24/04/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 11

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI & XII

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The mass and volume of a body are 6.237 g and 4. If R and h represents the horizontal range and
3.5 cm3, respectively. the density of the material maximum height respectively of an oblique
of the body in correct significant figures is R2
projectile, then + 2h represents
(1) 1.78 g/cm3 (2) 1.782 g/cm3 8h
(1) Time of flight
(3) 1.8 g/cm3 (4) 1.7 g/cm3
(2) Maximum horizontal range
2. The magnitude of velocity of a body is given by v
(3) Maximum height
= |t – 6| m/s, then average speed of body
between 2 s to 6 s will be (4) Velocity of projectile at highest point
5. Rohan is running down with some acceleration
(1) 2 m/s (2) 6 m/s
on a plank kept on fixed inclined plane as shown
(3) 3.5 m/s (4) 4.5 m/s in figure. Which of the following cases are
   possible?
3. In the figure, E − D + C equals

(1) Plank may accelerate up

(2) Plank may accelerate down
 
(1) A (2) B (3) Plank may be at rest
  (4) All of these
(3) − A (4) −B
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Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

6. A ball falls vertically onto a floor, with momentum 12. A particle performing SHM with frequency
P, then bounces repeatedly. The coefficient of 10 Hz and amplitude 5 cm is initially in left
restitution is ½, the total momentum imparted by extreme position. The equation of its
the ball to the floor is displacement will be (x is in metre)
3P  3π 
(1) 2P (2) (1) x 0.05 sin  20πt +
=
2  2 
(3) 3P (4) 4P π

(2) x 0.05 sin  20πt + 
=
7. A body is projected vertically up with certain  2 
velocity. At point P in its path, the ratio of its
potential energy to kinetic energy is 36 : 64. The (3) x 0.05 sin (10πt )
=
ratio of velocity of projection to velocity at ‘P’ is (4) x 0.05 sin ( 20πt + π )
=
5 4
(1) (2) 13. The gravitational field at some point in space is
4 3 
g= 3i + 4 j N/ kg. The force exerted on a 2 kg
9 3
(3) (4) mass placed at a point is
4 2
(1) 10 N, 53° with x-axis
8. The radius of gyration of a body about an axis
parallel to axis passing through centre of mass (2) 10 N, 37° with x-axis
and at a distance 7 cm from centre of mass is (3) 7 N, 53° with x-axis
(1) 16 cm (2) 9 cm (4) 7 N, 37° with x-axis
(3) 15 cm (4) 25 cm 14. A wire having a linear mass density 5.0 × 10–3
9. A spherical shell of mass m and radius R is kg/m is stretched between two rigid supports with
pulled on a horizontal plane by a horizontal force tension of 450 N. The wire resonates at
F acting on its centre of mass. If shell is rolling frequency 400 Hz. The next higher frequency at
without slipping, then angular acceleration of the which the wire resonates is 500 Hz. The length of
spherical shell will be the wire will be
3F 3F (1) 1 m (2) 4 m
(1) (2)
2mR 5mR (3) 4.5 m (4) 1.5 m
5F 5F 15. Which of the following is correct.
(3) (4)
7mR 2mR (1) Doppler effect in sound and light is symmetric
10. A uniform rod AB of mass ‘m’ length ‘2a’ is (2) Doppler effect in sound and light is
allowed to fall under gravity with AB in horizontal asymmetric
position. When the speed of rod is ‘v’ suddenly (3) Doppler effect in sound is symmetric and in
the end ‘A’ is fixed. The angular velocity of rod
light is asymmetric
with which it begins to rotate will be
(4) Doppler effect in sound is asymmetric and in
3v 5v light is symmetric
(1) (2)
2a 3a
16. At t = 0, a transverse wave pulse travelling along
3v 5v positive x-direction with speed 3 m/s in a string
(3) (4)
4a 2a 9
described by the function y = given that
11. The amplitude of vibration of particle is given by x2
a0 x ≠ 0 . Transverse velocity of particle at
am = where a0, a, b and c are
2
aω − bω + c x = 3 m and t = 3 s will be
positive. The condition for single resonant 1 1
frequency will be (1) − m/s (2) m/s
4 4
(1) b2 > 4ac (2) b2 < 4ab
1 1
(3) − m/s (4) m/s
(3) b2 = 4ac (4) Both (2) and (3) 2 2
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)

