PMP Exam Simulator 2021

PMP Exam 1

Question 1 of 200 Question ID: 6113366

You are leading a software development project, which requires knowledge of several programming languages. During
project execution, one of the developers has been pulled out of the project by her functional manager. The manager provided
you with another developer instead.

What should you do first?

A Provide the new developer with an ability test

B Introduce the new developer to the project sponsor

C Schedule training for the new developer

D Assign the developer the next user story in the backlog

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might you evaluate the new developer's current skill set?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Individual and team assessments are tools that may be useful in the Develop Team process. Individual and team assessment
tools give the project manager and the project team insight into areas of strengths and weaknesses. These tools help project
managers assess team members' preferences, aspirations, how they process and organize information, how they make
decisions, and how they interact with people. Various tools are available such as attitudinal surveys, specific assessments,
structured interviews, ability tests, and focus groups. An ability test would provide an assessment of the new developer's
existing competencies in order to determine what, if any, gaps in skill set exist and how they might be addressed. The
incorrect answer choices represent actions which are premature without understanding the new developer's existing
competencies. Of the available options, providing the new developer with an ability test to evaluate the developer's existing
competencies is what you, as the project manager should do first.

Details for Each Option:

A Provide the new developer with an ability test

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 Correct. An ability test would provide an assessment of the new developer's existing competencies in order to
determine what, if any, gaps in skill set exist and how they might be addressed.

B Introduce the new developer to the project sponsor

Incorrect. It is unlikely that introducing the new developer to the project sponsor should be your first step in this
situation. Bringing the new developer up to speed to perform the project work is more important. The developer's skills
should be assessed to understand what training, if any, is required.

C Schedule training for the new developer

Incorrect. The new developer may or may not need additional training for the current project. You, as the project
manager, should perform an individual assessment of the new developers existing skillset to determine if training is
necessary, and, if so, which training options would be the most beneficial in closing any knowledge gaps.

D Assign the developer the next user story in the backlog

Incorrect. The new developer may or may not have the required competencies to complete the next user story
successfully. You, as the project manager, should first gain an understanding of the new developer's skill set to
determine if the next user story is an appropriate assignment for the developer. Failing to take this step, may set the
new developer up for failure.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 342

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 2 of 200 Question ID: 6112518

You are leading a software development project, which is utilizing an agile framework. While monitoring the progress of the
project, it is apparent that velocity is trending down, and you are aware of some setbacks that have been encountered by the
development team. You want to capture and analyze lessons learned so far during the project to improve the process going
forward.

What is the best way to achieve this goal?

A Perform a sprint review

B Schedule a sprint planning meeting

C Conduct an iteration retrospective

D Lessons learned are not utilized on agile projects

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
During which agile ceremony does the project team discuss what went well and what improvements can be made?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The question is being asked from an agile perspective. Iteration (or sprint) planning, reviews, and retrospectives are all
ceremonies which are associated with an agile framework. The iteration retrospective is a specialized meeting that is held by
the project team at the end of an iteration. The purpose of the meeting is to discuss what went well during the iteration as well
as what improvements can be made for future iterations. Of the available choices, the iteration retrospective is the best way
to capture and analyze lessons learned during the project.

Details for Each Option:

A Perform a sprint review

Incorrect. An iteration (or sprint) review is a meeting where the project team demonstrates the product increment that
has been built during the iteration in order to get feedback from stakeholders and gain the approval of the product
owner. The iteration review is not a meeting that is focused on process improvement.

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B Schedule a sprint planning meeting
Incorrect. A sprint planning meeting is a meeting where the project team determines what will be accomplished during
the upcoming sprint (iteration) and how the results will be achieved. Process improvement is not a subject of the sprint
planning meeting.

C Conduct an iteration retrospective

Correct. An iteration retrospective is a specialized meeting that is held by the project team at the end of an iteration.
The purpose of the meeting is to discuss what went well during the iteration as well as what improvements can be
made for future iterations. In other words, based on the lessons learned so far in the project, the team tries to improve
the process going forward which is what was asked by the question, making this choice the best answer of those
provided.

D Lessons learned are not utilized on agile projects

Incorrect. Lessons learned or knowledge gained should be used for continuous improvement on all projects regardless
of the framework that is being employed. Without the benefit of learning from past experience, an organization will likely
experience the same problems on a recurring basis.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 224

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 3 of 200 Question ID: 6112659

During a sprint retrospective, the team members complain that the business analyst has been unresponsive to clarify the
work package to be developed in the sprint. As a result, the work package has not been accepted by the customer. The
scrum master reaches out to the business analyst and requests them to collaborate with the team during the upcoming
sprints.

What else should the scrum master do?

A No further action needed as the problem is resolved

B Report a work ethics violation to the human resources department

C Continue monitoring the business analyst's involvement

D Instruct the team to fix the work package to meet customer needs

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What assurance is there that the situation described in the scenario will not recur?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

If a business analyst is assigned to a project, requirement-related activities are the responsibility of that role. On agile
projects, this role is frequently performed by a product owner. The product owner serves as the voice of the customer and
needs to work closely with the development team to ensure that the team's efforts remain in alignment with project goals. The
lack of involvement from a business analyst/product owner can lead to slower development and rework. Although the scrum
master has reached out to the business analyst and requested them to work with the team in the upcoming sprints, this does
not mean that the issue will not recur. An effective leader should identify potential problems and address them proactively.
Since the business analyst's lack of involvement has been identified as an issue, the scrum master should continue to
monitor the business analyst's involvement to ensure that the project work can continue without disruption.

Note, the scenario describes a project in which the project scope is managed using the traditional/predictive project
management approach (e.g., work package) while the work is carried out using the Scrum framework (sprints). This means
the project as a whole is managed in a hybrid way. While this information does not change the correct answer, it is important
to understand that projects can be managed using various approaches, including predictive (sometimes called traditional or
waterfall), agile (Scrum, Kanban, etc.), or hybrid which is a combination of both.

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Details for Each Option:

A No further action needed as the problem is resolved

Incorrect. It is unclear if the problem has been resolved. All the scrum master did was reaching out to the business
analyst and requesting them to collaborate with the team during the upcoming sprints. The problem will be considered
resolved only when it's evident the business analyst is available for the team when needed.

B Report a work ethics violation to the human resources department

Incorrect. It is not uncommon that an organization may have resource constraints resulting in some of the resources
being unavailable and, consequently, unresponsive at times. An individual being unavailable and/or unresponsive,
though, is unlikely to be considered as one who violates work ethics.

C Continue monitoring the business analyst's involvement

Correct. Even though it appears that the current issue has been addressed, a good proactive leader is expected to
continue monitoring issues to ensure they do not reoccur going forward.

D Instruct the team to fix the work package to meet customer needs
Incorrect. Since the customer has not accepted the work package, it is reasonable to assume that the package will
have to be modified to meet customer needs. However, before a modification to a work package can be made, a
clarification on what exactly to fix should be provided by the business analyst, who, according to the scenario, has not
been available.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 53-54

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 132

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Removes Impediments

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 4 of 200 Question ID: 6112857

An agile team member encounters a technical issue while developing one of the user stories she selected for the current
sprint. After multiple unsuccessful attempts to resolve the issue, the team member approaches the scrum master for advice.

What is the best course of action for the scrum master?

A Request that the rest of the team members swarm on the user story

B Replace the team member with another more experienced one

C Ask the product owner who wrote the user story to resolve the issue

D Recommend that the team member try other alternative solutions

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Helping each other is one of the virtues of successful agile teams.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Agile teams are self-organizing and self-managing. Team members in successful agile teams work to collaborate in various
ways, such as pairing, swarming, and mobbing. Swarming is a technique in which multiple team members focus collectively
on resolving a specific impediment. This results in work getting done quickly. Having said that, swarming should not be the
default working mode, because each team member has their own work planned for the sprint. Therefore, it is unclear if
swarming on all work planned for the sprint would result in a better outcome as compared to each team member completing
their own work. However, based on the situation, such as the one described in the scenario, in which there is only one team
member encountering an issue with one user story, swarming could be very helpful in achieving the sprint goal.

Details for Each Option:

A Request that the rest of the team members swarm on the user story
Correct. High-performing agile teams are characterized by strong collaboration among the team members allowing
them to achieve sprint/release/project goals. When one team member encounters an impediment/issue, some or all
other team members may swarm (work collectively) on the task and help resolve the issue.
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B Replace the team member with another more experienced one
Incorrect. There is not enough information in the scenario to determine if the team member has been consistently
underperforming and was notified multiple times. Therefore, replacing the team member just because she was unable
to resolve an issue is an overreaction and is not aligned with agile best practices of servant leadership and valuing
people.

C Ask the product owner who wrote the user story to resolve the issue
Incorrect. Assuming the user story is unclear, it would make sense to request the product owner to clarify it. However,
the scenario states that the issue encountered by the team member is of a technical nature. While the product owner
may have the technical expertise, requesting the product owner to resolve the issue just because the product owner is
the one who wrote the user story makes little sense.

D Recommend that the team member try other alternative solutions

Incorrect. According to the scenario, the team member has already made multiple attempts to resolve the issue, but to
no avail. Recommending that the team member try other alternative solutions is unlikely to help in this situation and
would most likely only delay the completion of the user story and jeopardize the sprint goal.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 42

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals - 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Swarming

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 5 of 200 Question ID: 6112093

A project manager has learned that new legislation has just been passed, which makes the regulatory standards even more
stringent. The project manager needs to gain a better understanding of the new law and how it will affect the project which is
already in execution.

What tool or technique should the project manager use in this situation?

A Decomposition

B Decision-making techniques

C Expert judgment

D Risk register

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which of the available options is a tool or technique that may be used during the Direct and Manage Project Work process?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The question states that the project manager is leading the execution of a project, which suggests that the Direct and Manage
Project Work process is underway. Expert judgment is one of the tools and techniques associated with this process. Expert
judgment is judgment provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline, industry, etc., as
appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided by any group or person with specialized
education, knowledge, skill, experience, or training. Expertise in legislation and regulations will provide insights into how the
new law may impact the project. Additionally, among the available choices, only expert judgment is a tool or technique that is
used during the Direct and Management Project Work process.

Details for Each Option:

A Decomposition
Incorrect. Decomposition is a technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables
into smaller, more manageable parts. Decomposition is not helpful in providing insights into regulatory changes.

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B Decision-making techniques
Incorrect. Decision-making techniques are techniques used to select a course of action from different alternatives.
Decision-making techniques may be helpful in deciding how to respond to the legislative changes but does not provide
insight into how the new regulations will impact the project.

C Expert judgment
Correct. Expert judgment is judgment provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline,
industry, etc., as appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided by any group or person
with specialized education, knowledge, skill, experience, or training. Expertise in legislation and regulations will provide
insights into how the new law may impact the project.

D Risk register
Incorrect. The risk register is a repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded. The risk of
legislative changes may or may not have been captured in the risk register. However, since the legislation just passed,
according to the question, it is not likely to have specific information about the new law. Additionally, the risk register is
a project document and not a tool or technique.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 94

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 6 of 200 Question ID: 6125059

A project manager has developed the following earned value analysis chart for a software development project. Based on the
current trend, what action should the project manager take immediately?

A Submit a change request to increase funding for the project

B Look for options to reduce costs and improve schedule performance to meet project objectives

C No immediate action is required in this case

D Crash the schedule to bring it back into alignment with project objectives

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The chart indicates that the earned value (EV) is currently exceeding the actual costs (AC) and planned value (PV).
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Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The earned value analysis chart indicates that the earned value (EV) is currently exceeding the actual costs (AC) and
planned value (PV). Thus, the project is currently ahead of schedule and under budget. If the current trend is expected to
continue, and there is no information presented to suggest that it will not, then the project should meet the project objectives
without any corrective or preventive action. Therefore, no immediate action is necessary based on the information presented
in this scenario.

It should be noted that any variance should be analyzed and understood. In this case, the project manager should gain an
understanding of what caused the project cost and schedule plans to be so far off from actual performance. It is possible that
the cost and schedule estimates were padded, which is against project management best practices. Regardless, analyzing
and understanding the variances was not listed as an answer choice.

Details for Each Option:

A Submit a change request to increase funding for the project

Incorrect. The chart indicates that the earned value (EV) is currently exceeding the actual costs (AC). Thus, the project
is running under budget and is trending to complete under budget. Therefore, there is no reason to request additional
funds for the project.

B Look for options to reduce costs and improve schedule performance to meet project objectives
Incorrect. Based on the chart, the earned value (EV) is exceeding the actual costs (AC) and the planned value (PV).
Thus, the project is currently ahead of schedule and under budget. Although reducing costs and improving schedule
performance is always a good thing, this action is not necessary to meet project objectives at this point.

C No immediate action is required in this case

Correct. It can be seen from the chart that the earned value (EV) is exceeding the actual costs (AC) and the planned
value (PV). Thus, the project is currently ahead of schedule and under budget. Therefore, no immediate action is
necessary.

D Crash the schedule to bring it back into alignment with project objectives
Incorrect. Crashing is a technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding
resources. The chart indicates that the earned value (EV) is exceeding the planned value (PV). Thus, the project is
currently running ahead of schedule. Therefore, there is no reason to incur the added cost and increase project risks by
crashing the schedule to improve schedule performance.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 261-264

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 7 of 200 Question ID: 6112649

A scrum master is conducting a daily standup. Each member of the development team states that their work has been stalled
due to various blockers. As a result, the entire development team has been idled, and the schedule baseline is in jeopardy.

What should the scrum master do first?

A Attempt to resolve the problems during the meeting

B Analyze and prioritize the blockers

C Assign the team to work on another project in the meanwhile

D Escalate the issue to the project sponsor

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might you determine which obstacle to address first?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question states that the team is facing various impediments resulting in schedule delays. The scrum master should work
with the team to ensure that the obstacles are cleared as efficiently and effectively as possible so the development can get
back to work on the project's deliverables. However, before the scrum master can work on removing the blockers, the
impediments should first be analyzed and prioritized. For example, it is possible that one impediment is currently blocking the
entire team, and others might only be affecting individual team members. Thus, it will be important to address the most
severe and time-critical impediments first. Therefore, of the available options, the scrum master should first analyze and
prioritize the blockers.

Note, the scenario describes a project in which the project schedule is managed using the traditional/predictive project
management approach ("the schedule baseline is in jeopardy") while the work is carried out using the Scrum framework,
which is one of the agile methods ("a scrum master is conducting a daily standup"). This means the project as a whole is
managed in a hybrid way. While this information does not change the correct answer, it is important to understand that
projects can be managed using various approaches, including predictive (sometimes called traditional or waterfall), agile, or
hybrid which is a combination of both.

Details for Each Option:

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A Attempt to resolve the problems during the meeting
Incorrect. While it is essential to remove the blockers as quickly as possible, the scenario indicates that a daily standup
meeting is underway. The daily standup is a meeting in which impediments are identified. However, this meeting is not
intended to find solutions for the impediments.

B Analyze and prioritize the blockers

Correct. The various impediments described in the scenario should first be analyzed and prioritized in order to
determine the most efficient and effective path for clearing them.

C Assign the team to work on another project in the meanwhile

Incorrect. Reassigning the team to another project is an overreaction. If the blockers are removed quickly, the team can
continue working on the existing project. The impediments should first be analyzed before a decision to move the team
to another project (if at all) is made.

D Escalate the issue to the project sponsor

Incorrect. The impediments identified in this scenario may or may not need to be escalated to the project sponsor.
There is not enough information to make that determination. The scrum master should first analyze the blockers to
determine if escalation is even warranted.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 53-54

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Removes Impediments

Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline, Project Management Institute Inc., June 2019,
Domain 1, Task 7

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 8 of 200 Question ID: 6112623

A project team comprised of designers, programmers, and testers uses a Kanban board to manage their workflow. While
monitoring the project schedule, the project manager reviews the board and notices a bottleneck at the testing column
caused by the WIP limit. As a result, some of the programmers are idled, the team's velocity is slowed, and the schedule
baseline is at risk.

What is the best course of action for the project manager?

A Remove all of the WIP limits from the Kanban board

B Ask if any of the idled programmers can help with testing

C Lower the testing column WIP limit on the Kanban board

D Submit a change request to update the schedule baseline

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Agile best practices focus on developing a team of generalizing specialists.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

It is evident from the scenario that work is not flowing quickly enough out of the testing stage, which is slowing the team's
velocity. In this situation, the project manager can ask if some of the idled programmers have the necessary skills to augment
the testers to clear the backlog and improve the velocity. Even if the programmers do not possess the full testing skill set,
they may be able to perform some basic testing tasks. This situation is an example of why agile best practices favor
generalizing specialists over those who have a narrow specialization. A generalizing specialist provides the project team with
greater flexibility to perform tasks that are outside of their core competency, which helps prevent or clear backlogs in the
workflow.

Note that the scenario describes a hybrid project. For example, the fact that a schedule baseline is used on the project
suggests the use of a predictive approach. However, with the team members using a Kanban board to manage their
workflow, one can assume that an agile methodology is applied to the product development aspect of the project. Combining
a traditional waterfall project management framework with agile makes the overall project management approach a hybrid.

Details for Each Option:

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A Remove all of the WIP limits from the Kanban board
Incorrect. Removing the work in progress (WIP) limits would allow more tasks to flow into the testing stage. This action
would allow the programmers to keep working and reduce idle time, but it would not improve the team's velocity as
tasks will not flow out of the testing stage any faster.

B Ask if any of the idled programmers can help with testing

Correct. Agile best practices favor the use of generalizing specialists over specialists. It is possible that one or more of
the programmers has the skillset to supplement testing to help clear the backlog.

C Lower the testing column WIP limit on the Kanban board

Incorrect. In this scenario, the testing stage has already hit the work in progress (WIP) limit. Lowering the limit further
would serve no practical purpose and would not help clear the bottleneck of items held up at the testing stage.

D Submit a change request to update the schedule baseline

Incorrect. The scenario suggests that the schedule baseline is at risk as a result of the slowed velocity. The project
manager should first attempt to address the issue and improve velocity to bring the schedule back into alignment with
the plan. Only if the efforts to meet the project objectives fail, should the project manager seek an adjustment to the
project's baselines.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 41, 42, 70

Kanban: Successful Evolutionary Change for Your Technology Business, David J. Anderson, 2010, A Recipe for Success

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 9 of 200 Question ID: 6110009

The project team reports that they have finished creating the requirements management plan, the requirements
documentation, and the requirements traceability matrix. The team informs that they are going to start working on the project
work breakdown structure (WBS) next.

What has the project team forgotten to do?

A Create the project scope statement

B Complete the project management plan

C Update the lessons learned register

D Perform the Validate Scope process

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What output of the Define Scope process is missing?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In the scenario described, the project team has completed the requirements management plan, which is an output of the Plan
Scope Management process. Additionally, the team has completed the requirements documentation and requirements
traceability matrix, which are outputs of the Collect Requirements process. The next step in the Planning Process Group is
the Define Scope process and the creation of the project scope statement. Before creating the WBS, the project scope must
be well defined and documented in the project scope statement. The completed project scope statement sets the boundaries
for the project by defining the work that is included in the project as well as the work excluded from the project. The project
scope statement serves as a guide when creating the WBS and should be completed before work begins on the WBS. The
project team wants to move on to creating the WBS, but they have forgotten that they need to create the project scope
statement before the WBS can be created.

Details for Each Option:

A Create the project scope statement

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 Correct. According to the scenario, the project team is in the Planning Process Group of the Project Scope
Management Knowledge Area. The requirements documentation and the requirements traceability matrix are both
outputs of the Collect Requirements process; therefore, the team has completed the Collect Requirements process.
The next step in the Planning Process Group would be the Define Scope process. The project scope statement is an
output of the Define Scope process and should be completed before proceeding to the Create WBS process.

B Complete the project management plan

Incorrect. In the scenario described, the team has completed the requirements management plan which is an output of
the Plan Scope Management process. The requirements management plan is one of the components of the project
management plan. Therefore, it is not possible to complete the project management plan before creating the
requirements management plan.

C Update the lessons learned register

Incorrect. The lessons learned register is a project document that captures knowledge gained in the project. The project
team is supposed to benefit from this knowledge to improve further project performance. There is not enough
information in the question to determine what beneficial knowledge has been gained during the development of the
project artifacts described in the scenario.

D Perform the Validate Scope process

Incorrect. The scenario states the project is still in the planning stage; therefore, in the Planning Process Group. The
Validate Scope process is part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. The project planning must be
completed, and execution underway before the project would be in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Therefore, performing the Validate Scope process is not what the team forgot.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 154, 157

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 10 of 200 Question ID: 6112555

A scrum master is working with stakeholders to develop the project vision for inclusion in the project charter and wants to
ensure that regulatory compliance measures are incorporated into the project requirements.

How might the scrum master analyze the consequences of non-compliance?

A Facilitate a project post-mortem

B Play a session of "remember the future"

C Lead a round of planning poker

D Conduct a t-shirt sizing exercise

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
This technique might be referred to as a project premortem.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

"Remember the future" is a collaboration game where stakeholders are asked to envision the future state of the project after
completion. This technique is particularly helpful in drawing out requirements and gaining consensus on the project vision.
When this technique is applied to the failure of a project (sometimes referred to as a project premortem), it allows
stakeholders to envision and capture various ways that the project could fail. Applying this technique to regulatory compliance
would aid in providing a shared vision for the consequences of non-compliance. Understanding the consequences of non-
compliance will help the stakeholders include appropriate regulatory (and other) compliance requirements in the project
vision.

Details for Each Option:

A Facilitate a project post-mortem

Incorrect. A project post-mortem (also known as a project retrospective) occurs at the end of the project. Therefore, this
activity will not be able to influence the project requirements.

B Play a session of "remember the future"

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 Correct. "Remember the future" is a collaborative game to aid in the development of the project vision. When this
technique is applied to the failure of a project (sometimes referred to as a project premortem), it allows stakeholders to
envision and capture various ways that the project could fail.

C Lead a round of planning poker

Incorrect. Planning Poker is a collaborative estimating and planning technique that is used to estimate user story size.
This technique would not likely be used to analyze the consequences of non-compliance.

D Conduct a t-shirt sizing exercise

Incorrect. A t-shirt sizing exercise is a relative sizing technique for gaining a high-level estimate for items in the product
backlog. This technique would not be particularly useful for analyzing the consequences of non-compliance.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 49

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Stakeholders

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 11 of 200 Question ID: 6110044

A project manager has just calculated the project performance measurements, and the project's current cost performance
index (CPI) is 0.9 while the schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.1.

Which of the following is correct regarding the project's performance status?

