Date of Examination: January 17, 2021

Time: 2:30 PM to 03:30 PM

Question Paper Code: 51
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same
Question Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, smart watches, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /result
in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
Q.No.12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative
(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
d appropriate
bubble(s), as shown
a c
Q.No.30
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 08 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference .

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

 51

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) –

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on

the Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iaptexam.in on the specified format till February
12, 2021.

13. The answers / solutions to this question paper will be available on the website
www.iapt.org.in by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to the students successful in the Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1%”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend
OCSC – 2021 at HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website
www.iapt.org.in after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS
will be displayed on the website www.iapt.org.in by February 25, 2021. See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed
on www.iapt.org.in by March 1, 2021.

Some useful physical constants and useful data

Physical Constant Symbol Magnitude with SI units
Gravitation Constant G 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
Solar mass M☉ 2×1030 kg
Acceleration due to gravity on earth g 9.8 ms- 2
Charge of an electron e 1.6 × 10-19 C
Mass of an electron m 9.1 × 10-31 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
An α particle is a doubly ionized He atom

2
 51

Question Paper Code: 51

Time: 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt all the Thirty Two questions
PART: A – 1
OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS, ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. Gravitational collapse is the contraction of an astronomical object under its own gravity. This
draws the matter inwards towards the centre of gravity. A neutron star is an example of the
collapsed core of a giant star. A certain neutron star of radius 10 km is of mass 1.5 M☉. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the neutron star is nearly
(a) 2.0 × 108 m/s2 (b) 2.0 × 1012 m/s2 (c) 2.6 × 1016 m/s2 (d) 2.6 × 1020 m/s2

2. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is a very delicate component of the human ear. Typically, its
diameter is 1 cm. The maximum force the ear can withstand is 2.5 N. In case a diver has to enter
sea water of density 1.05 X 103 kg/m3 without any protective gear, the maximum safe depth for
the diver to go into water is about
(a) 12 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

3. Two illuminated point objects O1 and O2 are placed at a distance 24 cm from each other along the
principal axis of a thin convex lens of focal length 9 cm such that images of both the objects are
formed at the same position. Then the respective distances of the lens from O1 and O2 (in cm) are
(a) 12 and 12 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 14 and 10 (d) 16 and 8

4. A nuclear reactor is working at 30% efficiency (i.e. conversion of nuclear energy to electrical
energy). In this reactor 235
92𝑈 nucleus undergoes fission and releases 200 MeV energy per atom.
If 1000 kW of electrical power is obtained in this reactor, then the number of atoms
disintegrated (undergone fission) per second in the reactor is
(a) 1.04 × 1017 (b) 6.5 × 1012 (c) 3.125 × 1012 (d) 3.25 × 1032

5. Two blocks A and B are in contact with each other and are placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A force of 90N is applied horizontally on block A (situation I) and the same force is
applied horizontally on block B (situation II). Mass of A is 20 kg and B is 10 kg. Then the correct
statement is

(a) Since both the blocks are in contact, magnitude of force by block A on B will be 90 N (situation
I) and magnitude of force by block B on A will also be 90 N (situation II).
(b) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 30 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 60 N (situation II).
(c) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 60 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 30 N (situation II).
(d) The 90 N force will produce acceleration of different magnitudes in A and B.

3
 51

6. In the adjoining circuit, R = 5 Ω. It is desired that

the voltage across Rx should be 6 V, then the value
of Rx should be
(a) 4 Ω (b) 12 Ω
(c) 16 Ω (d) 20 Ω

7. In one process for waterproofing, a fabric is exposed to (CH3)2SiCl2 vapors. The vapors react with
the hydroxyl groups on the surface of the fabric or with traces of water to form the waterproofing
-
film [(CH3)2SiO]n, by the reaction; n(CH3)2SiCl2 + 2nOH  2nCl + nH2O + [(CH3)2SiO]n
where n stands for a larger integer. The waterproofing film is deposited on the fabric layer upon
layer. Each layer is 6 Å thick [the thickness of the (CH3)2SiO group]. How much (CH3)2SiCl2 is
needed to waterproof one side of a piece of fabric, 1m by 2m, with a film 300 layers thick? The
density of the film is 1.0 g/cm3.
(a) 0.63g (b) 0.36g (c) 6.3g (d) 3.6g

8. Given that at a certain temperature, in 1.5 L vessel, 5.0 mole of A, 7.0 mole of B and 0.1 mole of
C are present. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction: A+ B ⇌ 2C + heat is
about
(a) 7.22 × 10-4 (b) 2.31 × 10-4 (c) 7.22 × 10-5 (d) 6.11 ×10-4

9. An alcohol (A) on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at a high temperature yields compound (B). On
ozonolysis every molecule of compound (B) yields two molecules of acetaldehyde. Which of the
following is the starting alcohol (A)?
(a) 1- butanol (b) 2- butanol (c) propanal (d) 2-propanol

10. In an experiment with 100 mL 0.1 M solution of Copper Chloride, by mistake 5 gm of a

mixture containing equal weights of Tin, Silver, Lead and Calcium, was added. Finally after some
time the solution gets completely decolorized. This is mainly due to:
(a) Silver reacts with Copper Chloride
(b) Calcium reacts with Copper Chloride
(c) All the metals react with Copper Chloride
(d) Only Lead reacts with Copper Chloride forming white precipitate of lead chloride

11. Triclosan (C12H7Cl3O2) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent. It is a polychloro phenoxy

phenol. It is widely used as a preservative and antimicrobial agent in personal care products
such as soaps, skin creams, and deodorants etc. A label on a 200 mL hand sanitizer bottle
claims that it contain Triclosan 0.2% w/v. What will be the number of molecules of Triclosan
present in the bottle? (NA is Avogadro’s Number)
(a) 1.4 X 1025 NA (b) 1.4 X 1024 NA (c) 1.4 X 1023 NA (d) 1.4 X 1022 NA

12. Suppose that A and B forms compound B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 12 g and 0.1
mole of B2A weighs 10 g, what are the atomic weight of A and B respectively?
(a) 70 and 25 (b) 50 and 20 (c) 40 and 30 (d) 30 and 40

