AILET MOCK TEST – 4 Question paper (18.04.

2020)
Section - A - English [35 X 1 = 35 Marks]

Directors (1-15): You have been given a passage below. Some of the words in the passage
have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering the questions. You are
required to go through the passage and try to comprehend what it deals about and then
answer the questions.

In justifying its decision to withdraw Wendy Doninger’s book,’ The Hindus: An Alternative
History’. Penguin apportioned blame to the Indian Penal Code, in particular Section 295A, which
it claimed makes “it increasingly difficult for any Indian publisher to uphold international standards
of free expression without deliberately placing itself outside the law. “Section 295A makes
punishable with imprisonment any speech which maliciously insults or attempts to insult religion
or the religious beliefs of any class of people. Whether Penguin could have offered more
impedance to the threat is a question which will continue to be hotly debated, but the role that
Section 295A played in causing a perceivedhazard of imminent prosecution motivating Penguin’s
decision cannot be denied. As section 295A continues to be invoked for every cold and catarrh, it
chills free speech by obliging people to self-censor out of the fear of prosecution.

In a legal system such as ours, the fear of criminal prosecution – often in a remote court in a far-
flung corner of the country – is sanction enough. Even the confidence of being vindicated at the
end of a trial does in no way change that. It is in the nature of self-censorship to spread itself out
in an area much wider than that strictly targeted by the censoring penal provision. The reason for
this is straightforward. When a person deliberating on publishing her view – which is likely to
cause offence – on a matter, pits the potential benefits of its publication against its hazards, the
felicific calculus would overwhelmingly tilt on the side of self-censorship; and dictate erring on the
side of safety. The lop-sidednessof the calculus will be more starkly evident when it comes down
to choices over retaining discrete ideas or severable portions of text in a manuscript. See the text
not as an abstract whole but as an aggregation of ideas and the tyranny of this cost-benefit
calculus would stand out. An offending line or paragraph might be seen as just not worth the
hassle of a prosecution.

Self-censorship may seem the only prudent option. The temptation to choose silence – especially
when it comes down to severable ideas and text – is just too great to be trumped by anything
short of heroic adherence to principle. Introducing the publisher into the mix adds another wrinkle
to the problem: collateral censorship. The incentives of the publisher are not the same as that of
the author. Even if the author heroically resists self-censorship and hands over the manuscript in
its entirety to the publisher, the publisher must now put it through its own felicific calculus. Here,
nothing short of commercially blind altruism is likely to trump the calculus when it comes to
assessing text that is even remotely offensive. Such collateral censorship is likely to spread itself
out even wider than self-censorship.

We have on our statute books multiple provisions criminalising free speech that demand such
heroism from authors and publishers. On this occasion let us train our focus on just one, namely,
Section 295A and examine whether it merits retention in the statute books, in its present form.
Section 295A was absent from the Indian Penal Code of 1860 in its original form. It was added
much later in 1927. The series of events leading to the enactment of the provision began in 1924
with the publication of a pamphlet RangilaRasula, arthat araba
keapaigambarakaekasiksapradaitihasabyMahashe Rajpal criticising the personal life of Prophet
Mohamed. Rajpal claimed to do it out of a spirit of public reform. Rajpal was charged under
Section153A with intentionally promoting or attempting to promote feelings of enmity or hatred
between “his majesty’s subjects.” He pleaded not guilty. Reversing the trial court’s conviction, the
Lahore High Court in Rajpal vs. KingEmperor (1927) held that although the pamphlet was indeed
a “scurrilous” satire on the founder of the Muslim religion” he did not find that it was meant “to
attack the Mahomedan religion as such or to hold Mahomedans as objects worthy of enmity or
hatred.” The court added that Section 153A “was intended to prevent persons from making
attacks on a particular community as it exists at the present time and was not meant to stop
polemics against deceased religious leaders however scurrilous and in bad taste such attacks
might be. “Placing a wider interpretation on the section, the court feared, would lead to a
“historical work in which the life of the prophet was considered, and judgement passed on his
character by a serious historian” coming within the ambit of the penal provision. The judgement
led to a feeling of resentment among the Muslims and there were fears that the already
surcharged communal atmosphere of North India could get out of hand. Wanting to diffuse
tensions, the British Governor of Punjab, Sir Malcolm Halley assured the Muslim community that
an amendment to the penal code would be considered, failing which he acknowledged the real
possibility of “endless trouble.” It was under these circumstances that the draft Section 295A
made its way into the National Assembly.

1. As mentioned in the passage, a noted publisher Penguin has withdrawn the book “The Hindus:
An Alternative History”. Who is the writer of the book?

a. Wendy Doninger

b. John Dawar

c. Mendy Kishinger

d. John Mcnery

2. Which section of Indian Penal code makes punishable with imprisonment any
speech which maliciously insults or attempt to insult religion?

a. 259 A

b. 295 A

c. 153 A

d. None of these

3. Section 295 A was absent from the Indian Penal Code of 1860 in its original form. It
was added much later in
a. 1927

b. 1928

c. 1929

d. 1930

4. What was the title of pamphlet composed by Mahashe Rajpal in 1924 that was
one of the series of events leading to the enactment of section 295 A?

a. RangilaRam

b. Recreating Rasula

c. RangilaRasula

d. Rangila Christ

5. Which court in Rajpal vs King Emperor case held that Rajpal did not mean to attack
the Mahomedan religion as such?

a. Lahore High Court

b. Calcutta High Court

c. Allahabad High Court

d. Bombay High Court

6. The central theme of this passage is about

a. the ill-effects of self and collateral censorship.

b. illegality of withdrawing Wendy Doninger’s book by Penguin.

c. the tyranny of having to calculate the revenue aspect in the publication business.

d. the need to review the justification to retain section 295A IPC.

7. By saying “...the role that Section 295A played in causing a perceived hazard of
imminent prosecution motivating Penguin’s decision cannot be denied”, the author
means

a. section 295A was fully responsible for the withdrawal of Wendy Doninger’s book
by Penguin.

b. section 295A was only a remote threat to Penguin and they should not have
withdrawn the book.

c. the threat of prosecution Penguin saw in section 295A was largely responsible for
their decision to hold back the book.

d. in spite of the threat of prosecution through section 295A Penguin should have
marketed the book.

8. We have on our statute books multiple provisions criminalising free speech that
demand such heroism from authors and publishers.” By “such heroism”, the author
means

a. The readiness of the authors and publishers to go to court to assert their freedom
of expression.

b. the authors’ willingness to combat temptation to self-censor, publishers’ boldness

to choose books on the basis of the right to freedom of expression alone.

c. the combined strength of authors and publishers in fighting section 295A.

d. a sarcastic reference to their inability to fight laws due to which they do self and
collateral censorship.

