuclei that contain the same number of protons but a different number of
Neutrons are known as
(a) Isotopes (b) Allotropes (c) Nucleons (d) Positive Particles

78 The total number of protons and neutron is referred to as

a. Atomic Volume
b. Atomic Counting
c. Atomic Summation
d. Atomic mass number.

79 The spontaneous disintegration of unstable nucleus of an element is called

(a) Instability (b) Breaking effect (c) Radioactivity (d) Solidification.

80 The following particles and/or high energy photons are released when an
Unstable nucleus disintegrate
(i) Alpha rays (ii) Beta rays (iii) Neutron ray (iv) Gamma ray.

(a) i , ii and iv (b) i, ii and iii (c) i and iv only (d) iv only.

81. A stable nucleus requires certain energy to separate its proton and neutron.
This energy is called

(a) Binding energy (b) Fission energy (c) Potential energy (d) Threshold energy.

238
82 The process of α-decay for which Uranium U parents is converted into
92
234
the Th daughter is known as
90
(a) Transformation (b) Translation (c) Transmutation (d) Tranfiguration

83. Nuclides having the same number of neutron N but a different atomic number Z
and therefore a different mass number A are called
 (a) Isotones (b) Isotopes (c) Isobars (d) Entropid

84. Nuclides which have the same total number of nucleons but which differ in
atomic number Z and also in neutron number N called.

(a) Isotones (b) Isotopes (c) Isobars (d) Allotropes

85. Calculate the nuclear radius of a nucleus with mass number 4. Given that
Ro = 1.4 x 10-15m

(a) 2.22 x 10 -15m (b) 1.62 x 10-15m (c) 2.78 x 10-15m (d) 1.04 x 10 -15m

86. The atomic mass unit (amu) used in expressing the masses of nuclei is

(a) One tenth of the mass of the 12C atom

(b) One fifth of the mass of the 12C atom
(c) One twelfth of the mass of the 12C atom
(d) One third of the mass of the 12C atom

87. If one atomic mass unit (1amu) is 1.66 x 10-27kg. Calculate the energy
equivalence of this mass.

(a) 933.7MeV (b) 683.2 MeV (c) 999.1 MeV (d) 709.3 MeV

35
88. The binding energy of Cl is 280 MeV. Find its mass in atomic mass unit
11
(amu). Given that 1 amu = 931 MeV

(a) 0.15 amu (b) 0.30 amu (c) 0.52 amu (d) 0.46 amu

89. The fission of a uranium nucleus by a neutron produces lanthanum and bromine
nuclei according to the equation. Given that
235 85 148 1
U  235.12, Br  84.84 La  147.96 n  1.009
92 35 57 0

235 1 148 85 1
U  n  La  Br  3 n  Q
92 0 57 35 0

Calculate the energy released

(a) 200 MeV (b) 180 MeV (c) 230 MeV (d) 218 MeV

90. Deutron and tritium fused to form a helium nucleus according to the relation
 2 3 4 1
H  H  He  n  Q
1 1 2 0

Calculate the energy released.

Rest masses in amu are

1 2 4 3
n  1.009 H  2.015 He  4.004 H  3.017
0 1 2 1

(a) 15.0 MeV (b) 17.7 Mev (c) 12.7 MeV (d) 20.2 MeV

91. If the half – life of a sample of radioactive material is 60 days, what fraction of
the original radioactive nuclei will remain after 120 days.

1 1 1 2
(a) (b) (c ) (d )
4 2 3 5

92. A radioactive material has a half-life of 14 hours. How much of 100 of the
isotope will be left after 42 hours and what time has elapsed when 6.25g of the
100g are left.

(a) 25g, 60 h (b) 50g, 70h (c) 12.5g, 56h (d) 6.25g, 49h

93. A counter positioned close to an α – particle emitter reads 200 per second and this
reduced to 50 per second in 720 seconds. Determine the half life of the source.

(a) 9 minutes (b) 6 minutes (c) 10 minutes (d) 12 minutes

94. Which of the following is the graphical representation of exponential decay

and half life period of a radioactive material.

(a) (b)
No (c) (d)
2
No No No
2 2 2
T1/2
T1/2
T1/2 T1/2

95. In a Millikan experiment, a charged droplet of mass 1.8 x 10 -15kg just remains
stationary when the potential difference between the plates, which are 12mm a
apart is 150V. If the droplet suddenly gains an extra electron, calculate the initial
acceleration of the droplet.
 (a) 2.31 m5-2 (b) 3.00 m5-2 (c) 2.60 m5-2 (d) 1.11 m5-2

96. In a Milikan experiment, a charged droplet of mass 1.8 x 10-15kg just remains
stationary when the potential difference between the plates, which are 12mm
apart, is 150V. If the droplet suddenly gains an extra electron, find the
voltage needed to bring the droplet to rest again

(a) 120 V (b) 135 V (c) 110 V (d) 250V

97. The primary uses of the Cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) are to measure the
following except

(a) Voltage (b) Frequency (c) Phase (d) Mass

98. Which of the following is not a feature of the Cathode ray Oscilloscope?

(a) Cooling compartment

(b) Heated cathode to produce a beam of electron
(c) Accelerating anode
(d) Fluorescent Screen

99. Which of the following is incorrect

(a) α – particle is slightly deflected by magnetic and Electric field and

positively charged.

(b) α – particle is slightly deflected and β – particle is greatly deflected but

both are negatively charged

(c) β – particle is greatly deflected by magnetic and Electric field and

negatively charged

(d) γ-ray is unaffected by magnetic and Electric field and uncharged.

100. Natural Radioactive decay rate depends on

(a) Number of nuclei available to disintegrate

(b) Temperature of the nuclei

(c) Time of the day

(d) Location of the nuclei on the planet.

101. The following are the advantages of Fusion over Fission except

(a) Easily achieved with light test elements

(b) By – product are non-radioactive

(c) Raw materials are cheaply available

(d) Very high temperature is required

102. Radiation from radio Isotopes is useful in

(a) Radiotherapy

(b) Earth digging

(c) Archaeological dating

(d) Thickness gauging

103. Calculate the count rate produced by 0.1μg of caesium 137, if the half life of
Cs137 is 8.83 x 108s.

(a) 3.45 x 105βq (b) 2.20 x 105βq (c) 1.66 x 105β (d) 4.12 x 105βq

104. In an archaeological site a piece of bone is found to give a count rate of 15 counts
per minute. A similar sample of fresh bone gives a count rate of 19 counts
per minute. Calculate the age of the specimen.

(a) 1789 yrs (b) 1566 yrs (c) 1897 yrs (d) 2011 yrs

105. The three types of radiation from radioactive decay process are
(i) α, β and λ radiation (ii) α, β and γ radiation (iii) α, β and ν radiation

(a) i only (b) i or iii (c) ii only (d) None of the above

106 Determine the velocity of a de Broglie’s particle whose mass and wavelength are
0.15 kg and 1.49x10-26 nm: {Planck’s constant = 6.7 x 10-34 Js}
(a) 43 m/s.
(b) 15 m/s.
(c) 35 m/s.
(d) 30 m/s.
107. One of following is an advantage of semiconductor diode over diode value? It is:

(a) Smaller in size (b) Easier to produce (c) Cheaper to purchase (d) All are
its advantages
108. A photon with frequency 1.76 x 1023Hz released 9.1 x 10 -31 kg mass electron at
4.4 x 10 5 Hz threshold frequency. Calculate its speed.
(Planck’s constant h = 6.63 x 10-34Js)

(a) 3.34 x 1023 m/s (b) 1.6 x 1010 m/s

(c) 10.4 x 1023 m/s (d) 1.76 x 1023 m/s

109. During photoelectric emission, if work function is the same with an incoming
photon in quantity, one of the following is correct:

(a) Photoelectrons may not be obtained

(b) Photoelectrons may move slower
(c) Photoelectrons may possess little kinetic energy
(d) All above are wrong.

