GPAT QUESTIONS

1. ______________, system does not have orifice to release the drug.

(a) Elementary Osmotic Pump (b) L-OROS
(c) Sandwich Osmotic Pump Tablet (d) Controlled Porosity Osmotic Pump Tablet
2. In which rearrangement reaction, Isocyanate is formed?
(a) Curtious (b) Lossen (c) Both A & B (d) None
3. Chitin gets converted in to Chitosan upon:
(a) Acetylation (b) Deacetylation (c) Oxidation (d) Reduction
4. All of the following are leaf constants EXCEPT
(a) Vein-islet number (b) Vein- termination number
(c) Stomatal number (d) Leaf fiber
5. Zink chloride is added to mouth wash because it acts as
(a) Fragrance (b) Astringent (c) Cooling agent (d) Antibacterial
6. The choice of route of administration plays an important role in action of directly acting cholinomimetic .
Adverse effect of choline esters that may be avoided by selection of an appropriate route of
administration is
(a) Bradycardia (b) Hypotension (c) Delirium (d) Sweating
7. Sieve size 80 has opening of
(a) 0.100 mm (b) 0.125 mm (c) 0.150 mm (d) 0.180 mm
8. The ideal saponification value for suppository base is
(a) 50-100 (b) 100-150 (c) 150-200 (c) 200-500
9. o, m, p- isomers can be differentiated on the basis of:
(a) Chemical shift (b) Coupling constant
(c) Extinction coefficient (d) Dipole moment
10. Which of the following drug comes under Schedule C1
(a) Opium (b) Ergot (c) Fish liver oil (d) Insulin
11. Source of amla is
(a) Phyllanthus inruri (b) Terminiliachebula
(c) Terminalia Bacteria (d) Embilca officinalis

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12. What is the unit of dielectric constant
(a) Dyne (b) Debey (c) Farad/meter (d) No Unit
13. Monitoring of plasma drug concentration is required while using:
(a) Antihypertensive drugs (b) Levodopa
(c) Lithium carbonate (d) MAO inhibitors
14. Of the following antibiotics, which one would be acceptable to use when treating penicillin resistant
S. pnumoinae otitis media
(a) Azithromycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Cefuroxime (d) Cefaclor
15. Addtion of which of the following to a large volume parntral product is not advised
(a) Active pharmaceutical ingredient (b) Preservatives
(c) Buffering agens (d) Tonicity adjusters
16. A drug suspension decomposes by zero-order kinetics with a rate constant of 2 mg mL -1 month-1
if the initial concentration is 100 mg mL-1 what is the shelf life
(a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 4 months (d) 5 months
17. Sanguinarine belongs to the subgroup of:
(a) Morphinans (b) Benzyl isoquinolines
(c) Phthalide isoquinolines (d) Benzophenanthrenes
18. Antidote for paracetamol overdosing is
(a) Atropine (b) N- Acetly cysteine (c) Glutathione (d) Theophylline
19. Which one of the following drug combination is contraindicated
(a) Glyceryl trinitrate and sildenafil (b) Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
(c) Losartan and hydrochlorothiazide (d) Pyrimthemaine and sulfadoxine
20. Which sugar is suitable for diabetic patient
(a) Fructose (b) Lactose (c) Mannitol (d) Sucralose
21. Headquarter of Bureau of Indian standards is situated at
(a) New delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai
22. Identity the structure of barbituric acid
O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
O O H
N
NH NH NH

N N N N
O H O O H O O H O O H O

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23. Ehtics for pharmacist are put forth by
(a) PCI (b) CDSCO (c) AICTE (d) WHO
24. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound

(a) Bicyclo[2.2.2] octane (b) Tricyclo[2.2.2] ontane

(c) Bicyclo[2.2.0] ontane (d) Bicyclo [2.2.1] heptanes
25. Morphine does not cause:
(a) Constriction of pupil (b) CNS depression
(c) Respiratory depression (d) Diarrhoea
26. Which of the following is seed gum
(P) Gaur gum (Q) Locust bean gum
(R) Xanthan gum (S) Gellan gum
(a) P and Q (b) R and S
(c) Q and R (d) P and S
27. The cancer that derived form ectoderm of endoderm of epithelial cells is
(a) Carcinoma (b) Sarcoma (c) Leukaemia (d) Myloid
28. Which of the following is/are marine anticancer
(a) Trabectadine (b) Eribulin
(c) Cytarabine (d) All of the above
29. Identity the compound which is derived form typtophan
(a) Pilocarpine (b) Ephedrine (c) Muscarine (d) Quinoline
30. Opium, cocoa, poppy straw are given in
(a) Schedule H
(b) Schedule X
(c) Narcotic drugs and Psychotropic substances act 1998
(d) Schedule C
31. Which of the following will be inert in NMR spectrometry
(a) 13C (b) 31P (c) 2H (d) 1H
32. What is the relationship between keto and enol tautomers
(a) Resonance forms (b) Steriosomers
(c) Constituonal isomers (d) Different conformations of the same compound

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33. Which of the following is following is true for natural killer cells
(a) They may phagocytose tumor cells
(b) Killing of cells is enhanced by interleukin-2
(c) They recognize and kill some virus-infected cells
(d) Killing of cells is stimulated by prostaglandin E2
34. Evaluation of colour is tablets is done by
(a) Reflectance spectrophotometer (b) Tristimulus colorimeter
(c) Microreflectance photometer (d) All of the above
35. The disintegration time of the effervescent tablets is
(a) 2 minutes (b) 2.4 minutes (c) 3.5 minutes (d) 5 minutes
36. Identify the false statements about magmas:
(P) The addition of suspending agents to magmas is always necessary
(Q) Magmas differ from gels in that their suspended particles are larger
(R) Magmas are two- phase systems
(S) Magmas basically are gets
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) Only P (d) Only S
37. All of the following ACE inhibitors are prodrugs EXCEPT
(a) Ramipril (b) Lisinopril (c) Enalapril (d) Perindopril
38. All of the following is resistant to both true and pseudo cholinesterase enzymes
(a) Carbachol (b) Acetylcholine
(c) Methacholine (d) Pilocarpine
39. Globule size of parenteral emulsion should be
(a) 0.1 to 0.5 µm (b) 0.5-5 µm (c) 5-10 µm (d) Any of the above
40. The objective of audit is to
(a) Improve the product quality (b) Find out the fault
(c) Improve the product value (d) Find and process fault and to improve
41. ………… is an alkaloid derived form aliphatic amino acid
(a) Reserpine (b) Nicotinic acid (c) Anabasine (d) Vinblastine
42. The drug sulphan blue is obtained from ……………source
(a) Plant (b) Animal (c) Synthetic (d) Mineral
43. In mammals, The major fat in adipose tissue is:
(a) Triglyceride (b) Cholesterol
(c) Sphingophospholipids (d) Phospholipids