4
 51

13. If in a wheat mutant, the length of chromosome 1B was found to be 6.7 µm instead of 5.0 µm,
approximately how many additional base pairs are incorporated in the mutant chromosome?
(a) 0.5 X 104 bp (b) 5 X 104 bp (c) 1.7 X 104 bp (d) 5.78 X 104 bp

14. Considering following characteristics, identify the correct inheritance pattern from the given
options.
 Most affected individuals are male.
 Affected sons result from female parents who are either affected or who are known to be
carriers because they have affected brothers, fathers, or maternal uncles.
 Affected daughters are born to affected fathers and either affected or carrier mothers.
 The sons of affected mothers should be affected.
 Approximately half the sons of carrier mothers should be affected.
(a) Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (b) Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
(c) Sex-Linked Recessive Inheritance (d) Sex-Linked Dominant Inheritance

15. In a marine ecosystem with rich diversity of fauna, which of the following images would be a
correct representation of pyramid of biomass?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

16. The transpiration pull is maximum under which of the following conditions?
(a) Closed stomata, low light intensity, humid air
(b) Open stomata, dry air, moist soil
(c) Open stomata, dry air, dry soil
(d) Open stomata, high humidity in air, moist soil

17. Curcuma longa, Azadirachta indica, Basmati Rice, Indian Ginseng are all related to which of the
following concepts?
(a) Bioterrorism (b) Biomagnification (c) Biopiracy (d) Biodegradation

18. Read following criteria carefully.

 Slow evolutionary change relative to similar entities
 Gross similarity to an ancestral fossil
 Very low taxonomic richness today compared to the past
 Phylogenetic inference of specific characters as plesiomorphic
 Phylogenetic inference of a genealogical divergence between other groups that diverged
in the distant past
 Known in the fossil record before being discovered alive
These criteria can be used to categorize a group of organisms the most probably into
(a) Connecting links (b) Living fossils (c) Endangered species (d) Extinct species

5
 51

19. If x 2  ax  b  0 and x2  bx  a  0 have one common root, then

(a) a  b  0 (b) a  b  1 (c) a  b  1 (d) a 2  b2  1

A
20. Six circles each of radius 3 cm are inscribed in an equilateral
triangle ABC such that they touch each other and also touch
the sides of the triangle as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
height of triangle ABC is
(a) 6(2 3  3) (b) 3(2 3  6)
(c) 3(2 3  3) (d) 6(2  3 )
B C

21. Find the remainder when x 51 is divided by x 2  3x  2

(a) x (b) (251  2) x  2  251 (c) (251  1) x  2  251 (d) 0

3
22. If  1, where x is a real number, then
x2
(a) 2  x  5 (b) x  2 or 5  x (c) x  2 or x  5 (d) None of these

23. If 10025  25 is written in decimal notations, then the sum of its digits is
(a) 444 (b) 442 (c) 424 (d) 422

24. ABC is a triangle, the bisector of angle A meets BC in D. The relation between AD, AB and AC is
(a) AD  AB.AC (b) AD  AB. AC (c) AD  AB.AC (d) AD  AB.AC

6
 51

PART: A – 2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS. BUBBLE ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.

25. An infinitely long conductor when carrying current I,

produces a magnetic field B around it. If such a conductor
is placed along the X-axis, then the magnitude of 𝐵 at a
𝜇 2𝐼
distance r is given by the relation B = 4𝜋0 𝑟 , (where
𝜇0
4𝜋
=10-7 NA-2 is a constant). The following figure shows
such an infinitely long conductor placed along X-axis
carrying current I and B at S is 2 x 10-4 T, directed into the
plane of the paper at S. Given r = 1 cm. Then, the correct
statements are
(a) I = 10 A
(b) The number of electrons transported across the cross section of the conductor during time
1s is 6.25 ×1019
(c) The direction of current I is from X2 to X1.
(d) The electrons will flow in the direction X2 to X1.

26. The ratio of the charge of an ion or subatomic particle to its mass (q/m) is called specific charge.
Then the correct options are
(a) SI unit of specific charge can be written as A⋅s /kg.
(b) If all the isotopes of hydrogen are ionized then tritium will have least specific charge among
them.
(c) specific charge of an α- particle will be greater than that of an electron.
(d) specific charge ratio of an electron is 1.75 × 1011 C/kg.

27. Acetylene torches and burners used by glassblowers produce intense ultraviolet light.
Glassblowers wear special glasses that contain which of the following elements to absorb the
UV?
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Cerium (d) Didymium

28. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in four test tubes A, B, C, and D. In test tube A,
1M acetic acid is added; in test tube B, 1M HCl is added; in test tube C, 1M HNO3 is added; and
in test tube D, 1M NaOH is added. The observed results will be:
(a) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in A (b) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in B
(c) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in C (d) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in D

29. Choose the correct statements from following options.

(a) A robust adaptive immune response is initiated using weakened forms of the bacterium
known as live attenuated vaccines.
(b) Administration of a killed or chemically inactivated virus can trigger a weaker adaptive
immune response, but can be strengthened with booster doses.
(c) A conjugate or multivalent component always reduces immunogenicity of the vaccine.
(d) Inclusion of alum, cytokines, and/or lipids always reduces the immune response to a vaccine.

7
 51

30. The minimum energy required to exist that is the energy required to perform chemical reactions
even when a person is at rest is called the basal metabolic rate (BMR), which accounts for about
50 to 70 per cent of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. It is influenced
by many factors. Some statements are made about these factors. Choose the correct
statements from the following options.
(a) Thyroid hormone decreases metabolic rate (b) Growth hormone increases metabolic rate
(c) Fever decreases metabolic rate (d) Malnutrition decreases metabolic rate

2 2
31. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 and 81sin 𝑥 + 81cos 𝑥 = 30, then x =
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 2𝜋
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 3
[Useful information: πc = 180°, sin (180 – θ) = sin θ, sin θ ≥ 0 when 0 ≤ θ ≤ 180°]

32. Given (a  b) 2  (a  c) 2  (b  c) 2 , then which of the following statements are true?

(a) equation is valid when b  c and a ≠ c
(b) equation is valid when a  b
(c) equation is valid when a  c
(d) Given equation is not valid when a, b and c are distinct.