17. Which of the following phenomenon gives (1) 848 cal (2) 424 cal
evidence of the molecular motion? (3) 336 cal (4) 672 cal
(1) Brownian motion (2) Diffusion
22. Expansion of liquid on heating is different from
(3) Evaporation (4) All of these that solids, since expansion of liquid is
18. Volume versus temperature graph of two mole of (1) More than solids because molecular spacing
helium gas is as shown in figure. The ratio of in them is less
change in internal energy and the work done by
(2) More than solids because molecular spacing
the gas in process 1-2 is
in them is more
(3) Less than solid because molecular spacing in
them is more
(4) Less than solids because molecular spacing
in them is less
23. A body of mass 25 g is under water at a depth of
50 cm. If the specific gravity of material of body is
5 3 5, the work necessary to lift the body slowly to
(1) (2)
2 2 the surface is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
7 7 (1) 980 × 105 erg (2) 9.8 × 105 erg
(3) (4)
2 3 (3) 980 × 106 erg (4) 98 × 105 erg
19. The efficiency of the reversible heat engine is ηr 24. Charge Q is distributed on two metallic spheres
and that of irreversible heat engine is ηI . Which having radii R and 3R such that both spheres
of the following is correct? have equal charge density then charge on
smaller sphere is
(1) ηr < 1 and ηi > 1 (2) ηr < ηi
Q Q
(1) (2)
(3) ηr > 1 and ηi < 1 (4) ηr > ηi 10 9

20. Temperature of a body θ is slightly more than 9Q 10Q

(3) (4)
the temperature of the surrounding θ0 , its rate of 10 11
cooling (R) versus temperature of body ( θ ) is 25. Charge is distributed non-uniformly in a volume
plotted, its shape would be (as per Newton’s law of solid insulating sphere of radius ‘a’ such that
of cooling) volume charge density ( ρ ) varies with distance
from the centre (r) as ρ (r) = Cr (r ≤ a, and C is
constant). Magnitude of electric field strength
(1) (2) outside the sphere at a distance ‘r’ from centre
will be

Ca5
(1)
5ε0 r 2

(3) (4) Ca 4
(2)
5ε 0 r 2

21. The specific heat of substance varies with Ca 4

(3)
temperature (T) as S = 0.20 + 1.4T cal/gm°C. 4ε 0 r 2
Heat required to raise the temperature of
2 gm of the substance from 5°C to 25°C is Ca5
(4)
(T is in °C) 4ε0 r 2

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Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

26. There are four identical metal plates each of area (1) 1 (2) 3
A. The plates are placed at equal distance ‘d’
(3) 2 (4) 4
Aε0
successively as shown in figure. If = 2 µF 31. A transformer is used to light 150 W, 30 V lamp
d
and source of emf 10 V is connected between x from a 240 V mains. The current in the main
and y, then charge on plate x will be cable is 0.8 ampere. The efficiency of the
transformer is nearly
(1) 78% (2) 48%
(3) 88% (4) 92%
32. In the circuit shown, there is a box containing a
resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor of
(1) +30 µC (2) +10 µC capacitance C connected in series to an
(3) +20 µC (4) −20 µC alternating source of angular frequency 4 rad/s.
1
27. The current flowing in the given circuit is 0.2 A. Box has power factor and the circuit has
3
The potential difference between the points
overall power factor 1. The impedance of the box
A and B will be
is

(1) 0.4 V (2) 2 V

3 1
(1) (2)
(3) 0.2 V (4) 1 V 4 2C 4C
28. Current I is carried in a wire of length L. If the
1 3
wire is turned into a circular coil. The maximum (3) (4)
magnitude of torque acting on it, when placed in 4 2C 4 2C
a given uniform magnetic field B, will be 33. Let P and E denotes the linear momentum and
LiB 2 2
Li B energy of photon. If the wavelength is decreased
(1) (2)
2 2 (1) Both P and E decrease
2 2
L iB Li B (2) Both P and E increase
(3) (4)
4π 4π (3) P increase and E decrease
29. The relation between voltage sensitivity σv and (4) P decrease and E increase
the current sensitivity σi of a moving coil 34. The number of photons emitted per second by 60
galvanometer is (Given G is the resistance of the W source of monochromatic light of wavelength
galvanometer) 5000 Å is
σ (1) 1.5 × 1020 (2) 1.5 × 10–18
(1) σv = Gσi (2) σv = i
G (3) 3.5 × 1020 (4) 3.5 × 10–18
1 35. The ratio of magnetic dipole moment to angular
(3) σv σi =G (4) σv σi =
G momentum in a hydrogen like atom is
30. If a coil of 50 turns area 5.0 cm2 is suddenly e e
removed from magnetic field. It is observed that (1) (2)
m 4m
charge of 5 × 10–4 C flows into the coil. If the
resistance of the coil is 100 Ω , the magnetic flux e e
(3) (4)
density in Wb/m2 is 3m 2m

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)

36. A photon of energy 70 eV collides with He+

ion. 41. The combination of the gate shown below
Due to this collision, He -atom gets ionized. The
+ produces
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron
is
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 15.6 eV
(3) 27.2 eV (4) 31.2 eV
(1) AND gate
16
37. The energy required to split O nucleus into
8 (2) NAND gate
four α-particles is (The mass of α-particle is (3) NOR gate
4.002603 U and that of oxygen is 15.994915 U)
(4) OR gate
(1) 14.43 MeV (2) 6.53 MeV 42. A ray of light passes normally through a slab
(3) 10.2 MeV (4) 18.4 MeV (µ =1.5) of thickness 50 mm. If speed of light in