A Over budget and ahead of schedule

B Under budget and behind schedule

C Over budget and behind schedule

D Under budget and ahead of schedule

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
CPI = EV / AC and SPI = EV / PV

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A CPI less than 1.0 indicates that more money was spent than planned for work completed at this point in the project. An SPI
greater than 1.0 indicates that more project work was completed than planned at this point. The question states that the CPI
is 0.9 and the SPI is 1.1, so the project is over budget and ahead of schedule.

Details for Each Option:

A Over budget and ahead of schedule

Correct. A CPI less than 1.0 indicates that more money was spent than planned for project work completed at this
point, meaning the project is over budget. An SPI greater than 1.0 indicates that more project work was completed than
planned at this point, meaning the project is ahead of schedule.

B Under budget and behind schedule

Incorrect. A CPI of less than 1.0 indicates that the project is over budget. Therefore, this answer choice can be
eliminated.
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C Over budget and behind schedule
Incorrect. An SPI of greater than 1.0 indicates that the project is ahead of schedule, so this is not a correct answer.

D Under budget and ahead of schedule

Incorrect. A CPI of less than 1.0 indicates that the project is over budget, and an SPI of greater than 1.0 indicates that
the project is ahead of schedule. Therefore, this answer choice is incorrect.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 267

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 12 of 200 Question ID: 6112249

You are in the initiation stage of a project that aims to deploy and then maintain the robotics for an automated production line
for an important client. In the project charter, you need to include the agreed mean time to recover (MTTR) in the event of a
breakdown.

What should you do to find this information?

A Do nothing since agreements are not yet available during project initiation

B Refer to the procurement management plan

C Review any emails or other correspondence with the client

D Check the service level agreement with the client

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
This information is typically included in the terms and conditions of a contract.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

A service level agreement (SLA) can serve as an input into the Develop Project Charter process. An SLA may define agreed-
upon service levels such as mean time to recover (MTTR). The SLA is likely to be included in the terms and conditions of a
contract along with penalties or other recourse for failing to achieve the agreed-upon service levels. Therefore, of the
available answer choices, you, as the project manager, should check the SLA for information on the agreed-upon mean time
to recover.

Details for Each Option:

A Do nothing since agreements are not yet available during project initiation
Incorrect. Agreements serve as an input into the Develop Project Charter process, and the project charter is created
during project initiation.

B Refer to the procurement management plan

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 Incorrect. The procurement management plan is a component of the project management plan. The project
management plan is not created until project planning which occurs after project initiation has been completed.

C Review any emails or other correspondence with the client

Incorrect. Although emails and other correspondence may serve as informal agreements and may contain information
on service levels, another choice has a more formal and suitable input to the Develop Charter process.

D Check the service level agreement with the client

Correct. The service level agreement (SLA) may define agreed-upon service levels, such as mean time to recover
(MTTR).

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 78

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 13 of 200 Question ID: 6151405

Two project team members are having a disagreement over how to approach a minor technical detail. The project manager
has little experience working with them, and her technical knowledge is limited.

What is the best action for the project manager to take?

A Abide by the decision of the most senior team member

B Avoid being involved in the discussion and decision making

C Stop the discussion and direct the team members to get back to work

D Request the human resource department's representative to step in

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How much help is the project manager in this debate?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

As the project team is working on the project, there are going to be situations where an answer must be worked out.
Sometimes these situations are complex, requiring a lot of debate and discussion; other times these are very simple
decisions. These minor conflicts are commonplace in almost every project. A project environment that supports the decision
making and trust among team members, so they can resolve issues and find beneficial solutions are hallmarks of high-
performing teams. A project manager must assist in creating and developing such an environment and the team. That
sometimes means backing away from situations where the project manager is not a value-add and allowing the project team
to problem solve and decide. While this option sounds counter-intuitive, under the circumstances described in the scenario,
withdrawing from the conflict and not making the decision is the best course of action for the project manager.

Details for Each Option:

A Abide by the decision of the most senior team member

Incorrect. Although experience or tenure at a company may provide one with more knowledge and leverage a certain
advantage, requiring the team members to go with the decision of the most senior person is most likely not the best
way to resolve a technical issue. Sometimes, junior team members have innovative ideas that are better than the old
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 tested approaches.

B Avoid being involved in the discussion and decision making

Correct. The project manager does not have the information and insight to help the team members come to a
resolution. The inclusion of the project manager is not of benefit.

C Stop the discussion and direct the team members to get back to work
Incorrect. The scenario suggests the team members are arguing over technical detail. Stopping the discussion would
not resolve the issue.

D Request the human resource department's representative to step in

Incorrect. There is nothing in the scenario to suggest the issue is personal warranting the representative of the human
resource department to step in.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 341, 349

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 14 of 200 Question ID: 6151421

Near the end of an iteration, the project team is ready to lead a product review with the product manager.

What is the objective of the review?

A Validate the product scope

B Manage product quality

C Control the product scope

D Close the project or phase

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What is being reviewed?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Validate Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. This process can be carried
out at the end of an iteration (sprint), phase, project, or any other point where the product work can be reviewed and
inspected. Inspections are among the tools and techniques of the Validate Scope process. In the Validate Scope process,
stakeholders are determining whether or not the scope completed is acceptable. In a project utilizing agile practices, there is
a product review at some point or points in the iteration. Since most of the iteration is to get to a workable version for review,
that often is at or near the end of the iteration. Whenever such a review happens, it is a tool and technique to examine and
validate the project work and product deliverables.

Inspections are sometimes called reviews, product reviews, and walkthroughs.

Details for Each Option:

A Validate the product scope

Correct. The purpose of the product reviews is to examine the product to see if meets requirements and can be
accepted. This is the Validate Scope process.

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B Manage product quality
Incorrect. Managing product quality is part of the Manage Quality process. This process is concerned with translating
the quality management plan into executable quality activities. According to the scenario, the team is going to lead a
product review with the product manager rather than translate the quality management plan into executable quality
activities.

C Control the product scope

Incorrect. Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing
changes to the scope baseline. There is nothing in the scenario to suggest the team is involved in the Control Scope
process. The product review described in the scenario may lead to changes. However, the main purpose of the product
review is to validate, rather than control, the product scope.

D Close the project or phase

Incorrect. Close project or Phase is the process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract. The
question suggests the team is going to review the product with the product manager rather than finalize all activities for
the project, phase, or contract.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 166

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 15 of 200 Question ID: 6112213

A change request has been approved and is currently being implemented by the project team.

According to the project life cycle shown on the chart below, which of the following is true about project costs and risks
associated with the process group described in this scenario?

A Both the cost of changes and the project risk are zero.

B The cost of changes is lowest while the project risk is highest.

C The cost of changes is nearly equal to project risk.

D The cost of changes is highest while project risk is lowest.

J Question answered incorrectly

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Hint:
Identify which process the project team is currently performing, map it to the appropriate process group, and then determine
what is true about this process group according to the generic life cycle.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

All projects can be mapped to the generic life cycle consisting of five Process Groups: Initiating takes place at the beginning
of a project, then Planning, then Executing takes place in the middle, and then the project ends with Closing. Processes of
the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group are carried out throughout the project. According to the project generic life
cycle, the cost of changes are about equal to project risks in the middle or late middle of the project. In the scenario, the
project team is currently implementing an approved change request. This activity is undertaken in the Direct and Manage
Project Work process, part of the Executing Process Group. Since execution takes place approximately halfway into the
project timeline where the curve representing the cost of changes intersects with the curve representing the risk, it would be
true to say that the cost of changes is nearly equal with project risk.

If you are still not convinced, consider this: the lowest/highest values as far as the cost of changes and risk are concerned,
apply to the very beginning or end of the project. One moment after the project has been initiated, the cost of changes is one
tick higher than its lowest level, and the risk is one tick lower than its highest level. Same applies to project closure: one
moment before the project is closed, the cost of changes is one tick lower than its highest level, and the risk is one tick higher
than its lowest level.

Details for Each Option:

A Both the cost of changes and the project risk are zero.
Incorrect. Zero cost of changes and zero project risk can typically be encountered before the processes of the Initiating
Process Group take place. According to the scenario described, the project team is implementing a change request,
implying the project is in execution. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.

B The cost of changes is lowest while the project risk is highest.

Incorrect. The cost of changes is lowest, and uncertainties highest, during the Planning Process Group, before any
work has begun. In the scenario, work has already begun, making this choice an incorrect answer.

C The cost of changes is nearly equal to project risk.

Correct. Since the cost of changes rises throughout the project, and risk decreases throughout the project, their trend
lines cross and are equal in the middle or late part of project execution. According to the scenario, the project team is
implementing an approved change request. Since this activity takes place during the Direct and Manage Project Work
process that belongs to the Executing Process Group, this choice represents a true statement and is, therefore, the
best answer.

D The cost of changes is highest while project risk is lowest.

Incorrect. The cost of changes is highest, and uncertainty lowest, at the end of the project, during the Closing Process
Group. Implementation of the approved change request described in the question takes place in the Executing Process
Group, making this choice an incorrect answer.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 548-549, 90

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 16 of 200 Question ID: 6112681

A project manager creates a procurement statement of work (SOW) from the project scope baseline. The scope of the SOW,
however, is not yet well defined, therefore the project manager decides to contract with a vendor to provide an agile team of
programmers. The contract is structured with fixed-price increments based on user stories.

How might the project manager verify that the vendor has met the contractual obligations?

A Wait until the team completes the development of all user stories specified in the SOW

B Request the product owner to approve or reject user stories during a sprint review

C Validate the user stories as soon as they are completed at any point during a sprint

D Conduct a procurement audit with the vendor each time a sprint retrospective is held

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What role typically approves or rejects the product increment from a sprint?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario describes a hybrid project where the scope is managed using a predictive project management approach
(scope baseline), while the procurement portion of work is outsourced to a vendor who will use agile methods to develop the
scope specified in the SOW. An agile framework is typically used when the project scope is not well understood at the start of
the project (which is the case in the scenario described) and is progressively elaborated throughout project execution. This
situation creates special considerations when contracting with a vendor to supply developers. One method of addressing the
issue is to use contract terms that include fixed-price increments. With this approach, the scope is decomposed into
microdeliverables, such as user stories, and the vendor will be paid a fixed price for each of these microdeliverables.

In this scenario, the development team will complete the user stories determined during sprint planning. At the end of the
sprint, during the sprint review, the development team will demonstrate the product increment that was developed during the
sprint to the product owner and other relevant stakeholders. The product owner then has the authority and responsibility for
approving or rejecting the deliverables.

Details for Each Option:

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A Wait until the team completes the development of all user stories specified in the SOW
Incorrect. With a contract featuring fixed-price increments, the project scope (or the scope specified in the SOW in the
scenario described) can be decomposed into fixed-price microdeliverables, such as user stories. With this type of
contract, there is no reason nor is this appropriate per agile best practices to wait until the entire project scope has
been completed before approving the deliverables.

B Request the product owner to approve or reject user stories during a sprint review
Correct. During a sprint review, the development team demonstrates the product increment that was developed during
the sprint. The product owner then has the responsibility for approving or rejecting the deliverables.

C Validate the user stories as soon as they are completed at any point during a sprint
Incorrect. The use of sprints creates a cadence of predictable, timeboxed pre-agreed, consistent duration that aids with
scheduling. Validating the user stories as soon as they are completed at any point in a sprint before the timebox is over,
would interfere with the team's work, break the cadence, and negatively affect the project schedule, and may have
other unintended consequences.

D Conduct a procurement audit with the vendor each time a sprint retrospective is held
Incorrect. A procurement audit is a structured review of the procurement process between the buyer and seller
(vendor). The emphasis is on the process of procurement rather than the deliverables produced by the vendor. Sprint
retrospectives, on the other hand, are aimed to review the process the development team uses to carry out their work
rather than review the procurement process.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 41, 55, 77

Agile Software Development: The Cooperative Game, Second Edition, Alistar Cockburn, 2007, Contracts

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, Second Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, The Sprint

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 17 of 200 Question ID: 6113369

An organization has established a controlling project management office (PMO). The first task of the PMO is to update the
guidelines for project compliance in the organization.

Which of the following could the PMO enforce? (Choose three)

A Use of particular project management methodologies

B Adoption of specific templates, forms, and tools

C Adherence to local health regulations

D Conformance to governance frameworks

E Assignment of project managers by the PMO

F Release of management reserves

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
There are three main types of PMOs in organizations: supportive, controlling, directive. What would make the most sense for
a controlling PMO to enforce?

Correct Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

There are several types of PMOs in an organization, with varying degrees of influence: supportive, controlling, and directive.
A controlling PMO provides support, but also require compliance. Compliance may involve the adoption of project
management frameworks or methodologies; the use of specific templates, forms, and tools; and conformance to governance
frameworks. However, neither a controlling PMO nor any other type of PMO for that matter enforces local health regulations.
A controlling PMO does not decide on the use of management reserves either. It is the directive, not controlling PMO, that
assigns project managers and take control of the projects by directly managing them.

Details for Each Option:

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A ✓Use of particular project management methodologies
Correct. A project management office with controlling influence in an organization can enforce the adoption of project
management frameworks or methodologies for project teams in order to streamline and coordinate the application of
project management processes in the organization.

B ✓Adoption of specific templates, forms, and tools

Correct. A controlling project management office can enforce the use of specific templates, forms, and tools for project
teams in order to standardize the way the projects are managed in the organization. Having these artifacts streamlined
across the organization may reduce the administrative burden for the project managers.

C Adherence to local health regulations

Incorrect. While project compliance with local health regulations, if applicable, is likely to be mandatory, a project
management office is typically not the governing body responsible for enforcing these regulations. Such a responsibility
would rest with the appropriate law-making and enforcing authorities.

D ✓Conformance to governance frameworks

Correct. A project management office with controlling influence in an organization can enforce conformance to
governance frameworks. Such frameworks may define project status reporting requirements, decision-making flows,
ways to provide control, direction, and coordination through people, policies, and processes, to name but a few.

E Assignment of project managers by the PMO

Incorrect. This answer choice describes an organization with a directive PMO. Directive PMOs have a high degree of
control over projects in the organizations they operate. For example, directive PMOs may take control of the projects by
directly managing them. Project managers in such organizations are assigned by and report to the PMO.

F Release of management reserves

Incorrect. The decision whether management reserves should be released for a project as part of its cost or schedule
management is made by the managers with authority over these reserves, not by the project management office with
controlling influence in the organization.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) - Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 48-49, 710

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 18 of 200 Question ID: 6112044

A project manager has been communicating with 10 stakeholders regularly. Last week 2 more stakeholders were identified
and added to the communications management plan.

What is the number of potential communication channels?

A 66

B 78

C 55

D 12

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The number of potential communication channels can be calculated by n*(n-1) / 2, where n represents the number of all
individuals who could potentially communicate with one another.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The number of potential communication channels or paths can indicate the complexity of a project's communications. The
total number of potential communication channels can be calculated by n*(n-1) / 2, where n represents the number of
stakeholders. After the addition of 2 additional stakeholders, the scenario indicates 12 stakeholders plus the project manager,
for a total of 13 stakeholders. Therefore, n=13 and the number of communication channels is 13*(13-1) / 2 = 78.

The calculation of communication channels is not included in the PMBOK® Guide. However, the Project Management
Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline (ECO) indicates that while there are some commonalities between the
PMBOK® Guide and the ECO, the exam is not bound by the PMBOK® Guide. The list of enablers specified in the tasks of the
ECO domains is not exhaustive either. The ECO assumes that prospective PMP aspirants are familiar with other sources of
information/preparation, including but not limited to PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, PMI’s Practice Standards
(e.g., Scheduling, Earned Value Management, etc.); organizational behavior theories such as Tuckman’s Ladder, Theory X
and Theory Y, Maslow's hierarchy of needs; commonly frowned upon project management practices, such as gold plating;
and others. We intentionally have these questions in our simulator so that you would be better prepared for the real exam.
PMP aspirants are encouraged to explore additional sources of information and/or to be familiar with them from their project
management experience.

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Details for Each Option:

A 66
Incorrect. This answer represents the number of communication channels when n=12 and the project manager was
omitted as a stakeholder, making the number of communication channels equal to 12*(12-1) / 2 = 66. Don't forget the
project manager is a stakeholder as well.

B 78
Correct. The number of potential communication channels can be calculated by n*(n-1) / 2, where n represents the
number of stakeholders. The scenario indicates 12 stakeholders plus the project manager, for a total of 13
stakeholders. Therefore, n=13 and the number of communication channels is 13*(13-1) / 2 = 78.

C 55
Incorrect. This answer represents the number of potential communication channels before the additional 2 stakeholders
were added. Thus, 10 stakeholders plus the project manager making n=11 and the number of communication channels
equal to 11*(11-1) / 2 = 55.

D 12
Incorrect. This value represents the number of stakeholders excluding the project manager.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 369-370

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 19 of 200 Question ID: 6113368

The latest software released to the customer in the first project phase is full of defects. The customer is angry and demands
that the development of the new release, which is planned to be delivered in the second phase, is much more transparent.
The customer wants to see the team’s results more regularly and without very long development intervals in-between.

Which of the following could the project team introduce in the second phase to better comply with the customer's demand?
(Choose four)

A A cadence with regular timeboxes

B Regular and frequent retrospectives

C Optimization at the level of each individual team member

D Test-driven development practices

E Incremental delivery using a backlog

F Limiting the number of changes before the software is released

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which of the answer choices would be key ingredients for agile ways of working?

Correct Answer: A,B,D,E

Explanation:

The scenario implies that the first phase of the project was likely delivered using a waterfall project management approach,
where the software had been developed in one long iteration and deployed at the customer site. This approach, especially
with software development products, often results in more defects in comparison to the iterative and incremental approach.
What customer demands for the second phase can be achieved by incorporating agile practices, making the second phase
hybrid. For many project teams who need to introduce more agility, setting up regular timeboxes and frequent retrospectives
help organize the team's work in close collaboration with the customer. In addition to a more iterative approach, an
incremental delivery using a backlog is another good first step towards agility in a project. According to the scenario, the team
has problems with poor quality – test-driven development practices can address that.

/
Details for Each Option:

A ✓A cadence with regular timeboxes

Correct. By setting up a cadence in the form of regular timeboxes, a team can schedule interaction with the relevant
stakeholders (including the customer) regularly and iteratively. Many teams find a cadence helpful in demonstrating the
working product increments to the customer, get feedback, and improve.

B ✓Regular and frequent retrospectives

Correct. Conducting regular and frequent retrospectives is one of the Agile Manifesto principles, "At regular intervals,
the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts its behavior accordingly." This concept is
also known as "continuous improvement". Applying this principle would help the team to learn, improve, and adapt,
likely resulting in improved customer satisfaction.

C Optimization at the level of each individual team member

Incorrect. The lean manufacturing concept of "optimizing the whole" with a systemic view suggests that optimization is
much more effective when it’s done at the project level instead of the individual team member's level. Therefore, this
answer choice is unlikely to contribute to the team's effort in addressing the customer's request.

D ✓Test-driven development practices

Correct. Test-driven development (TDD) focuses on writing test cases before writing software code. TDD approach
helps teams design and reduce the number of potential mistakes. This approach also contributes to product quality.
Thus, implementing TDD would likely reduce the number of defects in the software delivered to the customer.

E ✓Incremental delivery using a backlog

Correct. Incremental delivery using a backlog as a single source of requirements for a project is one of the first steps to
introduce important and effective agile ideas into project environments. This practice can help the team improve its
interaction with the customer and stakeholders, get feedback, and adjust as necessary.

F Limiting the number of changes before the software is released

Incorrect. While it's true that limiting the number of changes may reduce the number of potential defects, this course of
action would not necessarily address the customer's request, which is focused on seeing the team's results more
regularly and without very long development intervals in-between.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) - Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 177

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 32-33, 56

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 20 of 200 Question ID: 6112154

A PMO steeped in traditional waterfall project management has hired you, as an agile practitioner, to guide the organization's
transformation to agile. After completing an initial assessment of the organizational culture, you have realized that many of
the stakeholders are resistant to the change.

What is your best course of action?

A Provide training to ensure the employees are more highly specialized

B Transition all projects to agile at the same time

C Seek a high-level executive willing to champion the cause

D Ensure the work is decomposed into silos

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What role does leadership play in organizational change?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Transitioning an organization from traditional project management to an agile approach can be very challenging as it will likely
involve significant organizational and cultural change and may take years to accomplish. For example, a functional
organizational type that is structured in silos may need to undergo a major restructuring to adopt a matrix organizational
structure to support cross-functional teams. The organization may at first opt to gradually transition from waterfall to hybrid
and finally to an agile approach. Alternatively, the organization may want to stop at the hybrid stage, thus benefitting from
both worlds, assuming the hybrid project management approach will meet the needs of the future projects undertaken by the
organization. In any case, executive management's willingness to change will be a significant factor in the transition from
waterfall to hybrid to agile. Visible and active executive sponsorship will be crucial to support the significant changes that will
be required for the transition to successful. The incorrect answer choices all represent agile antipatterns.

Details for Each Option:

A Provide training to ensure the employees are more highly specialized

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 Incorrect. Agile encourages the use of generalizing specialists over narrowly trained specialists for greater redundancy
in skillsets and flexibility. Highly specialized employees will be an impediment to transforming an organization from
waterfall to agile.

B Transition all projects to agile at the same time

Incorrect. Transitioning all projects to agile at the same time would not likely be successful. Projects currently underway
would experience severe disruption with a change in project management framework. A more effective strategy would
be to introduce agile practices to the team incrementally.

C Seek a high-level executive willing to champion the cause

Correct. Executive management's willingness to change will be a significant factor in the transition from waterfall to
agile. Visible and active executive sponsorship will be crucial in supporting the change.

D Ensure the work is decomposed into silos

Incorrect. Having work decomposed into silos will make the transition to agile more difficult. Instead, the focus should
be on creating cross-functional teams, which will better support agility.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 71-74

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Selling the Benefits of Agile

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 21 of 200 Question ID: 6112852

An agile coach has been nurturing and growing team members through and beyond their current roles. This helped several
team members to develop their personal and professional skills to the level where they felt that they outgrew their roles.
Eventually, some of them left the team to pursue new opportunities within the organization and outside of it.

Was the agile coach right in her approach?

A No, agile leaders must ensure the team members never leave their teams

B Yes, agile leaders should develop team members even if that means losing them

C No, agile leaders may develop team members but not beyond their current roles

D Yes, agile leaders have to make sure team members eventually leave the team

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What are the responsibilities of agile servant leaders?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Agile project management approach emphasizes servant leadership as a way to empower teams. Servant leaders manage
relationships to build communication and coordination within the team and across the organization. Servant leaders can have
many possible titles, but the most important thing is what they do. One of the agile servant leaders' responsibilities is to
support the team through mentoring, encouragement, and support. A vital role of the servant leader is to nurture and grow
team members through and beyond their current roles, even if that means losing them from the team, which is what
described in the scenario.