110. One of the following is the effect of the reverse bias connection of a diode value at
a very low voltage:

(a) Damage the valve (b) Evacuate its tube

(c) The diode stops conducting (d) Stratifies the tube
111 The process of ejecting electrons from the surface of acold metal by an
electromagnetic radiation is an evidence of:
(a) X-radiation (b) particle nature of wave (c) Thermionic emission
(d) Compton effect

112 The household tube television works on the principle of:

(a) Thermionic emission (b) Dispersion of white light (c) Photoemission
(d) Polarization

113 A beam of x-rays with the atomic spacing 10.72nm is incident on a crystal and
gives a first order maximum when the glancing angle is 80; find the wavelength of
the beam. (a) 0.2 nm (b) 10.72nm (c) 0.55nm (d) 0.09nm

114. An electron of mass 9.1x10-31 kg and charge 1.6x10-19 c is accelerated to a target

by applying a potential difference of 25 kV, calculate its velocity at an instance.
(a) 3.30x10 7 m/s (b) 5.86x107 m/s (c) 9.38x107 m/s (d) 4.79x107 m/s

115. One of these laws is aimed at seeing how Particles could behave like waves
(a) Bohr’s law
(b) Rutherford’s law()
(c) de Broglie’s law:
(d) Ohm’s law

116 All of these are wrong about photoelectric emission except:

 (a) No emission if work function and photon energy are equal.
(b) Decrease in work function makes the photoelectrons to move faster.
(c) Excess energy of photon serves as kinetic energy for the photoelectrons to
move.
(a) (a) and (b)
117 X-rays can be suitable to study internal structure of a charged object because it is:
(a) Fast (b) Neutral (c) Positively Charged (d) Negatively Charged

118 X-rays have charge characteristics comparable with that of:

(a) Gamma rays (b) Beta rays (c) Proton (d) Alpha particles

119 The presence of space charge in a working diode valve without an accelerating
potential causes:
(a) Increase in current.
(b) Current to die down
(c) Temperature reduction in the valve.
(d) Diode values to have short life span.

120 Which of these electronic components is most suitable for AC-DC rectification?
(a) Transistor (b) Integrated circuit (c) Capacitor (d) Thermionic diode.

121 Only 5% of photon energy, with frequency 20 Hz, falling on a metal served as
work function to release an electron. Calculate the velocity of the photoelectron
released. (Electron mass = 9.1x10-31 kg. Planck constant h = 6.63x10-34 Js)
(a) 0.17 m/s (b) 2.55 m/s (c) 8.07 m/s (d) 3.7x1010 m/s

122 31. All of these are characteristics of ‘HARDER’ x-rays except:

(a) High speed (b) Short wavelength

(c) High Kinetic energy (d) ability to penetrate lead materials

123 Thermionic emission is a principle for the production of:

(a) Gamma rays (b) Beta rays

(c) X-rays (d) Cathode rays

124 ‘Soft’ X-rays are most suitable in:

(a) Analysing internal faults in auto maintenance workshops
(b) Identifying alteration made on paper artistic works
(c) Mapping the internal organ such as bone marrow in human body
(d) Analysing the internal organ of metal machines

125 Ability to measure accurately, the position and velocity of a particle at a certain
time, according to uncertainty principle, implies that it is:
(a) possible to predict its state at any given future time
 (b) possible to predict its momentum and size
(c) possible to predict its size only at a time
(d) impossible to make a decision about it at any time

126 The Uranium nucleus 23892U undergoes successive decays, emitting respectively an
α-particle, a β-particle and a γ-ray. What is the atomic number and the mass
number of the resulting nucleus?
(a) 91 , 234 (b) 90 , 236 (c) 88 , 236 (d) 92 , 234

127 The isotope which decays by β-emission to produce 11149In is

(a) 11249Ag (b) 11150Cd (c) 11050Ag (d) 11350Sn .

128 A stationary thorium nucleus (A = 220, Z = 90) emits an α- particle of kinetic

energy E. What is the kinetic energy of the daughter nucleus.
(a) E (b) E/12 (c) E/36 (d) E/54.

129. An approximate relationship between the radius R of a nucleus and its nucleon
number N is R/m = 1.2 x 10-15 N1/3 . Estimate the number of nucleons per unit
volume of the nucleus.
(a) 0.12 x 1044 m-5 (b) 1,4 x 1044 m-3 (c) 5.78 x 10 44m -3 (d) 1.2 x 1044m-5

130 Which of the following gives the relationship between the decay constant λ and the
half life T of a radioactive isotope.
(a) N = Noe-λT (b) T = In 2λ (c) T = In 2/λ (d) T = λN .

131 The isotope 23490Th has a half-life of 24 days and decays to 23491Pa . How long does
it take for 90% of a sample of 23490Th to decay to 23491Pa.
(a) 50 days (b) 60 days (c) 70 days (d) 80 days.

132 The decay of a radioactive nuclide is represented by the equation dN /dt = -λN
where λ = 2.4 x 10 -8 s-1 . What is the half life of the nuclide.
(a) 2.9 x 107s (b) 8.33 x 107s (c) 1.25 x 107s (d) 1.25 x 10-7s.

133 If the fission of a atom of 235U yields an energy of 200 MeV. How much energy
would be released by the fission of 1g of 235U.

(a) 8.20 x 1010J (b) 8.20 J (c) 8.20 x 10-10J (d) 8.20 x 10-6J.

134 The mass of a 2010Ne nuclide is 19.99244amu. If the rest mass of a proton and a
neutron are 1.007825amu and 1.008665amu respectively, calculate the nuclear
binding energy and hence the nuclear binding energy per nucleon of 2010Ne.

(a) 2.9 x 10 -9J, 1.29 x 10 -12J

(b) 2.58 x 10-11J, 1.29 x 10 -12J

(c) -2.97 x 10 -9J, 1.29 x 10 -12J.

 (d) None the above .

135 The results of the Geiger and Muller experiment proves that

(a) Electrons are present in the atoms

(b) Electrons move randomly in atoms

(c) There is a central nucleus

(d) There are protons and electrons in an atom.

136 The length of an α-particle track in a cloud chamber is 37mm. If the average
energy required to produce an ion pair is 5.2 x 10 -18J and on the average an α-
particle produces 5.0 x 103 ion pairs per mm of its track, calculate the initial
energy of the α-particle.

(a) 6.01 eV (b) 0.611MeV (c) 6.01 MeV (d) 0.006 MeV

137 The splitting of a large nucleus into smaller nuclei is referred to as

(a) Fusion (b) Radioactivity (c) Fission (d) Decay.

138 In a radioactive decay reaction , the number of radioactive atoms

(a) Decreases sinusoidally with times

(b) Increase s exponentially with time

(c) Decreases hypothetically with times

(d) Decreases exponentially with time

139 Which of the following gives the relationship between the nuclear binding energy
ΔE and mass defect Δm of a nucleus.

(a) ΔE = hv (b) ΔE = hc (c) ΔE = Δmc (d) ΔE = Δmc2.

140 A uranium nucleus 23892U , emits two alpha particles and two beta particles and
finally forms thorium (Th) nucleus. What is the symbol of this nucleus.

(a) 23092Th (b) 23090Th (c) 23490Th (d) 233 Th

89
141 The half-life of radium is 10 days . After how many days will only one-sixteenth
of radium sample remain.

(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 40 (d) 50

142 How much 23592U must undergo fission per day in a nuclear reactor that provides
energy to a 100MW electric power plant .Assume perfect efficiency. Given that 1
kg of 23592U can generate 9 x 1013 J of energy.

(a) 9.6 x 10 -2 kg/day

(b) 7.6 x 10-2 kg/day

(c) 3.4 x 10-2 kg/day

(d) 6.8 x 10 -2kg/day

143 Calculate the binding energy of 5726Fe whose mass is 56.935398 a.m. u given that
the mass of protons = 1.007825 a. m.u and the mass of neutron = 1.008665 a.m.u .
1 a.m.u = 931 MeV .

(a) 250eV (b) 300 eV (c) 400 eV (d) 500eV

144 A sample of a radioactive isotope is left to decay . After 1 minute, only 1/8 of the
isotope remains in the sample. Calculate the decay constant.

(a) 0.0235 (b) 0.0421 (c) 0.0213 (d) 0.0347

145 Which of the following is a common characteristic among α-particle and γ-rays.

(a) They are e-m radiation of short wavelengths

(b) They are deflected by electric fields

(c) They cause some substance to fluoresce

(d) They have strong penetrating power.