1
th vacuum be 3 × 108 m/s, then time taken by the
38. A certain substance decays to of its initial ray to cross the slab will be
64
activity in 24 days. The half-life of the substance (1) 250 ps (2) 5 ps
will be (3) 250 ns (4) 5 ns
(1) 6 days (2) 4 days 43. A diverging lens of focal length 20 cm having
(3) 3 days (4) 2 days refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index 3. The focal length and nature of
39. In a moderately doped P-type semiconductor, the the lens in liquid is
fermi energy level lies
(1) 20 cm divergent (2) 20 cm convergent
(1) In the forbidden energy gap nearer to the
(3) 10 cm divergent (4) 10 cm convergent
conduction band
44. The wavelength of light used in two young’s
(2) In the forbidden energy gap nearer to the double slit experiments are 400 nm and 500 nm.
valence band If the fringe width are equal when the screen are
(3) In the middle of forbidden energy gap placed at 1.2 m and 1.6 m respectively. The ratio
(4) Outside the forbidden energy gap of the distance between the slits is

40. 4 ideal diodes are connected as shown in circuit. 4 3

(1) (2)
The current through 20 Ω resistor will be 5 4
1 3
(3) (4)
2 5
45. Two polaroid sheets are placed one over the
other with their axes inclined to each other at an
angle θ. If only 12.5% of intensity of unpolarised
(1) 0.2 A light incident on the first sheet emerges out from
(2) 0.3 A the second sheet, the value of θ is
(3) 0.5 A (1) 45° (2) 90°

(4) Zero (3) 30° (4) 60°

CHEMISTRY
46. Na2SO4.xH2O on heating loses 55.9% of its 47. 1 L of an unknown gas at NTP weighs 1.97g,
weight, value of x is. formula of the gas may be
(1) 2 (2) 5 (1) CO (2) CO2
(3) 6 (4) 10 (3) NO (4) SO2

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Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

48. Number of radial nodes for 3d orbital is 56. Which of the following pairs of solution in not an
(1) 3 (2) Zero acidic buffer?

(3) 2 (4) 1 (1) CH3COOH and CH3COONa

49. Which of the following transitions will emit photon (2) H3PO4 and NaH2PO4
with minimum wavelength? (3) HNO3 and KNO3
(1) n4 → n5 (2) n4 → n2 (4) HCN and NaCN
(3) n4 → n1 (4) n2 → n1 57. 

PCl5 (g) 
 PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) ; ∆H =+ x kcal
50. For a gas at 273 K and 20 atm, molar volume is above reaction is favoured in forward direction by
20 percent greater than that for an ideal gas (1) Addition of PCl3(g)
under similar conditions. The correct statement
(2) Removal of Cl2(g)
about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is
(3) Increasing the temperature
(1) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
58. Oxidation states of N in NH4NO3 are
(3) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(1) 0, 0 (2) +3, –3
(4) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(3) –3, +5 (4) +3, +5
51. A certain gas takes four times as long to effuse
out as helium under similar conditions. The 59. Ion which cannot be oxidized by KMnO4?
molecular mass of gas will be 2− 2−
(1) SO3 (2) S2O3
(1) 8
−
(2) 16 (3) NO3 (4) S2−

(3) 32 60.
(4) 64
52. At 298 K, a gas expands 0.1 L to 0.4 L against a
Compound ‘D’ is
constant pressure of 20 atm. The work done
(1) OCl2 (2) Ca(OH)2
during the process is (given: 1 L atm = 100 J)
(3) CaOCl2 (4) CaHCO3
(1) –600 J (2) +600 J
61. Correct order of mobility of the alkali metal ions in
(3) –400 J (4) –800 J
water is
53. Two moles of an ideal gas expanded
(1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+
spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will
be (2) Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(1) 2 R cal (2) R cal (3) Na+ > Rb+ > K+
(3) 10 R cal (4) Zero (4) K+ > Na+ > Rb+
54. Molecule with sp3d hybridised central atom is 62. Number of B – O – B bonds is a borax molecule
is
(1) XeOF2 (2) XeF2
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) PCl5 (4) All of these
(3) 2 (4) 4
55. Select the molecule/ion having highest bond
order among the following 63. NaBH4 + I2 → (X) compound of boron + other
+
products. (X) is
(1) O2 (2) O2
(1) H3BO3 (2) BI3
(3) O2− (4) O22− (3) [BI4]
–
(4) B2H6

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)