8
 51

ROUGH WORK

9
 Date of Examination: January 17, 2021
Time: 2:30 PM to 03:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 52
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same
Question Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, smart watches, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /result
in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
Q.No.12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative
(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
d appropriate
bubble(s), as shown
a c
Q.No.30
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 8 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

 52

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) –

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on

the Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iaptexam.in on the specified format till February
12, 2021.

13. The answers / solutions to this question paper will be available on the website
www.iapt.org.in by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to the students successful in the Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1%”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend
OCSC – 2021 at HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website
www.iapt.org.in after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS
will be displayed on the website www.iapt.org.in by February 25, 2021. See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed
on www.iapt.org.in by March 1, 2021.

Some useful physical constants and useful data

Physical Constant Symbol Magnitude with SI units
Gravitation Constant G 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
Solar mass M☉ 2×1030 kg
Acceleration due to gravity on earth g 9.8 ms- 2
Charge of an electron e 1.6 × 10-19 C
Mass of an electron m 9.1 × 10-31 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
An α particle is a doubly ionized He atom

2
 52

Question Paper Code: 52

Time: 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt all the Thirty Two questions
PART: A – 1
OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS, ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. In one process for waterproofing, a fabric is exposed to (CH3)2SiCl2 vapors. The vapors react with
the hydroxyl groups on the surface of the fabric or with traces of water to form the waterproofing
film [(CH3)2SiO]n, by the reaction;
n(CH ) SiCl + 2nOH  2nCl- + nH O + [(CH ) SiO]
3 2 2 2 3 2 n

where n stands for a larger integer. The waterproofing film is deposited on the fabric layer upon
layer. Each layer is 6 Å thick [the thickness of the (CH3)2SiO group]. How much (CH3)2SiCl2 is needed
to waterproof one side of a piece of fabric, 1m by 2m, with a film 300 layers thick? The density of
the film is 1.0 g/cm3.
(a) 0.63g (b) 0.36g (c) 6.3g (d) 3.6g

2. An alcohol (A) on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at a high temperature yields compound (B). On
ozonolysis every molecule of compound (B) yields two molecules of acetaldehyde. Which of the
following is the starting alcohol (A)?
(a) 1- butanol (b) 2- butanol (c) propanal (d) 2-propanol

3. Given that at a certain temperature, in 1.5 L vessel, 5.0 mole of A, 7.0 mole of B and 0.1 mole of C
are present. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction: A+ B ⇌ 2C + heat is about
(a) 7.22 × 10-4 (b) 2.31×10-4 (c) 7.22 × 10-5 (d) 6.11 ×10-4

4. Triclosan (C12H7Cl3O2) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent. It is a polychloro phenoxy phenol. It

is widely used as a preservative and antimicrobial agent in personal care products such as soaps,
skin creams, and deodorants etc. A label on a 200 mL hand sanitizer bottle claims that it contains
Triclosan 0.2% w/v. What will be the number of molecules of Triclosan present in the bottle? (NA
is Avogadro’s Number)
(a) 1.4 X 1025 NA (b) 1.4 X 1024 NA (c) 1.4 X 1023 NA (d) 1.4 X 1022 NA

5. In an experiment with 100 mL 0.1 M solution of Copper Chloride, by mistake 5 gm of a mixture

containing equal weights of Tin, Silver, Lead and Calcium, was added. Finally after some time the
solution gets completely decolorized. This is mainly due to:
(a) Silver reacts with Copper Chloride
(b) Calcium reacts with Copper Chloride
(c) All the metals react with Copper Chloride
(d) Only Lead reacts with Copper Chloride forming white precipitate of lead chloride

6. Suppose that A and B forms compound B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 12 g and 0.1
mole of B2A weighs 10 g, what are the atomic weight of A and B respectively?
(a) 70 and 25 (b) 50 and 20 (c) 40 and 30 (d) 30 and 40

3
 52

7. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is a very delicate component of the human ear. Typically its
diameter is 1 cm. The maximum force the ear can withstand is 2.5 N. In case a diver has to enter
sea water of density 1.05 X 103 kg/m3 without any protective gear, the maximum safe depth for
the diver to go into water is about
(a) 12 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

8. Gravitational collapse is the contraction of an astronomical object under its own gravity. This
draws the matter inwards towards the centre of gravity. A neutron star is an example of the
collapsed core of a giant star. A certain neutron star of radius 10 km is of mass 1.5 M☉. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the neutron star is nearly
(a) 2.0 × 108 m/s2 (b) 2.0 × 1012 m/s2 (c) 2.6 × 1016 m/s2 (d) 2.6 × 1020 m/s2

9. Two illuminated point objects O1 and O2 are placed at a distance 24 cm from each other along the
principal axis of a thin convex lens of focal length 9 cm such that images of both the objects are
formed at the same position. Then the respective distances of the lens from O1 and O2 (in cm) are
(a) 12 and 12 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 14 and 10 (d) 16 and 8

10. A nuclear reactor is working at 30% efficiency (i.e. conversion of nuclear energy to electrical
energy). In this reactor 235
92𝑈 nucleus undergoes fission and releases 200 MeV energy per atom.
If 1000 kW of electrical power is obtained in this reactor, then the number of atoms
disintegrated (undergone fission) per second in the reactor is
(a) 1.04 × 1017 (b) 6.5 × 1012 (c) 3.125 × 1012 (d) 3.25 × 1032

11. Two blocks A and B are in contact with each other and are placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A force of 90N is applied horizontally on block A (situation I) and the same force is
applied horizontally on block B (situation II). Mass of A is 20 kg and B is 10 kg. Then the correct
statement is

(a) Since both the blocks are in contact, magnitude of force by block A on B will be 90 N (situation
I) and magnitude of force by block B on A will also be 90 N (situation II).
(b) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 30 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 60 N (situation II).
(c) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 60 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 30 N (situation II).
(d) The 90 N force will produce acceleration of different magnitudes in A and B.