9. It was under these circumstances that the draft Section 295A made its way into
the National Assembly.” By this the author implies

[1] The circumstances under which section 295A was included were not strong
enough to merit it.

[2] The reasons for inclusion were communal, not based on sound policy.
[3] It went against the wider interpretation of law and the right of historians to have
their say without fear of persecution.

[4] The decision by the British governor of Punjab amounts to admission of his
inability to tackle a law and order situation.

a. 1

b. 2 &3

c. 1, 2 & 3

d. All of the above

10. In the passage above, which of these is NOT implied by the author?

a. Fear of prosecution under section 295A made Penguin withdraw the book.

b. Penguin should have resisted the threat posed by the law and not given in so
easily.

c. People fear going to courts even when they believe they will win their case.

d. The author and the publisher are at fault when they publish “malicious” opinions.

11. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Outside the law”

a. outside a police station

b. Out-of-court settlement

c. punishable offence

d. not in rule books

12. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Scurrilous”

a. Remarkable

b. Indolent

c. Disparaging

d. Dangerous

13. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Trump the calculus”

a. Solve all problems

b. defeat all calculations

c. show your best card

d. cheat the enemy

14. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Get out of hand”

a. Give away

b. is snatched away

c. beyond control

d. with an iron hand

15. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Severable portions”

a. Many parts

b. serious problems

c. parts of the book

d. passages/sentences that can be deleted

Directions (16-20): In the following questions, out of the given four alternatives, select the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

16. Carry the can

a. To listen to something with considerable doubt

b. To be impatient

c. To be in touch

d. To take the responsibility of someone’s misdemeanor

17. Paper over the cracks

a. To take risk

b. To cause embarrassment

c. To hide problems

d. To be absent from duty without permission

18. Be a dab hand at something

a. Always speaking nonsense

b. Speaking with a fake intention

c. Ready to listen to other people’s conversation.

d. Skilled in a particular area

19. Get cracking

a. To delay little longer

b. To destroy at the end

c. To waste time in waiting

d. To start doing something

20. A hair’s breadth

a. Telling about the smallest possible amount or degree of something

b. Irresponsible pleasure seeking in an old age

c. Praising someone’s abilities and achievements

d. Looking for something which is not clearly visible.

Directions (21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or
idiomatic error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that
part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (d) (Ignore the errors of punctuation,
if any)

21. This is one company who not only (a)/sells its products but also (b)/gives good
after sales service. (c) No error (d)

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

22. Things will not improve [a]/unless you yourself (b)/look into it (c) No error (d)

a. a
b. b

c. c

d. d

23. Equal opportunities for advancement (a)/across the length and breadth of an
organisation (b)/will keep many problems away. (c) No error(d)

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

24. Motivating employees with traditional authority (a)/and financial incentives have
become (b)/increasingly difficult (c) No error (d)

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

25. Two people, the clerk(a)/and the typist helps me (b)/in my office (c) No error (d)

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d
Directions (26-30): Rearrange the parts of the passage/group of sentences in correct
order.

26. P. This discipline is characterized by several concepts and approaches that are
used by psychologists in understanding human behaviour.

Q. The field of psychology can be described as a discipline that focuses on the study
of mind and behaviour.

R. Some of the most common psychological concepts that are used to modify or
change an individual’s behaviour include operant conditioning, positive and negative
punishment, and positive and negative reinforcement.

S. Since psychology is a broad field, psychologists not only use these concepts and
approaches but also conduct scientific research that enables them to understand
human behaviour.

a. QPSR

b. PQRS

c. RSQP

d. SRPQ

27. P. The Mughal empire was extensive, but it was not integrated.

Q. It was rather an agglomeration of territories bound together by a common

administration and common ties to the imperial authority.

R. The strong hand of the emperor held the country together, compelling obedience
from the nobles who governed the provinces.

S. But these nobles felt no sense of national loyalty, for the simple reason that the
empire was not a nation.

a. PRQS

b. SRQP

c. PRSQ
d. RSQP

28. P: It is also when the community or religion is used to further the political
interests of the vested groups.

Q: But communal feelings start when one community thinks in a hostile manner
towards the other communities.

R: It is also being conscious of their own identities and doing something which
pursues its interests.

S: Communalism is not thinking about their own communities.

a. QPSR

b. QRSP

c. RSQP

d. SRQP

29. P: When one gets solved or nears the solution, other starts raising its ugly head.

Q: Threats to our nation building processes are increasing day by day.

R: Tougher punishments should be provided for them in order to weed them out
completely.

S: The need of the day is to go for integrated approach with taking steps to solve the
poverty, Illiteracy and population problems along with tough steps and stern action
against the terrorists.

a. QPSR

b. SRQP

c. RSQP

d. QRSP
30. P: The Information Technology today is rightly called the Technology of the
Century as it has found its application and use in every walk society of the world.

Q: Distances no longer exist and the world appears to have shrunk into Global
Village.

R: It is really a landmark achievement that more than six billion population of the
world will soon be living in a virtual village, as compact as any small Indian village of a
few thousand population.

S: The wisdom of the wisest is today available to the stupidest of the person thus
ushering in an era of real equality of opportunity to all.

a. QPSR

b. PQRS

c. RSQP

d. QRSP

Directions (31-35): In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the
correct alternative out of the four.

31. When she was caught red-handed, she knew that her plans____failed.

a. have

b. failed

c. are

d. had

32. Mrs.D’Souza_________awake the whole of last night worried about her

husband’s health

a. laid
b. lay

c. had laid

d. lied

33. I____________for a morning walk regularly, but now I don’t go.

a. had used to go

b. was used to go

c. used to go

d. am going

34. I congratulated him _________his success.

a. for

b. on

c. to

d. upon

35. The game had__________begun when it started raining.

a. unusually

b. no sooner

c. hardly

d. marginally

Section - B - General Knowledge [35 X 1 = 35 Marks]

36. Which of the following world-famous event is held in Kerala to mark the Onam
festivities?

a. Bull race

b. Snake boat race

c. Cock fights

d. Kuddiattam

37. Who among the following great Mughals, was also a fine poet?

a. Akbar

b. Babur

c. Jahangir

d. Shah Jahan

38. The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli in Delhi is believed to record the achievement of

a. Ashoka

b. Chandragupta Maurya

c. Samudragupta

d. Chandragupta II

39. The deficiency of which of the following vitamins is considered responsible for
night blindness

a. B

b. E
c. K

d. A

40. Who painted the masterpiece” Hamsa Damayanti”?

a. AmrithaShergil

b. K.K. Hebbar

c. M.F. Hussain

d. Raja Ravi Varma

41. Which Five Year plan was based on “Harrod Domar Model” in India?

a. Second Five Year Plan

b. Fourth Five Year Plan

c. Third Five Year Plan

d. First Five Year Plan

42. When did Mizoram come into existence as a state?

a. 1987

b. 1972

c. 1986

d. 1975

43. Which is used in headlight of motor cars?

a. Convex lens

b. Convex lens

c. Concave mirror

d. Convex mirror

44. Which is not a recognized national party in India?

a. Samajwadi Party

b. Communists Party of India

c. Bahujan Samaj Party

d. All India Trinmool Congress

45. Who topped in the 16th annual ranking of ‘The Forbes 2019 list of The World’s
100 Most Powerful Women’ list released on December 13, 2019?