Details for Each Option:

A No, agile leaders must ensure the team members never leave their teams
Incorrect. With some exceptions, answer choices with absolute statements such as "always", "never", etc. are typically
incorrect answers. While it is beneficial for the teams to maintain their composition, ensuring that team members 'never'
leave their teams is unlikely to be the correct answer. Sometimes, new team members who replace veterans can bring
views that may eventually advantageous for the team.
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B Yes, agile leaders should develop team members even if that means losing them
Correct. Through support, encouragement, and professional development, team members gain confidence, take on
more significant roles, and contribute at higher levels within their organizations. Sometimes, team members that
outgrew their roles would seek opportunities outside the organization. This can be considered a negative result of the
approach described in the scenario. Smart organizations, however, know to retain their star employees.

C No, agile leaders may develop team members but not beyond their current roles
Incorrect. Limiting the development of team members would have a negative effect on the personal performance of the
individuals as well as the overall team performance. This may retain the people for the short term. However, in the long
run, it is reasonable to assume that the team members would feel the lack of their personal and professional
development and eventually leave.

D Yes, agile leaders have to make sure team members eventually leave the team
Incorrect. Leaving the team should not be the ultimate goal of servant leaders. The goal is to develop the team
members so that they perform better as individuals, as a team, and an organization. If the team members leave
eventually, this could be seen as "collateral damage". The hope, however, is that speaking in financial language, return
on investment in developing the team members would be higher than the cost.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 37

Coaching Agile Teams: A Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins,
2010, Can You Be Their Servant?

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 22 of 200 Question ID: 6110019

A project manager is currently in the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and
requirements. Due to the sensitive nature of the project, there is a concern that some stakeholders will not provide candid
feedback unless confidentiality is maintained.

What is the project manager's best course of action?

A Conduct interviews to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them directly

B Use brainstorming to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project requirements

C Hold a focus group to learn about stakeholder expectations and attitudes about the project

D Use multicriteria decision analysis to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which data gathering technique is best to elicit confidential information?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Collect Requirements process, which is the process of
determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. In support of this
process, the project manager will need to employ data gathering techniques to elicit feedback from the stakeholders to
determine their needs and requirements. The question suggests that the project manager needs to use a data gathering
technique where the responses will remain confidential. An interview is a formal or informal approach to elicit information from
stakeholders by talking to them directly. Of the available choices, conducting interviews is the best tool for the project
manager to use to obtain confidential information.

Details for Each Option:

A Conduct interviews to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them directly

Correct. An interview is a formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them directly.
Interviews can be useful for obtaining confidential information.
/
B Use brainstorming to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project requirements
Incorrect. Brainstorming can be used during the Collect Requirements process to generate and collect multiple ideas
related to project requirements. Brainstorming is conducted in a group setting; therefore, based on the sensitive nature
of the project described in the scenario, the project manager will not likely gather candid feedback from the
stakeholders in this situation.

C Hold a focus group to learn about stakeholder expectations and attitudes about the project
Incorrect. A focus group can be used to learn about stakeholder expectations and attitudes about a project. However, a
focus group is conducted in a group setting which does not maintain the confidentiality of participant responses.
Therefore, this is not the best answer choice of the available options.

D Use multicriteria decision analysis to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria
Incorrect. Multicriteria decision analysis is a decision-making technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a
systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate and
rank many ideas. Multicriteria decision analysis is not a data gathering technique and, therefore, is not a method of
gathering requirements from stakeholders.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 142

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 23 of 200 Question ID: 6112062

You are leading a software development project for a client. The change control board (CCB) has been inundated with
change requests from the client throughout the project as the product has evolved. This situation drives the team crazy and
makes controlling the project scope extremely challenging and time-consuming.

Which of the following tailoring considerations might you have missed earlier in the project?

A Diversity

B Stability of requirements

C Physical location

D Validation and control

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which tailoring consideration may have led you, as the project manager, to select a different development approach?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question describes a situation where the client is continually changing the project requirements as the product under
development evolves. This situation is driving the client to submit change requests, which must be reviewed by the change
control board (CCB). Projects, where the product under development is expected to evolve throughout the project, can be
said to have unstable requirements. The stability of requirements should be considered to determine the appropriate
development approach. In this case, it is apparent that the strict change control processes and procedures of a traditional
waterfall approach are not well suited to the needs of the client who is forced to submit change requests as the product
changes and evolves. In this circumstance, an agile approach may have been more appropriate for the project. An agile
approach welcomes change and harnesses it for the customer's benefit. Had you, as the project manager, considered the
stability (or, in this case, instability) of the product requirements, you may have selected an approach more appropriate for the
project. For example, the project, at a high level, could have still been lead using waterfall, but the actual development of the
product performed by the team could have been carried out using agile, thus making the whole project hybrid.

Note, the development approach is also a tailoring consideration for the scope management processes, but it was not offered
as an answer choice. Therefore, of the available options, the stability of requirements is the best answer to the question
asked.

/
Details for Each Option:

A Diversity
Incorrect. The diverse background of the team is an important consideration in resource management, but it is not very
relevant to controlling scope. Additionally, there is no information presented by the question to suggest that a diversity
issue exists in the project.

B Stability of requirements
Correct. The stability of requirements should be considered to determine the appropriate development approach. In this
case, it is apparent that the change control requirements of a traditional waterfall approach are not well suited to the
needs of the client who is forced to submit change requests as the product changes and evolves.

C Physical location
Incorrect. Physical location is a tailoring consideration associated with the resource management processes rather than
the scope management processes. Additionally, the physical location of team members and resources is not likely to
create the problem of excessive change requests.

D Validation and control

Incorrect. There is no indication from the question of an issue with proper validation and control procedures. The use of
a change control board (CCB) in a waterfall approach is an appropriate method of controlling the project's scope. In this
case, the problem involves the selected development approach driving excessive change requests rather than how
those change requests are being processed.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 133

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 24 of 200 Question ID: 6125047

Gold plating had been an issue with your current software development project. However, you found that ever since instituting
daily stand-up meetings, no more features or functionalities that the customer did not request have been introduced into the
project.

What is your best course of action to prevent gold plating for the remainder of the current project and on future projects?

A Bring up the topic during the project retrospective

B Capture the best practice in the lessons learned register

C Gold plating adds customer value and should not be prevented

D Ensure that the scope management plan includes daily stand-up meetings

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Where is knowledge gained during a project recorded?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Daily standup meetings can be used by teams and stakeholders, often on agile projects, to share and discuss achievements
and issues of the previous day as well as plans for the current day's work. The question suggests that you, as the project
manager, have discovered that using daily standup meetings is beneficial in controlling the project scope. This hybrid project
management practice, traditional scope control approach using agile methods, can be documented in the lessons learned
register, which is a project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so that it can be used in the current
project. At the end of the project or phase, the information in the lessons learned register is transferred into the lessons
learned repository as an organizational process asset, where it can be used to improve the performance of future projects.
Therefore, of the available choices, capturing the best practice in the lessons learned register is the best way to prevent gold
plating for the remainder of the current project and on future projects.

Details for Each Option:

A Bring up the topic during the project retrospective

/
 Incorrect. A project retrospective is a review scheduled at the end of a project to record lessons learned in the lessons
learned register. While bringing up any best practices during a project retrospective is a good idea, there is no reason
to wait until the end of the project to capture the best practice in the lessons learned register. Best practices should be
captured in the lessons learned register at the time the knowledge is gained to ensure performance can be improved
for the remainder of the project and then transferred to the lessons learned repository for use on future projects.
Additionally, merely bringing up the topic during the project retrospective does not guarantee the best practice would be
captured in the lessons learned register.

B Capture the best practice in the lessons learned register

Correct. The lessons learned register is a project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so that it
can be used in the current project and entered into the lessons learned repository, where it can be used to improve the
performance of future projects. Capturing the best practice in the lessons learned register is the best course of action to
prevent gold plating on future projects.

C Gold plating adds customer value and should not be prevented

Incorrect. Gold plating refers to the practice of adding features or functionalities that the customer did not request. Gold
plating is considered a bad practice for project management and should be avoided as it adds unnecessary risk to the
project and uncontrollably spends project resources.

D Ensure that the scope management plan includes daily stand-up meetings
Incorrect. The scope management plan may or may not be updated to include daily stand-up meetings as a strategy for
controlling the project scope. However, this action is effective in helping to control scope for the current project but is
unlikely to prevent gold plating on future projects as the scope management plan is specific to the current project.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 171, 364

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 25 of 200 Question ID: 6112460

A project team is comprised of former military and non-military team members. The team members without a military
background view the former military team members as overly structured and rigid in their approach to the project. The former
military members view the other team members' more casual approach as an indication that they are less committed to the
project.

What tool or technique will be the most useful for the project manager and the team members to communicate effectively?

A Political awareness

B Team charter

C Conflict management

D Cultural awareness

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What tool or technique is most helpful when dealing with groups or individuals with different backgrounds and values?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question describes a project team made of two distinct groups of individuals (military and non-military). It is apparent
from the description in the question that these groups have different backgrounds and values. Cultural awareness is used to
help the project manager and team to communicate effectively by considering cultural differences and the requirements of
stakeholders. Of the available choices, understanding these cultural differences will be most valuable to the project manager
and the team in fostering effective communication.

Details for Each Option:

A Political awareness
Incorrect. Political awareness is achieved through understanding the power relationships within and around the project.
The question describes two groups within the project team with different backgrounds. There is no indication from the
question that there is a difference in the power and influence of one group over the other. Therefore, power
relationships are unlikely to be a factor in this scenario.
/
B Team charter
Incorrect. The team charter is a project document that establishes the team values, agreements, and operating
guidelines for the team. As such, the team charter can be helpful in the scenario described. However, the team charter
is a project document and not a tool or technique and is, therefore, not the best answer to the question asked.

C Conflict management
Incorrect. Cultural differences may or may not lead to conflict. The question describes two distinct groups of individuals
with different backgrounds and values. However, the question does not indicate whether or not there is an actual
conflict between these two groups. Therefore, conflict management is not the most useful tool or technique in the
scenario described.

D Cultural awareness
Correct. Cultural awareness is an example of the interpersonal and team skill that can be used as a tool or technique in
various project management processes. Cultural awareness is used to help the project manager and team to
communicate effectively by considering cultural differences and the requirements of stakeholders.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 376, 386, 527, 534, 552

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 26 of 200 Question ID: 6110035

Monthly audits were performed to determine if project activities comply with corporate policies, procedures, and best
practices. Throughout the project, the results of the monthly audits indicated that the team was in compliance. However, at
the end of the project, it was determined that some of the project activities did not comply with organizational policies.

What most likely caused these compliance gaps to be missed during the audits?

A The audits were conducted by the company's internal audit department

B The audits were conducted by one of the project team members

C The audits were conducted by the project management office (PMO)

D The audits were conducted by an auditor external to the organization

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
An audit should be an independent review.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

An audit is a structured, independent process used to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project
policies, processes, and procedures. A quality audit is usually conducted by a team external to the project, such as the
organization's internal audit department, project management office (PMO), or by an auditor external to the organization.
Having a project team member perform the audit negates the benefits of an independent review. For example, if the project
team member conducting the audit is not aware or misinterprets a particular procedure during project execution, then that
same individual will not identify the problem during the audit. Thus, it is best to have an audit performed by an entity external
to the project. Therefore, of the choices provided, the most likely reason these compliance gaps were not found during the
audits was that the audits were conducted by a project team member.

Details for Each Option:

A The audits were conducted by the company's internal audit department

Incorrect. It is entirely appropriate for an audit to be performed by an internal audit department. Therefore, this action is
unlikely to be the cause of the problem identified in the scenario, making this choice an incorrect answer.
/
B The audits were conducted by one of the project team members
Correct. An audit is usually performed by an entity external to the team. Having a project team member perform the
audit negates the benefits of an independent review making this choice the best answer to the question asked.

C The audits were conducted by the project management office (PMO)

Incorrect. Performing audits is a typical function for a PMO and is not a likely cause for missing the compliance issues.

D The audits were conducted by an auditor external to the organization

Incorrect. External auditors are commonly used to ensure compliance with policies, procedures, and best practices.
There is no reason to believe that using an external auditor could cause the problem outlined in this scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 294

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 27 of 200 Question ID: 6112058

A project manager is developing the communications management plan. She has determined which stakeholders need what
information and how often she will distribute the various reports.

What else should the project manager do as part of this process?

A Determine the information needs of the stakeholders

B Determine how the information will be transmitted

C Measure the effectiveness of the communications

D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
An effective communications management plan addresses 'who,' 'what,' 'when,' 'where,' and 'how' of project communications.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

One way to plan communication management is to identify the 5Ws (Who, What, When, Where, Why) and 1H (How) of
communication:

Who needs the information;

What information needs to be communicated;
When should the information be communicated;
Where should the information be communicated;
Why communication of the information is essential; and
How the information needs to be transmitted.

The scenario states that the project manager had determined the 'who,' 'what,' and 'when' of communicating the project
information. The 'where,' 'why,' and 'how' are not mentioned. Among the choices provided, only 'Determine how the
information will be transmitted' addresses the 'how' which is one of the missing '5Ws' and '1H', and is, therefore, the best
answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Determine the information needs of the stakeholders
Incorrect. According to the scenario, the project manager has determined which stakeholders need what information
and how often. Therefore, Kathy has already established the information needs of the stakeholders.

B Determine how the information will be transmitted

Correct. The project manager has determined the stakeholder communication requirements in that she knows the
'who,' 'what,' and 'when' of the project communications. However, she has not yet identified how the information will be
transmitted which would be the next necessary component of the communications management plan.

C Measure the effectiveness of the communications

Incorrect. The project manager is working on the communications management plan; therefore, she is most likely in the
Plan Communications Management process. Measuring the effectiveness of the communications is performed in the
Monitor Communications process which is carried out later in the project life cycle.

D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan

Incorrect. The scenario suggests the project is still in planning implying the project management plan has yet to be
approved. A change request is not required to update a component of the project management plan that has not yet
been approved.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 377

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 28 of 200 Question ID: 6112045

A project has been initiated and is being planned. The project sponsor is anxious for the project to move into execution and
suggests that the project manager not spend any more time on the development of the communications management plan.

How should the project manager respond to the sponsor to support the completion of the communications management plan?

A The communications management plan is a required part of the project management plan.

B The communications management plan is required by The Standard for Project Management.

C The communications management plan assists with stakeholder engagement.

D The communications management plan will improve quality.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Individuals and groups that may affect or be affected by the project are often involved through communication.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The communications management plan describes how project communications will be handled. However, the key benefit of
the communications management plan is a documented approach to effectively and efficiently engage stakeholders by
presenting relevant information promptly. Since the strategies to effectively engage stakeholders are often fulfilled through
communications, the best response the project manager can provide to the sponsor is that the communications management
plan assists with stakeholder engagement.

Details for Each Option:

A The communications management plan is a required part of the project management plan.
Incorrect. Typically, the communications management plan is a component of the project management plan; however,
the needs of the project determine which components are needed. Therefore, the communications plan is not a
'required' part of the project management plan.

B The communications management plan is required by The Standard for Project Management.

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 Incorrect. The Standard for Project Management identifies processes that are considered good practices on most
projects. However, the Standard does not require any particular process or practice be performed. Project managers
may use some, all, or none of the processes outlined in the Standard.

C The communications management plan assists with stakeholder engagement.

Correct. The key benefit of the communications management plan is a documented approach to effectively and
efficiently engage stakeholders by presenting relevant information promptly. Therefore, of the choices provided, this
statement represents the best response the project manager can offer to the project sponsor to support the completion
of the communications management plan.

D The communications management plan will improve quality.

Incorrect. The communications management plan describes how project communications will be planned, structured,
implemented, and monitored for effectiveness. The plan is focused on who will receive which project information, how
often, and by what means. Improved quality could be a positive by-product of the communications management plan;
however, it is not the main purpose of the plan and therefore is not the best answer.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 366, 86

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 29 of 200 Question ID: 6110013

The sponsor asks the project manager for the project's resource breakdown structure (RBS) so that she can present it to
senior management during an upcoming meeting. All the subsidiary management plans are complete, but the RBS is not yet
developed.

Which process must be completed in order to produce the RBS for the sponsor?

A Estimate Activity Resources

B Plan Resource Management

C Develop Project Management Plan

D Acquire Resources

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
In what process do you determine the personnel and equipment required to create the deliverables?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Estimate Activity Resources is a process of estimating team resources and the type and quantities of materials, equipment,
and supplies necessary to perform project work. The resource breakdown structure (RBS) is one of the outputs of this
process. The RBS is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type. One of the approaches to answering
questions on the PMP exam is elimination. The incorrect answer choices can be eliminated for the reasons provided in their
respective explanations. Of the choices provided, only Estimate Activity Resources is the process that should be completed in
order to produce the RBS for the sponsor, thus making Estimate Activity Resources the best answer to the question asked.

Note, RBS is mainly referred to as a risk breakdown structure. However, in its Glossary, the PMBOK® Guide mentions RBS
as also a resource breakdown structure.

Details for Each Option:

A Estimate Activity Resources

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 Correct. The Estimate Activity Resources process estimates the team and physical resources needed to carry out the
project work. The RBS is an output of this process. The RBS categorizes resources and is used for planning, managing
and controlling project work.

B Plan Resource Management

Incorrect. The Plan Resource Management process is the first step of the Project Resource Management Knowledge
Area. The Plan Resource Management process produces the resource management plan, which is a subsidiary plan of
the project management plan. This answer is incorrect because the scenario states all subsidiary plans have already
been completed.

C Develop Project Management Plan

Incorrect. The Develop Project Management Plan process defines how the project is executed, monitored and
controlled, and closed. The resulting output is comprised of several components, including the subsidiary resource
management plan, which has already been completed, making this choice an incorrect answer.

D Acquire Resources
Incorrect. The Acquire Resources process is part of the Executing Process Group, which follows the creation of the
RBS. In other words, since this process begins after the RBS is created, this answer choice can be eliminated.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 320, 326

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 30 of 200 Question ID: 6112443

You and your team are currently developing the stakeholder engagement plan. A project team member has already created
the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix below.

Which answer choice represents the most important element to be included in the stakeholder engagement plan?

A A plan to improve Marie Smith's engagement level

B An engagement level improvement plan for Todd Young

C A strategy to address the engagement level of John Snow

D A strategy to improve the engagement level of Tonya Stewart

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which engagement level suggests that the stakeholder is vital to the project success?

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Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

A stakeholder engagement assessment matrix supports comparison between the current (C) engagement levels of
stakeholders and the desired (D) engagement levels required for successful project delivery. Tonya Stewart has been
identified as currently resistant to the project with a goal of having this stakeholder be a project leader. This stakeholder has
the widest gap between the current state and desired state. Additionally, the fact that the desired state is to have this person
with a leading engagement level suggests her commitment to the success of the project is vital. Therefore, of the available
choices, the most important element to include in the stakeholder engagement plan is a strategy to improve the engagement
level of Tonya Stewart.

Details for Each Option:

A A plan to improve Marie Smith's engagement level

Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix indicates that the engagement level of Marie Smith is
currently at the desired level. Therefore, it is not necessary to include a plan to improve this stakeholder's engagement
level.

B An engagement level improvement plan for Todd Young

Incorrect. Todd Young is currently supportive of the project with the desired level of neutral. Therefore, there is no
reason to develop a plan to improve this stakeholder's level of engagement at this point in the project.

C A strategy to address the engagement level of John Snow

Incorrect. John Snow is currently unaware of the project with the goal of having him at least neutral on the project.
Although the stakeholder engagement plan should address this stakeholder's engagement level, the fact that the
project only needs him to be neutral suggests that his involvement will not be a critical factor in the success of the
project. Therefore, of the available choices, this is not the best answer.

D A strategy to improve the engagement level of Tonya Stewart

Correct. Tonya Stewart has been identified as currently resistant to the project with the desired engagement level with a
goal of having this stakeholder be a project leader. This stakeholder has the widest gap between the current state and
the desired state. Additionally, the fact that the desired state is to have this person with a leading engagement level
suggests her commitment to the success of the project is vital.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 521-522

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 31 of 200 Question ID: 6113655

A project manager is estimating the length of time the project will take. The project manager worked on a comparable project
two years ago that installed 10 miles of guardrails at a rate of one mile a day in similar weather conditions, using the same
size crew on the same type of highway.

What estimating technique would be the appropriate option for the project manager to use for his duration estimate?

A Parametric estimating

B Analogous estimating

C Bottom-up estimating

D Three-point estimating

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What technique uses variables (e.g., units of output) to calculate estimates?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Since the project manager has duration data from a similar project with definitive parameters, he can extrapolate the rate of
producing the guardrails from the previous project to arrive at an estimate for the new project. This estimation technique is
called parametric estimating. Parametric estimating can be used during the Estimate Activity Durations process, which is
what is described in the question scenario. For example, since the previous project was able to install one mile of guardrail
over 10 days, he could estimate that five miles of guardrail will take 50 days to install.

Details for Each Option:

A Parametric estimating
Correct. Parametric estimating uses an algorithm to calculate duration based on historical data and project parameters.
Since the project manager has the duration parameters from previous projects, he can use them to calculate a duration
estimate for this project. Parametric estimating can provide high levels of accuracy depending on the complexity of the
variables.
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B Analogous estimating
Incorrect. A good option, but parametric estimating is a better choice because the project manager has comparable
parameters to more accurately calculate the estimate. Analogous estimating is a gross-level estimating technique
which relies on the actual duration of previous, similar projects. Also, analogous estimating is generally less accurate
than other estimating techniques.

C Bottom-up estimating
Incorrect. Bottom-up estimating is a method of estimating duration by aggregating the estimates of the lower level
components of the work breakdown structure. Bottom-up estimating is typically used when estimates cannot be made
with a high degree of confidence. Since the project manager has duration data from a similar project with definitive
parameters that allow him to provide estimates with a high degree of confidence, bottom-up estimating is not the best
answer in this scenario.

D Three-point estimating
Incorrect. Three-point estimating helps determine an estimated range using most likely, optimistic and pessimistic
values. This method is usually used when there is insufficient historical data or when using judgmental data. Parametric
estimating is a better choice because the project manager does have definitive parameters that allow him to provide an
estimate with a high degree of confidence.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 200

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 32 of 200 Question ID: 6112440

During the development of the stakeholder engagement plan, the project manager realizes that a key stakeholder is resistant
to the project. Without the support of this stakeholder, the project may fail.