64. Most common fullerene C60 contains (1) 2 (2) 4

(1) 20 Hexagonal and 15 pentagonal rings (3) 6 (4) 8
(2) 20 Hexagonal and 12 pentagonal rings 72. The compound added to prevent chloroform to
(3) 12 Hexagonal and 20 pentagonal rings get oxidized to form phosgene gas is

(4) 20 Hexagonal and 20 pentagonal rings (1) Acetone (2) Methyl alcohol

65. IUAPC name of is (3) Aniline (4) Ethyl alcohol

73. Most reactive alcohol towards sodium metal is

(1) 1–Methoxy propane (1) CH3OH (2) (CH3)2CHOH

(2) Methoxy isopropane (3) (CH3)3COH (4) CH3CH2CH2OH

(3) Isopropoxy methane 74. Which of the following is/are the common
components of classical smog?
(4) 2–Methoxy propane
(1) SO2 (2) NO2
66. During nitrogen estimation of an organic
compound by kjeldehl’s method, the ammonia (3) PAN (4) All of these
evolved by 0.80 g of on organic compound was 75. Chemical which is the main cause of ozone layer
neutralised by 10 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4. Percentage depletion, is
of nitrogen in compound is (1) NO2 (2) NO
(1) 17.5 (2) 35 (3) CFCs (4) H2O2
(3) 56 (4) 42 76. Positive Fehling test is not given by
67. Least stable carbocation is (1) H–CHO (2) CH3CHO
⊕ ⊕
(1) CH3 (2) CH3 − CH − CH3 (3) C6H5CHO (4) Glucose
NH / ∆ Br /NaOH
⊕ ⊕ 77. CH3 COOH 
3
→ X 
2
→Y
(3) CH3 − C =
O (4) CH2 = CH
(1) C2H5Br (2) CH3Br
68. Geometrical isomerism is not shown by
(3) CH3OH (4) CH3NH2
(1) But–2–ene (2) Propene
∆
78. (CH3COO)2 Ca + (HCOO)2 Ca  → Product(s)
(3) But–1–ene (4) Both (2) and (3)
69. Select the compound which is non-aromatic Product(s) formed is/are
among the following (1) CH3CHO (2) H–CHO
O
II
(1) (2)
(3) CH3 − C − CH3 (4) All of these

O
79. ||
(3) (4) CN− H+ /H2O
CH3 – C – H + HCN  →(X)  →(Y)
compound (Y) is
Hg2 + , H+ /H O
70. Ph − C ≡ CH 
2
→ (X), compound (X) is
60°C Major (1) Acetic acid (2) Oxalic acid

(1) An alkene (2) An aldehyde (3) Lactic acid (4) Acetamide

(3) A ketone (4) An alcohol 80.

71. On monochlorination of 2–Methyl butane, the – +
total number of optically active compounds (1) CH3OH (2) HCOO Na
formed is (3) CH3CH2OH (4) C2H6

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Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

81. Carbylamine test is not given by 87. Highest and lowest flocculation power among
(1) CH3 – NH – CH3 (2) CH3NH2 Cl− , S2− , PO34− and [Fe(CN)6 ]4 − for a positive
(3) C6H5 – NH2 (4) C2H5NH2 charge sol is

82. . Select the (1) Cl− , PO34− (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]4 − , Cl−

appropriate reagent (X) in the above reaction (3) PO34− , S2− (4) S2− , PO34−
(1) H2O2 (2) Na in liquid NH3 88. Consider the given standard electrode potentials
(3) Pd–BaSO4 (4) DIBAL–H E°Zn2 + / Zn =
−0.726 V, E°Ag+ / Ag =
+ 0.8 V
83. Name of the polymer manufactured from
caprolactam is °
ECu2+ = °
+0.345 V, EFe 2+ −0.44 V
=
/Cu /Fe
(1) Nylon–2–nylon–6 (2) Nylon–6
Which among the following has highest oxidising
(3) Nylon–6, 6 (4) Dacron
power?
84. Glucose and fructose are
(1) Ag+ (2) Fe2+
(1) Position isomers
(3) Zn2+ (4) Cu2+
(2) Chain isomers
89. In Li2O, having antifluorite structure, the
(3) Functional group isomers
coordination number for Li+ ion and O2– ion are
(4) Metamers
respectively
85. Magnetic moment 3.87 BM is given by which of
(1) 4 and 8 (2) 3 and 6
the following ions?
(1) Cr3+ (2) Mn2+ (3) 6 and 6 (4) 4 and 4

(3) Sc3+ (4) Zn2+ 90. Morphine is an example of

86. If initial concentration of the reactant is doubled (1) Narcotic analgesics
then half life of first order reaction is (2) Non–narcotic analgesics
(1) Not affected (2) Halved (3) Tranquilizers
(3) Doubled (4) Tripled
(4) Antacids