a. Angela Merkel

b. Nancy Pelosi

c. Christiane Lagarde

d. Davida Richards

46. Name the first ever brand ambassador of La Liga from India, who is also the first
ever non-footballer appointed in that position

a. Rohit Sharma

b. Virat Kohli

c. Shikhar Dhawan

d. MS Dhoni
47. Who will head the Group of Ministers (GoM) on the Integrated Goods and Service
Tax (IGST) replacing Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman?

a. Lalu Prasda

b. Nitish Kumar

c. Sushil Modi

d. Dinesh Sharma

48. Name the 1st Indian corporate firm, that was awarded with UN award in ‘climate
neutral now’ category for its carbon neutral programme.

a. Infosys

b. TCS

c. CTS

d. Hindustan Petroleum

49. Which state’s Restoration of Dignity and Human Rights of Indigenous Tribal
Community has received the gold prize in the 2019 World Habitat Award?

a. Maharashtra

b. Madhya Pradesh

c. Tamil Nadu

d. Karnataka

50. Name the Indian actress, who received the 26th Annual Crystal Awards for the
year 2020 by World Economic Forum (WEF) for her leadership in raising mental
health awareness
a. Deepika Padukone

b. Priyanka Chopra

c. Aishwarya Rai

d. Alia Bhatt

51. Which massage has been inducted to UNESCO’s (United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization) prestigious heritage list?

a. Nuad Thai

b. Balinese Massage

c. Ayurvedic Massage

d. Hot Stone Massage

52. Where was the 7th edition of India-Sri Lanka joint Military & Army Exercise
MITRA SHAKTI–VII: 2019 held?

a. Kochi

b. Pune

c. Kolkata

d. Chennai

53. Name the first country in the world to make Haj 2020 process completely digital?

a. India

b. UAE

c. Saudi Arabia
d. USA

54. Name the first Arab country that will assume the G20 (Group of 20) presidency?

a. UAE

b. Oman

c. Saudi Arabia

d. Kuwait

55. Where was the 3rd edition of the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) inaugurated?

a. Mumbai

b. Kolkata

c. Guwahati

d. Chennai

56. Where was the 8th edition of the joint training exercise between India and China
named “HAND-IN-HAND 2019” held?

a. Meghalaya

b. Mizoram

c. Assam

d. Maharashtra

57. To which Country, India is set to offer $450 million Line of Credit (LoC) in which
$400 million will be provided for infrastructure projects and $50 million provided for
counter terror measures?
a. Nepal

b. Myanmar

c. Bangladesh

d. Sri Lanka

58. Who won his record 6th Men’s Ballon d’Or award for the year 2019?

a. Lionel Messi

b. Cristiano Ronaldo

c. Kaka

d. Mbappe

59. Where was the India’s 1st National maritime heritage museum to be built with
the aim to boost the underwater or marine archaeology?

a. Lothal

b. Harrappa

c. Mohenjo Daro

d. Marwar

60. Which country’s King Carl XVI Gustaf Folke Hubertus and Queen Silvia Renate
Sommerlath visited India recently?

a. Finland

b. Sweden

c. Norway
d. Denmark

61. Who heads the 15th Finance commission that has submitted its report for the
financial year (FY) 2020-21 to President Ram Nath Kovind?

a. Arvind Subramaniam

b. NK Singh

c. Raghuram Ranjan

d. Rajeshwar Prasad

62. Which transaction facility has been made available 24×7 for customers from
December 16, 2019 by Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

a. NEFT

b. RTGS

c. UPI

d. BHIM

63. Motera cricket stadium, which is set to become largest in world is being built in
which state?

a. Ahmedabad

b. Jaipur

c. Jodhpur

d. Rajkot

64. Which state celebrated the 20th edition of the Hornbill festival in December
2019?
a. Tripura

b. Mizoram

c. Nagaland

d. Meghalaya

65. Which country is set to supply the Meteor air-to-air missiles (‘No Escape’) to
Indian Air Force?

a. China

b. USA

c. UK

d. France

66. Adani Ports is acquiring 75% stake in which privately managed port on the east
coast of India, as was disclosed on 3 January 2020?

a. Mundra Port

b. Krishnapatnam port

c. Ennore Port

d. Dighi Port

67. The first-ever Sukhoi-30MKI fighter squadron of the Indian Air Force (IAF) in
South India was unveiled on 20 January 2020. This squadron has been based at which
AF station?

a. Tezpur Air Force Station

b. Tambaram Air Force Station

c. Thanjavur Air Force Station

d. Saichen Glacier Air Force Station

68. What is the name of the village in Maharashtra’s Parbhani district that came to
news during January 2020 when state’s Chief Minister described this village as
leading mystic Sai Baba’s birthplace thus angering the people of Shirdi?

a. Pandharpur

b. Sangli

c. Yavatmal

d. Pathri

69. Jagat Prakash Nadda (J.P. Nadda) on 20 January 2020 took over as the National
President of BJP after serving as Working President since June 2019. He is overall
………..National President of the party?

a. 10th

b. 11th

c. 12th

d. 13th

70. Union Government’s ambitious “One Nation, One Ration Card” scheme was
implemented in how many states from 1 January 2020?

a. 10

b. 12

c. 14

d. 16
Section - C - LEGAL REASONING [35 x 1 = 35 marks]

71. Principle 1:Any officer of the armed forces may, in a disturbed area, if he is of
opinion that it is necessary to do so for the maintenance of public order, after giving
a warning, use force, even to the causing of death, against any person who is part of
an assembly of five or more persons.

Principle 2: No prosecution shall be instituted, except with the previous sanction of

the Central Government, against an army officer in a disturbed area.