4
 52

12. In the adjoining circuit, R = 5 Ω. It is desired that

the voltage across Rx should be 6 V, then the
value of Rx should be
(a) 4 Ω (b) 12 Ω
(c) 16 Ω (d) 20 Ω

13. If x 2  ax  b  0 and x2  bx  a  0 have one common root, then

(a) a  b  0 (b) a  b  1 (c) a  b  1 (d) a 2  b2  1

14. Find the remainder when x 51 is divided by x 2  3x  2

(a) x (b) (251  2) x  2  251 (c) (251  1) x  2  251 (d) 0

15. If 10025  25 is written in decimal notations, then the sum of its digits is
(a) 444 (b) 442 (c) 424 (d) 422

16. Six circles each of radius 3 cm are inscribed in an equilateral A

triangle ABC such that they touch each other and also touch
the sides of the triangle as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
height of triangle ABC is
(a) 6(2 3  3) (b) 3(2 3  6)
(c) 3(2 3  3) (d) 6(2  3 )
B C
3
17. If  1, where x is a real number, then
x2
(a) 2  x  5 (b) x  2 or 5  x (c) x  2 or x  5 (d) None of these

18. ABC is a triangle, the bisector of angle A meets BC in D. The relation between AD, AB and AC is
(a) AD  AB.AC (b) AD  AB. AC (c) AD  AB.AC (d) AD  AB.AC

19. If in a wheat mutant, the length of chromosome 1B was found to be 6.7 µm instead of 5.0 µm,
approximately how many additional base pairs are incorporated in the mutant chromosome?
(a) 0.5 X 104 bp (b) 5 X 104 bp (c) 1.7 X 104 bp (d) 5.78 X 104 bp

20. The transpiration pull is maximum under which of the following conditions?
(a) Closed stomata, low light intensity, humid air (b) Open stomata, dry air, moist soil
(c) Open stomata, dry air, dry soil (d) Open stomata, high humidity in air, moist soil

5
 52

21. Considering following characteristics, identify the correct inheritance pattern from the given
options.
 Most affected individuals are male.
 Affected sons result from female parents who are either affected or who are known to be
carriers because they have affected brothers, fathers, or maternal uncles.
 Affected daughters are born to affected fathers and either affected or carrier mothers.
 The sons of affected mothers should be affected.
 Approximately half the sons of carrier mothers should be affected.
(a) Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (b) Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
(c) Sex-Linked Recessive Inheritance (d) Sex-Linked Dominant Inheritance

22. In a marine ecosystem with rich diversity of fauna, which of the following images would be a
correct representation of pyramid of biomass?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

23. Curcuma longa, Azadirachta indica, Basmati Rice, Indian Ginseng are all related to which of the
following concepts?
(a) Bioterrorism (b) Biomagnification (c) Biopiracy (d) Biodegradation

24. Read following criteria carefully.

 Slow evolutionary change relative to similar entities
 Gross similarity to an ancestral fossil
 Very low taxonomic richness today compared to the past
 Phylogenetic inference of specific characters as plesiomorphic
 Phylogenetic inference of a genealogical divergence between other groups that diverged
in the distant past
 Known in the fossil record before being discovered alive
These criteria can be used to categorize a group of organisms the most probably into
(a) Connecting links (b) Living fossils (c) Endangered species (d) Extinct species

6
 52

PART: A – 2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS. BUBBLE ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.

25. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in four test tubes A, B, C, and D. In test tube A,
1M acetic acid is added; in test tube B, 1M HCl is added; in test tube C, 1M HNO3 is added; and
in test tube D, 1M NaOH is added. The observed results will be:
(a) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in A (b) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in B
(c) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in C (d) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in D

26. Acetylene torches and burners used by glassblowers produce intense ultraviolet light.
Glassblowers wear special glasses that contain which of the following elements to absorb the
UV?
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Cerium (d) Didymium

27. An infinitely long conductor when carrying current I,

produces a magnetic field B around it. If such a conductor
is placed along the X-axis, then the magnitude of 𝐵 at a
𝜇 2𝐼
distance r is given by the relation B = 0 , (where
4𝜋 𝑟
𝜇0
4𝜋
=10-7 NA-2 is a constant). The following figure shows
such an infinitely long conductor placed along X-axis
carrying current I and B at S is 2 x 10-4 T, directed into the
plane of the paper at S. Given r = 1 cm. Then, the correct
statements are
(a) I = 10 A
(b) The number of electrons transported across the cross section of the conductor during time
1s is 6.25 ×1019
(c) The direction of current I is from X2 to X1.
(d) The electrons will flow in the direction X2 to X1.

28. The ratio of the charge of an ion or subatomic particle to its mass (q/m) is called specific charge.
Then the correct options are
(a) SI unit of specific charge can be written as A⋅s /kg.
(b) If all the isotopes of hydrogen are ionized then tritium will have least specific charge among
them.
(c) specific charge of an α- particle will be greater than that of an electron.
(d) specific charge ratio of an electron is 1.75 × 1011 C/kg.

2 2
29. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 and 81sin 𝑥 + 81cos 𝑥 = 30, then x =
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 2𝜋
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 3
[Useful information: πc = 180°, sin (180 – θ) = sin θ, sin θ ≥ 0 when 0 ≤ θ ≤ 180°]

7
 52

30. Given (a  b) 2  (a  c) 2  (b  c) 2 , then which of the following statements are true?

(a) equation is valid when b  c and a ≠ c
(b) equation is valid when a  b
(c) equation is valid when a  c
(d) Given equation is not valid when a, b and c are distinct.

31. Choose the correct statements from following options.

(a) A robust adaptive immune response is initiated using weakened forms of the bacterium
known as live attenuated vaccines.
(b) Administration of a killed or chemically inactivated virus can trigger a weaker adaptive
immune response, but can be strengthened with booster doses.
(c) A conjugate or multivalent component always reduces immunogenicity of the vaccine.
(d) Inclusion of alum, cytokines, and/or lipids always reduces the immune response to a vaccine.

32. The minimum energy required to exist that is the energy required to perform chemical reactions
even when a person is at rest is called the basal metabolic rate (BMR), which accounts for about
50 to 70 per cent of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. It is influenced
by many factors. Some statements are made about these factors. Choose the correct
statements from the following options.
(a) Thyroid hormone decreases metabolic rate (b) Growth hormone increases metabolic rate
(c) Fever decreases metabolic rate (d) Malnutrition decreases metabolic rate

8
 52

ROUGH WORK

9
 Date of Examination: January 17, 2021
Time: 2:30 PM to 03:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 53
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same
Question Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, smart watches, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /result
in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
Q.No.12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative
(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
d appropriate
bubble(s), as shown
a c
Q.No.30
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 8 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference .

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

 53

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) –

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on

the Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iaptexam.in on the specified format till February
12, 2021.

13. The answers / solutions to this question paper will be available on the website
www.iapt.org.in by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to the students successful in the Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1%”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend
OCSC – 2021 at HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website
www.iapt.org.in after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS
will be displayed on the website www.iapt.org.in by February 25, 2021. See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed
on www.iapt.org.in by March 1, 2021.

Some useful physical constants and useful data

Physical Constant Symbol Magnitude with SI units
Gravitation Constant G 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
Solar mass M☉ 2×1030 kg
Acceleration due to gravity on earth g 9.8 ms- 2
Charge of an electron e 1.6 × 10-19 C
Mass of an electron m 9.1 × 10-31 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
An α particle is a doubly ionized He atom

2
 53

Question Paper Code: 53

Time: 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt all the Thirty Two questions
PART: A – 1
OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS, ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. Six circles each of radius 3 cm are inscribed in an equilateral A

triangle ABC such that they touch each other and also touch
the sides of the triangle as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
height of triangle ABC is
(a) 6(2 3  3) (b) 3(2 3  6)
(c) 3(2 3  3) (d) 6(2  3 )
B C
2. Find the remainder when x is divided by x  3x  2
51 2

(a) x (b) (251  2) x  2  251 (c) (251  1) x  2  251 (d) 0

3
3. If  1, where x is a real number, then
x2
(a) 2  x  5 (b) x  2 or 5  x (c) x  2 or x  5 (d) None of these

4. If x 2  ax  b  0 and x2  bx  a  0 have one common root, then

(a) a  b  0 (b) a  b  1 (c) a  b  1 (d) a 2  b2  1

5. If 10025  25 is written in decimal notations, then the sum of its digits is

(a) 444 (b) 442 (c) 424 (d) 422

6. ABC is a triangle, the bisector of angle A meets BC in D. The relation between AD, AB and AC is
(a) AD  AB.AC (b) AD  AB. AC (c) AD  AB.AC (d) AD  AB.AC

7. If in a wheat mutant, the length of chromosome 1B was found to be 6.7 µm instead of 5.0 µm,
approximately how many additional base pairs are incorporated in the mutant chromosome?
(a) 0.5 X 104 bp (b) 5 X 104 bp (c) 1.7 X 104 bp (d) 5.78 X 104 bp

8. Considering following characteristics, identify the correct inheritance pattern from the given
options.
 Most affected individuals are male.
 Affected sons result from female parents who are either affected or who are known to be
carriers because they have affected brothers, fathers, or maternal uncles.
 Affected daughters are born to affected fathers and either affected or carrier mothers.
 The sons of affected mothers should be affected.
 Approximately half the sons of carrier mothers should be affected.
(a) Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (b) Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
(c) Sex-Linked Recessive Inheritance (d) Sex-Linked Dominant Inheritance

3
 53

9. The transpiration pull is maximum under which of the following conditions?

(a) Closed stomata, low light intensity, humid air
(b) Open stomata, dry air, moist soil
(c) Open stomata, dry air, dry soil
(d) Open stomata, high humidity in air, moist soil

10. In a marine ecosystem with rich diversity of fauna, which of the following images would be a
correct representation of pyramid of biomass?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

11. Curcuma longa, Azadirachta indica, Basmati Rice, Indian Ginseng are all related to which of the
following concepts?
(a) Bioterrorism (b) Biomagnification (c) Biopiracy (d) Biodegradation

12. Read following criteria carefully.

 Slow evolutionary change relative to similar entities
 Gross similarity to an ancestral fossil
 Very low taxonomic richness today compared to the past
 Phylogenetic inference of specific characters as plesiomorphic
 Phylogenetic inference of a genealogical divergence between other groups that diverged
in the distant past
 Known in the fossil record before being discovered alive
These criteria can be used to categorize a group of organisms the most probably into
(a) Connecting links (b) Living fossils (c) Endangered species (d) Extinct species

13. Gravitational collapse is the contraction of an astronomical object under its own gravity. This
draws the matter inwards towards the centre of gravity. A neutron star is an example of the
collapsed core of a giant star. A certain neutron star of radius 10 km is of mass 1.5 M☉. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the neutron star is nearly
(a) 2.0 × 108 m/s2 (b) 2.0 × 1012 m/s2 (c) 2.6 × 1016 m/s2 (d) 2.6 × 1020 m/s2

14. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is a very delicate component of the human ear. Typically, its
diameter is 1 cm. The maximum force the ear can withstand is 2.5 N. In case a diver has to enter
sea water of density 1.05 X 103 kg/m3 without any protective gear, the maximum safe depth for
the diver to go into water is about
(a) 12 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

15. A nuclear reactor is working at 30% efficiency (i.e. conversion of nuclear energy to electrical
energy). In this reactor 235
92𝑈 nucleus undergoes fission and releases 200 MeV energy per atom.
If 1000 kW of electrical power is obtained in this reactor, then the number of atoms
disintegrated (undergone fission) per second in the reactor is
(a) 1.04 × 1017 (b) 6.5 × 1012 (c) 3.125 × 1012 (d) 3.25 × 1032

4
 53

16. Two illuminated point objects O1 and O2 are placed at a distance 24 cm from each other along the
principal axis of a thin convex lens of focal length 9 cm such that images of both the objects are
formed at the same position. Then the respective distances of the lens from O1 and O2 (in cm) are
(a) 12 and 12 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 14 and 10 (d) 16 and 8

17. Two blocks A and B are in contact with each other and are placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A force of 90N is applied horizontally on block A (situation I) and the same force is
applied horizontally on block B (situation II). Mass of A is 20 kg and B is 10 kg. Then the correct
statement is

(a) Since both the blocks are in contact, magnitude of force by block A on B will be 90 N (situation
I) and magnitude of force by block B on A will also be 90 N (situation II).
(b) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 30 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 60 N (situation II).
(c) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 60 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 30 N (situation II).
(d) The 90 N force will produce acceleration of different magnitudes in A and B.