BOTANY
91. Which of the given part of oxysome is a [Hint: Generation time = 1 minute]
peripheral membrane protein and contains the
(1) 108 minutes (2) 48 minutes
site for ATP synthesis?
(3) 38 minutes (4) 60 minutes
(1) Headpiece (2) Base
94. Crossing-over is seen in
(3) Stalk (4) F0 - part
92. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t isobrachial (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
chromosome. (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
(1) They are metacentric chromosome 95. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly
(2) The centromere is present at the centre matched?
(3) During anaphase, these chromosome are (i) Amoeba – Fission
divided into two equal arms (ii) Filamentous algae – Fragmentation
(4) They appear L – shaped during anaphase (iii) Planaria – Budding
93. A bacterium is multiplying in a cup and takes 36
(iv) Parrot – True regeneration
minutes to fill one-fourth of the cup with its
population. Calculate the time by which cup will (1) (i) and (ii) (2) Both (i) and (iii)
be completely filled with bacterial population. (3) Only (ii) (4) Both (iii) and (iv)
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)

96. The basic and lowest category in taxonomic (1) Only statement A is correct
hierarchy is (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Kingdom (2) Species (3) Both A and B are correct
(3) Genus (4) Order (4) Both A and B are incorrect.
97. Which of the given is smallest living organism 105. Select the correct movement of water in given
and can survive without oxygen? presentation of cells.
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Trypanosoma
(3) Paramecium (4) Euglena
98. The parasitic fungus on mustard plant is
(1) Albugo (2) Ustilago
(3) Puccinia (4) Colletotrichum
99. Ploidy level of endosperm in a typical
angiosperm is (1) (2)
(1) n (2) 2n
(3) 3n (4) 4n
(3) (4)
100. Which of the given organisms reproduce
asexually by non-motile spores? 106. Mark the following statements as true (T) or
(1) Laminaria (2) Polysiphonia false (F) and select the correct option.
(A) Simple diffusion is carried out by special
(3) Chara (4) Volvox
membrane proteins.
101. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family
(B) Facilitated diffusion is highly selective in
Liliaceae?
nature.
(1) Aloe (2) Belladona
(C) Facilitated diffusion is ATP dependent.
(3) Ashwagandha (4) Muliathi (D) Active transport uses energy and pump to
102. In monocotyledonous seed, the plumule and transport molecules against concentration
radicle are enclosed in sheath which are called gradient.
and respectively.
A B C D
(1) A – Coleorhiza, B – Coleoptile
(1) T T T T
(2) A – Coleoptile, B – Coleorhiza
(2) F T F T
(3) A – Coleorhiza, B – Epiblast
(4) A – Coleoptile, B – pericarp (3) T F T T

103. Which of the given tissues give rise to lateral (4) F T T F

roots in monocot root? 107. Which of the given group of elements deficiency
(1) Pericycle (2) Vascular bundles delay flowering?
(3) Cambium (4) Pith (1) N, S, Mo (2) Na, K, S
104. Read the statements (A – B) and select the (3) Mg, S, Si (4) Na, K, Mg
correct option. 108. How many molecules of ATP are required to fix
Statement A: Bulliform cells are absent in dicot one molecule of nitrogen during biological N2
leaf. fixation?
(1) 8 (2) 16
Statement B: The spring wood is lighter in colour
and has a lower density. (3) 32 (4) 12

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Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

109. Primary photosynthetic pigment in green plants 117. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. plants their
is/are mode of reproduction.
(1) Carotene (2) Xanthophylls (1) Rhizome – Banana
(3) Chlorophyll a (4) Chlorophyll b (2) Offset – Eichhornia
110. Which of the given is primary CO2 acceptor in C4- (3) Conidia – Chlamydomonas
plants?
(4) Bulbil – Oxalis
(1) PEP (2) OAA
118. Organic material, resistant to physical and
(3) PGA (4) RuBP biological decomposition and forms the outer
111. Net consumption of ATP for every CO2 molecule layer of pollen is
fixed in C4 plants is
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Callose
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) α-cellulosic fibres (4) Pectin
(3) 5 (4) 6
119. How many meiotic divisions are required to
112. Which of the given steps is first step of glycolysis produce 120 seeds in an angiospermic plant?
and catalysed by hexokinase?
(1) 30 (2) 120
(1) Glucose → Glucose - 6 - phosphate
(3) 150 (4) 60
(2) Glucose - 6 - phosphate
120. How many maximum types of gametes are
→ Fructose - 6 - phosphate
formed if genotype of a plant is TtRr?
(3) Fructose - 6 - phosphate
(1) 4 (2) 2
→ Fructose - 1, 6 - bisphosphate
(3) 3 (4) 1
(4) 2 – phosphoglycerate
121. A haemophilic male marries a homozygous
→ phosphoenolpyruvate normal female. What is the percentage of their
113. Which of the given has maximum value of son to become hemophilic?
respiratory quotient under aerobic respiration? (1) 0% (2) 50%
(1) Malic acid (2) Oxalic acid (3) 75% (4) 25%
(3) Glucose (4) Tripalmitin
122. Select the incorrect match.
114. Which of the given pair of hormones shows their
(1) zw – zz type – Birds
synergistic effect on cell division?
(2) xx – xo type – Drosophila
(1) I A A and Cytokinin
(3) zo – zz type – Butterflies
(2) Ethylene and ABA
(3) I A A and GA3 (4) xx – xy type – Human