Facts: Bundelkhand was declared a disturbed area because of widespread rioting and
violence in the region. The Government declared it as a disturbed area and sent
armed forces in the region to contain the situation. Colonel Rathore was patrolling
the streets and saw a group of eight people assembled together. They were
aggressively shouting out slogans against the Government. Fearing that their slogans
would incite people, he fired at the group. One person was killed and two were
critically injured. The rest were taken into custody in the nearest police station.
While in detention, the inspector in charge, LC Singh sexually assaulted one of the
detainees. It was found that the group of eight people were only protesting and did
not have any weapons. Has Col. Rathore violated the law?

a. Yes, because he fired upon a peaceful assembly and it was not necessary for the
maintenance of public order.

b. Yes, because he did not give due warning.

c. No, because his actions were in his opinion necessary for the maintenance of
public order.

d. No, because there was an assembly of more than five people and he was allowed
by law to use force against them.

72. Principle 1:Any officer of the armed forces may, in a disturbed area, if he is of
opinion that it is necessary to do so for the maintenance of public order, after giving
a warning, use force, even to the causing of death, against any person who is part of
an assembly of five or more persons.

Principle 2: No prosecution shall be instituted, except with the previous sanction of

the Central Government, against an army officer in a disturbed area.

Facts: Bundelkhand was declared a disturbed area because of widespread rioting and
violence in the region. The Government declared it as a disturbed area and sent
armed forces in the region to contain the situation. Colonel Rathore was patrolling
the streets and saw a group of eight people assembled together. They were
aggressively shouting out slogans against the Government. Fearing that their slogans
would incite people, he fired at the group. One person was killed and two were
critically injured. The rest were taken into custody in the nearest police station.
While in detention, the inspector in charge, LC Singh sexually assaulted one of the
detainees. Immediately after hearing about these incidents, the Bundelkhand Human
Rights Organisation (BHRO) filed a suit against Col. Rathore and LC Singh in the trial
court. Both of them were found guilty. The decision was appealed in the High Court.
What should the High Court’s ruling be –

a. Uphold the decisions of the trial court.

b. Reverse the decisions of the trial court.

c. Uphold the punishment of Col. Rathore but not the punishment of LC Singh.

d. Uphold the punishment of LC Singh but not the punishment of Col. Rathore

73. Principle: Consumer means any person who buys any goods for a consideration
which has been paid and includes any user of such goods other than the person who
buys such goods for consideration paid or promised or partly paid or partly promised
but does not include a person who obtains such goods for resale or for any
commercial purpose.

Facts: A purchased a scooter from Sundaram Vehicles. He gave the scooter to B. B

was using it and taking it to the seller for repairs and service from time to time. Later
on, B had a complaint regarding the scooter. He sued the seller in the Delhi State
Commission. Who was the consumer?

a. Only A

b. Both A and B

c. Only B

d. None of the above

74. Principle 1: When two or more persons make a joint promise, the promisee may,
in the absence of express agreement to the contrary, compel any one or more of
such joint promisors to perform the whole of the promise.

Principle 2: Where two or more persons have made a joint promise, a release of one
of such joint promisors by the promisee does not discharge the other joint promisor
or joint promisors, neither does it free the joint promisors so released from
responsibility to the other joint promisor or joint promisors.

Facts:

Anshul, Saurabh and Anahad decided to go on a road trip to Ooty. However, they
were short of money. They decided to take a loan of Rs. 12,000 from their Pranav
and made a joint promise to pay him back in two months. Anahad was a very close
friend of Pranav and hence Pranav decided to release him from his liability. After
three months, the loan had still not been repaid. Pranav did not like Saurabh. Thus,
he decided to file a suit against Saurabh for recovery of the loan amount.

Decide

a. Saurabh will be liable to pay only Rs. 4,000.

b. Saurabh will be liable to pay the entire debt amount of Rs. 12,000

c. Saurabh will not be liable to pay because Anshul was not made a party to the suit.
d. Since Anahad has been released, Saurabh will be liable to pay Rs. 6,000.

75. Principle 1: When two or more persons make a joint promise, the promisee may,
in the absence of express agreement to the contrary, compel any one or more of
such joint promisors to perform the whole of the promise.

Principle 2: Where two or more persons have made a joint promise, a release of one
of such joint promisors by the promisee does not discharge the other joint promisor
or joint promisors, neither does it free the joint promisors so released from
responsibility to the other joint promisor or joint promisors.

Facts:

Anshul, Saurabh and Anahad decided to go on a road trip to Ooty. However, they
were short of money. They decided to take a loan of Rs. 12,000 from their Pranav
and made a joint promise to pay him back in two months. Anahad was a very close
friend of Pranav and hence Pranav decided to release him from his liability. After
three months, the loan had still not been repaid. Assume that Saurabh was made to
pay Rs. 12,000. Anshul and Anahad refused to pay any amount to him. He filed a suit
against them. Decide.

a. Anshul and Anahad will be required to pay Rs. 4,000 each to Saurabh.

b. Anshul will be required to pay Rs. 6,000 to Saurabh.

c. Anshul and Anahad will be required to pay Rs. 6,000 each to Saurabh because he
had to incur litigation costs due to Anshul and Anahad’s refusal to pay him.

d. Anshul and Anahad will not have to pay anything to Saurabh.

76. Principle 1: Environmental Pollutant means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance
present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to the environment.
Principle 2: The Pollution Control Board (PCB) may order any industrial plant,
company or organisation that emits environmental pollutants to shut down or
modify their operations.

Facts: Glendon Hill was a company which owned and managed nuclear power plants
in India. It was running the Taksha Nuclear Power Plant (TNPP) which was located in
Madhya Pradesh. It was found that many people in a nearby village were suffering
from radiation sickness. The trees and animals were also found to have been
affected. The PCB conducted a detailed investigation and found that this was
because of a faulty design in the TNPP due to which radiation could not be
contained. It ordered Glendon Hill to shut down TNPP till the required changes were
made because TNPP was emitting environmental pollutants. Glendon Hill challenged
this order. Decide

a. The order is valid because TNPP was causing radiation sickness.

b. The order is valid because TNPP was emitting a pollutant and harming the
environment.

c. The order is invalid because there was no emission of a pollutant as there was no
solid or liquid substance that was emitted.

d. The order is invalid because radiation sickness is not the same as harm to the
environment.

77. Principle 1: If any provision of a law made by the Legislature of a State is contrary
to any provision of a law made by Parliament with respect to one of the matters
enumerated in the Concurrent List, then, the law made by Parliament, whether
passed before or after the law made by the Legislature of such State, shall prevail
and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall, only to the extent of the
contradiction, be void.

Principle 2: Laws and rules on Evidence come under the Concurrent List

Facts: Rohan robbed the Bank of India branch at Laxmi Nagar. He was arrested and
brought to trial. The prosecutor wanted to introduce a WhatsApp conversation as
evidence. Rohan challenged this. The State Evidence Act, 2009 explicitly allowed
private messages or emails as evidence that could be adduced. However, the Central
Evidence Act, 2013 explicitly mentioned that private messages or emails could not be
adduced as evidence. Rohan claimed that the Central Evidence Act should be
followed and not the State Evidence Act. Decide –

a. Rohan’s claim will be upheld. The Court must apply the Central Evidence Act.

b. Rohan’s claim will be partially upheld. The WhatsApp conversation will not be
allowed, however, other provisions of the State Evidence Act will apply.

c. Rohan’s claim will not be upheld. The State Evidence Act will apply.

d. None of the Above.