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44. Dovers powder used as a diaphoretic contains:
(a) Ipecac & Opium (b) Ipecac, Senna & Cinchona
(c) Opium, Ipecac & Cinchona (d) All
45. Biological active form of Vit. D in man is:
(a) Cholecalciferol (b) Calcifediol
(c) Calciferol (d) Calcitriol
46. Actions and clinical uses of muscarinic cholinoceptor agonists include which on of the following
(a) Bronchodilation (asthama)
(b) Improved aqueous humor drainage (glaucoma)
(c) Decreased gastrointestinal motility (diarrhea)
(d) Decreased neuromuscular transmission and relaxation of skeletal muscle (During surgical anesthesia)
47. Regarding the role of surfactants in pharmaceutical suspensions for oral administration which of the
following statements is false
(a) Surfactants decrease the water contact angle of dispersed drug particle
(b) Surfactants promote flocculation
(c) Surfactants with high HLB stabilize oral suspensions
(d) Surfactants increase the viscosity of the continuous phase of pharmaceutical suspensions
48. Which of the following drug is NOT used in treatment of H. Pylori infection
(a) Ampicillin (b) Clarithromycin
(c) Mosapride (d) Bismuth subgallate
49. The most suitable disinfectant for decontamination of HIV contaminated endoscope is
(a) 1% Sodium hypochlorite (b) 2% Glutaraldehyde
(c) 5% phenol (d) 70% ethanol
50. Which rule does provide the most accurate method to calculate the dose for child based on adult dose
(a) Age is months (b) Age in years
(c) Weight in pounds (d) Body surface area
51. Chemokine co-receptor 5 (CCR 5 ) inhibitor is
(a) Enfuvirtide (b) Maraviroc
(c) Raltegravir (d) Atazanavir
52. The Franz diffusion cell which is used for the evaluation of transdermal drug delivery systems consists of:
(a) 1 chamber (b) 2 chamber (c) 3 chamber (d) None
53. Whick of the following plastic is transparent and flexible
(a) Silicon rubber (b) PVP (c) HDPED (d) PE

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54. In which method an order of a fixed number of items is placed every time an inventory level falls to a
predetermined point
(a) A-B-C method (b) Maximum and minimum method
(c) Open-to-buy method (d) Economic order quantity
55. Choose the option with two reducing sugars
(a) Lactose and maltose (b) Trehalose and surcrose
(c) Maltose and tredhalose (d) Economic order quantity
56. The Local anesthetic with highest cardiotoxicity is
(a) Lingocaine (b) Bupivacaine
(c) Levo- bupivacaine (d) Procaine
57. Homatropine is
(a) Tropine ester of amino acetic acid (b) Tropine ester of mendelic acid
(c) Tropine methyl bromide ester of mendelic acid (d) Tropine ester of amino formic acid
58. Tranexamic acid is
(a) Antithrombotic (b) Antifibrinolytic (c) Fibrinolytic (d) Styptic
59. Which of the antihistaminic compound has antiadrogenic effect
(a) Famotidine (b) Ranitidine
(c) Nizatidine (d) Cimetidine
60. Which of the following drug is used prefenntially as preanesthetic mediation
(a) Midazolam (b) Oxazepam
(c) Alprazolam (d) Nitrozepam
61. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when given
(a) Half hour before meals (b) With meal
(c) After prolonged fasting (d) Along with H2 blockers
62. Match compounds is Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Vancomycin (1) Folate metabolism
(Q) Rifampin (2) DNA synthesis
(R) Puromycin (3) Protein synthesis
(S) Ciprofloxacin (4) RNA synthesis
(5) Cell wall systhesis
(a) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(c) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (d) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

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63. Formation of Okazaki occurs in
(a) Transcription (b) Replication
(c) Translation (d) Reverse Transcription
64. Drug used in ventricular arrhythmia is
(a) Flecainide (b) Verapamil
(c) Esmolol (d) Diltazem
65. The lipoprotein with the fastest electrophoretic mobility and the lowest TG content is
(a) VLDL (b) HDL
(c) LDL (d) Chylomicrons
66. As per schedule ‘Y’ of the drugs and cosmetics act, the animal toxicity study requirements for marketing of
a drug depends upon tentative route and duration of administration in humans. In This context , which one
of the following statements is incorrect
(a) Single dose human use-animal toxicity for 2 weeks in 2 species
(b) Oral use for 2 weeks in humans- animal toxicity for 4 week in 2 species
(c) Aerosol use by repeated use in humans- animal toxicity for 24 weeks in 2 species
(d) Multiple daily ocular application for short duration-iregation test in 1 species for 3 weeks
67. For determining the efficacy of sterilization in an autoclave, the spores of the following organism are used
as test organisms
(a) Bacillus cereus (b) Clostridium pefringens
(c) Bacillus stearothemophilus (d) Clostridium histolyticum
68. Which of the following pairs is mismatched
(a) Aerobic, helical bacteria- gram negative (b) Entrics- gram negative
(c) Myconbacteria – acid fase (d) Pseudomonas –gram positive
69. List of drugs whose import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions
are included in schedule:
(a) X (b) K (c) H (d) G
70. Sigma minus method is used in assessment of
(a) Bioavailability (b) Absorption
(c) Metabolism (d) Tissue distribuation
71. Which of the plant family contains volatile oil in their trichome
(a) Rutaceae (b) Papaveracease
(c) Umbelliferare (d) Laminaceae