18. In the adjoining circuit, R = 5 Ω. It is desired that

the voltage across Rx should be 6 V, then the value
of Rx should be
(a) 4 Ω (b) 12 Ω
(c) 16 Ω (d) 20 Ω

19. In one process for waterproofing, a fabric is exposed to (CH3)2SiCl2 vapors. The vapors react with
the hydroxyl groups on the surface of the fabric or with traces of water to form the waterproofing
film [(CH ) SiO] , by the reaction; n(CH ) SiCl + 2nOH  2nCl- + nH O + [(CH ) SiO]
3 2 n 3 2 2 2 3 2 n
where n stands for a larger integer. The waterproofing film is deposited on the fabric layer upon
layer. Each layer is 6 Å thick [the thickness of the (CH3)2SiO group]. How much (CH3)2SiCl2 is
needed to waterproof one side of a piece of fabric, 1m by 2m, with a film 300 layers thick? The
density of the film is 1.0 g/cm3.
(a) 0.63g (b) 0.36g (c) 6.3g (d) 3.6g

20. Given that at a certain temperature, in 1.5 L vessel, 5.0 mole of A, 7.0 mole of B and 0.1 mole of
C are present. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction: A+ B ⇌ 2C + heat is
about
(a) 7.22 × 10-4 (b) 2.31 × 10-4 (c) 7.22 × 10-5 (d) 6.11 ×10-4

21. An alcohol (A) on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at a high temperature yields compound (B). On
ozonolysis every molecule of compound (B) yields two molecules of acetaldehyde. Which of the
following is the starting alcohol (A)?
(a) 1- butanol (b) 2- butanol (c) propanal (d) 2-propanol

5
 53

22. In an experiment with 100 mL 0.1 M solution of Copper Chloride, by mistake 5 gm of a

mixture containing equal weights of Tin, Silver, Lead and Calcium, was added. Finally after some
time the solution gets completely decolorized. This is mainly due to:
(a) Silver reacts with Copper Chloride
(b) Calcium reacts with Copper Chloride
(c) All the metals react with Copper Chloride
(d) Only Lead reacts with Copper Chloride forming white precipitate of lead chloride

23. Suppose that A and B forms compound B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 12 g and 0.1
mole of B2A weighs 10 g, what are the atomic weight of A and B respectively?
(a) 70 and 25 (b) 50 and 20 (c) 40 and 30 (d) 30 and 40

24. Triclosan (C12H7Cl3O2) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent. It is a polychloro phenoxy

phenol. It is widely used as a preservative and antimicrobial agent in personal care products
such as soaps, skin creams, and deodorants etc. A label on a 200 mL hand sanitizer bottle
claims that it contain Triclosan 0.2% w/v. What will be the number of molecules of Triclosan
present in the bottle? (NA is Avogadro’s Number)
(a) 1.4 X 1025 NA (b) 1.4 X 1024 NA (c) 1.4 X 1023 NA (d) 1.4 X 1022 NA

6
 53

PART: A – 2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS. BUBBLE ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.
2 2
25. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 and 81sin 𝑥 + 81cos 𝑥 = 30, then x =
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 2𝜋
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 3
[Useful information: πc = 180°, sin (180 – θ) = sin θ, sin θ ≥ 0 when 0 ≤ θ ≤ 180°]

26. Given (a  b) 2  (a  c) 2  (b  c) 2 , then which of the following statements are true?

(a) equation is valid when b  c and a ≠ c
(b) equation is valid when a  b
(c) equation is valid when a  c
(d) Given equation is not valid when a, b and c are distinct.
27. Choose the correct statements from following options.
(a) A robust adaptive immune response is initiated using weakened forms of the bacterium
known as live attenuated vaccines.
(b) Administration of a killed or chemically inactivated virus can trigger a weaker adaptive
immune response, but can be strengthened with booster doses.
(c) A conjugate or multivalent component always reduces immunogenicity of the vaccine.
(d) Inclusion of alum, cytokines, and/or lipids always reduces the immune response to a vaccine.

28. The minimum energy required to exist that is the energy required to perform chemical reactions
even when a person is at rest is called the basal metabolic rate (BMR), which accounts for about
50 to 70 per cent of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. It is influenced
by many factors. Some statements are made about these factors. Choose the correct
statements from the following options.
(a) Thyroid hormone decreases metabolic rate (b) Growth hormone increases metabolic rate
(c) Fever decreases metabolic rate (d) Malnutrition decreases metabolic rate

29. An infinitely long conductor when carrying current I,

produces a magnetic field B around it. If such a conductor
is placed along the X-axis, then the magnitude of 𝐵 at a
𝜇 2𝐼
distance r is given by the relation B = 4𝜋0 𝑟 , (where
𝜇0
4𝜋
=10-7 NA-2 is a constant). The following figure shows
such an infinitely long conductor placed along X-axis
carrying current I and B at S is 2 x 10-4 T, directed into the
plane of the paper at S. Given r = 1 cm. Then, the correct
statements are
(a) I = 10 A
(b) The number of electrons transported across the cross section of the conductor during time
1s is 6.25 ×1019
(c) The direction of current I is from X2 to X1.
(d) The electrons will flow in the direction X2 to X1.

7
 53

30. The ratio of the charge of an ion or subatomic particle to its mass (q/m) is called specific charge.
Then the correct options are
(a) SI unit of specific charge can be written as A⋅s /kg.
(b) If all the isotopes of hydrogen are ionized then tritium will have least specific charge among
them.
(c) specific charge of an α- particle will be greater than that of an electron.
(d) specific charge ratio of an electron is 1.75 × 1011 C/kg.

31. Acetylene torches and burners used by glassblowers produce intense ultraviolet light.
Glassblowers wear special glasses that contain which of the following elements to absorb the
UV?
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Cerium (d) Didymium

32. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in four test tubes A, B, C, and D. In test tube A,
1M acetic acid is added; in test tube B, 1M HCl is added; in test tube C, 1M HNO3 is added; and
in test tube D, 1M NaOH is added. The observed results will be:
(a) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in A (b) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in B
(c) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in C (d) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in D

8
 53

ROUGH WORK

9
 54
Date of Examination: January 17, 2021
Time: 2:30 PM to 03:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 54
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same
Question Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, smart watches, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /result
in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
Q.No.12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative
(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
d appropriate
bubble(s), as shown
a c
Q.No.30
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 8 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

 54

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) –

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on

the Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iaptexam.in on the specified format till February
12, 2021.