146 Electrons are emitted with negligible speed from a plane cathode in an evacuated
tube. The electrons are accelerated toward a plane anode which is parallel to the
cathode and 2.0cm from it by a p.d of 100V. Find the time taken for an electron to
move from the cathode to the anode (e/m = 1.8 x 1011C/kg).
(a) 4.5 x 10-5s
(b) 1.8 x 10 -8s
(c) 2.11 x 10-9s
(d) 1.90 x 10-7s
147 Find the energy difference and the wavelength of the photon which is emitted
when a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from n=5 to n=2.
(a) 2.856eV, 6.96 x 10 -26m
(b) 0.2856eV, 6.343 x10-7m
(c) 2.856eV, 4.343 x10-7m
(d) 0.2856eV, 4.343 x10-10m

148 Proton with a charge-mass ratio of 1.0 x 10 8C/kg are rotated in a circular orbit of
radius r when they enter a uniform magnetic field of 0.5nT. Calculate the number
of revolution
a. 2 x 106Hz
b. 4 x 106Hz
c. 6 x 106Hz
d. 8 x106Hz

149 What is the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted by light of wavelength
0.8nm from a surface which has a threshold wavelength of 0.96nm?
(a) -3.168 x 10-26J
(b) 3.168 x 10-26J
(c) 1.98 x 10-25J
(d) 2.178 x 10-26J
150 X-rays of wavelength 1.5 x10-10m is incident on a crystal and it gives a third order
diffraction for a glancing angle of 600. What is the separation of the layers of
atoms in the crystal?
(a) 2.46 x 10-10m
(b) 3.87 x 108m
(c) 7.38 x 10-10m
(d) 4.5 x 10-10m
151 The potential difference between the target and cathode of an x-ray tube is 20KV
and the current is 20mA. Only 0.5% of the total energy supplied is emitted as x-
rays. What is the minimum wavelength of the x-ray emitted?
(a) 6.19 x 10-11m
(b) 3.87 x 108m
(c) 6.19 x 10-8m
(d) 4.00 x 107m
152 Calculate the velocity of electrons accelerated from rest to a target in hot cathode
vacuum tube by a p.d of 25V
(a) 2.96 x 106m/s
(b) 3.98 x 108m/s
(c) 2.98 x10 3m/s
(d) 3.98 x 103m/s
153 Calculate the energy and momentum of a photon of light of wavelength 500nm.
(a) 3.96 x10-19J, 1.32 x 10-27kgm/s
(b) 3.3 x 10-31J, 1.32 x 10-27kgm/s
(c) 3.3 x 10-40J, 1.32 x 10-27kgm/s
(d) No answer
154 An alpha particle of energy 5.30 MeV moves directly toward a lead nucleus20682Pb
which is stationary. Calculate the nearest distance of approach of the alpha
particle from the least nucleus.
(a) 3.128 x 10 -7m/s
(b) 3.75 x 10-26m/s
(c) 3.98 x 10-26m/s
(d) 4.425 x 10-14m/s
155 In the production of x-rays most modern x-ray tubes use tungsten for the target
because
(a) they are good targets
(b) they are not costly
(c) they have the highest efficiency for x-ray production
(d) they serve as the best cooling agent
156 What is the shortest wavelength in the Lyman series of hydrogen?
(a) 1.097 x 10 7m
(b) 9.1 x 10 -8m
(c) 2.7 x 106m
(d) 3.65 x 10-7m
157 The length of an alpha particle track in a cloud chamber is 37mm. if the average
energy required to produce an ion pair is 5.2 x 10-18J and on an average an alpha
particle produce 5 x 10 3 ion pairs per mm of its track, calculate the initial energy
of the particle.
(a) 6.01ev
(b) 0.611Mev
(c) 6.01Mev
(d) 0.006Mev
158 If the wavelength of the incident light in a photoelectric experiment is increased
from30007nm to 30010, calculate the corresponding change in the stopping
potential.
(a) 1.38 x 10-2V
(b) 1.38 x 10-8V
(c) 1.38 x 10-4V
(d) 1.38 x 10-3V

159 Calculate the velocity of electrons accelerated from rest to a target in hot cathode
vacuum tube by a potential difference of 25V.
(a) 2.98 x 108m/s
(b) 3.75 x 10 8m/s
(c) 2.98 x 103m/s
(d) 3.98 x103m/s

160 What is the wavelength of the Balmer series for n = 4?

(a) 4.86 x 10-7m
(b) 9.7 x 10 -8m
(c) 1.88 x 10-6m
(d) 2.0 x 10-7m
161. Electrons are knocked off the cathode at low pressures and low p.d in a discharge
tube through
(a) Electrical process
(b) Thermionic emission
( c) Photoelectric effect
(d) Explosion process

162 The point in a discharge tube at which the growth of electrons become
uncontrollable at high voltage is known as
(a) Uncontrollable point
(b) Avalanche point
(c) Gas breakdown point
(d) Cathode dark point

163 One disadvantage of the method of discharge tube for the production of cathode
rays is
(a) cathode ray produced is usually small
(b) production of x-rays as by-product
(c) very low p.d is required
(d) no gas is required
164 In the modern method of cathode ray production, cathode rays are produced by
(a) chemical method
(b) thermionic method
(c) photoelectric effect
(d) small voltage
165 Which of the following is common to both the discharge tube method and the
modern method of producing cathode rays
(a) they both require gas
(b) they both require metals
(c) small electrons produced must be accelerated
(d) they produce x-rays as by-product
166 An application of cathode ray is in
(a) x-ray production
(b) gamma ray production
(c) cathode ray oscilloscope
(d) production of alpha particle
167 In Milikan experiment, an atomizer is used to
(a) produce tiny charged droplet of oil
(b) atomize the environment of the oil
(c) produce a high p.d in the oil
(d) keep the oil motionless
168 According to Milikan, the charge on an oil drop is given by
(a) q = E/d
(b) q = I/t
(c) q = mgd/V
 (d) q = V/d
169 The ionization energy for hydrogen atom is
(a) -13.6eV
(b) +13.6eVe
(c) -10.2eV
(d) +10.2eV

170 What is the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted by light of wavelength
0.8nm from a surface which has a threshold wavelength of 0.96nm?
(a) -3.168 x 10-26J
(b) 3.168 x 10-26J
(c) 1.98 x 10-25J
(d) 2.178 x 10-26J

171 If ΔE, Δx and Δp are the smallest uncertainty measurements within the smallest
uncertainty time Δt, in energy, position and momentum the uncertainty principle
can be stated as:
(a) ΔE. Δx = h/2π (b) Δp. ΔE = h/2π (c) Δp. Δx = h/2π (d) Δt. Δx = h/2π

172 All of these are instances when an entity behaves like a particle:
(a) Compton effect and diffraction.
(b) Photoelectric effect and refraction.
(c) X-Ray production and interference.
(d) Photoemission and Compton effect.
173 A Photon of 1.6 x 10 -19 J did a work of 0.3 x 10 -19 J to free an electron whose
mass is 9.1 x 10 -31 Kg. Calculate the velocity of the electron after been released.
(a) 5.3 x105 m/s (b) 60.1 x 105 m/s (c) 9.2 x 105 m/s (d) 1.12.x 105 m/s

174 One of the following is not a proper use of X-rays:

(a) Crystallographic study
(b) Identification of alteration made on artistic works
(c) Mapping the internal organ such as bone marrow in human body
(d) To analyze the internal organ of metal machines
175 Current dies down in a working diode value, without an accelerating potential,
because:
(a) Anode is shielded.
(b) Of the presence of space charge
(c) Temperature of the cathode reduces.
(d) Diode values usually have short life span.

176. Which of these statements is not true of x-rays? They:

(a) belong to electromagnetic spectrum

(b) appear neutral
(c) can be made faster or slower at will
 (d) originate from energy changes in the nuclei of atoms

177. If x-rays are brought near the top cap of a positively charged gold leaf
electroscope, the divergence of the leaves will:

(b) decrease to zero slowly

(c) steadily increase
(d) remain constant
(e) decrease to zero and then increase to maximum.