78. Principle 1: Whoever, being a public servant, intentionally does any act which
causes grievous hurt to any person, is said to inflict torture.

Principle 2: Where the public servant, tortures any person for the purpose of
extorting from him, any confession or any information which may lead to the
detection of an offence, he shall be punished with imprisonment of for a term which
may extend to ten years.

Facts: Dheeraj was suspected of murdering Pintu and was arrested. He was detained
in the Madhapur Police Station and a case was filed against him. Senior Inspector
Gaikwad was the cousin of Pintu and was enraged upon hearing of the murder. He
wanted vengeance. One day, he beat Dheeraj up. As a result, Dheraj had to be
hospitalised and he was in a critical condition. Has Gaikwad inflicted torture and will
he be punished for it?

a. Yes, Gaikwad has inflicted torture but he will not be punished for it.

b. Yes, Gaikwad has inflicted torture and he will be punished for it.

c. No, Gaikwad has not inflicted torture and will not be punished for it.

d. None of the Above.

79. Principle:Deficiency means any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in
the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained
by or under any law for the time being in force or has been under¬taken to be
performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any
service.

Facts: Aayush wants to get a tube well drilled in his property. He deposited Rs. 100
with BoroCo. as application fee for the purpose of drilling tubewell. BoroCo. did not
drill the tube well because it was not feasible. Aayush alleged deficiency in service
and filed a complaint. Decide:

a. BoroCo. is liable because there was a shortcoming in the manner of their

performance.

b. BoroCo. is not liable because the application fee does not amount to the hiringof
services.

c. BoroCo is liable because there was a shortcoming in the nature of their

performance.

d. BoroCo. is liable because there was a shortcoming in the quality of their

performance.

80. Principle 1: Every person has the right to privacy and freedom from interference
with his privacy.

Principle 2: Notwithstanding anything in Principle 1, a person’s privacy can be

interfered with by any agency or officer if authorized by law and for the purpose of
national security.

Facts: The India Intelligence Bureau (IIB) was established by the British Secretary of
State in 1887. The agency continued to function even after independence. Karl was
placed under surveillance by the IIB for suspected Naxalite activity. His phones and
house were bugged. When he came to know of this, he filed a suit. Decide
 a. The IIB is an intelligence agency and thus would need to carry out surveillance for
its function. It should be allowed.

b. The IIB’s actions are not allowed. They cannot interfere with Karl’s privacy.

c. Interference with Karl’s privacy was required for the purpose of national security.
It should be allowed.

d. Both (a) and (c)

81. Principle 1: A customer shall be liable for the loss occurring due to unauthorised
or fraudulent transactions where the loss is due to negligence by a customer. The
customer will bear the entire loss until he reports the unauthorised transaction to
the bank.

Principle 2: A customer will not be liable for the loss occurring due to an
unauthorised or fraudulent transaction where the loss is due to negligence by the
bank.

Facts: Ravi and Pranav were students at Kerala State Law College. Pranav wanted to
order some books from Amazon. However, his credit card was not working. He
requested Ravi to purchase it for him. Instead, Ravi provided all the necessary details
such as card number, PIN and password of his card to Pranav. Thus, Pranav made the
purchase using Ravi’s card. Over the course of the next week, Ravi noticed three
unauthorized transactions of Rs. 1,000 each. He was extremely worried and reported
the matter to the Bank on 25 June 2018. There was another unauthorized transaction
of Rs. 1500 on 27 June 2018. All of these unauthorized transactions were included in
Ravi’s monthly statement and the Bank required him to pay the amount. Ravi
challenged this. Decide.

a. Ravi has to pay Rs. 4,500 of unauthorised transactions.

b. Ravi has to pay Rs. 3,000 of unauthorised transactions

c. Ravi does not have to pay any amount because it was the Bank’s negligence. They
failed to provide adequate security.
d. Ravi has to pay Rs. 1,500 of unauthorised transactions.

82. Principle 1: In the interpretation and application of rules and laws, the
grammatical and ordinary sense of the words is to be adhered to, unless that would
lead to some absurdity or inconsistency with the rest of the law or with the purpose
of the law, in which case the grammatical and ordinary sense of the words may be
modified, so as to avoid that absurdity and inconsistency, but no further.

Principle 2: The Navalgond Park Act states that - ‘No vehicle shall enter Navalgond
Park.

Facts: Navalgond Park was a very popular place for the people of Nagarbhavi. To
avoid pollution and nuisance, The Navalgond Park Act was passed. It prohibited the
entrance of vehicles into the park. One day, a woman while taking a stroll in the park,
suffered a heart attack. An ambulance was immediately called for. However, the
guard refused to let it enter because of the law that was passed. Was the Guard,
right?

a. Yes, because the law clearly states that no vehicle shall enter the park and an
ambulance is a vehicle.

b. Yes, because the law must be interpreted using the ordinary sense since there is
no inconsistency in this case.

c. Both (a) and (b).

d. No, because a literal application of the law would lead to inconsistency and an
absurd result.

83. Principle: The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) shall not certify a film
that –

(i) Endangers or jeopardizes national security.

(ii) Shows violence, cruelty or abuse, and if any such incidence is germane to the
theme, they shall be reduced to the minimum and no details are shown.
Facts: Pintu Dhawan was an activist who was fighting for the rights of prisoners in
India. He made a documentary film on the issue to spread awareness in the country.
The documentary contained a lot of footage of the Balighat Prison. Pintu also
managed to get footage of an officer torturing a prisoner and this was included in the
documentary. The documentary made clear the layout of the prison and its security
measures. Balighat Prison is Ruritania’s highest security prison in which the most
dangerous criminals are imprisoned and most of the details regarding the prison are
kept a secretso as to ensure high security. The CBFC refused to certify the film. Pintu
removed the content which revealed the layout and security measures of the prison.
He then resubmitted it for certification. The CBFC again refused to certify the film.
Decide.

a. Both decisions of the CBFC were right.

b. The first decision of the CBFC was right. However, the second decision was wrong.

c. The second decision of the CBFC was right. However, the first decision was wrong.

d. Both decisions of the CBFC were wrong.