(4) Ethylene and cytokinin 123. 5′ – C A T A G G C T T – 3′ is the one strand of

DNA. What will be the most appropriate
115. How many of the plants listed in the box are
sequence for its another strand of DNA?
LDPs?
(1) 5′ – G T A T C C G A A – 3′
Wheat, Sugarbeet, Radish, Soyabean,
Tobacco, Cucumber (2) 3′ – A A G C C T A T G – 5′
(3) 5′ – A A G C C T A T G – 3′
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (4) 3′ – G T A T C C G A A – 5′

116. Which of the given organisms have maximum 124. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was
life-span? developed by

(1) Elephant (2) Parrot (1) T.H Morgan (2) Altmann

(3) Banyan tree (4) Cow (3) Alec Jeffrey (4) Jacob and Monod
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)

125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t humus. 129. Match column-I with column-II w.r.t sacred
groves and their locations.
(1) Essential for nutritional cycling
Column-I Column-II
(2) Is light coloured amorphous substance
(A) Khasi and Jaintia Hills(i) Rajasthan
(3) Is slightly acidic, colloidal and acts as
(B) Aravali Hills (ii) Madhya Pradesh
reservoir of nutrients
(C) Western Ghat (iii) Meghalaya
(4) Is highly resistant to microbial action
(D) Sarguja (iv) Karnataka
126. Lice on human is an example of
A B C D
(1) Ectoparasitism
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Endoparasitism
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) Brood parasitism
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Mutualism
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
127. The productivity of oceans is billion
tons and for terrestrial ecosystem is 130. How many biosphere reserves are in India?
billion tons. (1) 14 (2) 41
(1) A – 155, B – 115 (3) 98 (4) 25

(2) A – 15, B – 55 131. Yellowing of Taj Mahal is reported to be caused

by
(3) A –55, B – 115
(1) CO (2) SO2
(4) A –55, B –15
(3) NO2 (4) Hydrocarbons
128. 132. Noise becomes unbearable at
(1) 140 dB (2) 25 dB
(3) 30 – 60 dB (4) 60 – 80 dB
133. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of
bacterium
(1) Penicillium roquefortii
With reference to above schematic
(2) Penicillium cambertii
representation of energy flow in an ecosystem,
select the P, Q and R. (3) Lactobacillus
(4) Propionibacterium sharmanii
P Q R 134. ‘Pusa swarnim’ developed by hybridisation and
resistant against white rust, is a variety of
(1) Gases NPP GPP
(1) Wheat (2) Brassica
(2) Water GPP NPP (3) Cauliflower (4) Cowpea
vapours 135. From 1960 to 2000, wheat production increased
from A million tonnes to B million tonnes.
(3) Dust NPP GPP
particle (1) A – 11, B – 75
(2) A – 21, B – 75
(4) Clouds Secondary Primary
(3) A – 11, B – 95
productivity productivity
(4) A – 11, B – 85

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Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

ZOOLOGY
136. Unit of natural selection is ______ and unit of A : Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity
evolution is ______ of species between organisms of one
generation to the next generation.
Choose the option which fills blanks correctly
respectively B : For normal fertility in humans at least 40% of
total sperms in each ejaculate must have
(1) Individual, population
normal shape and size and at least 60% of
(2) Population, individual them must show vigorous motility
(3) Species, genera (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Genera, species (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
137. Which one among the following has maximum life
span? (4) Only statement B is correct

(1) Parrot 140. Which of the following is a non-medicated IUD?

(1) Lippe’s loop (2) Multiload - 375
(2) Crow
(3) LNG - 20 (4) Progestasert
(3) Indian elephant
141. Choose the correct match w.r.t. disease and its
(4) Horse causative agent.
138. Following flow chart represents hormonal control (1) Genital herpes – Human papilloma virus
of testis. (2) Genital warts – Herpes simplex virus
(3) Trichomoniasis – Chlamydia trachomatis
(4) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
142. The process by which organisms with same
evolutionary history evolve different phenotypic
adaptations in response to different
environmental challenges is called
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Saltation
Choose option which correctly represents 143. Choose correct option to complete the analogy
A, B, C and D. between placental mammals and Australian
marsupials
A B C D
Anteater : Numbat : : Lemur : _________
(1) Gonad- FSH Cells of Androgen (1) Bobcat (2) Marsupial mole
otropin Sertoli
(3) Flying phalanger (4) Spotted cuscus
(2) GHRH FSH Cells of Prolactin 144. Select incorrect statement w.r.t Homo habilis
Leydig (1) They were the first human like beings, the
(3) GnRH LH Androgen Cells of Sertoli hominids
(2) The brain capacities were between
(4) GnRH LH Cells of Testos-terone 650 – 800cc
Sertoli
(3) They probably did not eat meat
139. Read statements A and B carefully and choose (4) They used hides to protect their body and
the correct option. buried their dead

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)

145. Who finally dismissed the theory of spontaneous 150. Read following statements w.r.t AIDS and select
generation? the correct option.