178. Bohr confirmed that the motion of electron towards nucleus of Rutherford atomic
model is

(a) Helical (b) Zigzag (c) Spiral (d) circular

179. De Broglie’s law is aimed at seeing how:

(a) Particles could behave like waves

(b) X-rays can be made ‘HARDER’
(c) Waves can exhibit particle nature
(d) X-rays can be made ‘SOFTER’

180. Production of x-rays is sourced from the principle of

(a) Photoelectric effect (b) Thermionic emission

(c) Photovotaic emission (d) Comption effect

181. Which of these is wrong about ‘HARD’ x-rays? They have:

(a) High speed (b) Short wavelength

(c) High Kinetic energy (d) Ability to penetrate plane paper only

182 p
q

θ x Plane
t
a c
y Plane
b
 X-rays p and q are reflected from atomic planes x and y in a crystal. For
maximum intensity of reflection, in Bragg’s view, the path difference must be in
the form

2d sin 
(a ) n (b) n  2t sin  (c) n  d sin  ( d ) t cos  n

183. A beam of x-rays of wavelength 0.2 nm is incident on a crystal and gives a first
order maximum when the glancing angle is 80; find the atomic spacing in the
crystal.
(a) 0.90nm (b) 10.72nm (c) 0.55nm (d) 0.09nm

184. When a diode value is connected in a forward bias mode the appropriate
Current I/Voltage V characteristics curve that will be obtained is:

I I (b) I I (d)
(a) (c)

V V V V

185. A diode value connected in a reverse bias mode will have I/V characteristics
curve in the form of.
I (b)
(a) I

V -V V

I I
(c) (d)

-V
V V

186. Diode value works on the principle of:

(a) Photo emission (b) Compton effect

(c) Thermionic emission (d) X-Ray emission

187. The reverse bias connection of a diode value at a very high voltage can
 (a) Damage the value (b) Lead to the production of a stabilizing device
(c) Evacuate its tube (d) Stratify the tube

188. A 9.1 x 10-3 kg mass electron was released by a radiation to move with a speed of
1.6 x 10 10 m/s. If the threshold frequency is 4.4 x 105 Hz calculate the
frequency of the source radiation. (Planck’s constant h = 6.63 x 10-34Js)

(a) 3.34 x 1023Hz (b) 5.11 x 1023Hz

(c) 10.4 x 1023Hz (a) 1.76 x 10 23Hz

189. Which of the following is an advantage of diode value over semiconductor diode?
It is:

(a) made of glasses (b) usually smaller (c) easier to make (d) cheaper

190. During photoelectric emission, if work function of a metal is extremely high then

(a) Photoelectrons may not be obtained

(b) Photoelectrons may move slower
(c) Photoelectrons may possess little kinetic energy
(d) All above are possible outcome.

191. LASER principle is based on stimulated emission. Which of the following is

correct about light pulse from LASER?
(a) They are coherent
(b) They are incoherent
(c) They are non-monochromatic
(d) all of the above
192 Which of the following is a Bohr postulate?
(a) electrons are spread about in the with the proton as a paste
(b) electrons resolve round the nucleus in a random manner
(c) electrons occupy allowed energy levels
(d) electrons are located in the central core of the atom

193. The total energy of the Bohr atom is given by

(a) – k2e2/r
(b) – kze2/r2
(c) - kze2/2r
(d) + kze2/2r
194 Bohr proved electrons as a particle while Schroedinger proved it as a wave. The
two ideas can be combined and represented as:
(a) Angular momentum =h/mv
(b) Angular momentum =nh/2π
(c) Angular momentum = nλ/2π
(d) Angular momentum = 2πr/n
195 Calculate the wavelength of the electron-wave for electrons fixed round an orbit
whose diameter is 1.2 nm if 24 complete waves are formed round the orbit:
(a) 1.6 x 10 -10 m
(b) 3.4 x 10 -12 m
(c) 4.3 x 10 -10 m
(d) 9.6 x 10 -12 m

196 One of the following is correct, when x-rays fall on a plane of atoms in a crystal

(a) The beam of the x-rays is reflected

(b) The beam of the x-rays is refracted
(c) The beam of the x-rays is diffracted
(d) The beam is absorbed

197 Reflected beams from surfaces of atomic planes have maximum intensity if the
path difference between the incidents x-rays is

(a) A half number of wavelengths of the rays

(b) One third number of wavelengths of the rays
(c) A whole number of wavelength of the rays
(d) One fifth number of wavelengths of the rays.

198 In x-rays production, a characteristics line spectra is obtained whose frequency is

related to

(a) The number of electrons of the target metal used.

(b) The number of protons of the target metal used.
(c) The number of neutrons of the target metal used.
(d) The summation of the total number of protons and neutrons of the target
metal used.

199 What is the ratio of the reminant intensity of x-rays after penetration to initial
intensity when it penetrates to a depth of 2cm into a patient body.

(a) 14:15 (b) 34:35 (c) 20:21 (d) 24:25

200 One of the following is correct about the working of the diode valve.

(a) Electrons are released when the cathode is heated.

(b) Electrons are released when the anode is heated.
(c) The accelerating voltage is always applied to the cathode
(d) Electrons always drifted towards the cathode.

201 To increase the intensity of x-rays, one of the following is TRUE

(a) Cathode temperature is reduced

 (b) Anode temperature is increased
(c) Cathode temperature is increased
(d) Anode temperature is reduced

202 By increasing the penetrating power of x-rays, one of the following is NOT correct

(a) The wavelength of the x-rays is short

(b) The voltage applied must be low
(c) The speed of the x-rays is high
(d) X-rays kinetic energy increases.

203 If 3.6x10-19J energy of the photon from a radiation is required to emit electrons
from a metal surface, what is the wavelength of the source radiation?

(a) 440nm (b) 584nm (c) 380nm (d) 553nm

204 If the wavelength of an incident photon radiation is 220nm. What is the energy
required by it to release an electron from a metal surface? Take h =6.63x10-34Js,
C=3.0x10 8 ms-1

(a) 9.0x10 -19J (b) 8.3x10-19J (c) 9.8x10 -18 J (d) 6.73x10-19 J.

205 When 6.73x10-19J of photon incident on a metal surface, the electron acquired a
lane the energy of 2.6x10-19J after their emission. What is the there hold
wavelength of the incident radiation ? Take h=6.63x20-34 J, C=3.0x10 8 m/s.
(a) 550nm (b) 510nm (c) 423nm (d) 380nm

206 5.4x10-19 J energy of photon in an incident radiation falls on a metal to emit

electrons. If the threshold wavelength of the photon is 720 nm, what is the velocity
of the photoelectron electrons after that emission?

(a) 6.63x104 m/s (b) 7.61x10 5m/s (c) 5.42x10 3 m/s (d) 4.62x10 4m/s

207 When 4.34x10-19 J of energy of photon in an incident radiation falls on a metal

surface, it emits electrons that move with the kinetic energy of 2.02x10-19 J, what is
the frequency of the radiation below which emission of electrons will not occur
Take h=6.63x10-34Js

(a) 6.2x10 15 Hz (b)3.26No 12 Hz (c) 2.6x1014 Hz (d) 3.50x10 14 Hz

208 Energy and momentum are properties of a particle when it behaves as

(a) Light
(b) Particle
(c) Wave
(d) Momentum
209 Wavelength and frequency are properties of a particle when it behaves as:
(a) An energy
(b) A light
(c) A wave
(d) A momentum

210 A particle is said to have wave nature when it possesses

(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Momentum
(d) (a) and (b) are correct.

211 One of the following is NOT correct during the production of x-rays:
(a) Fast moving electrons are brought to rest by a metal target
(b) The electrons’ energy is in a direct relation with the frequency of the x-rays
Produced
(c) The electrons’ energy is inversely related to the frequency of the x-rays
Produced.
(d) On hitting the metal target, electrons lose some of their kinetic energy

212 What is the wave length of the x-rays produced when 25 kV potential is applied
between the cathode and anode of its tube 0.05nm where produced?{Planck’s
constant h = 6.6 x 10 -34 Js , X-ray velocity = 3 x 108 m/s , electron charge = 1.6 x
10 -19 C.}

(a) 16 nm (b) 0.05nm (c) 2.5 nm (d) 9.9 nm

213 In which of all these situations does an entity behaves like a particle?
(a) Compton effect and diffraction.
(b) Photoelectric effect and refraction.
(c) X-Ray production and interference.
(d) Not in all cases above

214 Which of the following is an inadequate use of ‘SOFT’ X-rays?

(a) To analyze the internal organ of thick metal machines
(b) Identification of alteration made on artistic paper works
(c) Mapping the external structures of human bone in his body
(d) Crystallographic study

215 Determine the uncertain time Δt within which application of a small force Δf
0.0012 N moved a small distance Δs of 5.5x10-19 m. (h=6.63x10 -34 Js)
(a) 2.3x10 -13s (b) 7.3 x10 -13s (c) 1.6x10-13s (d) 4.7x10-13s

216 The mass defect ∆m of a helium nuclide 42He is 0.0503 x 10-27 Kg. Find the mass
of the nucleus.
 (a) 4.7121 x 10-27 Kg (b) 5.7256 x 10-27 Kg
(c) 6.6447 x 10-27 Kg (d) 3.7123 x 10-27 Kg

217 The energy released when 23892U is converted into 23490Th is 4.3 MeV. If the
Masses are given as
238
92U = 238.0508u
234
90Th = 234.0436u
Calculate the mass in atomic mass unit of the emitted radiation.
(a) 4.0026u (b) 3.0134u (c) 5.0202u (d) 2.0401u

218 Uranium 23892U is converted to thorium 23490Th by α – decay . If the wavelength of

The gamma ray emitted in the process is 2.51 x 10-11m. Calculate the energy of the
Gamma ray.
(a) 0.0126 MeV
(b) 0.0276 MeV
(c) 0.03624 MeV
(d) 0.0496 MeV.