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72. Ferritin is:
(a) Coenzyme (b) The stored form of Iron
(c) Non-protein moiety (d) Isoenzyme
73. Which oil is solute is alcohol
(a) Arachis oil (b) Sesame oil
(c) Castor oil (d) Corn oil
74. One of the first step of the citric acid cycle is isomerization of citric acid to isoctiric acid this step is necessary
because
(a) Oxidation of secondary alcohols is very difficult
(b) Reduction of secondary alcohol is very impossible
(c) Reduction of tertiary alcohols would require a very powerful oxidizing agent
(d) Oxidation of tertiary alcohols would require oxidizing agents
75. Which of the following alkyl halides would undergo SN2 reaction most rapidly
(a) CH3CH2-BR (b) CH3CH2-CL
(c) CH3CH2-I (d) CH3CH2-F
76. Mechanism of action of Ketoconazole is:
(a) Inhibits Ergosterol synthesis (b) Inhibits DNA gyrase
(c) Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase (d) Induces translation misreading
77. All are adrenal gland over activity disorders EXCEPT
(a) Addison’s disease (b) Conn’s syndrome
(c) Cushing’s syndrome (d) Cushing’s disease
78. The oil used in a parenteral product cannot contain…………………..
(a) WFI (b) Parffin oil (c) Peanut oil (d) Glycerine
79. Identity the non-absorbable sature
(a) Catgut suture (b) Chromic catgut suture
(c) Silk suture (d) Polydioxanone suture
80. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is given by
(a) Raoult’s law (b) Henry’s law (c) Boyle’s law (d) Charles law
81. Identity the functional group present in meprobamate
(a) Amide (b) Ester (c) Carbamic (d) Lactam
82. Match the following
(P) Gypsum salt (1) KAI  SO4 2  12H2O
(Q) Epson salt (2) FeSO4  7H2O

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 (R) Alum (3) CaSO4  2H2O
(S) Green vitriol (4) MgSO4  7H2O
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(c) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
83. Tinea capitis is ringworm infection of
(a) Feet (b) Groin (c) Head (d) Nails
84. Rank the following compounds is order of increasing reactivity in electrophilic aromatic Substitution reactions
(P) C6H6 (Q) C6H5CH3 (R) C6H5NO2
(a) Q<P<R (b) R<P<Q (c) Q<R<P (d) P<Q<R
85. Dose dumping may be a general problem in the formulation of:
(a) Soft gelatin capsules (b) Suppositories
(c) Modified release drug products (d) None
86. Codeine differ in structure from morphine by:
(a) N-methyl group (b) Acetyl group at C1 and C6
(c) –OC2H5 group (d) –OCH3 group
87. Isotopes differ in:
(a) The number of protons (b) The valency number
(c) The chemical activity (d) The number of neutrons
88. Arrange the given acids in increasing order as per the number of carbons present in them
(P) Capric (Q) Caprylic (R) Caproic (D) Lauric
(a) P<Q<R<S (b) R<Q<P<S
(c) R<Q<P<S (d) Q<P<R<S
89. E1cb (Elimination reaction via conjugate base) which reaction intermediate will form?
(a) Carbocation (b) Carbanion
(c) Free radical (d) All
90. What are the three basic steps of conventional PCR
(a) Denature, anneal, & Strand displacement (b) Denature, anneal & extension
(c) Strand displacement, synthesis & release (d) Reverse-Transcription, anneal & extend
91. Rabies bodies are
(a) Negri bodies (b) Cowdry type B inclusion bodies
(c) Cowdry type A inclusion bodies (d) Bollinge bodies
92. When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product is
(a) Glucaric acid (b) Glucoronic acid (c) Sorbitols (d) Gluconic acid