What is the best course of action for the project manager to identify the reason for the stakeholder being resistant?

A Escalate to the project sponsor

B Update the stakeholder register

C Use the mind mapping technique

D Utilize an Ishikawa diagram

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which data analysis technique might be useful in determining the reason for the stakeholder's resistance to the project?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question states that the stakeholder engagement plan is being created, which suggests that the Plan Stakeholder
Engagement process is being performed. Root cause analysis, which typically utilizes Ishikawa diagrams, is a data analysis
technique that is commonly used during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process to identify underlying reasons for the
level of support of project stakeholders in order to select the appropriate strategy to improve their level of engagement.
Among the available choices, only an Ishikawa diagram can provide insight into the reason for the stakeholder's resistance to
the project and is, therefore, the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Escalate to the project sponsor

Incorrect. It is the project manager's responsibility to communicate with stakeholders, to identify the reason for the
stakeholder being resistant, and make an effort to improve their level of support for the project. If the stakeholder
continues to be resistant, then it may make sense for the issue to be escalated to the project sponsor.

B Update the stakeholder register

/
 Incorrect. While it is true that the stakeholder register documents the identification, assessment, and classification of
project stakeholders and that it should be kept up to date, it is not clear from the question whether the stakeholder
register needs an update. In addition, merely updating the stakeholder register does not help identify the reason for the
stakeholder being resistant.

C Use the mind mapping technique

Incorrect. Mind mapping is used to visually organize information about stakeholders, their relationships with each other,
and the organization. Mind mapping does not provide insight into the reason for the stakeholder's resistance to the
project. Therefore, this is not the best answer choice.

D Utilize an Ishikawa diagram

Correct. An Ishikawa diagram can be used for performing a root cause analysis. Root cause analysis is a data analysis
technique, which identifies underlying reasons for the level of support of project stakeholders in order to select the
appropriate strategy to improve their level of engagement.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 521

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 33 of 200 Question ID: 6112043

During project execution, the new state-of-the-art technology that is used on the project to produce the deliverables is
unstable, which puts the whole project at risk of failure. Your sponsor is on vacation and cannot be reached. To get immediate
attention to the issue, you want to know what is the escalation procedure.

What should you do next?

A Consult the communications management plan

B Consult the risk register

C Consult the stakeholder engagement plan

D Submit a change request to replace the technology

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What plan outlines how information will be shared?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The communications management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how project
communications will be planned, structured, implemented, and monitored for effectiveness. The plan contains information
such as stakeholder communication requirements, what information will be communicated, the reason for the distribution of
information, and escalation processes. In the scenario, you need immediate action, and your sponsor is unavailable. You
should consult the communications management plan to understand the escalation process for the project.

Details for Each Option:

A Consult the communications management plan

Correct. The communications management plan describes how project communications will be planned, structured,
implemented, and monitored for effectiveness. The plan contains information on escalation processes; therefore, the
communications management plan would be the best document to consult.

B Consult the risk register

/
 Incorrect. The risk register provides details of identified individual project risks along with their risk responses. While the
risk described in the scenario may be documented in the risk register along with its corresponding risk response, the
question asks what you should do next to find the escalation procedure rather than address the risk. The risk register
does not contain information on the escalation procedure making this choice an incorrect answer.

C Consult the stakeholder engagement plan

Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement plan identifies the strategies and actions required to promote the productive
involvement of stakeholders in decision making and execution. Escalation processes are not addressed in the
stakeholder engagement plan.

D Submit a change request to replace the technology

Incorrect. Although a change request may be required to address the issue with the technology, the question is asking
to select the answer choice that describes your next step in escalating the matter for immediate attention. Submitting a
change request is not likely to draw the immediate attention of the relevant stakeholders and is, therefore, not the best
answer to the question asked.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 377

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 34 of 200 Question ID: 6113168

You have been requested to fill in for a project manager who has called in sick. As you get yourself familiar with the project
team, you notice that the team members do not collaborate well, and there are a lot of disagreements and conflicts going on.
You feel that the overall environment is counterproductive.

Based on your observations, where is the team on the Tuckman ladder?

(Please note that on the real PMP exam you may be asked to provide your answer by clicking the correct area in the image.
But here in the simulator, we are asking you to select the answer below.)

A A

B B

C C

D D

E E

J Question answered incorrectly /

Hint:
According to the Tuckman ladder, teams may go through five stages of development: forming, storming, norming, performing,
adjourning.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The Tuckman ladder is one of the models used to describe stages of team development. This model is typically referred to by
project management practitioners as part of the Develop Team process. The model includes five stages: forming, storming,
norming, performing, and adjourning. While it is safe to say that most teams go through all five stages, some may get stuck in
a particular stage or even regress (go back) to an earlier stage. On the other hand, projects with team members who worked
together in the past might skip a stage. Each stage is distinguished by different dynamics among the team members resulting
in various levels of team effectiveness. Team effectiveness is at its lowest level during the storming stage as the environment
is characterized by a high degree of conflict and a lack of collaboration among the team members. As the team members
begin to work together and trust each other, in other words, the relationships between the team members normalize (thus the
name of the next stage, norming), the degree of team effectiveness increases. Teams that successfully go through the
norming stage would eventually reach the performing stage, which is the highest level of team development. In the
performing stage, the team function as a well-organized unit, and the team effectiveness is at its highest.

Details for Each Option:

A A
Incorrect. Area A represents the forming phase of the team development model. In this phase, the team members meet
and learn about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities. Team members tend to be independent and not
as open. The scenario describes disagreements and conflicts, making this choice an incorrect answer.

B B
Correct. Area B represents the storming phase of team development. During this phase, the team begins to address
the project work, technical decisions, and the project management approach. If team members are not collaborative,
the environment can become counterproductive, resulting in low team effectiveness. The scenario closely matches this
description, making storming the best answer to the question asked.

C C
Incorrect. Area C represents the norming stage of the team development model. In this phase, team members begin to
work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team. The team members learn to trust each
other. The scenario describes disagreements and conflicts, making norming an incorrect answer.

D D
Incorrect. Area D represents the performing stage of the team development model, where the team's performance is at
its highest level. Teams that reach this level of development, function as well-organized units. The team members are
interdependent and work through issues smoothly and effectively. The scenario describes disagreements and conflicts,
making this choice an incorrect answer.

E E
Incorrect. Area E represents the adjourning stage of the team development model. This is the last stage of the
Tuckman ladder, in which the team completes the work and moves on from the project. The scenario implies the team
is still working together (although not in harmony), suggesting adjourning is an incorrect answer.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 338
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/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 35 of 200 Question ID: 6125152

You are a project manager conducting a meeting with your project team. The goal of the meeting is to improve the overall
team environment to enhance project performance. The meeting becomes contentious with team members interrupting each
other and being disrespectful to each other's suggestions. You attempt to return civility to the meeting by establishing ground
rules for acceptable behavior, but working relationships may already be damaged.

What might you have missed that could have prevented this situation?

A Sharing the team management plan with the project team

B Involving the project team in the creation of a team charter and gaining agreement with the content

C Allowing the team members to work independently and avoid interaction

D Making sure each team member has a copy of the project charter

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What project document records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

It can be inferred from the question that the Develop Team process is being performed, and one of the inputs into this process
is the team charter. The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as
well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. There is not enough
information in the question to discern if the team has or has not been involved in the creation of the team charter. However, of
the available choices, involving the project team in the creation of the charter and gaining agreement to the content may have
prevented the issue described by the question and, therefore, is the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Sharing the team management plan with the project team

Incorrect. The team management plan is the component of the resource management plan that describes when and
how team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed. The team management plan does not outline
expectations of behavior by project team members.
/
B Involving the project team in the creation of a team charter and gaining agreement with the content
Correct. The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well
as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

C Allowing the team members to work independently and avoid interaction

Incorrect. Team members should work together in order to accomplish the project goals. A cohesive team will be far
more productive than individuals contributing on their own.

D Making sure each team member has a copy of the project charter
Incorrect. The project charter contains high-level information about the project but does not provide guidelines for the
behavior of team members.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 319, 320, 339

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 36 of 200 Question ID: 6112868

A project manager is considering to change the Control Costs process currently used on her project. Instead of submitting
budget change requests to the CCB, she wants to invite stakeholders to the parking lot portion of the daily standups and
discuss requested changes there. The project manager meets with the stakeholders to propose the process change.

Which of the following arguments would least likely to convince the stakeholders of the benefits of the new process?

A The cost management and change management plans will be updated to reflect the new process.

B Earned value analysis data from a previous project will be compared to iterative data accumulation.

C Only those budget change requests that do not affect the project cost baseline will be discussed.

D Other project managers in the organization going through similar process changes will be consulted.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What could prove detrimental to the successful implementation of the change? Keep in mind, the question is asking to select
the 'least' likely answer choice.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario describes a project with elements of both predictive and agile project management approaches. This means the
project, as a whole, is lead using hybrid methods. The project manager wants to introduce a process change towards more
direct interaction with stakeholders; thus, making the project even more hybrid. When changing processes, it is essential to
clarify new roles and responsibilities and update the project artifacts accordingly. It also helps to show how changes to the
cost baseline could have been measured in past projects if they used variance analysis iteratively as opposed to the
traditional earned value analysis. Connecting with other agile or hybrid practitioners in the organization is another constructive
way to exchange knowledge and support the transformation. However, leaving change requests affecting the cost baseline
out of the discussion could negate the whole idea of changing the process. Therefore, of the choices provided, excluding
those requests from the discussion would 'least' likely to convince the stakeholders of the benefits of the new process,
making this choice the best answer to the question asked.

Note, according to agile best practices, daily standup meetings are not used to discuss changes. They are intended to
answer three questions, such as, "What did I do since the last standup?", "What is my plan for today?", and, "Are there any
impediments to my progress?" However, first, the question is describing a hybrid project where agile and traditional practices
converge, and, second, the parking lot of a daily standup meeting is the time allocated to discuss impediments and other
issues after the three main questions have been addressed. /
Details for Each Option:

A The cost management and change management plans will be updated to reflect the new process.
Incorrect. The cost management plan describes how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled. The
change management plan describes how the changes to the project will be managed. When a process that involves
changes to project costs is also changing, both plans should be updated. This may help get buy-in for the new process
from those stakeholders who are accustomed to the traditional project management approach.

B Earned value analysis data from a previous project will be compared to iterative data accumulation.
Incorrect. When a hybrid project management approach is used, like the one suggested by the scenario, trend and
variance analysis data is accumulated and assessed every iteration. This iterative assessment enables project
managers to monitor and respond to budget variations in a timely manner. Demonstrating how a predictive project
could have benefited from the iterative analysis can be a powerful way to show to stakeholders why their direct
involvement can help manage project changes more effectively.

C Only those budget change requests that do not affect the project cost baseline will be discussed.
Correct. With an iterative approach described by the scenario, the interaction with stakeholders for a discussion of
changes should happen on a regular and direct basis. Discussing only minor changes could water down the effect and
diminish the desired benefits of a more lightweight change request process. Therefore, this answer choice is least likely
to support the process change effectively.

D Other project managers in the organization going through similar process changes will be consulted.
Incorrect. Directly and regularly involving stakeholders in change requests' discussions, as suggested by the project
manager, would lead to a more hybrid project management approach than the one currently used. In such a situation,
connecting with other agile or hybrid practitioners in the organization is a powerful way to exchange knowledge and
work towards transformations together. This action may help the project manager persuading the stakeholders in favor
of the process change.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 234, 269, 671

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 30

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 37 of 200 Question ID: 6112746

After the project team has completed their first iteration, you are requested to provide the project's status report to the
sponsor. You collect the following data:

The cost baseline for the entire project is $528,000

The schedule baseline provides for six two-week iterations
The actual costs associated with the first iteration were $80,000
The team completed 45 of 50 story points planned for the first iteration

What should you report to the sponsor?

A The team's velocity in the first iteration is zero

B The team's velocity in the first iteration is 50

C The SPI for the first iteration is 0.9

D The CPI for the first iteration is 1.1

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Of the data presented, only the information regarding the story points completed and planned is needed to answer the
question correctly.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The fact that the question includes information about story points completed for an iteration along with baselines implies that
the project is being performed with a hybrid methodology. Earned value management is typically used when a predictive
project management approach is employed. However, earned value measurements can easily be applied to agile metrics, as
well. This information might be particularly useful with a hybrid project. The schedule performance index (SPI) can be
calculated using story points by dividing the story points completed during an iteration by the story points planned. In this
case, the team completed 45 story points for the first iteration with a plan of 50; thus, 45 / 50 provides us with an SPI of 0.9.

Details for Each Option:

/
A The team's velocity in the first iteration is zero
Incorrect. It's true that the team failed to complete the iteration goal, as only 45 story points of the 50 planned were
completed. It is also true that agile best practices do not support the inclusion of partially completed user stories in
velocity measurements. However, the 45 story points completed represent the point value of the features that were
completed. Therefore, the velocity would be 45, not zero, in this case.

B The team's velocity in the first iteration is 50

Incorrect. Velocity can be represented by the number of story points completed per iteration. In this scenario, the team
completed 45 points in the first iteration; thus, the velocity would be 45, not 50.

C The SPI for the first iteration is 0.9

Correct. The schedule performance index can be calculated as the number of story points completed divided by the
story points planned. Therefore 45 / 50 results in an SPI of 0.9.

D The CPI for the first iteration is 1.1

Incorrect. The cost performance index (CPI) is calculated by dividing the earned value by the actual costs: CPI = EV /
AC. In the scenario, we know that 45 story points were completed and that the actual costs for the first iteration were
$80,000. But we do not know the monetary value associated with those story points. Thus, we cannot calculate a CPI
based on the information provided. It may be tempting to select this answer choice as it represents the result of
$528,000 divided by $480,000, where $480,000 is six times the actual costs for the first iteration. Those calculations,
however, make no sense as they do not represent any formulas related to the proper earned value measurement
techniques that would have been used to answer this question correctly.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 178

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 69

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 38 of 200 Question ID: 6112234

An agile coach is leading an iteration planning meeting, which is being dominated by a highly respected senior developer.
The agile coach is concerned that the senior developer might be exerting too much influence and overcommitting the team.

What is the best course of action for the agile coach?

A Address the situation during the next project retrospective

B Suggest that the team holds a round of fist-of-five voting

C Reduce the story points to avoid over-commitment

D Do not interfere as the iteration plan is determined by the team

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might the agile coach conduct a consensus check?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

It is not uncommon for a team member(s) to dominate a meeting and exert excessive influence on the other team members,
particularly when one team member is highly experienced and respected. Even though the iteration plan should be
determined by the development team, the agile coach, as a servant leader, should take steps to provide each team member
with the opportunity to express their opinion and ensure any commitments are agreed upon by the entire team. Under these
circumstances, it is appropriate for the servant leader to perform a consensus check. One common method of conducting a
consensus check is the fist-of-five voting method. With this method, the leader asks the team members to vote in unison by
raising their hand with the number of fingers related to their level of support or degree of confidence in a commitment (closed
fist represents no support up to five fingers for full support). Any team member with less than three fingers is then allowed to
express their concerns. The leader then continues the fist-of-five process until a consensus is reached.

Details for Each Option:

A Address the situation during the next project retrospective

/
 Incorrect. The project retrospective occurs at the end of the project. Agile teams should inspect and adapt throughout
the project rather than waiting until the project is over. Depending on the severity of the issue, the agile coach might
choose to address the issue during the next iteration retrospective, but should not wait for the project retrospective.

B Suggest that the team holds a round of fist-of-five voting

Correct. The agile coach, as a servant leader, should take steps to provide each team member with the opportunity to
express their opinion and ensure any commitments are agreed upon by the entire team. Under these circumstances, it
is appropriate for the servant leader to perform a consensus check such as the fist-of-five voting method.

C Reduce the story points to avoid over-commitment

Incorrect. An agile coach should not make commitments for the team. During iteration planning, the project team should
determine what they can accomplish during the iteration.

D Do not interfere as the iteration plan is determined by the team

Incorrect. The plan for the iteration should be determined by the development team. However, the agile coach, as a
servant leader, should take steps to provide each team member with the opportunity to express their opinions and
ensure any commitments are agreed upon by the entire team.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 203

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 35

Coaching Agile Teams, Lyssa Adkins, 2010, Consent and Consensus Checks

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 39 of 200 Question ID: 6112742

You are leading two independent teams working on the same project. The nature of the deliverables requires that one team
takes a predictive approach, while the other uses Scrum. Due to dependencies between the teams and the variable nature of
the outputs from the Scrum team, the predictive team needs to confirm their understanding of the Scrum team's activities with
the shortest feedback loop possible.

What is your best course of action?

A Include a project retrospective into the project schedule

B Request that the Scrum team use information radiators

C Incorporate the use of periodic customer feedback loops

D Have the predictive team attend the daily scrum meetings

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What Scrum ceremony would provide the shortest feedback loop?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In this scenario, a Scrum team and a predictive team are working on the same project. A project team that uses a traditional
waterfall approach does not typically require short feedback loops compared to an agile team since the predictive approach
has team tasks planned in advance. According to the scenario, the predictive team needs to be kept apprised of the Scrum
team's activities due to dependencies between the teams' deliverables. One of the ceremonies associated with Scrum is the
daily standup meeting (also known as the daily Scrum). During a daily standup meeting, each project team member describes
what they accomplished since the previous daily Scrum (typically, from yesterday), what they plan to accomplish today, and
informs if there are any impediments to progress. Having the predictive team members attend the daily Scrum will allow them
to be apprised of the Scrum teams activities and help with the coordination of dependent activities.

Details for Each Option:

A Include a project retrospective into the project schedule

/
 Incorrect. A project retrospective provides the project teams with an opportunity to inspect and adapt their processes to
improve future performance. The retrospective only occurs at the end of the project, making the collaboration during
project execution impossible.

B Request that the Scrum team use information radiators

Incorrect. An information radiator is a highly visible physical display that provides information to the rest of the
organization. Information radiators are a form of one-way communication. The use of feedback loops implies the need
for two-way communication. With an information radiator, there is no way to close the loop.

C Incorporate the use of periodic customer feedback loops

Incorrect. Customer feedback loops may very well be an essential aspect of the project. However, the scenario is
specifically asking about how the two project teams will coordinate their efforts, rather than gathering feedback from
customers.

D Have the predictive team attend the daily scrum meetings

Correct. Having the predictive team attend the Scrum team's daily standup will provide a daily opportunity for the
predictive team to be apprised of what the Scrum team has accomplished and is planning to accomplish.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 364-365

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 53-54, 101, 151

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 40 of 200 Question ID: 6112929

Your project is running behind schedule. To bring the timeline back into alignment with the project management plan, you
need some of your project team members to work extra hours. In order to motivate your team, you offer each team member
two tickets to a popular sporting event if they work a weekend shift.

What type of power are you using in this situation?

A Managerial

B Charismatic

C Persuasive

D Reward-oriented

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What type of power is derived from the ability to provide monetary or other desired items?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

There are numerous forms of power at the project manager's disposal that can be used to achieve project objectives. The
question describes a situation where a reward is offered as an incentive for team members to work extra hours. Reward-
oriented power is derived from the ability to provide monetary or other desired items.

Details for Each Option:

A Managerial
Incorrect. Managerial is a personality characteristic rather than a type of power.

B Charismatic
Incorrect. Charismatic or personal is a form of power characterized by having charm and/or attraction that inspires
devotion in others. While in the scenario, the project manager is trying to inspire devotion in the team members to work
over a weekend, the project manager does it using tangible rewards rather than personal virtues.

/
C Persuasive
Incorrect. Persuasive power is the ability to provide arguments that move people to a desired course of action. The
question describes a situation where a reward is being used rather than the power of persuasion.

D Reward-oriented
Correct. Reward-oriented power is derived from the ability to provide monetary or other desired items. In the scenario
described by the question, reward-oriented power is being used to motivate team members to work a weekend shift.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 63, 341

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 41 of 200 Question ID: 6150110

After reviewing proposals for a large-scale product development project, vendors X and Y are equally qualified to deliver both
the hardware and software. The project manager believes the hardware should be developed with a traditional project
management approach, but the software might be better suited to an agile framework.

What is the best course of action?

A Contract with vendor X for hardware, with vendor Y for software and use the appropriate methodology for each

B Contract with vendor X for both hardware and software and require an agile framework for the entire project

C Contract with vendor Y for both hardware and software and require a waterfall approach for the entire project

D Contract with either vendor X or vendor Y for both hardware and software and utilize a master services
agreement

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might changes be allowed to be made to the adaptive scope without impacting the overall contract?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Larger projects may use an adaptive approach for some deliverables and a traditional project management approach for
other parts. In these cases, a governing agreement such as a master services agreement (MSA) may be used for the overall
engagement, with the adaptive work being placed in an appendix or supplement. This hybrid strategy allows changes to
occur on the adaptive scope without impacting the overall contract. The incorrect answer choices represent actions that will
not permit the selected vendor from using the best project management approach for each aspect of the project. Since both
vendors are capable of delivering both the hardware and the software, and since there is not enough information in the
question to determine which one of them is better in delivering projects using waterfall or agile project management
approach, among the available choices, utilizing a master services agreement (MSA) with either of the vendors provides the
best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Contract with vendor X for hardware, with vendor Y for software and use the appropriate methodology for each
/
 Incorrect. This approach represents a course of action which resolves the issue of which project management
methodology to use. However, since both vendors are equally capable of producing both the hardware and the
software, then it is better to make appropriate arrangements to allow one vendor to deliver both as it may save project
resources in managing one vendor instead of two.

B Contract with vendor X for both hardware and software and require an agile framework for the entire project
Incorrect. As stated by the scenario, it has been concluded that an agile framework is best for developing the software
component of the project, but not the hardware. Limiting the vendor to use one approach over another would diminish
from the benefits of using the best project management approach for each aspect of the project.

C Contract with vendor Y for both hardware and software and require a waterfall approach for the entire project
Incorrect. According to the question text, a traditional waterfall project management approach is best to develop the
hardware for the project in this case, but not the software component. Limiting the vendor to use one approach over
another would diminish from the benefits of using the best project management approach for each aspect of the
project.

D Contract with either vendor X or vendor Y for both hardware and software and utilize a master services agreement
Correct. In this case, a governing agreement such as a master services agreement (MSA) may be used with any of the
vendors for the overall engagement, with the adaptive work being placed in an appendix or supplement.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 465

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 42 of 200 Question ID: 6112281

You and your project team have just completed the development of the project management plan for your agile project. You
have requested one of the team members to schedule a meeting to present the finalized project management plan. The team
member has asked who should be invited to the meeting.

How should you respond?