(1) S.L Miller Statement A – AIDS is an infectious disease

caused by a retrovirus that
(2) A.I Oparin
contains enzyme reverse
(3) Louis Pasteur transcriptase for synthesis of host
(4) Ernst von Baer DNA.

146. Which gas was probably absent in free form in Statement B – HIV infected macrophages can
early atmosphere? survive while the virus replicates
and is released.
(1) CH4
(1) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct.
(2) O2
(2) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect.
(3) NH3
(3) Only statement ‘A’ is correct.
(4) CO2 (4) Only statement ‘B’ is correct.
147. Choose a disease which is not transmitted from 151. Choose option which is matched correctly w.r.t
one person to another drugs, their receptors and effect
(1) Tuberculosis
Drugs Receptors Effect
(2) Ringworm
(1) Morphine CNS Sedative
(3) Hepatitis – B
(2) Charas Cardiovascular Analgesic
(4) Cancer
system
148. Match Column - A with Column - B and select the
(3) Cocaine Gastrointestinal Depressant
option having correct match.
tract
Column - A Column - B
(4) Nicotine CNS Hallucinogen
(i) Physical barriers (a) Skin & mucous
membrane 152. Choose incorrect statement
(ii) Physiological barriers (b) NK cells and (1) Outbreeding can involve mating of animals
neutrophils within the same breed with no common
(iii) Cytokine barriers (c) Acid in stomach ancestors or within different breeds.
and tears in eye (2) A single outcross often helps to overcome
(iv) Cellular barriers (d) Interferons inbreeding depression.
(1) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv - d (3) Outcrossing is necessary to evolve pure line
(2) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv - b in any animal.

(3) i – a, ii – d, iii – c, iv - b (4) Breeding between two different species is

called interspecific hybridisation.
(4) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv - a
153. Superovulation in multiple ovulation embryo
149. H2 L2 represents – transfer technology is possible with the help of
(1) Heavy chains and light chains in antibody certain hormones having effect similar to

(2) Heavy meromyosin and light meromyosin (1) FSH

(3) Higher and lower parts of antibody (2) LH

(3) Progesterone
(4) Heavy domains and light domains within
antigens (4) Oestrogen

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Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

154. Insertional inactivation in pUC8 plasmid is done 159. Select the mismatched option w.r.t tissue and
at site of lac-Z gene coding for enzyme their occurrence in various parts of the body
β-galactosidase. The colonies of recombinant
(1) Simple squamous – Renal capsule and
bacteria containing this pUC8 plasmid are grown epithelium PCT of nephron
onto agar medium containing ampicillin and X-
gal. The colonies appeared (2) Pseudostratified – Trachea and large
ciliated columnar bronchi
(1) White in colour epithelium
(2) Blue in colour
(3) White fibrous – Sclera of eye and
(3) Orange in colour connective tissue periosteum of bones
(4) Red in colour (4) Transitional – Ureters and inner
155. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t epithelium lining of urinary
observing DNA fragments separated by agarose bladder
gel electrophoresis?
160. If double stranded DNA molecule of a eukaryotic
(1) DNA can be seen in visible light after staining cell contains 20% guanine, the percentage of
with any stain other three bases expected to be present in this
DNA are
(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible
light (1) C 20%, A 30%, T 30%

(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen (2) C 30%, A 25%, T 25%
in visible light (3) C 40%, A 20%, T 20%

(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen (4) C 23%, A 27%, T 30%
only after exposure to UV light 161. A graph is plotted between potential energy at y-
axis and progression of the structural
156. SCID is caused by defect in gene coding for
transformation of substrate into product on x-axis.
(1) Adenosine deaminase Which of the following describe the given graph
(2) DNA polymerase correctly?