13. The answers / solutions to this question paper will be available on the website
www.iapt.org.in by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to the students successful in the Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1%”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend
OCSC – 2021 at HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website
www.iapt.org.in after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS
will be displayed on the website www.iapt.org.in by February 25, 2021. See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed
on www.iapt.org.in by March 1, 2021.

Some useful physical constants and useful data

Physical Constant Symbol Magnitude with SI units
Gravitation Constant G 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
Solar mass M☉ 2×1030 kg
Acceleration due to gravity on earth g 9.8 ms- 2
Charge of an electron e 1.6 × 10-19 C
Mass of an electron m 9.1 × 10-31 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
An α particle is a doubly ionized He atom

2
 54

Question Paper Code: 54

Time: 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt all the Thirty Two questions
PART: A – 1
OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS, ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. Considering following characteristics, identify the correct inheritance pattern from the given
options.
 Most affected individuals are male.
 Affected sons result from female parents who are either affected or who are known to be
carriers because they have affected brothers, fathers, or maternal uncles.
 Affected daughters are born to affected fathers and either affected or carrier mothers.
 The sons of affected mothers should be affected.
 Approximately half the sons of carrier mothers should be affected.
(a) Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (b) Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
(c) Sex-Linked Recessive Inheritance (d) Sex-Linked Dominant Inheritance

2. In a marine ecosystem with rich diversity of fauna, which of the following images would be a
correct representation of pyramid of biomass?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

3. Curcuma longa, Azadirachta indica, Basmati Rice, Indian Ginseng are all related to which of the
following concepts?
(a) Bioterrorism (b) Biomagnification (c) Biopiracy (d) Biodegradation

4. The transpiration pull is maximum under which of the following conditions?

(a) Closed stomata, low light intensity, humid air
(b) Open stomata, dry air, moist soil
(c) Open stomata, dry air, dry soil
(d) Open stomata, high humidity in air, moist soil

5. Read following criteria carefully.

 Slow evolutionary change relative to similar entities
 Gross similarity to an ancestral fossil
 Very low taxonomic richness today compared to the past
 Phylogenetic inference of specific characters as plesiomorphic
 Phylogenetic inference of a genealogical divergence between other groups that diverged
in the distant past
 Known in the fossil record before being discovered alive
These criteria can be used to categorize a group of organisms the most probably into
(a) Connecting links (b) Living fossils (c) Endangered species (d) Extinct species

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6. If in a wheat mutant, the length of chromosome 1B was found to be 6.7 µm instead of 5.0 µm,
approximately how many additional base pairs are incorporated in the mutant chromosome?
(a) 0.5 X 104 bp (b) 5 X 104 bp (c) 1.7 X 104 bp (d) 5.78 X 104 bp

7. Six circles each of radius 3 cm are inscribed in an equilateral A

triangle ABC such that they touch each other and also touch
the sides of the triangle as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
height of triangle ABC is
(a) 6(2 3  3) (b) 3(2 3  6)
(c) 3(2 3  3) (d) 6(2  3 ) B C

8. If x 2  ax  b  0 and x2  bx  a  0 have one common root, then

(a) a  b  0 (b) a  b  1 (c) a  b  1 (d) a 2  b2  1

9. Find the remainder when x 51 is divided by x 2  3x  2

(a) x (b) (251  2) x  2  251 (c) (251  1) x  2  251 (d) 0

10. If 10025  25 is written in decimal notations, then the sum of its digits is
(a) 444 (b) 442 (c) 424 (d) 422

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11. If  1, where x is a real number, then
x2
(a) 2  x  5 (b) x  2 or 5  x (c) x  2 or x  5 (d) None of these

12. ABC is a triangle, the bisector of angle A meets BC in D. The relation between AD, AB and AC is
(a) AD  AB.AC (b) AD  AB. AC (c) AD  AB.AC (d) AD  AB.AC

13. Given that at a certain temperature, in 1.5 L vessel, 5.0 mole of A, 7.0 mole of B and 0.1 mole of
C are present. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction: A+ B ⇌ 2C + heat is
about
(a) 7.22 × 10-4 (b) 2.31 × 10-4 (c) 7.22 × 10-5 (d) 6.11 ×10-4

14. An alcohol (A) on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at a high temperature yields compound (B). On
ozonolysis every molecule of compound (B) yields two molecules of acetaldehyde. Which of the
following is the starting alcohol (A)?
(a) 1- butanol (b) 2- butanol (c) propanal (d) 2-propanol

15. In one process for waterproofing, a fabric is exposed to (CH3)2SiCl2 vapors. The vapors react with
the hydroxyl groups on the surface of the fabric or with traces of water to form the waterproofing
film [(CH ) SiO] , by the reaction; n(CH ) SiCl + 2nOH  2nCl- + nH O + [(CH ) SiO]
3 2 n 3 2 2 2 3 2 n
where n stands for a larger integer. The waterproofing film is deposited on the fabric layer upon
layer. Each layer is 6 Å thick [the thickness of the (CH3)2SiO group]. How much (CH3)2SiCl2 is
needed to waterproof one side of a piece of fabric, 1m by 2m, with a film 300 layers thick? The
density of the film is 1.0 g/cm3.
(a) 0.63g (b) 0.36g (c) 6.3g (d) 3.6g

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16. In an experiment with 100 mL 0.1 M solution of Copper Chloride, by mistake 5 gm of a

mixture containing equal weights of Tin, Silver, Lead and Calcium, was added. Finally after some
time the solution gets completely decolorized. This is mainly due to:
(a) Silver reacts with Copper Chloride
(b) Calcium reacts with Copper Chloride
(c) All the metals react with Copper Chloride
(d) Only Lead reacts with Copper Chloride forming white precipitate of lead chloride