A Invite the customer only because it is an agile project

B Find the answer in the organization process assets

C Invite only the project sponsor and the project team

D Consult the project schedule network diagram

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The list of participants for various types of meetings is typically specified in the applicable policies and procedures. Where are
policies and procedures can be found?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In order to obtain approval to proceed with project execution, the project management plan should be presented to the
relevant stakeholders according to applicable policies and procedures. The applicable policies and procedures are typically
part of the organizational process assets. These documents typically indicate, among other information, the policies and
procedures relevant to the activities associated with the approval of the project management plan. By following these policies
and procedures, the team member can determine who should be invited to a meeting aimed to review and approve the
project management plan. Therefore, of the available choices, researching the organization process assets is the best
response.

Note, the scenario describes an agile project, yet managed using a project management plan. While this may sound
contradicting, there is nothing in the scenario that limits the project to the use of a specific project management methodology
with only tools, techniques, artifacts, assets, practices, etc., associated with that methodology. Therefore, it is reasonable to
assume that the project as a whole is managed using hybrid methods.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Invite the customer only because it is an agile project
Incorrect. Regardless of the nature of the project, agile or waterfall, the meeting attendees to review and approve the
project management plan are typically specified in the policies and procedures included in the organizational process
assets. Customers may or may not be specified among those who should be invited.

B Find the answer in the organization process assets

Correct. A project management plan is the main output of the Develop Project Management Plan process. Obtaining
approval of the plan from relevant stakeholders is crucial for the project manager to proceed with project execution.
Following the policies and procedures included in the organizational process assets may help the team member
determine who should be invited to the meeting.

C Invite only the project sponsor and the project team

Incorrect. While the project sponsor and the project team are important meeting attendees to review and approve the
project management plan, other relevant project stakeholders should attend this meeting. Pay attention, choices that
contain absolute statements such as ‘always’, ‘never’, ‘only’, etc., typically represent incorrect answers.

D Consult the project schedule network diagram

Incorrect. The project schedule network diagram is a project document that provides a graphical representation of the
logical relationships among the project schedule activities. This document does not include information that would be
helpful to determine who should be invited to the meeting to review the project management plan.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 84, 86

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 43 of 200 Question ID: 6112568

Your company has been contracted by a client for a software development project. The project will use agile methods to
deliver product increments. For the client, however, this project will be their first experience with agile. You want to make sure
that the client gains the full benefit of early and continuous delivery of software.

What is your best course of action?

A Develop a change management plan to address the inevitable changes

B Request the client to take part in product testing to speed up delivery

C Gain alignment with the client on the timing of project deliverables

D Instruct the project team to develop all features in a single release

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What issue might the requesting organization encounter with an agile project?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Agile approaches emphasize delivering project outputs early and often. This sentiment is captured in one of the Agile
Manifesto's principles. An organization that has been structured around a predictive project management framework (the
"client" in the scenario described) may not be prepared to implement the rapid and incremental delivery that an agile
approach can offer. It is not enough for the organization that develops the product/service ("your company" in the scenario
described) to successfully deliver the project outputs. If the client is not prepared to accept the deliverables when they are
deployable, then the return on investment will be delayed. Therefore, in this scenario, it will be important for your company to
gain alignment with the client on the timing of the deliverables, so the full benefits of the project's output can be realized.

Details for Each Option:

A Develop a change management plan to address the inevitable changes

Incorrect. Changes are inevitable, and agile principles welcome change for the client's benefit. However, for an agile
project, a change management plan would be an impediment. Agile projects typically collaborate with stakeholders as
the product evolves rather than follow a change management plan.
/
B Request the client to take part in product testing to speed up delivery
Incorrect. Clients may participate in iteration reviews where the development team demonstrates the product increment
that has been developed during the iteration. Clients can also conduct acceptance testing. However, it is uncommon
that the client participates in product testing. Product testing is the responsibility of the organization that develops the
product.

C Gain alignment with the client on the timing of project deliverables

Correct. If the requesting organization is not prepared to accept the deliverables when they are deployable, then the
return on investment will be delayed. Therefore, in this scenario, it will be important for the performing organization to
gain alignment on the timing of the deliverables, so the full benefits of the project's output can be realized.

D Instruct the project team to develop all features in a single release

Incorrect. Providing a full feature set in a single release would be contradictory to the early and often delivery of value.
Agile projects release valuable features as soon as they are ready so the client can start receiving the project benefits
as quickly as possible. The project team should release features as they are deployable rather than waiting for a full
feature set to be delivered in a single release.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 8-9, 73

Effective Project Management: Traditional, Agile, Extreme, Hybrid, 8th Edition, Robert K. Wysocki, 2019, Implementing CPM
Projects

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 44 of 200 Question ID: 6113355

Project stakeholders meet to discuss the threat of a severe staff shortage due to a potential union workers strike that might
take place during project execution. With various response strategies on the table, the stakeholders want to make a decision
as to how to address the issue should the threat realizes.

What response strategy (on the right) will the stakeholders be using while deciding to implement one of the following
decisions (on the left)?

Cancel the project Mitigate

Outsource staffing Transfer

Automate processes Avoid

Hire reserve workers Accept

Delegate to management Escalate

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What kind of action is most likely a strategy of avoiding the threat entirely, transferring it to a third party, mitigating its
likelihood of occurring, actively accepting it by putting a reserve in place, and escalating its handling to a higher authority?

Correct Answer:

Cancel the project Avoid

Outsource staffing Transfer

Automate processes Mitigate

Hire reserve workers Accept

Delegate to management Escalate

/
Explanation:

Risk avoidance is when the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact. The avoid strategy,
including project cancellation, may be adopted when the level of overall project risk is significantly negative.

Transferring the risk involves shifting ownership of a threat to a third party to manage the risk and bear the impact if it occurs.
Examples of risk transferring include the use of insurance, warranties, guarantees, etc. These actions typically involve
payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the threat.

In risk mitigation, the action is taken to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk – automating processes aims to do just
that (assuming some project tasks can be done automatically rather than manually).

When a risk is actively accepted, its existence is acknowledged, but no immediate proactive action is taken; instead, a
reserve is put in place. Hiring reserve workers are an example of risk acceptance.

Lastly, when escalating risk to management, a project team acknowledges that decision-making related to the risk is out of
the project team's control and beyond their level of authority.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) - Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 442-443

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 45 of 200 Question ID: 6113844

An agile team is trying to determine the ideal iteration length. The team members are having a long and intense argument
about it, but no one is willing to compromise. The scrum master is called in to help resolve the conflict.

What is the best course of action for a scrum master?

A Avoid being involved in the process and let the team work out toward a consensus

B Recommend evaluating the pros and cons of each one of the suggested iteration lengths

C Threaten the team with disciplinary actions if they are unable to come to an agreement

D Break the impasse by making the decision for the team before relationships are damaged

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What are the roles and responsibilities of a scrum master on an agile team?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When the intensity of an argument reaches a point where a positive outcome is unlikely, the scrum master should use the
opportunity to coach the team towards an effective and productive solution. An effective and skilled scrum master can
accomplish this without 'managing' the team. The scrum master should help by using facilitation and coaching. This
facilitation can involve getting the entire team together to come to a consensus on the most appropriate iteration length or
helping to create a safe environment for the team members to have the discussion. For example, the scrum master could
suggest the team members discuss the pros and cons of each suggested iteration length to help the team reach a
consensus.

Details for Each Option:

A Avoid being involved in the process and let the team work out toward a consensus
Incorrect. According to the scenario, the argument between the team members is intense, with little chance to reach a
consensus, warranting the involvement of the scrum master. Avoiding being involved in the process would unlikely help
in achieving a positive outcome.

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B Recommend evaluating the pros and cons of each one of the suggested iteration lengths
Correct. When an argument reaches an impasse, and a positive outcome is unlikely, the scrum master should facilitate
the discussion between the involved parties so they can reach an agreement. Providing the pros and cons of each one
of the suggested iteration lengths would likely soften the tension and bring the discussion down to a reasonable level.

C Threaten the team with disciplinary actions if they are unable to come to an agreement
Incorrect. It is quite evident that threatening the team members with disciplinary actions if they are unable to come to an
agreement is not the best course of action for any manager/leader, especially on agile projects. This answer choice can
be eliminated as being unreasonable and seen as over-reaction.

D Break the impasse by making the decision for the team before relationships are damaged
Incorrect. Agile teams are self-organizing and self-directing and must be able to decide on the iteration length. At times,
when the situation warrants so, an external "force" such as a scrum master may step in and make the decision for the
team. However, according to the scenario, the discussion has not (yet) reached the level of conflict where there is a risk
of relationships to be damaged that would warrant the intervention of an outside party.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 101

Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products, 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Building Agile Teams - Self-
Organization

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 46 of 200 Question ID: 6112890

Due to an uncertain market environment and complexity of upcoming projects, your company is considering a transition from
a traditional to hybrid project management approach. The company tasks you with researching various options for
incorporating new project management practices that would help the company move closer to its goal.

Which of the following would you least likely recommend?

A Involving business analysts in requirements management

B Increasing the level of detail during initial project planning

C Implementing tools to identify complex project elements

D Incorporating agile, incremental, and iterative practices

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which answer choice represents a practice used in the traditional project management approach? Keep in mind that the
question is asking to select the 'least' likely option.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Transitioning an organization from one project management approach to another could be a long and painful process. To
reduce the business impact on the organization and decrease the potential stress such a change may cause, the transition
should be implemented gradually. This can be achieved by incorporating practices that have proven to be successful.
Examples include involving business analysts in requirements management, implementing tools to identify complex project
elements, incorporating agile, incremental, and iterative practices, etc. Increasing the level of detail during initial project
planning, however, is typical of a traditional project management approach where most of the project planning is done upfront
with as many details as possible. Since the organization wants to move away from the traditional project management
approach toward a hybrid one, increasing the level of detail during initial project planning would be the least likely option for
you to recommend to the organization.

Details for Each Option:

A Involving business analysts in requirements management

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 Incorrect. The scenario is talking about an uncertain market environment and complex projects, implying unclear and
likely evolving requirements. One of the business analyst's responsibilities is to prioritize requirements based on
customer needs so that the project delivers the highest value possible as soon as possible. This approach is typically
used on agile projects. Therefore, incorporating agile practices into traditional projects would contribute to transitioning
from traditional to hybrid methods.

B Increasing the level of detail during initial project planning

Correct. This choice describes one of the practices used in a traditional project management approach where
requirements are stable, allowing for the project to be planned upfront and in great detail. Since the question is asking
about the 'least' likely approach of transitioning to hybrid methods, this choice represents the best answer.

C Implementing tools to identify complex project elements

Incorrect. Increased project complexity, as described by the scenario, typically leads to an increased risk of rework.
Implementing tools to identify complex project elements may help reduce such risks. To minimize the risks and manage
complex projects more efficiently, companies striving to transition to hybrid methodologies may take advantage of these
tools.

D Incorporating agile, incremental, and iterative practices

Incorrect. Agile, incremental, and iterative practices are better suited for complex projects under uncertain market
conditions as those described in the scenario. Incorporating such practices into traditional projects would eventually
lead to a hybrid project management approach, which is what the company desires.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 73

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 13-14

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 47 of 200 Question ID: 6113182

A new developer joins the project. However, her productivity is limited since she lacks the competency in one of the
programming languages. This language is not only used on this project but will also be required on future projects. Training
costs were not included in the project budget, and the project CPI is 0.75.

What is the best course of action for the project manager?

A Submit a change request to update the development approach

B Seek approval for the performing organization to absorb the training costs

C Stop using this programming language on this project

D Terminate the employment of the new developer and find a replacement

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might the new developer be trained without incurring costs to the project?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question describes a situation where a project team member lacks an important competency. One of the tools and
techniques associated with the Develop Team process is training. Training the new developer in the lacking programming
language will enhance the productivity of the project team. According to the scenario, the project CPI is 0.75 implying the
project is over budget, therefore, absorbing the required training costs is problematic for the project. However, there is
another alternative which will not affect the project budget. Training costs may be supported by the performing organization if
the added skills will be useful for future projects which is the case in the situation presented. Therefore, the best course of
action is to seek approval for the performing organization to absorb the training costs as it will help the current project and
may benefit future projects.

Details for Each Option:

A Submit a change request to update the development approach

/
 Incorrect. The development approach is a component of the project management plan that describes a development
approach selected for the project, such as predictive, iterative, agile, or a hybrid model. The development approach is
unlikely to change as a result of a developer being unable to code in a specific programming language.

B Seek approval for the performing organization to absorb the training costs
Correct. The project manager should seek alternatives in addressing the gap in skillset, which will not affect the project
budget. In this case, training costs may be supported by the performing organization if the added skills will be useful for
future projects.

C Stop using this programming language on this project

Incorrect. If the programming language were becoming obsolete or does not fit in with the organization's technical
strategy, then this choice might make sense. However, the question does not support such obsolescence or trend. It
states that future projects are also expected to utilize this language. Just because a new developer lacks competence
in a programming language, does not mean that the project should cease to use it.

D Terminate the employment of the new developer and find a replacement

Incorrect. This answer choice represents an extreme action, which should not be necessary. Although the rationale is
unknown from the question, a decision was made to add the new developer to the project team. The project manager
should devise a strategy to develop the new team member to enhance productivity.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 342

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 48 of 200 Question ID: 6113488

The project team has just completed its fourth sprint. As part of the Control Costs process, you determine that the team's
average velocity is 25 points per sprint, and the team has earned 1/3 of the total number of story points required to complete
the entire project. The average cost per story point is $575.

What is the estimate to complete the remaining work?

A $57,500

B $115,000

C $14,375

D $172,500

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Determine how many story points are remaining in the project and multiply them by the cost per story point.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario describes a hybrid project in which the costs are controlled using predictive methods while the team carries out
their work using agile. Under these circumstances and with the information provided in the scenario, the traditional formulas
to calculate the earned value parameters would not work. The way to calculate the ETC, in this case, is to multiply the
remaining number of story points by the average cost per story point. The team has completed 100 story points (4 sprints with
25 story points each), which is 1/3 of the total amount of story points for the project. If 100 story points represent 1/3 of the
total scope, then the total scope is 300 story points, leaving 200 story points remaining to be completed. Using the remaining
number of story points on the project, 200, you need to multiply it by the average cost per story point, $575, to determine the
expected cost for completing the remainder of the project. Following are the detailed calculations in this situation:

Total Story Points Completed = 100

Total Story Points Remaining = 200
Average Cost Per Story Point = $575
Remaining Cost for Project Completion = 200 * $575 = $115,000

Please note, the question is asking about the cost to complete the 'remaining' story points on the project, not the 'total' of the
story points on the project. /
Details for Each Option:

A $57,500
Incorrect. $57,500 represents the cost of the story points earned rather than the expected remaining cost.

B $115,000
Correct. The expected cost remaining for the project is $115,000, which is the product of the story points remaining,
200, and the cost per story point, 575.

C $14,375
Incorrect. $14,375 is the product of the average velocity (25 points) and the average cost per story point ($575), which
represents the average cost per sprint rather than the estimated cost to complete the project.

D $172,500
Incorrect. This answer choice represents the estimated cost for the entire project rather than just the remaining cost.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 264

Agile Practice Guide – First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 61-64

Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Average Velocity

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 49 of 200 Question ID: 6112090

A project has short iterative planning and executing cycles where the requirements are progressively elaborated. The key
stakeholders are continuously involved and provide frequent feedback allowing the team to respond to changes more quickly.

What is the best way for the project manager to manage quality in this type of project environment?

A By conducting periodic quality audits

B By using the Validate Scope process

C By scheduling regular retrospectives

D By using the quality control matrix

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How is quality managed on agile projects?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The project in the scenario is using an agile methodology which focuses on small batches of work and allows the team to
uncover inconsistencies and quality issues earlier in the project life cycle. Quality is managed by scheduling regular
retrospectives to check on the effectiveness of the quality processes. During a retrospective, root causes of issues are
sought, and new approaches are suggested to improve the development process in general and quality in particular.
Subsequent retrospectives evaluate any new approaches to determine if they are working and should be continued, need
adjusting, or should be dropped from use. Therefore, of the available choices, scheduling regular retrospectives is the best
way for the project manager to manage quality on his project which is being conducted using agile practices.

Details for Each Option:

A By conducting periodic quality audits

Incorrect. A quality audit is a structured independent process to determine if project activities comply with
organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures. While it's important to conduct quality audits, the
question is asking about the best way to manage quality in the project environment described in the scenario. The

/
 scenario describes a project which is managed using agile methodologies where recurring retrospectives, rather than
audits, are the best practice to check on the effectiveness of the quality processes.

B By using the Validate Scope process

Incorrect. Validate Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. The project in
the scenario is using agile methodology where requirements, or scope, is defined and redefined throughout the project.
Since the scope is defined iteratively, the Validate Scope process, in its traditional or waterfall meaning, is not
performed. Additionally, even if the question was about a traditional project, the Manage Quality and Control Quality
processes, not the Validate Scope process, are used to manage quality on a project.

C By scheduling regular retrospectives

Correct. Retrospectives are recurring meetings that are intended to regularly check on the effectiveness of the quality
processes. Retrospectives are typically used on projects that are conducted using agile methodologies. Since the
scenario describes an agile environment, using recurring retrospectives would be the best tool for the project manager
to use on his project to manage quality.

D By using the quality control matrix

Incorrect. 'Quality control matrix' is a made-up term.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 276, 666

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 50 of 200 Question ID: 6151403

The quality management has been perfect for the project up to this point. Suddenly, the quality assurance (QA) lead who
developed and performed most of the quality activities for the project has been temporarily reassigned to help another
project.

What should the project manager do?

A Submit a change request to adjust the cost baseline and the schedule baseline

B Request the team to develop replacement quality activities

C Assign another team member to carry out the originally planned quality activities

D Pause quality activities until the QA lead returns to the project

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Are the quality activities working?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario describes the Manage Quality process. This process is sometimes called quality assurance. Manage Quality is
the process of translating the quality management plans into executable quality activities. These activities can ideally be
performed by anyone on the team with the proper training, guidance, and tools. In this scenario, the tools and methods used
by the quality assurance lead for the quality activities have been working well. Any data captured from the activities can be
used and analyzed to report the status of the project quality and control the quality, as needed. It is important for the project to
continue these activities as part of the Manage Quality process throughout the project. Unfortunately, the project can not use
its current subject matter expert (SME) but should seek alternatives, such as reassigning another resource to the task(s). In
any case, the quality activities should not cease or pause due to a resource change. Therefore, of the available options,
assigning another team member to carry out the originally planned quality activities is the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Submit a change request to adjust the cost baseline and the schedule baseline

/
 Incorrect. While it is reasonable to assume that some of the project work will be impacted by the departure of the QA
lead, there is not enough information in the question to determine if the cost or schedule baseline will need to be
modified. It is possible that the project has contingency reserves allocated for this risk (if it was identified during project
planning) or another QA specialist can be acquired to fulfill the role. Anyway, without having more information, one can
only speculate about the need for the change request.

B Request the team to develop replacement quality activities

Incorrect. The quality management has been working well. There is no indication that the quality activities need to
change.

C Assign another team member to carry out the originally planned quality activities
Correct. The quality activities are working and should continue. Since the question does not indicate that the QA lead
possesses unique knowledge, another project team member can take over conducting these activities; or if one on the
team is not available or does not possess even basic quality assurance skills, the project manager may need to acquire
an outside resource for this activity.

D Pause quality activities until the QA lead returns to the project

Incorrect. The QA lead has been reassigned to another project. The timeline for the QA lead's return is unknown or
may not happen at all. Suspending quality activities does not assure the quality of the project continues.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 288-290

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 51 of 200 Question ID: 6112660

You review the WBS of your project and realize that due to the lack of in-house expertise, some of the deliverables will need
to be outsourced to a vendor. However, the requirements for these deliverables are not well-understood at the moment.
Therefore, you decide that the outsourced portion of work will need to be managed using an agile framework.

What is your best approach in negotiating an agreement with the vendor?

A Seek an informal agreement rather than a formal contract

B Secure a fixed-price contract for the outsourced scope

C Negotiate aggressively for the most advantageous terms

D Pursue a shared-risk-reward contract relationships

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
In which approach all sides win?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Agile methodologies are typically used when requirements are not well-understood upfront. Thus, agile contracts need to
focus on collaborative efforts and aligning the contract terms with the project goals. Unlike an adversarial approach of winners
versus losers, which will likely result in an increased risk to the project, a collaborative approach is one that pursues a shared-
risk-reward relationship, where all sides win. Therefore, pursuing a shared-risk-reward relationship for the outsourced portion
of the work in which requirements are not well-defined upfront is the best course of action in this situation.

Note, the scenario describes a project in which most of the project scope is managed using the traditional/predictive project
management approach (WBS) while the outsourced portion of work is carried out using the agile framework. This means the
project as a whole is managed in a hybrid way. While this information does not change the correct answer, it is important to
understand that projects can be managed using various approaches, including predictive (sometimes called traditional or
waterfall), agile (Scrum, Kanban, etc.), or hybrid which is a combination of both.

Details for Each Option:

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A Seek an informal agreement rather than a formal contract
Incorrect. The Agile Manifesto supports the idea of customer collaboration over contract negotiation. This does not
mean, however, that formal contracts are not used for agile projects (or for the outsourced deliverables that managed
using agile methods). The contract type and terms may differ with an agile project versus waterfall, but vendor
agreements should still be captured in a formal contract.

B Secure a fixed-price contract for the outsourced scope

Incorrect. A fixed-price contract would be better suited to a waterfall project as opposed to agile. With waterfall projects,
the scope is generally well-understood upfront. With agile projects, the project scope is more likely to be progressively
elaborated. As a result, it would be challenging to determine contract terms for the entire outsourced scope upfront.

C Negotiate aggressively for the most advantageous terms

Incorrect. While it may seem natural to seek the most advantageous contract terms, this approach may not produce the
best results for any project. With agile projects, the project scope is not typically well understand initially, which means
that greater cooperation will be necessary. Thus, it will be preferable to seek contract terms that put vendor
performance in alignment with the project goals, rather than driving the hardest bargain.

D Pursue a shared-risk-reward contract relationships

Correct. Agile projects typically require a more collaborative approach with respect to vendors because the project
scope is usually not well-defined initially and will be progressively elaborated. Thus contract terms that present a
shared-risk-reward relationship are most advantageous for both parties.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 77-79

Agile Software Development: The Cooperative Game, Second Edition, 2007, Contracts

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 52 of 200 Question ID: 6113495

During a meeting, the product owner restated the product vision, described the target user groups, the business goals, and
main features to be delivered by the agile project in its upcoming releases. Then, to visually depict these features, the product
owner created the product roadmap.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the meeting?