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93. Increase in melting temperature of DNA is due to high content of
(a) A+T (b) G+C (c) A+G (d) T+G
94. What will be the primary product of the following reaction
CH3
HCl

(a) (b) (c) (d)

CH3 CH3 CH3
Cl Cl
Cl

Cl
95. The mass spectrum of a compound with an approximate MW 137 shows tow equally intense. peaks at
m/z 136 and 138. What does the suggest
(a) The compound is alkyl iodide (b) The compound is alkyl bromide
(c) The compound is alkyl chloride (d) The compound is aryl fluoride
96. Capping in tablets mainly due to:
(a) Less upper punch pressure (b) Poor flowability of granules
(c) Proper formulation design (d) Entrapment of air in tablet during compression
97. How can we detect the rhizome from the root of the Rauwolfia?
(a) By the presence of small central pith (b) By the absence of small central pith
(c) By the presence of vascular bundle (d) None
98. Drug of choice to treat H1N1 influenza is
(a) Adefovir (b) Cidofovir
(c) Oseltamivir (d) Tenofovir
99. Identify the correct statement
(P) Condensed tannins are polymers flavans
(Q) Condensed tannins do not contain sugar redidues
(R) Hydrolyzabletannis are polymers of gallic acid or ellagic acids
(S) Gallic acid and catechin are psedotannins
(a) Only Q (b) P and Q
(c) P, Q and R (d) P, Q, R and S
100. Quick breaking aerosols are applicable:
(a) Orally (b) Parenterally (c) Topically (d) Ophthalmically

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101. In the Reimer-Tiemann reaction………… Reacts with phenol to give the ortho-formylated product
(a) Carbene (b) Carbocation
(c) Carbanion (d) Free redical
102. Which of the following in not added to chewing tablet
(a) Gildant (b) Disintegrant
(c) Lubricant (d) Anitadhesive
103. Range of C=O stretching in enol is
(a) 1800 cm-1 (b) 1710 cm-1
(c) 1685 cm-1 (d) 1655 cm-1
104. Match the following phytochemicals with their source and use
(P) Shatavrin (1) Buckwheat and citrus fruits, strengthens capillary walls
(Q) Resvertatrol (2) Broccoli and cabbage, protects against bladder cancer
(R) Glucosinolates (3) Purple grape, anti inflammatory, anticancer
(S) Rutin (4) Asparagus, galactogogue
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
105. Which RNA polymerase is the only whose product are capped
(a) RNA polymerase I (b) RNA polymerase II
(c) RNA polymerase III (d) RNA pimase
106. Match the scientist awarded with Nobel prize with their contributions
(P) Alexander Fleming (1) GPCR
(Q) Kobilka (2) -blocker
(R) Banting (3) Penicillin
(S) Black (4) Insulin
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
107. Mean arterial pressure is
(a) Systolic pressure – Diastolic Pressure (b) (Diastolic pressure + Diastolic Prssure )/2
(c) Diastotic alcohol + (1/3)  pulse pressuree (d) Stroke valume X heart rate
108. Eugenol is
(a) Monoterpene alcohol (b) Sesquiterpene alcohol
(c) Aliphatic alcohol (d) Phenylpropene

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109. The Vitamin required for carboxylation of pyruvate to form oxaloacetate is
(a) Thiamine (b) Biotin (c) Pyridoxine (d) Niacin
110. Which of the following circled hydrogen is most acidic
(a) O (b) (c) O O (d) O
O O