219 Suppose initially 3.0 x 107 radon atoms were trapped before radioactive decay and
1.1 x 10 5 radon atoms remain after 31 days . Calculate the half life of the nuclide.

(a) 4.73 days (b) 3.83 days (c) 2.54 days (d) 7.20 days.

220 The wavelength of the gamma-ray emitted by radium 22688Ra is 6.68 x 10-12m.
Obtain the energy released in the process.
(a) 0.186MeV (b) 0.204MeV (c) 0.300 MeV (d) 0.410 MeV

221 Isotopes are nuclei that contain the same number of

a. Neutrons but different number of protons.
b. Protons but different number of neutrons
c. Nucleons
d. Nucleons but different atomic number.

222 Atomic mass number is

a. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons
b. The square root of the number of proton
c. Twice the number of nucleons.
d. Half the number of nucleons.

223 Radioactivity is the

a. Splitting of the stable nucleus
b. Integration of unstable nucleus
c. Disintegration of unstable nucleus
d. Amalgamation of unstable nucleus.
224 Binding energy of a nucleus is the energy required to
a. Fuse the electron and proton together
b. Break the protons in a nucleus
c. Unite the proton and neutron
d. Separate the proton and neutron

225 Isotones are nuclei having the

a. Same number of electrons and different number of neutron
b. Same number of neutron but different atomic number
c. Same atomic number but different number of neutrons
d. Number of nucleons as twice that of electron

226 Isobars are nuclei having

a. Same total number of nucleons but different atomic number
b. Same atomic number but different number of nucleons
c. Different number of neutron but same number of electrons.
d. Same number of protons and electrons

227 Given that the nuclear radius of a nucleus is 2.22 x 10 -15m. Calculate the mass
Fermi constant is Ro =1.4 x 10-15 m.
a. 2.0
b. (b) 5.0
c. (c) 3.0
d. (d) 4.0

228 Using Einstein’s formula , compute the mass equivalence in kilogramme of

theEnergy 933.7 MeV.

(a) 1.66 x 10-27Kg

(b) 2.01 x 10-27Kg
(c) 0.265 x 10 -27Kg
(d) 3.201 x 10-27Kg .

229 A radioactive nuclei have a half life of 60 days. After how many days will the
Material reduce to a quarter of the original.

a. 100 days (b) 120 days (c) 136 days (d) 105 days.

230 The graphical representation of a radioactive material decay is

(a) Parabolic (b) Linear (c) Exponential (d) Circular.
231 The following electromagnetic waves are arranged in the order of increasing
wavelength.

(a) γ-rays, Radio waves, micro-wave, x-rays

(b) γ-rays, x-rays , micro-wave, Radio waves
(c) Radio waves, Micro-wave, γ-rays, x-rays
(d) Micro-wave, Radio wave, x-rays, γ-rays

232 One of the following is not true of electromagnetic waves.

(a) It exhibits interference and diffraction

(b) it travels in straight line in vacuum
(c) It is unaffected by electric and magnetic field.
(d) it is a longitudinal wave

233 One of these is useful in communication and produced by electrical oscillation

(a) Visible radiation (b) X-rays (c) Radio waves (d) Micro-wave

234 One of this is true of gamma-rays

(a) It is positively charged

(b) it is uncharged
(c) It is negatively charged
(d) It has changing charge

235. A system in which the fissionable and non fissionable materials are arranged so
that the fission chain reaction can proceed in a controlled manner is called.

(a) Nuclear bomb

(b) Magnetron
(c) Geiger tube
(d) Nuclear reactor
111
236. A radioactive Isotope 50X will decay by β-emission to give one of the
following

(a) 11151Y (b) 11051Y (c) 112

50Y (d) 110
50Y

237. Two properties of fission that make it a very important process for practical
application are

(a) Electron and energy are released

(b) Neutron and Energy are released
(c) Alpha particle only is released
 (d) Gamma rays and neutrino are released.

238 A reaction where very high temperature about 108 to 109 Kelvin is needed to
overcome Initial electrostatic repulsion force to occur is called.

(a) Fission (b) Adiabatic (c) Fusion (d) Catalytic

239 The mass of a 2010Ne nucleus is 19.992amu. Calculate the nuclear binding energy
and hence the nuclear binding energy per nucleon of 2010Ne

(a) 2.63 x 10-19Mev (b) 1.56 x 10 -16Mev

(c) 1.61 x 106 Mev (d) 37406.15z Mev

241 The mass of a randon 222 nucleus is 221.97023amu. It decays by α-emission to

form 21884Po. The mass of a 21884Po nucleus is 217.96273amu. Estimate the
kinetic energy of the α-particle if its mass is 4.00260amu.

(a) 3782.988 Mev (b) 4.564 Mev

(c) 3728.4 Mev (d) 456.4 Mev

241 An oil drop of mass 2 x 10 -4kg between two parallel plates in a Milikan oil-drop
experiment is balanced by an electric field of 550 N/c. What are the sign and the
magnitude of the charge and the electric field direction respectively?

(a) +ve, 3.36 x 10-6downward (b) +ve, 3.56 x 10-6 upward

(c) +ve, 2.56 x 10-6 upward (d) -ve, 3.56 x 10-6 downward

242. Which of the following is not a property of γ-ray

(a) Highly penetrating (b) Deflected by both electric and magnetic field
(c) Carry no charge (d) Ionizes gases strongly

243. Which of the following are accelerators of particles

(a) Cyclotron, Oscilloscope, Betatrons

(b) Cyclotron, Betatrons, Synchrotrons
(c) Reactor, Betatron, Cyclotron
(d) Reactor, Cyclotron, Oscilloscope

244. An oblique elastic collision between an α-particle and stationary helium atom was
observed in a cloud chamber which one of the following diagrams illustrates
correctly the tracks.
α α α

(a) (b)
(c)
α

(d)
245 Which of the following is true of the masses of radioactive emission

(i) α-particle is four times mass of hydrogen atom

1
(ii) β-particle is of the mass of hydrogen atom
1850
(iii) γ-ray has no mass

(a) i and ii only (b) i and iii only (c) ii only (d) All of the above

246 A 10g material has a half life of 12 seconds. After what time would the material
be zero gramme

(a) 60s (b) 100s (c) Infinity (d) 200s

24
247. What is the product of radioactivity decay constant and half-life of Na

(a) 0.783 (b) 0.693 (c) 0.796 (d) 1.123

248 One of these is produced when a product nucleus is left in an excided state.

(a) γ-ray (b) α-particle (c) x-rays (d) β-particle

249 One of these can be used to distinguish the different types of radiation.

(a) Half life (b) Specific charge (c) Radio active nuclide
(d) Radioactive dating

250. γ-rays differ from x-rays in having

(a) Longer wavelength (b) Shorter frequency

(c) Shorter wavelength (d) Shorter period

251 11 grams of 13C decays with a half life of 1 day by emitting radioactive particles.
What is the decay constant.
(a) 9.63 x 10-6s-1 (b) 8.02 x 10-6s-1 (c) 0.693 s-1 (d) 1.93 x 10 -4s-1

252 11 grams of 13C decays with a half life of 1 day by emitting radioactive particles.
What mass of the original sample will be left after 72hrs.