A Establish a shared project vision among the project stakeholders

B Create the product backlog for each one of the upcoming releases

C Establish a shared release vision among the project stakeholders

D Determine the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, and resources

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How can you bound product development with objectives and constraints?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In the reference provided, the author states, “Although the product vision is an expansive view of what the product could
become, the project vision bounds product development with objectives and constraints.” In the scenario described, the
meeting participants were presented with the product vision, as well as discussed releases, and a product roadmap, which
depicts features to be developed and released throughout the entire project. All these activities help establish a shared
project vision among the stakeholders.

Details for Each Option:

A Establish a shared project vision among the project stakeholders

Correct. Main features to be delivered in the upcoming releases, the target user groups, business goals, product
roadmap, high-level features for each product release, are all part of the project vision.

B Create the product backlog for each one of the upcoming releases

/
 Incorrect. A product backlog is typically created during release planning and is intended for the upcoming release rather
than for each one of the upcoming releases. The backlog for that release would typically include only enough items to
understand the release in broad brushstrokes and then sufficient items for the next iteration.

C Establish a shared release vision among the project stakeholders

Incorrect. ‘Release vision’ is not a term associated with agile project management.

D Determine the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, and resources

Incorrect. Determining scope, schedule, cost, and other project needs are typically done as part of project planning in
traditional projects rather than at a meeting described in the scenario.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 49, 52

Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products, 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Project Objectives and
Constraints

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 53 of 200 Question ID: 6112156

You are managing a virtual project team across multiple time zones. As the project progresses, the team members learn to
trust one another and adjust their work routines to accommodate the different time zones, work habits, and culture.

What stage of team development is being demonstrated in this situation?

A Forming

B Storming

C Performing

D Norming

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What stage of team development is characterized by team members learning to trust each other?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question describes the Tuckman ladder of team development, which includes forming, storming, norming, performing,
and adjourning as the stages of development. The norming stage of team development is characterized by team members
adjusting their work habits and behaviors to support the team, and they learn to trust each other. The question states that the
team is adjusting their work habits by making accommodations for team members in different time zones, and they are
learning to trust each other. Of the available options, the norming stage is aligned the best with the description provided by
the question.

Details for Each Option:

A Forming
Incorrect. The forming stage of team development is where team members meet and learn about the project and their
formal roles and responsibilities. The question describes a team that is already working together and therefore has
moved past the forming stage.

B Storming
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 Incorrect. During the storming phase of team development, the team begins to address the project work, technical
decisions, and the project management approach. Of the available choices, this is not the best description of the
development stage outlined in the question.

C Performing
Incorrect. Teams that reach the performing stage of team development function as a well-organized unit and work
through issues smoothly and effectively. There is not enough information in the question to conclude that the team is
already well-organized and works through issues smoothly and effectively. Another answer choice, norming, more
accurately describes the current stage of the team.

D Norming
Correct. The norming stage of team development is characterized by team members adjusting their work habits and
behaviors to support the team, and they learn to trust each other.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 338

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 54 of 200 Question ID: 6151257

An agile team has been working overtime for the last few iterations. The project manager has decided that from now on the
team should maintain a 40-hour workweek.

What is the most likely reason behind the project manager's decision?

A To maximize the amount of work not done

B To minimize the amount of work in progress

C To deliver working software frequently

D To promote sustainable development

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
It’s about maintaining a constant pace indefinitely.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The Agile Manifesto principle #8 states, “Agile processes promote sustainable development. The sponsors, developers, and
users should be able to maintain a constant pace indefinitely.” Constant pace would allow the team members to maintain their
work-life balance, make fewer mistakes, sustain healthy productivity, collaborate better, and possibly refrain from resigning.

Details for Each Option:

A To maximize the amount of work not done

Incorrect. "Maximizing the amount of work not done" is Agile Manifesto principle #10, which refers to the development
of the “simplest thing that could possibly work” and avoiding building features that are never used. Limiting a workweek
to 40 hours does not guarantee that unnecessary features would not be built during these 40 hours.

B To minimize the amount of work in progress

Incorrect. The correct statement is “limit work in progress”. It refers to one of the Kanban core principles and has
nothing to do with the number of working hours.

/
C To deliver working software frequently
Incorrect. Delivering working software frequently is the Agile Manifesto principle #3. It is one of the fundamental agile
practices, which allows the team to get feedback frequently in order to improve the product and their processes.
Typically, teams can deliver working software frequently regardless of how many hours they work per week.

D To promote sustainable development

Correct. Promoting sustainable development is represented by Agile Manifesto principle #8, which supports work-life
balance by maintaining regular 40-hour workweek.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 8-9

, The Agile Manifesto, Principle #8

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 55 of 200 Question ID: 6126002

You are new to the organization and have been given a few weeks to get yourself settled before starting your project in a role
of a project manager. During this period, you realize that you have no authority over resources, the staff members are
grouped by specialty, the budget is under the full control of those group's managers, and you as a project manager are only
required to dedicate part of your time to perform the project work.

What type of an organization are you working in?

A Weak matrix

B Functional

C Balanced matrix

D Projectized

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
In which type of organization does a project manager have no authority over resources?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Organizational structure can affect the availability of resources and influence how projects are conducted. In a functional
organization, the project manager's authority over resources is little to none, the project budget is managed by the functional
managers, and the project manager works on project tasks part-time. Other project characteristics in a functional organization
include little to no resource availability and part-time project management administrative staff.

Details for Each Option:

A Weak matrix
Incorrect. Even though in a weak matrix organization a project manager has low authority over resources, it is still
considered an authority that the project manager can use. The scenario, however, describes no authority at all, making
weak matrix an incorrect answer choice.

B Functional
/
 Correct. In a functional organization, the project manager's authority over resources is little to none, the project budget
is managed by the functional manager, and the project manager is working on project tasks part-time. Based on the
scenario described, you are working in a functional organization.

C Balanced matrix
Incorrect. In a balanced matrix organization, the project manager's authority over resources is low to moderate, and the
project budget is managed by both the functional manager and the project manager. The scenario describes no
authority over resources and the budget is managed by the functional manager.

D Projectized
Incorrect. In a projectized organization, the project manager's authority over resources is high to almost total, the
project budget is managed by the project manager, and the project manager is working on project tasks full-time. The
scenario describes no authority over resources, a budget that is managed by the functional manager, and the project
manager works on project tasks part-time.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 47

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 56 of 200 Question ID: 6112521

You meet with your team and key stakeholders to decide on what approach, waterfall or agile, should be used for your
project. You explain to the meeting participants that continuous improvement is of utmost priority for the project. Someone
asks you how waterfall methodologies compare with agile as it relates to continuous improvement.

How should you respond to this question?

A Waterfall takes a more proactive approach to continuous improvement, comparing to agile which is more reactive.

B Agile projects conduct retrospectives during project execution but not at the end of the project as in waterfall.

C Agile teams tend to be more focused on continuous improvement and will review performance more regularly.

D Continuous improvement is handled essentially the same in agile and waterfall project management frameworks.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Agile projects conduct retrospectives to incorporate continuous improvement as a foundational element throughout the
project.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

There is a fundamental difference between how lessons learned are managed on projects that use a waterfall-based
methodology compared to those projects that have chosen an agile approach. At a high level, agile teams tend to be a lot
more focused on continuous improvement and will review performance more regularly. Agile projects conduct retrospectives
at the end of each iteration (typically two weeks to one month), which provides a more structured and proactive approach to
continuous improvement. A retrospective is an example of a meeting, tool or technique used during the Control Quality
process to drive continuous improvement. Additionally, agile team retrospectives can focus on the team’s working practices –
how they work together, celebrating a job well done, bettering the relationships in the team, and often a more traditional
approach focuses on the project tasks and deliverables and not how the team performed together.

Details for Each Option:

A Waterfall takes a more proactive approach to continuous improvement, comparing to agile which is more reactive.

/
 Incorrect. Waterfall project management approaches typically review project lessons learned towards the end of the
project. Any lessons learned during project execution are captured on a reactive basis as they occur. The agile
framework takes a more proactive approach by conducting retrospectives at the end of each iteration (typically two
weeks to one month) and the end of the project.

B Agile projects conduct retrospectives during project execution but not at the end of the project as in waterfall.
Incorrect. Agile projects conduct both iteration and project retrospectives. Project retrospectives are conducted at the
end of the project and review performance and lessons learned for the whole project. In projects managed using
waterfall methodologies, retrospective (lessons learned) meetings are typically held only at the end of the project.

C Agile teams tend to be more focused on continuous improvement and will review performance more regularly.
Correct. Agile projects conduct retrospectives at the end of each iteration (typically two weeks or one month) and the
end of the project. This methodology provides a more structured approach to continuous improvement where
continuous improvement is an integral part of project execution.

D Continuous improvement is handled essentially the same in agile and waterfall project management frameworks.
Incorrect. Agile teams tend to be more focused on continuous improvement and will review performance more regularly.
Agile team retrospectives focus on the team’s working practices and processes, while a more traditional approach often
focuses on the project tasks, deliverables, and individual team members and not on how the team performed together.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 305, 276

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 57 of 200 Question ID: 6112562

You are leading a project with a critical time constraint and cannot afford any project delays. An argument between two
project team members over a report format to document their testing results turns into a shouting match. The team members
draw you into their argument.

What is your best course of action?

A Tell the team members to figure it out for themselves

B Look for an approach that would completely satisfy both team members

C Request the team members to go back to work to avoid any further delays

D Select the report format that you think is best and make the decision

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Your choice of the most appropriate conflict resolution method can be influenced by factors present at the time of the conflict.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Your success in managing a project and your team often depends on your ability to resolve conflict appropriately and
promptly. You should choose the most appropriate conflict resolution method based on factors such as the importance and
the intensity of the conflict and timelines. According to the scenario, the subject of the conflict (a report format) is not critical to
project success. The project, however, has a critical time constraint and cannot afford any delays. Therefore, you need to
address the dispute quickly so that the team members can return to work without further delay. The quickest way to resolve
the conflict in this situation, and, therefore, your best course of action, is to use the force/direct method by selecting an
approach that you think is the best and make the decision. Note, the collaborative or problem-solving approach, which
incorporates multiple viewpoints and insights from different perspectives, is ideal to resolve conflicts. However, such an
approach is not always possible. Project managers should use their interpersonal and team skills and situational judgment to
determine how best to handle a conflict.

Details for Each Option:

A Tell the team members to figure it out for themselves

/
 Incorrect. Telling the team members to figure it out for themselves is an example of the withdraw/avoid technique where
you retreat from the situation allowing it to be fixed later or by others. This method would take time that you cannot
afford. Therefore, this approach is not the best way to resolve the conflict.

B Look for an approach that would completely satisfy both team members
Incorrect. Looking for a resolution to the conflict that would completely satisfy both parties is an example of the
collaborate/ problem-solving technique, which leads to a win-win solution. Under the circumstances provided in the
scenario, in which the argument turns into a shouting match, reaching a win-win solution is unlikely realistic given the
short timeline and the intensity of the conflict.

C Request the team members to go back to work to avoid any further delays
Incorrect. Since the project has a critical time constraint and cannot afford any delays, requesting the team members to
go back to work may be a plausible option. However, this approach may harm the project manager's reputation and is
not consistent with the best practices of being a servant leader for the project team.

D Select the report format that you think is best and make the decision
Correct. Pushing one team member's viewpoint at the expense of another's is an example of the force/direct technique
of conflict resolution. Although this method often results in a win-lose situation, this choice is best so you can quickly
stop the intense argument and enable the team members to return to work without further delay.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 348-349

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 58 of 200 Question ID: 6113483

After an agile team completes three iterations, the project manager determines that the average velocity of the team for these
three iterations was 30 story points. There are 292 more story points to complete the remaining portion of the project.

How many additional iterations will it take for the team to complete the project?

A 7 iterations

B 8 iterations

C 9 iterations

D 10 iterations

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Divide the story points remaining by the average velocity.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The way to forecast velocity is to run an iteration (or two, or three) and then calculate the average velocity based on the story
points completed during each of the iterations. In this situation, the project team’s current average velocity is 30 story points.
In this scenario, to calculate the number of iterations required to complete the remaining portion of the project, the number of
story points remaining (292 story points) needs to be divided by the average velocity (30 story points). 292 divided by 30
results in 9.74 iterations. Therefore, at the current velocity, it should take another 10 iterations to complete the project.

Please note, the result should be rounded to 10, not because of the math rules, but rather because there is no such thing as
half iteration, or quarter iteration (or any other portion of iteration). Therefore, even if the result were 9.1, the answer would be
the same: it should take 10 iterations for the team to complete the project.

Details for Each Option:

A 7 iterations
Incorrect. If the average velocity for the team is 30 story points, then, if the current velocity is maintained, the team
would only be able to complete 210 (the product of 7 and 30) of the remaining 292 story points after the next 7
iterations. /
B 8 iterations
Incorrect. The scenario indicates that the average velocity for the team stands at 30 story points. At the current velocity
of 30 story points, the team could expect to complete 240 (the product of 8 and 30) story points of the remaining 292
after 8 additional iterations. The team would need to experience a significant increase in velocity to complete the
project in only 8 iterations, and there is no information presented that would suggest that the velocity might increase for
the remainder of the project.

C 9 iterations
Incorrect. The average velocity of the team is stated at 30 story points. At the current velocity, the team can expect to
complete 30 story points for each of the remaining iterations. Thus, 9 iterations should yield 270 completed story points
(the product of 9 and 30). Therefore, unless the team experiences an increase in velocity, an additional iteration will be
necessary to complete the remaining 22 story points.

D 10 iterations
Correct. To calculate the number of iterations required to complete the remaining portion of the project, one should
divide the number of story points remaining (270 story points) by the average velocity (30 story points). 292 divided by
30 results in 9.74 iterations. Therefore, at the current velocity, it should take another 10 iterations to complete the
project.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 61-64

Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Estimating Velocity

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 59 of 200 Question ID: 6112122

You are leading a hybrid project with an agile team developing the web application and a traditional engineering team to
design the servers that will host the application. You want to determine what does your company say about the use of social
media tools to communicate and work with the stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations.

What is your best course of action?

A Review the stakeholder register

B Check the organizational process assets

C Consult with the project sponsor

D Check the lessons learned repository

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Where is the best place to find corporate policies for the use of social media?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate
stakeholder involvement is essentially the definition of the Stakeholder Engagement process. According to the scenario, you
want to determine what your company says about the use of social media tools to communicate and work with the
stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations. This implies you are looking for inputs to the Manage Stakeholder
Engagement process. Organizational process assets (OPAs) are one of the inputs to this process. Corporate policies and
procedures for social media are an example of OPAs. It is typical for organizations to prohibit or provide guidelines on the use
of social media when done on behalf of the business. You should first check the corporate policies and procedures before
encouraging employees to use social media as a business tool.

Note, the scenario describes a hybrid project which involves an agile team developing the software and a traditional
engineering team designing the hardware. This information, however, does not change the correct answer. Regardless of
whether the project is predictive, agile, or hybrid, organizational process assets are the best place to find the corporate
policies and procedures for the use of social media on projects performed by the organization.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Review the stakeholder register
Incorrect. The stakeholder register is a project document that captures the identification, assessment, and classification
of project stakeholders. While the stakeholder register may mention communication preferences of some of the
stakeholders, this document does not include information about the company's guideline about the use of social media
tools to communicate and work with the stakeholders.

B Check the organizational process assets

Correct. Organizational process assets include corporate policies and procedures for social media. You should review
the company's social media policy before using social media as a business tool.

C Consult with the project sponsor

Incorrect. The project sponsor may or may not be aware of policies for social media. The sponsor is neither the first
point of contact nor is the best source for this information.

D Check the lessons learned repository

Incorrect. Checking the lessons learned repository is a good idea but is not the first thing you should do. Any
information that can be gleaned from past projects regarding social media is irrelevant if corporate policies prohibit the
use of social media or if allowed its use in the past but have been changed since then.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 526

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 60 of 200 Question ID: 6112894

You meet with your team to determine the life cycle for your project. After analyzing the best way to define and manage
requirements, develop deliverables, handle changes, control risk and cost, and engage key stakeholders, the decision is
made to select a hybrid life cycle.

With the project life cycle selected, how will the requirements be managed on your project?

A Defined during the transition to the customer

B Elaborated at periodic intervals during delivery

C Defined up-front before development begins

D Elaborated as often as needed during delivery

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Hybrid projects combine elements of both predictive and agile methods.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Predictive project life cycles are characterized by an emphasis on the specification of requirements and detailed planning
during the beginning phases of a project. Agile life cycles, on the other hand, are characterized by the progressive elaboration
of requirements based on short iterative planning end executing cycles. Projects that are managed using hybrid methods
combine elements of both approaches. Depending on how well or poorly the requirements are defined at the beginning of the
project, the elaboration of requirements on hybrid projects will tend to either predictive or agile side of the project life cycles
continuum. In any case, requirements on hybrid projects will be elaborated at periodic intervals during delivery with the time
between the intervals being dependent on the level of detail of the requirements.

Details for Each Option:

A Defined during the transition to the customer

Incorrect. Defining requirements during the transition to the customer make no sense. Requirements should be either
defined up-front as it's done with traditionally managed projects or, at least, drafted at the beginning of the project and
then progressively elaborated (with iterative projects) or at the beginning of each iteration (with agile projects).
/
B Elaborated at periodic intervals during delivery
Correct. When a hybrid life cycle is selected for a project, requirements can be roughly defined up-front and then
elaborated at periodic intervals during delivery. Depending on the way requirements are specified, the project hybrid life
cycle may tend to be either more predictive or agile.

C Defined up-front before development begins

Incorrect. Requirements are defined up-front before development begins in predictive, not hybrid, project life cycles.
Such up-front planning is possible when requirements are stable and are unlikely to change significantly as the project
progresses.

D Elaborated as often as needed during delivery

Incorrect. Requirements are elaborated as often as needed during delivery in agile, not hybrid, project life cycles.
Typically requirements on agile projects are vague, and only hight level knowledge about the product exists.
Requirements are elaborated as often as needed as more information becomes available.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 666

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 61 of 200 Question ID: 6125061

You are leading an agile software development project. During a sprint review, the customer rejects the deliverables stating
that the grade is acceptable but not the quality.

Of the following, which might be the best course of action?

A Add another developer to increase velocity

B Remove some of the features and focus on quality for the next iteration

C Increase the number of features for the next sprint

D Introduce more rigorous testing during the next sprint to reduce bugs

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
A high level of defects is an example of poor quality.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question indicates that the grade of the product is acceptable, but the quality is poor. 'Quality' and 'grade' are not the
same concepts and are often confused. Quality refers to "the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill
requirements" (ISO 9000 [18]). Grade as a design intent is a category assigned to deliverables having the same functional
use but different technical characteristics. In this scenario, the quantity of features (grade) is acceptable while the quality of
the deliverables is poor, which may be represented by the number and/or severity of defects. Therefore, of the available
options, introducing more rigorous testing during the next sprint to reduce bugs is the best course of action in this scenario.
Note, the scenario indicates that the project is lead by agile methods, where frequent quality and review steps are already
supposed to be built in throughout the project rather than the end of the project. However, it seems that the current quality
assurance activities have been insufficient. Hence, introducing more rigorous testing from the next sprint onwards will likely
help to address the issue.

Details for Each Option:

A Add another developer to increase velocity

/
 Incorrect. There is no information presented by the question to suggest that the project is running behind schedule. The
question indicates that there is an issue with the quality of the product. Increasing velocity without taking any other
action is not likely to improve the quality of the deliverables.

B Remove some of the features and focus on quality for the next iteration
Incorrect. While quality is an issue in this scenario, removing some of the features may not be acceptable to the
customer. Having a robust set of features is an example of a higher-grade product. Reducing the number of features
may make the grade unacceptable regardless of what happens with quality.

C Increase the number of features for the next sprint

Incorrect. The quantity of features is an example of the product grade. The question states that the grade was
acceptable but not the quality. Increasing the number of features, without any other action, is not likely to improve the
quality of the product.

D Introduce more rigorous testing during the next sprint to reduce bugs
Correct. A high level of defects (commonly referred to as bugs in software) is an example of poor quality. Introducing
more rigorous testing should improve the quality of the product by reducing the quantity and severity of the defects.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 274

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 62 of 200 Question ID: 6112001

You and the project management team have been vigilant about observing different aspects of the project to ensure the
project is progressing as planned. Currently, you are using performance data generated during project execution to determine
if the status of overall project risk has changed, if the project assumptions are still valid, if contingency reserves for cost or
schedule require modification, and if project strategy remains valid.

What process are you performing?

A Plan Risk Responses

B Monitor Risks

C Plan Risk Management

D Identify Risks

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
This process is the only answer choice not contained in the Planning Process Group.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group uses work performance data which is generated during project execution and
analyzed in context to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project as well as identify any areas
that require change. The scenario described a list of aspects of a project that a project manager would want to monitor for
effectiveness during the Monitor Risks process.

Details for Each Option:

A Plan Risk Responses

Incorrect. Plan Risk Responses is a planning process that identifies appropriate ways to address both individual and
overall project risks. This scenario describes an analysis of work performance data generated during project execution
to monitor risk aspects of the project. Therefore, you are in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group and not in the
Planning Process Group to which the Plan Risk Responses process belongs.

/
B Monitor Risks
Correct. The Monitor Risks process uses work performance data to determine whether different aspects of the risk
planning and responses are performing as expected or whether adjustments need to be made.

C Plan Risk Management

Incorrect. Plan Risk Management is a planning process that defines how risk management will be conducted during the
project. In this scenario, you are in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group because you are using work
performance data to examine different aspects of the project risks.

D Identify Risks
Incorrect. Identify Risks is a planning process where individual and overall project risks are identified and documented.
You are monitoring aspects of project risks in this scenario; therefore, this is an incorrect answer.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 454

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 63 of 200 Question ID: 6112076

A project manager is implementing the quality management plan for a project to construct a natural gas pipeline. During this
process, an internal audit discovers that while the project meets all applicable government regulations, there is a discrepancy
with ISO 9000 criteria.

Which tailoring consideration did the project manager most likely neglect earlier in the project?