(3) Carboxypeptidase
(4) Restriction endonuclease
157. Which product of genetic engineering is useful in
dissolving fibrin of blood clot?
(1) tPA
(2) Human insulin
(3) α interferon
(1) ‘B’ represents activation energy without
(4) Erythropoietin
enzyme
158. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t blood
(2) ‘A’ represents activation energy with enzyme
(1) Blood is a fluid connective tissue
(3) Reaction is endothermic
(2) It consists of formed elements and plasma (4) Reaction is exothermic
(3) Blood cells and plasma both are responsible 162. Vital capacity of lungs is correctly represented
for transportation of O2 and CO2 as
(4) Cells of blood form matrix and structural (1) TV + IRV + ERV (2) TV + IRV + RV
proteins like other connective tissues (3) TV + ERV (4) IRV + ERV

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)

163. In chronic smokers, the alveoli of lungs are 169. Read statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ carefully and choose
enlarged and damaged which reduces total the correct option.
surface area for exchange of respiratory gases.
Statement A : All eucoelomates are triploblastic
This disease is called
but all triploblastic animals are not eucoelomates.
(1) Asthma
Statement B : All vertebrates are chordates but
(2) Atelectasis all chordates are not vertebrates.
(3) Bronchitis
(1) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Emphysema
(2) Both A and B are correct
164. Amino acids are absorbed by intestinal mucosa
of small intestine by all of the following processes (3) Only A is correct
except (4) Only B is correct
(1) Simple diffusion
170. Diagrammatic view of ear is given in following
(2) Facilitated diffusion figure.
(3) Active transport
(4) Osmosis
165. In a patient, the parietal cells of gastric mucosa
are damaged. Which of the following is not likely
to occur?
(1) Iron deficiency anaemia
(2) Megaloblastic anaemia
(3) Chances of peptic ulcer
(4) Impaired protein digestion in stomach
Choose option which represents A and B
166. Which of the following is not an organ of
correctly.
lymphatic system?
(1) Lymph nodes (1) ‘A’ is eustachian tube and ‘B’ is cochlear
nerve
(2) Spleen
(2) ‘A’ is external auditory meatus and ‘B’ is
(3) Thymus
cochlear nerve
(4) Kidney
(3) ‘A’ is external auditory meatus and ‘B’ is
167. Heart attack is also known as vestibular nerve
(1) Heart block
(4) ‘A’ is eustachian tube and ‘B’ is external
(2) Myocardial infarction auditory meatus
(3) Cardiac arrest 171. Select the incorrect statement among following
(4) Heart failure (1) Brain stem does not include hypothalamus
168. In which of the following phylum are all animals
(2) Breathing centre is not located in medulla
exclusively marine?
oblongata
(1) Chordata
(3) Cerebral cortex has motor areas to regulate
(2) Mollusca movement of voluntary muscles
(3) Porifera
(4) Cerebral aqueduct occurs as a narrow
(4) Echinodermata passage in midbrain

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Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

172. Aquatic animals are mostly ammonotelic because 176. Choose incorrect option w.r.t hormone, chemical
(1) Ammonia helps in checking inflow of water nature and function
into body. Hormone Chemical Function
nature
(2) Excretion of ammonia requires large amount
of water which is available to these animals. (1) Aldosterone Steroid Salt retention

(3) Water contains less nitrogen. (2) Prostaglandins Fatty acid Uterine
derivative contraction
(4) They all have protonephric kidney.
(3) Melatonin Amine Regulates
173. Which one of the following correctly explains the biological
function of a specific part of a human nephron? clock

(1) Distal – Reabsorption of K+ ions (4) Parathormone Protein Hypocalcemia

convoluted into the surrounding 177. Which one of the following hormones does not
tubule blood capillaries work through a single definite target organ?

(2) Afferent – Carries blood away (1) LH (2) GH

arteriole from the glomerulus (3) Glucagon (4) PRL
towards renal vein 178. Choose incorrect statement.
(1) Cutaneous respiration is found in
(3) Podocytes – Create slit pores for the
earthworm and frog.
filtration of blood into
the Bowman’s capsule (2) Both insects and birds have wings for flight
and crop for storage and digestion of food.
(4) Henle’s – Maximum reabsorption (3) Polyp and medusa forms are exhibited by
loop of major substances Hydra.
from the glomerular
(4) Echinoderms are considered advanced non
filtrate.
chordates due to mesodermal endoskeleton,
174. Intervertebral disc consists of a shock absorber enterocoelom and deuterostomic
skeletal connective tissue known as development.

(1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Elastic cartilage 179. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t
locomotory structures?
(3) Fibro cartilage (4) Calcified cartilage
(1) Nereis – Parapodia
175. Read the following statements carefully
(2) Hydra – Tentacles
Statement A : Age related disorder characterised (3) Cockroach – Jointed legs
by decreased bone mass and increased chances
(4) Sponges – Osculum
of fracture.
180. How many structures in the given box are
Statement B : Its causative factors include unpaired and found in a male cockroach?
deficiency of calcium, vitamin D and imbalance of
hormones like calcitonin, PTH and sex steroids. Labrum, Labium, Mandible, Hypopharynx,
Compound eye, Antenna, Spermatheca,
These above characters are associated with
Ejaculatory duct, Vagina, Phallomere, Nerve
which disease?
cord, Anus
(1) Gout (2) Osteoporosis
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) Arthritis (4) Muscular dystrophy (3) 5 (4) 8

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