(a) 5.500g (b) 1.375g (c) 4.215g (g) 3.502g

253 A nuclide 21081X decays to the nuclide A82Y in 4 successive radioactive decays.
Each decay involves the emission of either an α-particle or a β-particle . What is
 value of A.
(a) 206 (b) 210 (c) 215 (d) 82

254. What is the kinetic energy of an alpha particle whose theoretical distance of
closest approach from a nucleus of atomic number 80 is 0.04mm.
(a) 0.0058 eV (b) 9.21 6eV (c) 1.04 eV (d) 2.56 eV

255. Which of the following radioactive processes results in an increase in proton

number with a corresponding decrease in the neutron number.
(a) α-decay (b) β-decay (c) γ-decay (d) proton decay

256 In the Milikan’s oil drop experiment, charged oil droplets were produced in the
atomizer by one of the following effects.
(a) Photoelectric effect (b) Thermionic effect
(c) Frictional effect (d) Excitation effect

257 The process in which a few ions initially created by the ionizing particle in a
Gerger Muller (GM) tube results in an avalanche of ions is known as
(a) Quenching process (b) Gas multiplication process
(c) Gas amplification process (d) Avalanche process

258 An unstable isotope of cobalt 60Co has one more electron in its nucleus than
the stable 59Co and is a beta emitter with a half – life of 5.3 hours. A certain
radiation source in a hospital contains 0.01g of 60Co. How many decay occur
per second.
(a) 1.22 x 10-7 g/s (b) 1.3 x 105 g/s (c) 3.63 x 10 -7 g/s (d) 4.12 x 10-6 g/s.

259 A device designed to produce a chain reaction that builds up at an explosive

explosive rate is called
(a) Atomic bomb (b) Nuclear reactor
(c) Particle accelerator (d) Radiation generator

260 The major use of Visible radiation in nature is in

(a) Photoelectric effect (b) Photosynthetic effect
(c) Compton effect (d) Photographic effect

261. The kinetic energy of 0.01 MeV needed to start a fusion reaction corresponds
to gas temperature of 80 x 106 K. Reactions that require such extremely high
temperature are called
(a) Thermonuclear reaction (b) Adiabatic reaction
(c) Explosive reaction (d) Endothermic reaction

262 When an unstable nucleus disintegrates spontaneously and produces alpha,

Beta and gamma rays. The process obeys the laws of
(a) Conservation of Energy , Momentum and Nucleon number
 (b) Gravity and Repulsion of particles
(c) Conservation Coulomb force
(d) Electromagnetic Induction.

263. An atom of 23290Th requires six alpha decay and four beta decay before it
can achieve stability. What are the atomic number and mass number of
the final isotope.
(a) 69, 201 (b) 82, 208 (c) 70, 119 (d) 72,309

264 In nuclear particle reaction where the same incident particle or the same
kind of incident particle is expelled from the target nucleus is called
(a) Transmutation process (b) Scattering process
(b) Transformation process (d) Changing Process

265 The process whereby a low energy neutron or proton may be captured by a
nucleus which thereby is transformed into residual nucleus in a highly
excited state is called
(a) Radiative capture (b) Absorption capture
(c) Incident capture (d) Frictional capture

266 The process whereby the target nucleus is bombardment by electromagnetic

radiation with the liberation of one or more particles is called
(a) Spontaneous disintegration (b) Forced disintegration
(c) Quantum disintegration (d) Photo disintegration

267 Calculate the amount of energy released when 27X (Z = 13) is formed from
its constituents. If the masses of the constituents are Me = 0.000549U,
Mp = 1.007276U, Mn = 1.008665U. Atomic mass unit of 27X = 27.001035.
(a) 301.2 MeV (b) 200.03 MeV (c) 512.45 MeV (d) 206.62 MeV.

268. Radiation damage to human body does not depend on

(a) Exposure rate (b) Absorbed dose
(c) Temperature of the body (d) Part of the body exposed

269. The rate at which Radium 226 disintegrates into Radon 222 gas with beta
decay was found to be 2935 at 390C. At what rate would the same radium
disintegrate at 500C.
(a) 2289.3 (b) 3762.8 (c) 2935 (d) 4002

270 Uranium 238 decays according to the reaction :

238 234 4
92U -------------- 90Th + 2He + Energy
238.055077U 234.04358U 4.00260U
The masses of 23892U and 23490Th atoms and the alpha particle are as shown
If all the energy appears in the form of kinetic energy of the alpha particle
What is the energy in MeV.
 (a) 3723.4 MeV
(b) 3732.7 MeV
(c) 3728.4 MeV
(d) 3755.9 MeV

271 Calculate the minimum wavelength of x-rays emitted when electrons

were accelerated through 30KV strike a target.
(a) 0.064 nm (b) 0.041nm (c) 0.025nm (d) 0.012nm

272 A beam of X-rays of wavelength 0.3nm is incident on a crystal and gives a

first-order maximum when the glancing angle is 9.0 degrees.
Find the atomic spacing.
(a) 0.96 nm (b) 0.66 nm (c) 0.24 nm (d) 0.77 nm

273 A sample of material is found to contain 2g of the isotope 199Au. How much
of this isotope will remain 10 days later. If the half life of 199Au is 3.15 days.
(a) 0.10 g (b) 0.35 g (c) 0.22 g (d) 0.75 g.

274 Which of the following is/are true

(i) Alpha particles consist of charged helium nuclei
(ii) Beta particle consist of stream of electrons
(iii) Gamma ray consist of negatively charged particles
(a) iii only (b) i , ii and iii (c) i and ii only (d) i only.

275 One of these is not true

A A-4 4
(i) ZX = Z-2Y + 2He

A A 0
(ii) ZX = Z+1Y + -1e

A A 0
(iii) ZX = Z-1Y + 0γ

(a) i only (b) i and ii (c) iii only (d) i and iii only.

276. Calculate the radius of a drop of oil, density 900kg/m3, which falls with a terminal
velocity of 2.9 x 10 -4m/s through air of viscosity 1.8 x 10-5Nsm-2. Ignore the
density of the air. If the charge on the drop is -3e, what p.d must be applied
between two plates 5mm apart?
(a) 1576V
(b) 394V
(c) 313.3V
(d) 157.6V

277. Electrons are accelerated from rest by a p.d of 100V. What is their final velocity?
 (a) 5 x 106m/s
(b) 6 x 10 6 m/s
(c) 7 x 106m/s
(d) 8 x 10 6m/s

278. Electron beam having velocity 6 x 106m/s enters normally a uniform electric field
of intensity 105V/m. Calculate the flux density B of a uniform magnetic field
applied perpendicular to the electric field if the path of the beam remains
unchanged.
(a) 3.5 x 10-2T
(b) 3.2 x 10 -2T
(c) 2.0 x 10-2T
(d) 1.7 x 10 -2T

279. If an electron described a complete revolution in a magnetic field how much

energy would it acquire?
(a) 3J
(b) 2J
(c) 1J
(d) 0J

280. Taking electronic charge to be -1.6 x 10 -19C, calculate the potential difference
necessary to be maintained between two horizontal conducting plates, one 5mm
above the other, so that a small oil drop, of mass 1.31 x 10 -14kg with two electrons
attached to it, remains in equilibrium between them.
(a) 500.5V
(b) 2006V
(c) 2500V
(d) 3000V

281. In the ionosphere, electrons execute 1.4 x 10 6revolutions in a second. Find the
strength of the magnetic flux density B in this region.
(a) 0.5 x 10-4T
(b) 1.0 x 10 -4T
(c) 1.5 x 10-4T
(d) 2.0 x 10 -4T

282. An experiment to determine the ratio of the charge to mass (e/m) for electron is the
(a) Rutherforrd’s
(b) Bohr’s
(c) Milikan’s
(d) Bragg’s

283. An electron of charge –e and mass m is initially projected with speed v at right angles
to a uniform field of flux density B. What is the path traced by the electron?
 (a) Trajectory
(b) Parabolic
(c) Sphere
(d) Circle

284 An electron of charge –e and mass m is initially projected with speed v at right angles
to a uniform field of flux density B. Derive an expression for the radius of the circle.
(a) mv 2/B
(b) mv2/Be
(c) Be/m
(d) BeV

285 Protons with a charge-mass ratio of 1.0 x 108C/kg are rotated in a circular orbit of
radius r when they enter a uniform magnetic field of 0.5T. Calculate the number of
revolutions per second.
(a) 8 x 106 rev/sec
(b) 4 x 10 6 rev/sec
(c) 1.6 x 106 rev/sec
(d) 16 x 106rev/sec