A Continuous improvement

B Standards and regulatory compliance

C Project life cycle

D Since the project meets all applicable government regulations, nothing was missed earlier in the project

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
ISO 9000 standards represent a set of industry standards, which are widely followed by organizations.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question implies that the project manager is performing the Manage Quality process by implementing the quality
management plan. Tailoring considerations for the quality management processes include standards and regulatory
compliance, among others. The question states that an internal audit uncovered a discrepancy with International Organization
for Standardization (ISO) 9000 standards. ISO 9000 represents a set of industry standards, which are widely followed by
organizations. Many organizations have policies requiring adherence to ISO quality standards as an ISO certified
organization. The tailoring consideration of standards and regulatory compliance includes industry standards of which ISO
9000 is an example. The fact that the discrepancy was uncovered during an internal audit implies that the performing
organization complies with ISO 9000 standards. Otherwise, there would be no reason to include this review in an audit.
Therefore, of the available choices, the project manager most likely neglected the tailoring consideration of standards and
regulatory compliance earlier in the project.

Details for Each Option:

A Continuous improvement
/
 Incorrect. Continuous improvement should be integrated into the quality management plan for any project. However,
the question is asking about compliance with industry standards (ISO 9000 in this case), which is unrelated to
continuous improvement.

B Standards and regulatory compliance

Correct. ISO 9000 represents a set of industry standards, which are widely followed by organizations. Although not
required by law, many organizations have policies requiring adherence to ISO 9000 quality standards. The tailoring
consideration of standards and regulatory compliance includes industry standards such as ISO 9000 standards.

C Project life cycle

Incorrect. Project life cycle addresses what phases, if any, should comprise the project. ISO 9000 represents industry
standards, which exist independently of project life cycle.

D Since the project meets all applicable government regulations, nothing was missed earlier in the project
Incorrect. Even if not required by law, following ISO 9000 standards may be required by company policy. Therefore,
adhering to ISO 9000 standards may still be a project requirement. The fact that the discrepancy was uncovered during
an internal audit implies that the performing organization complies with ISO 9000 standards. Otherwise, there would be
no reason to include this review in the audit.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 276

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 64 of 200 Question ID: 6125075

Based on the characteristics of the project, the project manager suggests selecting an agile method that limits the number of
tasks being worked on by the team members at any given time. This method will also allow the team to increase the visibility
of issues and bottlenecks in their work process.

Which of the following methods does the project manager suggest?

A Kanban

B Scrum

C Crystal

D Kaizen

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Look for an agile method that supports limiting work in progress (WIP)

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Created at Toyota, Kanban is an agile method derived from the lean production system. Kanban operates on five core
principles: visualize workflow, limit work in progress (WIP), measure and manage flow, make process policies explicit, use
models to recognize improvement opportunities. In the scenario, the project manager selects a method that limits the number
of tasks being worked on by the team members at any given time, which is the second Kanban principle, "limit work in
progress (WIP)". Limiting WIP will also allow the team members to increase the visibility of issues and bottlenecks in their
work process.

Details for Each Option:

A Kanban
Correct. Kanban is an agile method for managing work with an emphasis on, among the others, limiting work in
progress (WIP) and visualizing the flow of work.

B Scrum
/
 Incorrect. Scrum is a single-team process framework used to manage product development. While Scrum can be
characterized by some of the elements described in the scenario, its emphasis does not lie with those elements but
rather focuses on timeboxed delivery of product increments that provide the highest value to the customer.

C Crystal
Incorrect. Crystal is a family of methodologies rather than a single method. The main goal of these methodologies is to
provide organizations with tools designed to scale and select a methodology rigor based on project size and the
criticality of the project.

D Kaizen
Incorrect. Kaizen is not an agile method. Instead, Kaizen is a continuous improvement approach.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 103-105

Kanban: Successful Evolutionary Change for your Technology Business, David J. Anderson, 2010, Setting Work-In-Progress
Limits

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 65 of 200 Question ID: 6112221

You are managing a project that is nearing its end. You have been reviewing the project management plan to ensure that all
the project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives. The next thing you need to do before moving on to
the next project is to complete the administrative closure of the project.

Which of the following activities will not be performed as part of this process?

A Closing seller contracts

B Handing over the project deliverables to operations

C Transferring the knowledge gained to the lessons learned repository

D Measuring stakeholder satisfaction

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
One of the answer choices is done during the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group and not during the Close Project or
Phase process.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario implies the project manager is performing the Close Project or Phase process which involves finalizing all
activities for the project or phase. During this process information is archived, organizational resources are released, and the
final deliverable is transferred to operations for ongoing support and maintenance. The administrative closure of a project
includes the activities necessary to satisfy the completion or exit criteria for the project. All of the answer choices except
closing seller contracts are involved in the administrative closure of a project. Closing seller contracts is performed during the
Control Procurements process, not Close Project or Phase. Since the question asks which answer is 'not' included in the
administrative closure of a project, closing the seller contracts is the correct answer.

Details for Each Option:

A Closing seller contracts

Correct. Closing seller contracts is performed during the Control Procurements process, not as part of the Close Project
or Phase process, making this choice the correct answer.
/
B Handing over the project deliverables to operations
Incorrect. Once delivered by a project, the final deliverable may be handed over to a different group or organization that
will support, operate, and maintain it throughout its lifecycle. This process is included in the administrative closure of a
project and therefore is an incorrect answer.

C Transferring the knowledge gained to the lessons learned repository

Incorrect. Lessons learned and knowledge gained throughout the project are gathered and transferred to the lessons
learned repository at the end of a project and are therefore part of the Close Project or Phase process.

D Measuring stakeholder satisfaction

Incorrect. Soliciting feedback from stakeholders about both the project and the product is highly beneficial to a project
manager and is an important part of project closure. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 123

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 66 of 200 Question ID: 6113736

The project manager is 6 months into a multi-million-dollar project. The latest analysis shows a CPI of 1.5 and an SPI of 0.6.

What should she do?

A Nothing. The analysis shows the project is on budget and on schedule.

B Consider crashing the project

C Replace one of the higher paid team members with a lower-salaried employee

D Inform the customer that you are extending the delivery date for the project

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
An SPI of 0.6 and a CPI of 1.5 mean the project is behind schedule and under budget.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Earned value analysis is used in a project to compare planned versus actual schedule performance and planned versus
actual cost performance to decide whether a corrective or preventive action is required. A CPI of 1.5 means that the project is
getting $1.50 worth of work out of every $1.00 spent. Therefore, the project is under budget, and no corrective or
preventive action is required. An SPI of 0.6 means that the project is only progressing at 60% of the rate originally planned.
Therefore, the project is behind schedule, and corrective action is required. Since the project is under budget, there is funding
to bring additional team members in or crash the project.

Details for Each Option:

A Nothing. The analysis shows the project is on budget and on schedule.

Incorrect. The analysis given in the scenario says the CPI is 1.5; meaning the project is getting $1.50 worth of work for
every $1.00 spent or the project is under budget. The SPI mentioned in the scenario is 0.6, meaning the project is only
progressing at 60% of the rate planned or the project is behind schedule. The project manager should look for options
to correct the schedule. Therefore, doing nothing is not the right answer.

B Consider crashing the project

/
 Correct. Crashing the project is a technique used to shorten the project schedule by adding members to the team. With
a CPI of 1.5, the project is under budget; therefore, adding additional team members is a viable option for bringing the
project schedule back into alignment with the schedule baseline.

C Replace one of the higher paid team members with a lower-salaried employee
Incorrect. The scenario describes a project that is under budget with a CPI of 1.5, and behind schedule with an SPI of
0.6. Replacing a higher paid team member with a lower salaried one would not improve the schedule, which is the
problem. Therefore, this is an incorrect answer.

D Inform the customer that you are extending the delivery date for the project
Incorrect. Earned value analysis is used in a project to compare planned versus actual schedule performance and
decide whether a corrective or preventive action is required. The project manager cannot arbitrarily adjust the schedule
baseline. Therefore, this is not a correct answer.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 215, 228, 261-262

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 67 of 200 Question ID: 6112273

You are the project manager for a project that is in its early stages. During a meeting, your boss informs you that senior
management would like you to include a particular staff member on your project team because of their necessary expertise.
You have not recruited any other team members, and the project has not even been formally authorized yet.

How should you handle senior management's request?

A Deny the request because the project manager should be the one to acquire project resources.

B Accept the request, since identifying specific resources for the project can occur as part of the early planning
process.

C Accept the request only after you have finished creating the project management plan.

D Deny the request since you have not had an opportunity to verify that the individual has the proper skills.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Pre-assignment is when physical or team resources for a project are determined in advance, often as part of a competitive
proposal or if the project is dependent upon the expertise of particular persons.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Pre-assignment is a formally defined tool of the Acquire Resources process. It involves identifying physical or team resources
for a project in advance and is often used when a project is dependent upon the expertise of particular persons. In this
scenario, senior management has requested a particular individual for the project team because of their necessary expertise.
Therefore, the project manager should accept the request. Although denying the request until the project manager has had a
chance to verify the skills of a pre-assigned resource may seem like the best answer of those provided, it is not. The project
manager can make that assessment if necessary without denying the pre-assignment request and it shouldn't be assumed
the project manager has the expertise to verify the resources expertise.

Details for Each Option:

A Deny the request because the project manager should be the one to acquire project resources.

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 Incorrect. Pre-assignment may occur as part of the Acquire Resources process, even before the project management
plan has been completed. Assigning resources to a project is not necessarily the sole responsibility of the project
manager.

B Accept the request, since identifying specific resources for the project can occur as part of the early planning
process.
Correct. This scenario describes pre-assignment, which is the act of determining physical or team resources for a
project in advance. This can occur during the Develop Project Charter process or other processes before the initial
resource management plan has been completed.

C Accept the request only after you have finished creating the project management plan.
Incorrect. Pre-assignment is a technique that can be used during the initial stages of a project to identify specific
resources, before the project management plan or project charter has been completed.

D Deny the request since you have not had an opportunity to verify that the individual has the proper skills.
Incorrect. Though there is merit to questioning whether or not a resource has the proper skills, there is nothing stated in
the question that implies this would be necessary. There will be times when the project manager will need to defer to
the expertise of others, such as senior management, SMEs, etc.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 333

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 68 of 200 Question ID: 6112083

You are managing a project with stakeholders from many different departments including marketing, engineering, and
information technology. As you are monitoring stakeholder engagement, it becomes clear to you that stakeholders from the
marketing department who used to be supportive appear to be neutral. After researching the reasons for the gap, you
discover the marketing department views the project communications to be too technical, leading them to lose interest in the
project.

What might be your next step?

A Perform a communication styles assessment

B Provide technical training for the marketing department

C Update the communications management plan

D Review the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
An interpersonal and team skill used to tailor communications to unsupportive stakeholders.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

This scenario illustrates how closely communications management and stakeholder engagement are linked as well as
demonstrating the iterative nature of project management. The scenario implies that you are involved in the Monitor
Communications process. The Monitor Communications process can trigger an iteration of the Plan Communications
Management process, as is demonstrated in this scenario, to improve the effectiveness of communication through amended
communications plans. The key benefit of the Plan Communication Management process is to document an effective
approach to engage stakeholders by presenting them with information relevant to them. In this scenario, however, the
communications are not engaging the marketing stakeholders, and therefore the communications need to be analyzed and
adjusted accordingly. Therefore, performing a communication styles assessment next could identify ways to tailor future
communications and enhance the marketing stakeholders' engagement.

Details for Each Option:

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A Perform a communication styles assessment
Correct. A communication styles assessment is used to determine communication styles and identify the preferred
communication method, format, and content for planned project communications. After learning gaps in the marketing
stakeholders' engagement may be related to communication, this assessment can be useful for planning tailored
activities or artifacts to be used in future interactions.

B Provide technical training for the marketing department

Incorrect. Providing technical training for the marketing department is a plausible option, even though it's unclear if the
project budget and schedule permit this. However, the essence of the question surrounds ineffective communications
rather than the lack of technical knowledge of particular stakeholders. Therefore, instead of focusing on training and
spending project resources, it's better to improve project communications.

C Update the communications management plan

Incorrect. In the scenario, you have learned the project communications are too technical for the marketing department;
however, you have not yet determined how to change the communications to suit these stakeholders better. Also, once
a decision has been made on what should be changed, an update to the communications management plan would
require a change request first.

D Review the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is used to monitor the comparison between stakeholders'
current levels of engagement and their desired levels of engagement. Since you have determined the marketing
stakeholders' level of engagement has changed from supportive to neutral, it is likely you have already reviewed the
stakeholder engagement assessment matrix.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 375, 389, 521

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 69 of 200 Question ID: 6150108

A project manager is leading a product development project, which will use an agile framework. The project team and other
stakeholders are co-located at the company's corporate office.

What is the best way for the project manager to communicate the project status and promote transparency?

A Reserve a conference room and invite all relevant stakeholders to monthly project status meetings

B Post burndown charts and other project status documents to the company's intranet site

C Share the appropriate information whenever requested by stakeholders

D Display burndown charts and other relevant project artifacts in a highly visible location

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might daily project status updates be communicated using a form of push communications?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Agile best practices promote transparency. Displaying burndown charts and other relevant project information in a highly
visible location promotes transparency as current information regarding project status is readily available to everyone. All of
the answer choices represent actions that should be taken by the project manager. The PMP aspirant should select the 'best'
answer among the available options. With the project team and stakeholders co-located at the corporate office, posting the
project status in a highly visible location will make current information readily available to everyone. Note that the incorrect
answer choices all represent an action that must be taken by the stakeholders in order to retrieve the information rather than
having the information proactively presented to them. The correct answer choice describes an agile best practice. Therefore,
of the available options, displaying burndown charts and other relevant project artifacts in a highly visible location is the 'best'
answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Reserve a conference room and invite all relevant stakeholders to monthly project status meetings

/
 Incorrect. Holding monthly project status meetings is a good idea. However, the project status will change daily during
project execution. A monthly meeting will only provide a snapshot of the project status. To promote transparency as
asked by the question, it is better to make current information readily available.

B Post burndown charts and other project status documents to the company's intranet site
Incorrect. The project manager probably should post any relevant project status documents to the company's intranet
site. However, this action requires the project team and stakeholders to proactively access the information rather than
having the information readily available to them.

C Share the appropriate information whenever requested by stakeholders

Incorrect. The project manager should share any relevant information upon request. However, requiring stakeholders to
seek out the information they need is not the best way to keep stakeholders informed and promote transparency.

D Display burndown charts and other relevant project artifacts in a highly visible location
Correct. Agile best practices encourage transparency. Displaying burndown charts and other relevant project
information in a highly visible location promotes transparency as the information readily available to everyone.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 365

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 70 of 200 Question ID: 6112146

A scheduling error occurred on a construction project that you are managing. The painting contractors arrived as scheduled,
but the drywall was not yet finished. As the project manager, you want to know who was responsible for scheduling the
contractors and who should be held accountable.

What tool or technique is most helpful in this situation?

A Project organization charts

B Resource management plan

C Hierarchical charts

D Responsibility assignment matrix

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which of the answers is used to specifically define the involvement of the project team in project activities?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

A RACI chart is a common type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and
inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities. A RACI chart is developed during the Plan
Resource Management process, and it is the best tool to identify the responsible party for a project activity as well who is
accountable.

The resource management plan may contain project roles and responsibilities as well as the RAM. However, the question
specifically asks for a tool or technique, and the resource management plan is a component of the project management plan
and not a tool or technique. Therefore, the resource management plan can be eliminated as a correct response, making the
assignment matrix the best answer to the question asked. It is important to read the question carefully especially when there
are two potentially correct answers.

Details for Each Option:

A Project organization charts

/
 Incorrect. A project organization chart is a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships.
However, the project organization chart will not likely contain information about assigned responsibilities for project
activities.

B Resource management plan

Incorrect. The resource management plan may contain project roles and responsibilities, but the resource management
plan is not a tool or technique as stated in the question.

C Hierarchical charts
Incorrect. Hierarchical charts can be used to show positions and relationships in a graphical, top-down format. The
hierarchical charts are not typically a source of information regarding roles and responsibilities for project activities.

D Responsibility assignment matrix

Correct. A RACI chart is a common type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that uses responsible, accountable,
consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities. A RACI chart is the best tool
to identify the responsible party for a project activity as well who is accountable.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 317

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 71 of 200 Question ID: 6113435

At the daily scrum meeting, one of the team members brings up a problem accessing a database that impedes his progress.
Another team member offers a possible solution, which begins a conversation between the two team members. After a few
minutes, the scrum master cuts off their conversation, reminding them that the daily scrum is not the appropriate venue for
their discussion.

What should the scrum master do next?

A Submit a change request to the database team so that the problem gets resolved and impediment removed

B Request that the team members swarm on the database problem and resolve it as soon as possible

C Once the meeting is over, suggest that the two team members discuss the issue in the parking lot

D Allow the conversation between the two team members to continue until the issue is resolved

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Think about agile best practices when it comes to running the daily scrum meeting.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The daily scrum meeting (also known as a daily standup) should be timeboxed to a maximum of 15 minutes. It should be
limited to the discussion of work performed since the last daily scrum meeting, work planned to be performed before the next
daily scrum meeting, and identification of roadblocks preventing team members from performing their tasks. Discussion of
roadblocks/impediments should be deferred to the parking lot that takes place typically right after the daily scrum meeting
ends and should involve only those team members who have a roadblock and those team members who can help remove
the roadblock.

Details for Each Option:

A Submit a change request to the database team so that the problem gets resolved and impediment removed
Incorrect. The scenario describes an agile project. Agile projects do not typically utilize a formal change control
process.

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B Request that the team members swarm on the database problem and resolve it as soon as possible
Incorrect. Problem solving is not something that should be done during the daily scrum meeting. Roadblocks should be
captured in the parking lot and addressed after the daily standup meeting and should only involve those people
necessary to remove the roadblock.

C Once the meeting is over, suggest that the two team members discuss the issue in the parking lot
Correct. The daily scrum meeting should not be used to resolve problems or to remove roadblocks. Rather, the daily
scrum should be used to identify the roadblocks and place them on a list to be discussed after the daily scrum meeting
has been completed.

D Allow the conversation between the two team members to continue until the issue is resolved
Incorrect. The purpose of the daily scrum meeting is not for problem solving and removing roadblocks. The daily scrum
meeting should also be time-boxed to 15 minutes, which would be exceeded if problems were solved or roadblocks
removed during the meeting.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 53

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Scrum - Events - Daily Scrum
Meeting

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 72 of 200 Question ID: 6112755

A project manager has been assigned to a heavily regulated drug development project that will use traditional waterfall and
agile phases. Currently, the project manager is conducting a communication requirements analysis as part of the
development of a communications management plan.

What is the best strategy to address the communication needs of this hybrid project?

A Determine directions of influence of each project stakeholder and include the results in the communications
management plan

B Ensure that only the regulatory compliance elements of the project are included in the communications
management plan

C Develop requirements list specific to the waterfall phases and use regulatory obligations as overarching
requirements for all phases

D A communications management plan is not necessary when some of the project phases are executed using an
agile approach.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Does regulatory compliance change with the project management framework?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario describes a hybrid project that is combining predictive and agile methodologies. Waterfall projects (or phases in
this case) should have a fully-developed communications plan included as an element of the project management plan. Agile
best practices advocate maximizing the amount of work not done; thus, plans and documentation are reduced to what is
barely sufficient. However, even though agile methodologies seek to minimize plans and documentation, regulatory
requirements are an element of the project that must be complied with regardless of the project management framework.
Therefore, even though some phases of the project will be managed using an agile framework, the project will need an
overarching plan to ensure compliance with regulatory required communication.

Details for Each Option:

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A Determine directions of influence of each project stakeholder and include the results in the communications
management plan
Incorrect. Directions of influence are an example of the data representation technique that may be used as part of the
Identify Stakeholders process. The results of this analysis are typically used for the development of the stakeholder
register and stakeholder engagement plan, rather than the communications management plan.

B Ensure that only the regulatory compliance elements of the project are included in the communications management
plan
Incorrect. While addressing the regulatory compliance elements in the communications management plan is necessary
for the drug development project that is heavily regulated, the plan should not be limited to only one specific aspect.
The communications management plan should address all communication requirements collected during the Plan
Communications Management process described in the scenario.

C Develop requirements list specific to the waterfall phases and use regulatory obligations as overarching
requirements for all phases
Correct. A detailed requirements list will be needed for the communications management plan as it applies to the
waterfall aspects of the project. Compliance with regulatory obligations will be mandatory for the project regardless of
the project management framework.

D A communications management plan is not necessary when some of the project phases are executed using an agile
approach.
Incorrect. A communications management plan may not always be necessary for a purely agile project. However, the
question indicates that some phases of the project will utilize a waterfall model. A communications management plan is
typically an important element for waterfall projects.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 369-370

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 9

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 73 of 200 Question ID: 6113351

A project is plagued by various issues, such as a deteriorating team performance, cost and schedule overruns, defective
deliverables, etc. The project manager is struggling to monitor and control the work and decides to use some of the data
analysis techniques to identify the issues and determine the best course of action.

How can the project manager use the following techniques (on the right) to identify the various issues (on the left) impacting
this project?

Corrective actions for better Trend analysis

performance

Corrective actions regarding the cost Variance analysis

Integrated perspective on project Business analysis

performance

Identify the main reason for problems Alternatives analysis

Forecast performance based on Cost-benefit analysis

results

Compare planned and actual Earned value analysis

performance

(Not applicable) Root cause analysis

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which of the tools in the list are valid data analysis tools for monitoring & controlling project work, and what exactly is
analyzed when using each of them?

Correct Answer:
/
 Corrective actions for better Alternatives analysis
performance

Corrective actions regarding theCost-benefit

cost analysis

Integrated perspective on project

Earned value analysis
performance

Identify the main reason for problems

Root cause analysis

Forecast performance based onTrend analysis

results

Compare planned and actual Variance analysis

performance

(Not applicable) Business analysis

Explanation:

While alternatives analysis selects a corrective action or a combination of corrective and preventive actions to implement,
cost-benefit analysis determines the best corrective action when it comes to cost factors in a project that deviates from the
plan. With earned value analysis, project managers will have a more integrated perspective on scope, schedule, and cost
performance. Root cause analysis helps identify the main cause or causes of a problem; with trend analysis, future
performance can be forecasted based on past results. The differences between planned and actual performance are
reviewed with variance analysis. In contrast, business analysis is not a technique that typically used as part of the Monitor
and Control Project Work process implied by the scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) - Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 111

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 74 of 200 Question ID: 6112739

A project manager is analyzing the communication needs of stakeholders in order to develop the communications
management plan for a project that will use a hybrid project management framework. The project manager understands that
the plan should accommodate the needs of both predictive and agile aspects of the project.

How should the plan accommodate the agile aspects of this project?