84. Principle 1: Fugitive economic offender means any individual against whom a
warrant for arrest in relation to an economic offence has been issued by any Court in
India, who—

(i) has left India so as to avoid criminal prosecution; or

(ii) being abroad, refuses to return to India to face criminal prosecution;

Facts: Viji Mallaya and Ravi were the MD and CEO respectively, of Woodpecker
Industries. They had carried out various economic offences to gain personal profits.
After an investigation by auditors, these offences came to light and a case was filed
against them in the Court. At the time of filing of the case, both Mallaya and Ravi
were in India. However, as soon as they came to know of the case, they fled to
London. The Court, after reviewing the evidence submitted to it, issued an arrest
warrant against Viji Mallaya.

Are Viji Mallya and Ravi fugitive economic offenders?

a. Yes, both of them are fugitive economic offenders.

b. Viji Mallaya is a fugitive economic offender, however, Ravi is not.

c. Ravi is a fugitive economic offender, however, Mallaya is not.

d. Both Ravi and Mallaya are not fugitive economic offenders.

85. Principle 2: Upon declaration that an individual is a fugitive economic offender,

any property owned by the individual can be confiscated by the Government. All the
rights and title in the confiscated property shall, from the date of the confiscation
order, vest in the Central Government.

Facts: In order to liquidate their assets, Mallaya sold his house in India on 1 July 2018
and Ravi sold his house in India on 4 July 2018. Orders to confiscate Mallaya’s and
Ravi’s houses were issued by the Central Government on 3 July 2018. Are these
orders valid?

a. Yes, both the orders are valid.

b. Both the orders are not valid.

c. Only the order to confiscate Ravi’s property is valid.

d. Only the order to confiscate Mallaya’s property is valid.

86. Principle 3: Every person has the right of access to justice in case of violation of a
legal or constitutional right.

Principle 4: Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law, any Court in India
in any civil proceeding before it, may, disallow any company from putting forward or
defending any civil claim (claim arising out of a civil proceedings), if an individual
filing the claim on behalf of the company, or any key managerial personnel or
majority shareholder of the company has been declared as a fugitive economic
offender.

Fact: Woodpecker Industries had a contractual dispute with MTech. The contract had
an arbitration clause. In the arbitration proceedings, MTech claimed that because
Woodpecker Industries was managed by fugitive economic offenders, they should
not be allowed to a claim and thus, the arbitrators should not provide them with any
remedy. Decide if this argument should be upheld.

a. No, because arbitration is different from a civil claim.

b. No, because everyone has the right of access to justice.

c. Yes, because a company managed by a fugitive economic offender should not be

allowed any benefits or remedy.

d. Yes, because a civil claim by a company managed by a fugitive economic offender

can be disallowed.

87. Principle 1: A State is under a special duty to take all appropriate steps to protect
the consular premises of other States on its territory against any intrusion.

Facts: The State of Americanas had a consulate in the State of Persia. Americanas
was alleged to have strong-armed several Persian politicians into passing certain
laws. It was also alleged that it had manipulated Persian elections. This caused
widespread anger among the Persians. They started protesting outside the
Americanas. A group of Persian students invaded the consulate and held the consular
staff hostage. Persia sent only two security personnel to fight the intruders.
Americanas claimed that Persia had violated its duty.

a. Persia has not violated its duty. It sent security personnel and thus took
appropriate measures.

b. Persia has violated its duty to take all appropriate measures to protect the
consular premises.

c. Persia has not violated its duty because they did not support or help the invaders.

d. Persia has violated its duty because they allowed protests outside the Consulate.

88. Principle 1: The authorities of a State shall not enter that the consular premises
of other States on its territory except with the consent of the head of the consulate.
Principle 2: The consent of the head of the consulate may, however, be assumed in
case of an emergency requiring prompt protective action.

Facts: Assume that the Persian Government sent a Special Forces unit to fight the
invaders and rescue the consular staff. The Special Forces unit entered the consulate,
eliminated the invaders and rescued the staff. Unknown to the Persian Government,
the Americanas Government had already dispatched its own security forces to rescue
its consular staff. Americanas claimed Persia had violated International law by
entering the consular premises.

a. Persia has not violated International Law because it was an emergency requiring
prompt protective action.

b. Persia has violated International Law because its actions were not required.
Americanas had dispatched its security forces to rescue the consular staff.

c. Persia has not violated International Law because the consulate is located within
their territory, over which they have absolute sovereignty.

d. Persia has violated International Law because it did not have the consent of the
head of the consulate to enter the premises.

89. Principle 1: Coercion is the committing, or threatening to commit, any act

forbidden by the Indian Penal Code or the unlawful detaining, or threatening to
detain, any property, to the prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of
causing any person to enter into an agreement.

Principle 2: The finder of goods has no right to sue the owner for compensation for
trouble and expense voluntarily incurred by him to preserve the goods and to find
out the owner, but he may retain the goods against the owner until he receives such
compensation.

Facts: Shreya found a purse that had been left behind in a public bus. The purse
contained the person’s wallet and a rare piece of jewellery among other things. The
wallet had an ID card which contained the person’s name and address, but no
contact information. She paid for a notice in the newspaper. However, there was no
reply. Thereafter, she decided to deliver the purse to the owner in person and went
to the address that was given in the ID Card. She found the owner and requested the
owner to compensate her for the expenses she had incurred. The owner refused to
do so.

Shreya threatened to detain the property until the owner executed a promissory
note in Shreya’s favour. The owner did so, and Shreya returned the purse. Later, the
owner claimed that the promissory note should be void. Decide –

a. The promissory note is void because of unlawful detention of property amounting

to coercion.

b. The promissory note is not void because detention of property was not unlawful.

c. The promissory note is void because Shreya’s act was an offence under the Indian
Penal Code.

d. The promissory note is not void because it was the owner’s fault in the first place
as she forgot her purse.

90. Principle: When a thing which is commonly the subject of sale is lost, if the owner
cannot with reasonable diligence be found, or if he refuses upon demand, to pay the
lawful charges of the finder, the finder may sell it.

Facts: Suppose instead of threatening to detain the property, Shreya sold the purse
and all the contents in it. The owner claimed that this was unlawful. Decide –

a. The owner refused to pay the expenses and thus, Shreya had the lawful right to
sell the purse.

b. The purse along with its contents is not something which would commonly be the
subject of sale. Thus, in this case, Shreya cannot exercise her right to sell the lost
goods.

c. The owner paid the amount and thus Shreya did not have a right to sell.
d. None of the above

91. What does the principle of ‘Double Jeopardy’ mean?

a. No person can be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

b. No person accused of an offence can be compelled to be witness against himself

c. No person can be convicted for an act which was not an offence when committed.

d. No person can be deprived of his life without due process of law.

92. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India Provides ‘Right to
minorities to establish and administer educational and administer educational
institution for their choice’?

a. Article-26

b. Article-22

c. Article-30

d. Article-29

93. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. Supreme court has writ jurisdiction

b. Supreme court has appellate jurisdiction

c. Supreme court has advisory jurisdiction

d. Supreme court has no original jurisdiction

94. Writ of Certiorari is issued in which of the following cases?

a. to quash illegal appointment to a public post

b. to direct release of person detained illegally

c. to quash order of quasi-judicial bodies, if passed without jurisdiction

d. to direct public authorities to perform their public duties.

95. In which of the following cases, the ‘Rarest of rare’ doctrine for award of death
sentence was evolved by the Supreme Court?

a. Ashok Kumar Vs state of Rajasthan

b. Nalini Vs State of state of Tamil Nadu

c. Bachhan Singh Vs state of Punjab

d. Mahesh Balmiki Vs State of Madhya Pradesh

96. Any man who monitors a womanusing internet, mail or any other form of
electronic communication commits the offence of:

a. voyeurism

b. stalking

c. sexual harassment

d. assault

97. ‘A’ cause ‘Z’ to go within a walled space and lock ‘Z’ in. ‘Z’ is thus prevented from
proceeding in any direction beyond in circumscribing line of wall.

‘A’ has committed an offence of

a. wrongful restraint of Z

b. wrongful confinement of Z
c. criminal force against Z

d. endangering life and personal safety of Z

98. The doctrine of plea bargaining is not applicable to offence punishable with

a. imprisonment of 2 years

b. imprisonment of 3 years

c. life imprisonment

d. imprisonment of 1 year

99. In Keshavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala the Supreme Court held that
preamble is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. This pronouncement
went against which of the following landmark judgments of the Supreme Court?

a. A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras

b. Berubari Vs. Union of India

c. Golak Nath Vs. The State of Punjab

d. Minerva Mills Ltd., Vs. The Union of India

100. The Governor of a State:

a. Enjoys the power of pardon in cases where a convict is sentenced to a death

penalty.

b. Enjoys pardoning power which is not subject to judicial review

c. Can pardon punishments of sentences given under Court Martial

d. Can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence

101. In which year the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal) Act came into effect in India?

a. 2011

b. 2012

c. 2013

d. 2014

102. Under the RTI (Right to Information) Act, which public authority provides the
information?

a. Public Relations Officer (PRO)

b. Public Information Officer (PIO)

c. Appellate Authority

d. A staff member from the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting

103. The principle of “Right of Eminent Domain” is usually evoked in the context of

a. Fishing Rights

b. Cross border transactions

c. Direct Listing

d. Compulsory acquisition

104. According to the Union Cabinet, the Constitution (103 Amendment) Act amends
which article of constitution and it will provide 10% reservation in government jobs
and education to Economically Weaker Sections?

a. Articles 14 and 16
b. Articles 19 and 21

c. Articles 14 and 15

d. Articles 15 and 16

105. With reference to Public Interest Litigation (PIL), which of the following
statements is/are correct?

A. Public Interest Litigation can be filed in both, the Supreme Court and the High
Court.

B. Only an individual associated with the violation of a right can file a PIL.

C. Formal procedure has been laid down by the Supreme Court to register a PIL.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. A only

b. C only

c. A and B

d. B and C

Section - D - Logical Reasoning [35 X 1 = 35 Marks]

Directions (Question 106-115): Choose the appropriate analogy

106. Denim : Cotton :: ______ : Flax

a. linen

b. costume

c. pullover

d. goat

107. obscene : coarse :: obtuse : ______

a. stupid

b. obstinate

c. obscure

d. object

108. diamond : baseball :: court : ______

a. squash

b. jury

c. grass

d. pumpkin

109. quixotic : pragmatic :: murky : ______

a. overcast

b. cloudy

c. clear

d. dark

110. smear : libel :: heed : ______

a. carelessness

b. indifference

c. consider

d. disregard
111. malice : charity :: ______ : gloom

a. darkness

b. depression

c. glee

d. despondency

112. total : partial :: ______ : smile

a. beam

b. frown

c. expression

d. grin

113. colossal : enormous :: constant : ______

a. continuous

b. time

c. occasional

d. lapsed

114. whole : ______ :: hole : pit

a. faulty

b. damaged
c. hurt

d. sum

115. ______ : courtroom :: nurse : hospital

a. writ

b. bailiff

c. doctor

d. engineer

116. Ramesh started from his school and went 4 km north. He then turned left and
moved 2 km. He again turned left and moved 4 km. He then turned right and moved
2 km. How far is he now from his school?

a. 10 km

b. 4 km

c. 2 km

d. 6 km

117. Krishna walks 10 km towards East. From there, he walks 6 km to West. Then he
walks 3 km towards north. In which direction is he with reference to his starting
point?

a. North-West

b. West

c. North-East

d. East
118. There are five friends – Satish, Kishore, Mohan, Amit and Ravi. Satish is shorter
than Kishore but taller than Ravi. Mohan is the tallest. Amit is a little shorter than
Kishore and little taller than Satish. Who is taller than Amit but shorter than Mohan?

a. Amit

b. Kishore

c. Satish

d. Ravi

119. The given letters have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and the
correct order so obtained may be indicated from the given responses.

A-1 B-2 E-3 L-4 T-5

a. 5 3 2 1 4

b. 5 1 2 4 3

c. 3 4 5 1 2

d. 2 3 4 1 5

120. If HIGH is written as 8978 then DEAF = ?

a. 1 3 4 2

b. 1 4 3 2

c. 4 5 1 6

d. 4 6 1 5

121. Avinash travelled towards south for 1 km. He turned right and travels one more
kilometer. He again turned right and travelled 2 kilometres. In which direction is he
from the starting point?
a. South

b. west

c. North-West

d. North-East

122. Arun walks towards North 30 mts, moves left and walks 40 mts. He again turns
left and walks 30 mts. He finally turns left and walks 50 mts. Now how far Arun is
from the starting point.

a. 50 mts.

b. 40 mts.

c. 30 mts.

d. 10 mts.

123. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother to her mother. How is the
man related to woman?

a. Nephew

b. Son

c. Cousin

d. Uncle of grandson

124. Arjun ranked 9th from the top and 38th from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class?

a. 48

b. 47
c. 46

d. 44

125. Introducing Priyanka, Robert says, “She is the wife of only nephew of only
brother of my mother”. How Priyanka is related to Robert?

a. Wife

b. Sister

c. Sister-in-law

d. Data is inadequate

126. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the
man, related to the woman?

a. Nephew

b. Son

c. Cousin

d. Uncle

127. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90 degrees in the clockwise direction, then
180 degrees in the anticlockwise direction and then another 90 degrees in the same
direction. Which direction is he facing now?

a. South

b. South-west

c. South-east

d. East
128. Rahul correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before twenty third
April but after Nineteenth April, where as his sister Priyanka correctly remembers
that their mother’s birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day in
April is definitely their mother’s birthday?

a. Twentieth

b. Twenty-first

c. Twentieth or twenty-first

d. Cannot be determined

129. According to Ram’s mother, Ram reached Delhi after 13th January,but before
19th January 2013.According to Ram, he reached Delhi after 16th January but before
22nd January.If both of them are correct, then on which date did Ram reached Delhi?

a. 18th or 19th January

b. 17th or18th January

c. 17th January

d. 16th January

130. Narender walks 10m in front and 10m to the right. Then, every time he turns to
his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15m. How far is he now from his starting point?

a. 10m

b. 5m

c. 15m

d. 20m
Question 131 – 135: Anayse the following numbers and answer the following questions: -

738, 429, 273, 894, 841, 325

131. If first and last number of the above numbers are interchanged then which
among the following is the highest number?

a. 924

b. 273

c. 429

d. 841

132. Which of the following will be the second digit of the fourth number from the
top when they are arranged in descending order, after the first digit is changed to its
next higher digit?

a. 3

b. 8

c. 5

d. 2

133. What is the difference between the first digit of the highest number and lowest
number after the positions of first two digit in each number is reversed?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 7

d. 5
134. Which of the following will be the last digit of the second lowest number after
the positions of digit is reversed in each number?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 2

135. Which of the following number retains the same position as earlier when all the
numbers are arranged in descending order after the position of the digit is reversed?

a. 738

b. 429

c. 894

d. 325

136. Statement: According to Theatrical Market Statistics (2007), an average of $1.6

million was spent per film on trailers. The average cost to produce a trailer is
$300,000 to$600,000, and the production of trailers is a $90 million-per-year
industry (Last, 2004).

Should a lot of money be spent on promoting movies?

Arguments:

I. Yes. It is an essential component of attracting more audience.

II. No. it only leads to wastage of resources.

a. If only argument I is strong

b. If only argument II is strong

c. If neither argument I nor II is strong

d. If both arguments I and II are strong

137. Statement: There are two types of doping tests: in-competition tests and out-of-
competition tests. An athlete can be summoned to testing at anytime and anywhere,
either in their home country or abroad. The athlete is invited in person.

If any athlete fails in dope test, he/she will be banned for five years.

Assumptions:

I. Athletes can be banned.

II. It is possible to find out whether an athlete has consumed prohibited drinks or
supplements.

a. If only assumption I is implicit.

b. If only assumption II is implicit.

c. If neither I nor II is implicit.

d. If both I and II are implicit.

138. The education department issued a government order asking all schools in the
State to install CCTV cameras.

Inferences:

I. To curb the unwanted activities and it helps create self-discipline.

II. It will enhance the school environment in the technical background.

a. Only I can be inferred

b. Only II can be inferred

c. Either I or II can be inferred

d. Neither I or II can be inferred

139. Statement:

Should there be a limit on drawing ground water for irrigation purposes in India?

Arguments:

I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily
dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.

II. Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the
country where irrigation is dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious
environmental consequences.

III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw ground water any further as the International
agencies have cautioned India against it.

a. Both I and II are strong

b. Both II and III are strong

c. Both I and III are strong

d. All I, II and III are strong

140. Road accidents in the country have decreased by around 4.1% during 2016, with
the year seeing 4,80,652 road accidents as against 5,01,423 in 2015. However,
fatalities resulting from these accidents have risen by about 3.2% during the same
period. Nearly 1,50,785 persons were killed in 2016 as against 1,46,133 in 2015.
Releasing the ‘Road Accidents in India – 2016’ report, the Government said that
more than 400 people lost their lives daily on roads in road accidents at night.

Which of the following could be the appropriate cause of the death in road accidents
at night?

a. Increase in population lead to more number of accidents.

b. Many people prefer to travel in night rather than in day.

c. Lack of proper lighting arrangement at many places.

d. Traffic rules are stricter in day-time to avoid traffic congestion problem

Section - E - Maths [10 X 1 = 10 Marks]

141. A man can row 25 kilometers upstream in 5 hours and a distance of

30kilometers downstream in 5 hours. The velocity of the current is?

a. 1 kilometer per hour

b. 4 kilometers per hour

c. 2 kilometers per hour

d. 0.5 kilometers per hour

142. Three numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5 and their LCM is 240, then the
greatest number will be

a. 24

b. 16

c. 120

d. 40

143. In a certain factory Hari and Ram working on the shop floor have to produce 60
and 40 units respectively per hour. Ram worked 5 hours more than Hari but
produced 200 units less than Hari. How many hours did Ram work

a. 20 hours

b. 30 hours

c. 40 hours

d. 25 hours
144. A person bought a car by making a down payment of Rs. 150000 and the rest by
taking a loan from one of his friends for 2 years at a simple interest of 9% per annum.
At the end of two years he realized that he had totally paid Rs. 622000. What was the
price of the car when he bought it?

a. 500000

b. 575000

c. 550000

d. 475000

145. In a particular town the ratio of school going children to non-school going
children was 2:5 last year. In the current year the number of school going children
increased by 20% making the number of school going children to 37500. What is the
total number of children in the town in the current year?

a. 93750

b. 75000

c. 62500

d. 115625

146. The sum of the current age of a mother and daughter is 61 years. The mother’s
age was 6 times that of the daughter’s age 6 years back. What is the present age of
the mother and daughter respectively?

a. 41 years and 9 years

b. 58 years and 4 years

c. 32 years and 30 years

d. 48 years and 13 years

147. A merchant buys 100 items and pays for 80 items. He decides to offer 20%
discount on the first 10 items sold, and 10% discount on the next 10 items sold, and
no discount on the remaining items. What is the percentage of his profit?

a. 20.25

b. 21.25

c. 23.75

d. 20.75

148. Flipkart is selling a book worth Rs. 2000 at a discount of 15%. An additional
discount of 5% on the currently discounted price is available if the purchase is made
through a RuPay card. Any transaction with RuPay card is charged Rs. 50 per
transaction by the bank. If the user chooses to buy the book using her RuPay card,
the effective discount available to him/her is (in percentage):

a. 20

b. 17.75

c. 16.75

d. 18

149. Abel can do a piece of work in 30 days. Balu is 20% faster than Abel and is 20%
slower than Cosmina. In how many days can Cosmina complete the piece of work?

a. 20

b. 25

c. 30

d. 15
150. Suppose A, B, C, D and E are mutual friends and they have no other friends on
Facebook. A sends a message to one of his friends chosen at random. The friend who
received the messages chooses one of his friends at random and forwards the
message. What is the probability that A receives his own message as a forwarded
message?

a. 1/8

b. 1/16

c. ¼

d. ½