286. A stationary oil drop between two parallel plates X and Y has a charge of 3.2 x 10-
19
C and a weight of 1.6 x 10-14N. The potential difference, V between the plates in V
is
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1500

287. The rate of decay of atoms in a radioactive sample is proportional to

(a) The half life period
(b) The number of undecayed atoms
(c) The number of decayed atoms
(d) The atomic number of the atom

288. A beam of electrons initially straight is deflected in a circular arc by a uniform

magnetic field B which is everywhere perpendicular to the beam.
1. No energy is gained by the electrons when the field is applied
2. The momentum of the electron is proportional to the radius of the circular arc
3. If the field is increased sufficiently the path of the beam may become parabolic
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 only are correct
(c) 2 and 3 only are correct
(d) 1 only is correct
289. A beam of electrons, each moving with a momentum U, enters a uniform magnetic
field of flux density B, perpendicular to its motion. The charge on an electron is e
and mass m.
1. The energy gained is U2/2m
2. The centripetal force on an electron is Bem/U
3. The radius of the electron path is U/Be
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1and 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

290. Electrons with energy 5eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The
maximum energy of the emitted photoelectron is 2eV. When electrons of energy
6eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons reach the anode A if the stopping potential
of A relative to C is
(a) +9v
(b) +3v
(c) -3V
(d) -2V

291. What are the chief characteristics of a line spectrum?

(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Velocity
(d) Material

292 Which of the following describe what takes place in a discharge tube after a small
amount of electrons have been emitted from the cathode?
(a) Ionization by collision
(b) Excitation by collision
(c) Photo-electricity
(d) Thermionic emission

293 An electron of energy 20eV comes into collision with a hydrogen atom in its ground
state. The atom is excited into a state of higher internal energy and the electron is
scattered with reduced velocity. If the atom returns to its ground state with
emission of a photon of wavelength 1.216 x 10-7m, what is the velocity of the
scattered electron?
(a) 3 x 10 6m/s
(b) 2.5 x106m/s
(c) 1.86 x 106m/s
(d) 1.96 x 106m/s
294. The difference between excitation by collision and ionization by collision is
(a) Excitation is different from ionization
(b) Excitation only increases the energy while ionization frees the electrons
(c) Ionization only increases the speed while excitation increases the
energy
(d) None

295. Calculate the energy in eV of a quantum of X-ray of wavelength 0.15nm.

(a) 8125eV
(b) 4125eV
(c) 3125eV
(d) 5125eV

296. An X-ray tube is operated with an anode potential of 10KV and anode current of
15.0mA. Estimate the number of electrons hitting the anode per second.
(a) 8.02 x 10 10 16
(b) 9.375 x 1016
(c) 10.0 x 1016
(d) 10.2 x 1016

297. Which of the following is evidence that x-ray are electromagnetic radiations?
(a) Frequency
(b) Wavelength
(c) Velocity
(d) Energy

298. In the modern x-ray tube

(a) Electrons are produced at high voltages
(b) Electrons are produced at low voltages
(c) Electrons are accelerated at low voltage
(d) Electrons are excited

299. Find the range in wavelength (in vacuum) for visible light in the frequency range
between 4.0 x 1014Hz and 7.9 x 10 14Hz. Express the answers in nanometers.

(a) 250nm, 300nm

(b) 350nm, 450nm
(c) 750nm, 380nm
(d) 450nm,350nm
300. The mean distance from the sun to the earth is about 1.5 x 1011m. How long (in
minutes) does it take for sunlight to reach the earth?
(a) 8.3min
(b) 8.5min
(c) 9.0min
(d) 10.0min

301. Some x-rays produced in an X-ray tube machine have a wavelength of 2.1nm. What
is the frequency of these electromagnetic waves?
(a) 1.8 x1019Hz
(b) 2.2 x 10 19Hz
(c) 3.0 x1019Hz
(d) 3.4 x1019Hz

302. A radio station broadcast a radio wave whose wavelength is 274m. What is the
frequency of the wave?
(a) 10Hz
(b) 8Hz
(c) 2.1Hz
(d) 1.1Hz

303 Obtain the wavelength in vacuum for blue light with frequency of 6.34 x 10 14Hz
and for orange light with a frequency 4.95 x 1014Hz. Express your answers in
nanometer.
(a) 374nm, 506nm
(b) 473nm, 606nm
(c) 574nm, 645nm
(d) 645nm, 875nm

304 The maximum value of the electric field in an electromagnetic wave is 174N/C.
The wave passes perpendicularly through a surface of area 0.35m2. How much
energy does this wave carry across the surface in one minute?
(a) 6.04 x 102J
(b) 8.00 x 10 2J
(c) 8.44 x 102J
(d) 9.20 x 10 2J

305 An argon-ion laser produces a cylindrical beam of light whose diameter is

2.00mm. The average power produced by the laser is 0.75W. Determine the value
of the electric field in the laser light.
(a) 1.3 x 104N/C
(b) 1.5 x104N/C
 (c) 2.0 x 10 4N/C
(d) 2.2 X104N/C

306 An argon-ion laser produces a cylindrical beam of light whose diameter is

2.00mm. The average power produced by the laser is 0.75W. How much energy is
contained in a 2.5m length of the beam?
(a) 3.6 x 10-9J
(b) 4.0 x 10 -9J
(c) 4.5 x 10-9J
(d) 6.2 x 10 -9J

307 Use the Bohr model to estimate the wavelength of the Kα lin in the x-ray spectrum
of platinum.
(a) 1.2 x 10-11m
(b) 2.0 x 10 -11m
(c) 3.0 x 10-11m
(d) 3.2 x 10 -11m

308 The nucleus of hydrogen atom has a radius of about 1 x 10-15m. The electron is
normally at a distance of about 5.3 x 10-11m from the nucleus. If the radius of
hydrogen atom is 5.3 x 10-11m find the volume of the atom.
(a) 1.69 x 10-11m
(b) 1.96 x 10-11m
(c) 6.20 x 10-31m
(d) 6.60 x 10-32m

309 Using the Bohr model, compare the nth orbit of a triply ionized beryllium atom
Be3+ (Z = 4) to the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom (H) by calculating the ratio
(Be3+/H) of the energy.
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 20

310 Using the Bohr model, compare the nth orbit of a triply ionized beryllium atom
Be3+ (Z = 4) to the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom (H) by calculating the ratio
(Be3+/H) of the radii.
(a) ¼
(b) ½
(c) 1
(d) 2

311 Using the Bohr model, compare the nth orbit of a triply ionized beryllium atom
Be3+ (Z = 4) to the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom (H) by calculating the ratio
(Be3+/H) of the angular momentum.
(a) 3
 (b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
312 If the line with the longest wavelength in the Balmer’s series for atomic hydrogen
is counted as the first line, what is the wavelength of the third line?
(a) 243.9nm
(b) 234.9nm
(c) 343.7nm
(d) 434.1nm

313 In the line spectrum of atomic hydrogen there is also a group of lines known as the
Plund series. These lines are produced when electrons, excited to high energy
levels, make transition to the n = 5 level. Determine the longest wavelength in the
series.
(a) 6547nm
(b) 7457nm
(c) 8745nm
(d) 7845nm

314 In the line spectrum of atomic hydrogen there is also a group of lines known as the
Plund series. These lines are produced when electrons, excited to high energy
levels, make transition to the n = 5 level. What is the shortest wavelength in the
series?
(a) 2279nm
(b) 4587nm
(c) 7457nm
(d) 7845nm

315. In the line spectrum of atomic hydrogen there is also a group of lines known as the
Plund series. These lines are produced when electrons, excited to high energy
levels, make transition to the n = 5 level. In which of the electromagnetic spectrum
do the shortest and the longest wavelengths belong?
(a) Radio
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) Visible
(d) infrared

316. Derive an expression for the velocity of the electron in the nth Bohr orbit in term
of Z, n and the constants K, e and h.
(a) v n = Ke2Z/hn
(b) vn = 2πe2Z/hnK
(c) v n = 2πKe2Z/hn
(d) vn = 2πKZ/hne

317 Determine the the velocity in the n =1 orbit for the hydrogen atom.
(a) 3.56 x 106m/s
 (b) 3.45 x 106m/s
(c) 3.22 x 106m/s
(d) 2.18 x 106m/s