17. Suppose that A and B forms compound B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 12 g and 0.1
mole of B2A weighs 10 g, what are the atomic weight of A and B respectively?
(a) 70 and 25 (b) 50 and 20 (c) 40 and 30 (d) 30 and 40

18. Triclosan (C12H7Cl3O2) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent. It is a polychloro phenoxy

phenol. It is widely used as a preservative and antimicrobial agent in personal care products
such as soaps, skin creams, and deodorants etc. A label on a 200 mL hand sanitizer bottle
claims that it contain Triclosan 0.2% w/v. What will be the number of molecules of Triclosan
present in the bottle? (NA is Avogadro’s Number)
(a) 1.4 X 1025 NA (b) 1.4 X 1024 NA (c) 1.4 X 1023 NA (d) 1.4 X 1022 NA

19. Two blocks A and B are in contact with each other and are placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A force of 90N is applied horizontally on block A (situation I) and the same force is
applied horizontally on block B (situation II). Mass of A is 20 kg and B is 10 kg. Then the correct
statement is

(a) Since both the blocks are in contact, magnitude of force by block A on B will be 90 N (situation
I) and magnitude of force by block B on A will also be 90 N (situation II).
(b) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 30 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 60 N (situation II).
(c) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 60 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 30 N (situation II).
(d) The 90 N force will produce acceleration of different magnitudes in A and B.

20. Gravitational collapse is the contraction of an astronomical object under its own gravity. This
draws the matter inwards towards the centre of gravity. A neutron star is an example of the
collapsed core of a giant star. A certain neutron star of radius 10 km is of mass 1.5 M☉. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the neutron star is nearly
(a) 2.0 × 108 m/s2 (b) 2.0 × 1012 m/s2 (c) 2.6 × 1016 m/s2 (d) 2.6 × 1020 m/s2

21.Two illuminated point objects O1 and O2 are placed at a distance 24 cm from each other along the
principal axis of a thin convex lens of focal length 9 cm such that images of both the objects are
formed at the same position. Then the respective distances of the lens from O1 and O2 (in cm) are
(a) 12 and 12 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 14 and 10 (d) 16 and 8

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22. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is a very delicate component of the human ear. Typically, its
diameter is 1 cm. The maximum force the ear can withstand is 2.5 N. In case a diver has to enter
sea water of density 1.05 X 103 kg/m3 without any protective gear, the maximum safe depth for
the diver to go into water is about
(a) 12 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

23. In the adjoining circuit, R = 5 Ω. It is desired that

the voltage across Rx should be 6 V, then the value
of Rx should be
(a) 4 Ω (b) 12 Ω
(c) 16 Ω (d) 20 Ω

24. A nuclear reactor is working at 30% efficiency (i.e. conversion of nuclear energy to electrical
energy). In this reactor 235
92𝑈 nucleus undergoes fission and releases 200 MeV energy per atom.
If 1000 kW of electrical power is obtained in this reactor, then the number of atoms
disintegrated (undergone fission) per second in the reactor is
(a) 1.04 × 1017 (b) 6.5 × 1012 (c) 3.125 × 1012 (d) 3.25 × 1032

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PART: A – 2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS. BUBBLE ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.

25. Choose the correct statements from following options.

(a) A robust adaptive immune response is initiated using weakened forms of the bacterium
known as live attenuated vaccines.
(b) Administration of a killed or chemically inactivated virus can trigger a weaker adaptive
immune response, but can be strengthened with booster doses.
(c) A conjugate or multivalent component always reduces immunogenicity of the vaccine.
(d) Inclusion of alum, cytokines, and/or lipids always reduces the immune response to a vaccine.

26. The minimum energy required to exist that is the energy required to perform chemical reactions
even when a person is at rest is called the basal metabolic rate (BMR), which accounts for about
50 to 70 per cent of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. It is influenced
by many factors. Some statements are made about these factors. Choose the correct
statements from the following options.
(a) Thyroid hormone decreases metabolic rate (b) Growth hormone increases metabolic rate
(c) Fever decreases metabolic rate (d) Malnutrition decreases metabolic rate

27. Given (a  b) 2  (a  c) 2  (b  c) 2 , then which of the following statements are true?

(a) equation is valid when b  c and a ≠ c
(b) equation is valid when a  b
(c) equation is valid when a  c
(d) Given equation is not valid when a, b and c are distinct.

2 2
28. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 and 81sin 𝑥 + 81cos 𝑥 = 30, then x =
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 2𝜋
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 3 6 3
[Useful information: πc = 180°, sin (180 – θ) = sin θ, sin θ ≥ 0 when 0 ≤ θ ≤ 180°]

29. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in four test tubes A, B, C, and D. In test tube A,
1M acetic acid is added; in test tube B, 1M HCl is added; in test tube C, 1M HNO3 is added; and
in test tube D, 1M NaOH is added. The observed results will be:
(a) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in A (b) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in B
(c) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in C (d) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in D

30. Acetylene torches and burners used by glassblowers produce intense ultraviolet light.
Glassblowers wear special glasses that contain which of the following elements to absorb the
UV?
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Cerium (d) Didymium

31. The ratio of the charge of an ion or subatomic particle to its mass (q/m) is called specific charge.
Then the correct options are
(a) SI unit of specific charge can be written as A⋅s /kg.
(b) If all the isotopes of hydrogen are ionized then tritium will have least specific charge among
them.
(c) specific charge of an α- particle will be greater than that of an electron.
(d) specific charge ratio of an electron is 1.75 × 1011 C/kg.

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32. An infinitely long conductor when carrying current I,

produces a magnetic field B around it. If such a conductor
is placed along the X-axis, then the magnitude of 𝐵 at a
𝜇 2𝐼
distance r is given by the relation B = 0 , (where
4𝜋 𝑟
𝜇0
4𝜋
=10-7 NA-2 is a constant). The following figure shows
such an infinitely long conductor placed along X-axis
carrying current I and B at S is 2 x 10-4 T, directed into the
plane of the paper at S. Given r = 1 cm. Then, the correct
statements are
(a) I = 10 A
(b) The number of electrons transported across the cross section of the conductor during time
1s is 6.25 ×1019
(c) The direction of current I is from X2 to X1.
(d) The electrons will flow in the direction X2 to X1.

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ROUGH WORK