CH3 H CH3 OCH3 CH3 C H CH3 C OCH3

H2 H2
111. The drug formulated as suspension follows ………….. order reaction
(a) Zero (b) Pseudo Zero
(c) First (d) Pseudo first
112. Which diuretic causes decrease in release of insulin
(a) Chlorothiazide (b) Ethacynic zero
(c) Triamterene (d) Acetazolamide
113. Match the following drugs with their mode of action
(P) Methotrexate (1) Mitotic inhibitor
(Q) Cyclophosphamide (2) Antimetabolite
(R) Vincristine (3) Alkylating agent
(S) Dactinomycin (4) Intercalating agent
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
114. Which compound would be expected to show intense IR absorption at 3300 cm -1
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (b) CH3CH2C=CH
(c) CH3C=CCH3 (d) CH2CHCH2CH3
115. In the carbon NMR, in what region of the spectrum does one typically observe carbons which are part of
the aromatic ring
(a) -10-0 ppm (b) 40-60 ppm
(c) 80-100 ppm (d) 120-150 ppm
116. Meclofenamate belongs to which class of drug
(a) Slicylates (b) Oxicams
(c) Aryl antaranillic acid (d) p-Amino phenols
117. Match the following crude with their chemical constituents
(P) Aloe (1) Hesperidine
(Q) Ginger (2) Palmitin
(R) Lemon peel (3) Barbaloin

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 (S) Olive oil (4) Allin
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (d) P-3, Q-1, R-1, S-4
118. Dopamine agonists with tetralene function
(a) Ropinorole (b) Pirebidil
(c) Pramipixole (d) Rotigotine
119. The IUPAC name of the compound-(CH3)2CHCH2Cl:
(a) 2-methyl-3-chloropropane (b) 1-chloro-3-mehtyl butane
(c) 1-chloropentane (d) 2-mehtyl-4-chlorobutane
120. A powerful inhibitor of stomatal opening is
(a) Auxin (b) Bytokinin
(c) Gibberellin (d) Abscisic acid
121. What is the renal clearance of a substance, if its concentration in plasma is 10mg, concentration in urine is
100 mg and urine flow is 2 ml/min
(a) 0.02 ml/min (b) 0.2 ml/min
(c) 2ml/min (d) 20 ml/min
122. Aim of pharmacovigilance is
(a) To monitor drug toxicity (b) To monitor unauthorized drug manufacture
(c) To monitor rational use of drugs (d) To check and control drug costs
123. Phase zero studies is a/an
(P) Exploratory investigational new drug study
(Q) Human microdosingstudies
(R) Step to speed up drug discovery/ development process
(S) Mandatory by FDA
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) P, Q and R (d) P, Q, R and S
124. Parenteral product must be:
(a) Packed in bottle (b) Sterilized
(c) Free from viable/living organism (d) Pyrogenic
125. Quinine present in highest amount in:
(a) C. calisaya (b) C. officinalis (c) C. ledgeriana (d) C. succirubra

End of paper

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 ANSWER KEY GPAT 2014

1-d 2-c 3-b 4-d 5-b 6-b 7-d 8-c 9-b 10-c
11-d 12-d 13-c 14-c 15-b 16-d 17-b 18-b 19-a 20-d
21-a 22-b 23-a 24-a 25-d 26-a 27-a 28-d 29-b 30-b
31-c 32-c 33-c 34-d 35-d 36-c 37-b 38-a 39-a 40-d
41-c 42-c 43-a 44-a 45-d 46-b 47-d 48-c 49-b 50-d
51-b 52-b 53-d 54-d 55-a 56-b 57-b 58-b 59-d 60-a
61-a 62-a 63-b 64-a 65-b 66-d 67-c 68-d 69-a 70-a
71-d 72-b 73-c 74-d 75-c 76-a 77-b 78-b 79-c 80-a
81-c 82-b 83-c 84-a 85-c 86-d 87-d 88-b 89-b 90-b
91-a 92-d 93-d 94-c 95-b 96-d 97-a 98-c 99-d 100-c
101-a 102-b 103-d 104-a 105-b 106-c 107-c 108-d 109-b 110-c
111-a 112-b 113-d 114-b 115-d 116-c 117-c 118-d 119-a 120-d
121-d 122-a 123-c 124-b 125-c

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