318. Determine the velocity in the n = 2 orbit for the hydrogen atom.
(a) 1.09 x 106m/s
(b) 2.00 x 10 6 m/s
(c) 3.02 x 106m/s
(d) 3.05 x 10 6m/s

319. Suppose an X-ray machine in a doctor’s office uses a potential difference of 61KV
to operate the X-ray tube. What is shortest X-ray wavelength emitted by the
machine?
(a) 1.0 x 10-11m
(b) 2.0 x 10 -11m
(c) 3.0 x 10-11m
(d) 4.0 x 10 -11m

320. Molybdenum has an atomic number of Z = 42. Using the Bohr model, estimate the
wavelength of the Kα X-ray.
(a) 6.450 x 10 -11m
(b) 7.230 x 10-11m
(c) 7.650 x 10 -11m
(d) 8.000 x 10-11m

321 A laser is used in eye surgery to weld a detached retina back into place. The
wavelength of the laser beam is 154nm, while the power is 2.0W. During the
surgery, the laser beam is turned on for 0.01s. How many photons are emitted by
the laser during this time?
(a) 4.5 x 1017
(b) 4.5 x 10 19
(c) 5.2 x 1017
(d) 5.2 x 10 19

322 A carbon laser produces a wavelength of 1.06 x 10-5m. A semiconductor laser

produces a wavelength of 7.90 x 10-7m. Which laser produces the more energetic
photons?
(a) The carbon laser
(b) The semiconductor laser
(c) They produced equally energetic photons
(d) None of the above

323 A carbon laser produces a wavelength of 1.06 x 10-5m. A semiconductor laser

produces a wavelength of 7.90 x 10-7m. By what factor is the photon produced by
the more energetic laser more energetic?
 (a) 4.56
(b) 8.06
(c) 10.0
(d) 13.4

324. What is the minimum potential difference that must be applied to an x-ray tube to
knock a K-shell electron completely out of an atom in copper (Z = 29) target? Use
the Bohr model as needed.
(a) 700V
(b) 650V
(c) 600V
(d) 550V

325 In the line spectrum emitted by doubly ionized Lithium atom Li2+ (Z = 3), the
shortest wavelength in one series of lines is 162.1nm. This line is produced when
an electron makes a transition from an initial level to a final energy level whose
principal quantum number is n f. What is the value of nf?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

326 A beam of gamma rays passes though 4.0 x 10 -3kg of dry air and generates
1.7 x 10 12 singly charged ions. What is the exposure (in Roentgens)?
(a) 0.71
(b) 0.62
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.26

327 What absorbed dose of alpha particles (RBE = 20) causes as much biological
damage as a 60-rad dose of protons (RBE = 10)?
(a) 20-rad
(b) 30-rad
(c) 35-rad
(d) 40-rad

328 What is the nucleon number A in the reaction 27Al13 (α, n) AP15?
(a) 30
(b) 27
(c) 28
(d) 31

329 During a nuclear reaction, an unknown particle is absorbed by a copper 63Cu29

nucleus, and the reaction products are 63Cu29, a neutron and a proton. What is the
name of the compound nucleus?
(a) Silicon
 (b) Lead
(c) Zinc
(d) Sodium

330 During a nuclear reaction, an unknown particle is absorbed by a copper 63Cu29

nucleus, and the reaction products are 63Cu29, a neutron and a proton. What is the
atomic number of the compound nucleus?
(a) 126
(b) 63
(c) 24
(d) 30

331 During a nuclear reaction, an unknown particle is absorbed by a copper 63Cu29

nucleus, and the reaction products are 63Cu29, a neutron and a proton. What is the
nucleon number of the compound nucleus?
(a) 62
(b) 64
(c) 65
(d) 66

332. When 1kg of coal is burned, about 3 x 107J of energy is released. If the energy
released per 235U92 fission is 200MeV, how many kilogram of coal must be burned
to produce the same energy as 1kg of 235U92?
(a) 3.0 x 106kg
(b) 3.5 x 10 6kg
(c) 4.0 x 106kg
(d) 4.5 x 10 6kg

333 In one type of fusion reaction a proton fuses with a neutron to form a deuterium
nucleus 1H1 + 1n0 2
H1. The masses are 1H1 (1.0087 u), 1n 0 (1.0087 u), and 2H1
(2.0141 u). How much energy in MeV is released by this reaction?
(a) 1.5 MeV
(b) 2.0MeV
(c) 2.2 MeV
(d) 3.3 MeV

334 During an X-ray examination, a person is exposed to radiation at a rate of 110

milligrays per hour. The exposure time is 0.10s, and the mass of the exposed tissue
is 1.2kg. Determine the energy absorbed.
(a) 2.8 x 10-6J
(b) 2.6 x 10 -6J
(c) 3.6 x 10-6J
(d) 3.7 x 10 -6J
335. Within the core of a nuclear reactor there are 3 x 1019 nuclei fissioning each second.
The energy released by each fission is about 200MeV. Determine the power (in Watts)
being generated.
(a) 1.0 x 109W
(b) 2.5 x 10 9W
(c) 3.0 x 109W
(d) 4.0 x 10 9W
Answer
1 C
2 B
3 C
4 B
5 B
6 A
7 D
8 D
9 B
10 D
11 A
12 C
13 B
14 B
15 C
16 A
17 C
18 B
19 A
20 D
21 C
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 B
26 B
27 D
28. C
29 D
30 A
31 A
32 D
33 B
34 B
35 C
36 B
37 D
38 B
39 A
40 A
41 C
42 C
43 A
44 D
45 C
46 B

47 B
48 A
49 D
50 B
51 C
52 C
53 A
54 C
55 D
56 A
57 B
58 D
59 A
60 A
61 B
62 C
63 D
64 C
65 A
66 A
67 A
68 D
69 C
70 B
71 A
72 C
73 A
74 C
75 B
76 A
77 A
78 D
79 C
80 A
81 A
82 C
83 A
84 C
85 A
86 C
87 A
88 B
89 D
90 B
91 A
92 C
93 B
94 A
95 D
96 B
97 D
98 A
99 B
100 A
101 D
102 B
103 A
104 C
105 C
106 D
107 D
108 B
109 D
110 C
111 B
112 A
113 A
114 C
115 C
116 C
117 B
118 A
119 B
120 D
121 A
122 D
123 C
124 B
125 A
126 A
127 B
128 D
129 C
130 C
131 D
132 A
133 A
134 B
135 C
136 C
137 C
138 D
139 D
140 B
141 C
142 A
143 D
144 D
145 C
146 C
147 A
148 C
149 D
150 C
151 A
152 A
153 A
154 D
155 C
156 D
157 C
158 B
159 C
160 A
161 C
162 C
163 B
164 C
165 C
166 C
167 A
168 C
169 B
170 D
171 C
172 D
173 A
174 C
175 B
176 D
177 C
178 C
179 A
180 B
181 D
182 B
183 B
184 B
185 C
186 C
187 B
188 D
189 C
190 D
191 A
192 C
193 C
194 B
195 A
196 C

197 C
198 B
199 D
200 A
201 C
202 B
203 D
204 A
205 C
206 B
207 D
208 B
209 C
210 D
211 C
212 B
213 D
214 A
215 C
216 C
217 A
218 D
219 B
220 A
221 B
222 A
223 C
224 D
225 B
226 A
227 D
228 A
229 B
230 C
231 B
232 D
233 C
234 B
235 D
236 A
237 B
238 C
239 C
240 D
241 D
242 B
243 B
244 C
245 D
246 C
247 B
248 C
249 A
250 C
251 B
252 B
253 A
254 A
255 B
256 C
257 C
258 D
259 A
260 B
261 A
262 A
263 B
264 B
265 A
266 D
267 C
268 C
269 C
270 A
271 B
272 A
273 C
274 C
275 C
276 A
277 B
278 D
279 D
280 B
281 A
282 C
283 D
284 B
285 A
286 A
287 B
288 B
289 D
290 C
291 A
292 A
293 C
294 B
295 A
296 B
297 C
298 B
299 C
300 A
301 A
302 D
303 B
304 C
305 A
306 D
307 B
308 C
309 B
310 A
311 C
312 D
313 B
314 A
315 D
316 C
317 D
318 A
319 B
320 B
321 C
322 B
323 D
324 A
325 D
326 D
327 B
328 A
329 C
330 D
331 B
332 A
333 C
334 D
335 A