A Account for an increased exchange of documentation

B Specify the exact number of communication channels

C Secure facilities to support face-to-face interactions

D Deploy the project management information systems (PMIS)

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What do agile methodologies promote as the most efficient and effective method of communicating?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

With agile methodologies, formal documentation of a communication plan is typically not required because much of the
communication is inherent in the agile ceremonies. Since a hybrid approach is being employed in this scenario, a
communications management plan will likely be needed, but agile aspects of the project will require little formal documented
planning. However, one consideration which needs to be accounted for is the increased number of face-to-face interactions
that typically result from agile practices. For example, the project manager may need to ensure facilities are available for a
war room, video conferencing, the common part of the "caves and common", meeting rooms, etc.

Details for Each Option:

A Account for an increased exchange of documentation

Incorrect. Agile methodologies prioritize face-to-face communication, whereas traditional project management is more
focused on the exchange of documentation. Therefore, there will likely be a decreased, not increased, exchange of
documentation associated with the agile aspects of the project.

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B Specify the exact number of communication channels
Incorrect. When the number of stakeholders that will communicate on a project is known upfront, it is theoretically
possible to calculate the number of communication channels. However, neither it's likely that the exact number of
stakeholders is known upfront, nor is it clear what benefit will the knowledge of the exact number of communication
channels bring to the project, specifically, to its agile aspects.

C Secure facilities to support face-to-face interactions

Correct. Agile principles favor face-to-face communication as the most efficient and effective method of conveying
information. Therefore, of the available choices, securing facilities to support face-to-face interactions is the best
answer to the question asked.

D Deploy the project management information systems (PMIS)

Incorrect. The project management information systems (PMIS) provide a set of standard tools for the project manager
to capture, store, and distribute information to project stakeholders according to their needs captured in the
communications management plan. The PMIS applies to the project as a whole and can be equally beneficial for any
project management approach, either traditional, agile, or hybrid.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 8-9

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Communications Management

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Question 75 of 200 Question ID: 6113531

An agile coach joined a team that has been working on a project for the last few months. The coach noticed that the team
members were struggling to remove impediments, did not have a discipline around time-boxed events, and were not using
information radiators to display the project status.

What is the best course of action for the agile coach to take?

A Help the team deal with impediments, remind of the importance of time-boxing, and force the team to use
information radiators

B Tell the team to deal with impediments, remind of the importance of time-boxing, and suggest the team to use
information radiators

C Help the team to deal with impediments, remind of the importance of time-boxing, and suggest the team to use
information radiators

D Do nothing, since the issues are minor and can be handled by the team because agile teams are self-managing
and self-organizing

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
To answer this question correctly, think of how agile views servant leadership.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Helping the team to deal with impediments, reminding the team of the importance of time-boxing, and suggesting the team to
use information radiators is the best course of action for the agile coach to take in this situation. Such behavior represents the
agile servant leadership approach. The coach should not enforce the use of any tools or techniques with which the team is
not comfortable. Rather, the coach could suggest adapting existing solutions, such as an information radiator, that may better
meet the needs of the team and are aligned with Agile best practices.

Details for Each Option:

A Help the team deal with impediments, remind of the importance of time-boxing, and force the team to use
information radiators
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 Incorrect. Helping the team remove impediments and reminding the team of the importance and discipline of time-
boxed events is what the agile coach is expected to do. However, the coach should not force the team into using
information radiators. First, forcing is not the agile way of managing projects; second, the team may have reasons for
using other ways of communicating the project status.

B Tell the team to deal with impediments, remind of the importance of time-boxing, and suggest the team to use
information radiators
Incorrect. Removing impediments is one of the duties of the agile coach as a servant leader. Telling the team to deal
with impediments is not aligned with the agile leadership style. Based on this alone, the answer choice can be
eliminated.

C Help the team to deal with impediments, remind of the importance of time-boxing, and suggest the team to use
information radiators
Correct. Of the choices provided, this answer represents the best course of action for the agile coach to take.

D Do nothing, since the issues are minor and can be handled by the team because agile teams are self-managing and
self-organizing
Incorrect. While it is subjective to whether or not the issues described in the question are minor, even minor issues
have to be dealt with in order to help the team better apply agile best practices and eventually make better progress
with their project. Being self-managing and self-organizing does not mean the team always and properly applies the
best agile practices.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 33-35

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Self-Management

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 76 of 200 Question ID: 6112853

You have been assigned to lead an agile project. You want to ensure that project information is shared within and across the
organization, so that any misalignments, dependencies, or other issues related to the frequently changing requirements are
surfaced as quickly as possible.

How could this goal be best achieved?

A By distributing the project report weekly

B By inviting stakeholders to daily standups

C By promoting aggressive transparency

D By sharing comprehensive documentation

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What term describes sharing project information between the developers, client, users, and other project stakeholders
directly, quickly, and effectively rather than going through layers of management?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Aggressive transparency is a term often used on agile projects that refers to sharing project information within and across the
performing organization. Promoting aggressive transparency is beneficial on projects that experience a high degree of
change where active engagement and participation with project stakeholders is essential. Such an approach may help
facilitate timely, productive discussion and decision making, allowing the project teams to engage with stakeholders directly
rather than going through layers of management. Often the client, user, and developer exchange information in a dynamic co-
creative process that leads to more stakeholder involvement and higher satisfaction. Regular interactions with the stakeholder
community throughout the project mitigate risk, build trust, and support adjustments earlier in the project life cycle, thus
reducing costs and increasing the likelihood of project success.

Details for Each Option:

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A By distributing the project report weekly
Incorrect. Project reporting is one of the tools and techniques of the Manage Communications process. This approach
of sharing project information is typical for traditionally lead projects. The scenario, however, describes an agile project.

B By inviting stakeholders to daily standups

Incorrect. Daily standups are timeboxed, typically 15-minute meetings, where the project team members report on work
done since yesterday, work to be done today, and any impediments to progress. While inviting stakeholders to a daily
standup may contribute to sharing some project details, this information is very limited and technical and unlikely to
meet the needs of sharing project information within and across the organization as requested by the scenario. Another
answer choice better addresses the question asked.

C By promoting aggressive transparency

Correct. In order to accelerate the sharing of information within and across the organization, agile methods promote
aggressive transparency. Inviting stakeholders to project meetings and reviews or posting project artifacts in public
spaces would help surface any misalignments, dependencies, or other issues related to the frequently changing
project.

D By sharing comprehensive documentation

Incorrect. According to the Agile Manifesto, agile methods value working software over comprehensive documentation.
Therefore, it is unlikely that comprehensive documentation would have been even created on this project, which is,
based on the scenario described, an agile project.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 506

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 95

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 77 of 200 Question ID: 6113189

A conflict between the project manager and the team has been going for a while. The conflict negatively impacts the team's
morale and jeopardizes the project's goals. To address the conflict, the project manager maps the desire to satisfy the parties'
concerns on the chart below. Based on the map, the project manager decides to solve the conflict once and for all.

Where did the project manager most likely map the desire to satisfy the team members' concerns vs. the desire to satisfy
his/her own concerns?

(Please note that on the real PMP exam you may be asked to provide your answer by clicking the correct area in the image.
But here in the simulator, we are asking you to select the answer below.)

A A
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B B

C C

D D

E E

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
There are five general techniques for resolving conflict: withdrawal/avoiding, smoothing/accomodating,
compromising/reconciling, forcing/directing, collaborating/problem-solving.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Conflict is inevitable on any project. Therefore, conflict management is one of the most important interpersonal and team
skills that project managers have to master. The success of project managers in managing their project teams often depends
on their ability to resolve conflict. In the scenario described, the conflict is between the project manager and the team. The
conflict is at the level that negatively impacts the team's morale and jeopardizes the project's goals. However, selecting the
appropriate conflict resolution technique depends on the project manager and the circumstances surrounding the conflict.
Under different circumstances, different project managers may use different conflict resolution methods. Factors that
influence these methods include the importance and intensity of the conflict, time pressure for resolving the conflict, relative
power of the people involved in the conflict, importance of maintaining a good relationship, motivation to resolve conflict on a
long-term or short-term basis, etc.

There are five general techniques for resolving conflict: withdrawal/avoiding, smoothing/accomodating,
compromising/reconciling, forcing/directing, collaborating/problem-solving. In the scenario, the project manager decides to
solve the conflict. There is not enough information in the scenario to determine whether the project manager's decision was
right or wrong. However, this information is not required to answer the question correctly. All that is needed to select the
correct answer is to understand the various degrees of desire to satisfy the concerns of the parties involved in the conflict and
map the desire to the technique described in the scenario, keeping in mind that the scenario is presented from the project
manager's perspective.

Details for Each Option:

A A
Incorrect. Area A represents a low desire to satisfy team members' concerns but a high desire to satisfy the project
manager's own concerns. From the project manager's perspective, this would be a force/direct technique, in which the
project manager would push his/her viewpoint at the expense of the team, offering a win-lose solution. In the scenario
described, the project manager decides to solve the conflict, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.

B B
Correct. Area B represents a high desire to satisfy team members' concerns as well as a high desire to satisfy the
project manager's own concerns. From the project manager's perspective, this would be a collaborate/problem-solve
technique, in which multiple viewpoints and insights from different perspectives are incorporated. This approach
typically results in a win-win situation. In the scenario described, the project manager decides to solve the conflict,
making this choice the best answer to the question asked.

/
C C
Incorrect. Area C represents a low desire to satisfy team members' concerns as well as a low desire to satisfy the
project manager's own concerns. From the project manager's perspective, this would be an avoid/withdraw technique,
in which parties retreat from an actual or potential conflict situation, postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be
resolved by others. In the scenario described, the project manager decides to solve the conflict, making this choice an
incorrect answer.

D D
Incorrect. Area D represents a high desire to satisfy team members' concerns but a low desire to satisfy the project
manager's own concerns. From the project manager's perspective, this would be a smooth/accommodate technique in
which one party concedes its position to the need of the other party to maintain harmony and relationships. In the
scenario described, the project manager decides to solve the conflict, making this choice an incorrect answer.

E E
Incorrect. Area E represents a moderate desire to satisfy team members' concerns as well as a moderate desire to
satisfy the project manager's own concerns. From the project manager's perspective, this would be a
compromise/reconcile technique, in which parties search for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all those
involved in the conflict. Since each party moderately yields to another one, this technique only temporarily or partially
resolves the conflict and often results in a lose-lose situation. In the scenario described, the project manager decides to
solve the conflict, making this choice an incorrect answer.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 349

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 78 of 200 Question ID: 6110031

To comply with the customer's contract, the project must use a certified agile practitioner to lead and coach the project team.
However, the only certified agile practitioner employed by the company was just assigned to another project. The project
manager must now hire an independent contractor to serve as the agile coach, which delays the start of project execution.

Which of the following may have helped to avoid the delay in executing the project?

A Documenting the potential unavailability of the agile coach in the project assumption log

B Using different verbiage in the resource management plan to remove the requirement for an agile coach

C Assigning a different team member from the company to serve as the agile coach

D Securing the internal agile certified practitioner with a pre-assignment when this requirement was first identified.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What action would best ensure the required internal resource is available for the project during or before the initiation stage?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Acquire Resources process. Pre-assignment is one of the
tools and techniques that may be used in this process. When physical or team resources for a project are determined in
advance, they are considered pre-assigned. This situation can occur if the project is the result of specific resources being
identified as part of a competitive proposal or if the project is dependent upon the expertise of a particular person. Had the
qualified agile coach employed by the company been pre-assigned, the resource may have been available for the other
project and the situation described by the question may have been avoided.

Details for Each Option:

A Documenting the potential unavailability of the agile coach in the project assumption log

/
 Incorrect. An assumption log is a project document used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the
project life cycle. While documenting the potential unavailability of the agile coach in the project assumption log would
have ensured that the project stakeholders are aware of the situation, this action alone would not have avoided the
situation from occurring in the first place.

B Using different verbiage in the resource management plan to remove the requirement for an agile coach
Incorrect. The resource management plan reflects the contractual requirements, in this case, the use of a qualified agile
coach. Changing the verbiage of the resource management plan does not change the contractual obligation and is not
an ethical approach.

C Assigning a different team member from the company to serve as the agile coach
Incorrect. The question states that the company only employs one individual with the required skillset to serve as the
agile coach, and that resource is not available. Therefore, allowing another employee without the contractually required
skillset to serve as the agile coach is not a viable option.

D Securing the internal agile certified practitioner with a pre-assignment when this requirement was first identified.
Correct. When physical or team resources for a project are determined in advance, they are considered pre-assigned.
Since the need for an agile certified practitioner would have been identified during the initiation of the project, the
internal agile certified practitioner could have been pre-assigned to meet this requirement in the contract.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 333

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 79 of 200 Question ID: 6112798

Your project team functions as a well-organized unit. The team members are interdependent and work through issues
smoothly and effectively.

What is your best course of action?

A Provide clear direction on the project objectives and the behavior expected from the team members

B Help the team to get through their struggle by ensuring they listen to each other and understand their differences

C Ensure the team resolves conflicts quickly and continues to work collaboratively and step in only when needed

D Serve as a gateway between the project team and the stakeholders and delegate decision making to the team
members

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What do high-performing teams need from the project manager the most?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question is in reference to the Tuckman ladder, which is one of the models used to describe team development. This
model includes five stages of development that teams may go through including forming, storming, norming, performing, and
adjourning. The question suggests that the project team had reached the performing stage of team development. Teams that
reach the performing stage function as a well-organized unit, and the team members are interdependent and work through
issues smoothly and effectively. This makes the life of project managers relatively easy and requires from them to mostly
serve as a gateway between the project team and the stakeholders and delegate decision making to the team members.

Details for Each Option:

A Provide clear direction on the project objectives and the behavior expected from the team members

/
 Incorrect. This answer choice describes the role of the project manager when the team is in the forming stage of their
development. During the forming stage, the project team members meet and learn about the project and their formal
roles and responsibilities. The project manager should provide clear direction on the project objectives and the behavior
expected from the team members.

B Help the team to get through their struggle by ensuring they listen to each other and understand their differences
Incorrect. This answer choice represents the role of the project manager when the team is in the storming stage of
team development. During this phase, the team begins to address the project work, technical decision, and the project
management approach. If the team members are not collaborative or open to differing ideas and perspectives, the
environment can become counterproductive. The team needs help from the project manager to get through their
struggle, listen to each other, and understand their differences.

C Ensure the team resolves conflicts quickly and continues to work collaboratively and step in only when needed
Incorrect. This answer choice describes the role of the project manager when the team is in the norming stage of their
development. During the norming stage, the team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and
behaviors to support the team. The team members begin to trust each other. In this phase, the best course of action for
the project manager is to ensure the team resolves conflicts quickly and continues to work collaboratively. The project
manager will step in only when needed.

D Serve as a gateway between the project team and the stakeholders and delegate decision making to the team
members
Correct. This answer choice describes the role of the project manager when the team reaches its performing stage
when they function as a well-organized unit, and the team members are interdependent and work through issues
smoothly and effectively. This is the ideal stage of team development that requires from the project manager to be a
gateway between the project team and the stakeholders and delegate decision making to the team members.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 338

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 80 of 200 Question ID: 6113511

An agile team is tasked with the development of a robot. The project manager wants to ensure that before the actual robot is
built, the team receives early feedback on requirements and adapts the design accordingly.

Which of the following should the project manager use to achieve that goal?

A Prototyping

B Design review

C Checklists

D Business case

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which one is a product demonstration technique that allows teams to show how the early version of the product works?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Prototyping is a method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a model of the expected product before
actually building it. Examples of prototypes are small-scale products, computer-generated 2D and 3D models, mock-ups, or
simulations. Prototypes allow stakeholders to experiment with a model of the final product rather than being limited to
discussing abstract representations of their requirements. Of the choices provided, prototyping best addresses the need of
the project manager to ensure that before the actual robot is built, the team receives early feedback on requirements and
adapts the design accordingly. Prototyping can be used on any type of project, traditional, agile, or hybrid.

Details for Each Option:

A Prototyping

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 Correct. Prototyping supports the concept of progressive elaboration in iterative cycles, such as those used on agile
projects described in the scenario. When enough feedback cycles have been performed, the requirements obtained
from the prototype are sufficiently complete to move to the design or build phase.

B Design review
Incorrect. Although a design review meeting helps the team gain early feedback from a customer, design reviews are
limited to discussing abstract representations of stakeholders' requirements. Another answer choice better addresses
the question asked.

C Checklists
Incorrect. A checklist is a document that contains a list of items, actions, or points to be considered. Checklists can be
used for various purposes in various project management processes, on both agile and traditional projects. However,
checklists are not used for getting early feedback on requirements.

D Business case
Incorrect. A business case is used to support the feasibility of the effort and to describe why the organization should
undertake the project rather than get early feedback on requirements and adapt the design accordingly.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 147

Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products, 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Shared Space

The Agile PrepCast, Advanced Concepts in Value-Based Prioritization, , Feedback Methods - Demonstrations

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 81 of 200 Question ID: 6125170

An agile team is struggling with practicing agile in an organization that operates in a highly regulated industry that requires
projects to use waterfall methodologies.

What approach may an agile coach recommend in this situation?

A Comply with the organizational requirements and abandon the team's existing agile practices

B Factor the organizational requirements into the team's existing agile practices

C Continue practicing agile methods but have the changes reviewed by the change control board

D Persuade the organization's senior management to transition to agile practices

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Sometimes, compromising is the best approach.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

While the agile project management approach has proven itself to be a very effective way to deliver projects, it is not a silver
bullet. Some industries, such as finance, healthcare, government, have valid reasons for using the traditional waterfall
approach. On the other hand, a project and its organization may benefit from agile best practices if agile methods can co-
exist with the traditional methods. In the reference provided, the authors state, "None of these requirements will cease to exist
simply because the teams are employing agile practices. Instead, the teams must learn to factor these organizational
requirements into their existing agile processes, and management must begin the investigative work of determining how to
streamline these requirements and activities, eliminating wasteful process, so that they don't hamper the project."

Details for Each Option:

A Comply with the organizational requirements and abandon the team's existing agile practices

/
 Incorrect. Even organizations that follow the traditional (waterfall) project management approach can benefit from agile
methods. Therefore, simply abandoning agile would not be the best course of action.

B Factor the organizational requirements into the team's existing agile practices
Correct. If the team believes they could increase the value delivered by projects using agile practices without
compromising the organization's requirements, they should factor organizational requirements into the team’s existing
agile practices.

C Continue practicing agile methods but have the changes reviewed by the change control board
Incorrect. There is not enough information in the scenario to determine that having the changes reviewed by the
change control board would be sufficient to meet the organizational requirements. Change control policies and
procedures are only one aspect of the waterfall project management approach mentioned in the scenario.

D Persuade the organization's senior management to transition to agile practices

Incorrect. While persuading the organization’s senior management to transition to agile may sound like a plausible
choice, the scenario states the company is operating in a highly regulated industry that requires projects to use
waterfall project management processes. Therefore, it may not be feasible for the organization to use only agile
methods.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 73-74

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Working as an Agile Team in a
Waterfall Enterprise

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 82 of 200 Question ID: 6112633

A senior developer on your agile team announces that she leaves in two weeks. A change request to hire a replacement is
approved, and the new developer is hired. You want to ensure that in the very short time left before the senior developer
departs, the knowledge is transferred most efficiently and effectively and that the agile cadence of the team's workflow is
maintained.

What is your best course of action?

A Request that the senior developer and new team member perform job shadowing

B Have the senior developer document their best practices

C Ask the new developer to review all of the project documentation

D Make use of the existing information radiators

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What does the Agile Manifesto say is the most efficient and effective method of conveying information?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, the question implies that there is an overlap between the arrival of the new team member and the departure
of the senior developer. This situation provides the opportunity for the new team member to collaborate with the senior
developer to facilitate a knowledge transfer. While the incorrect answer choices all represent effective means of
communication and are actions that should be taken, the most efficient and effective method of conveying information is
captured in the principles behind the Agile Manifesto. One of the clarifying principles of the Agile Manifesto states, "The most
efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation." Of the
available answer choices, only job shadowing allows the opportunity for face-to-face conversion, helping the new team
member to watch the senior developer as well as observe agile cadence of the team's workflow, making job shadowing the
best answer to the question asked.

Note, the scenario describes a project that is managed using a hybrid project management approach. For example, in the
scenario, the changes to resources are handled via the Perform Integrated Change Control process, while the work the team
performs is carried out using agile methods. /
Details for Each Option:

A Request that the senior developer and new team member perform job shadowing
Correct. One of the twelve principles behind the Agile Manifesto states, "The most efficient and effective method of
conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation." Face-to-face communication
would be an integral part of job shadowing.

B Have the senior developer document their best practices

Incorrect. Having the senior developer document their best practices is probably a good idea. However, the question
suggests that there is an overlap between the arrival of the new team member and the departure of the senior
developer. It would be more effective for the knowledge transfer to occur through collaboration taking advantage of two-
way communication.

C Ask the new developer to review all of the project documentation

Incorrect. As a project leader, you will likely want the new team member to review all of the relevant project
documentation to help get them up to speed with the project. However, this type of knowledge transfer lacks
interactivity and will not likely be as effective as collaborating with the senior developer.

D Make use of the existing information radiators

Incorrect. An information radiator is a highly visible physical display that provides information. Examples of information
radiators include burn charts or a Kanban board. While this method of communication might provide some useful
insights, it will not provide details of the senior developer's best practices.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 9

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, What Are the Agile Principles That
Guide Teams?

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 83 of 200 Question ID: 6113467

A project manager is facilitating a sprint retrospective meeting where the team members discuss customer dissatisfaction
from the product increment they delivered during the sprint. The discussion reveals some issues with the remote team
members who were primarily using email to communicate with the rest of the team.

What was the most likely cause the product increment did not meet customer expectations?

A Failure to respond to changes in scope

B Non colocated team members

C Delivering working software in each sprint

D Demotivated team members

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Face-to-face communication is the most efficient way for agile team members to interact with one another.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Colocating the team members would eliminate the need to communicate using email or other non-face-to-face
communication methods. When team members are remotely located, the chances for problems with communication are
greater than among colocated team members. Additionally, non-colocated teams experience challenges in important day-to-
day interactions among the team members and other project stakeholders.

Details for Each Option:

A Failure to respond to changes in scope

Incorrect. The question does not mention anything about changes that the customer requested, which the team did not
implement.

/
B Non colocated team members
Correct. Colocating team members would likely remove communication issues and improve communication. Colocation
typically leads to higher productivity and the team members who are on the same page.

C Delivering working software in each sprint

Incorrect. Delivering working software is one of the Agile Manifesto principles, "Deliver working software frequently,
from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference to the shorter timescale." Properly implementing this
principle would unlikely to lead to the customer's dissatisfaction.

D Demotivated team members

Incorrect. There are no facts in the question that directly provides evidence for lack of motivation.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 39-40, 46

Agile Software Development: The Cooperative Game, 2nd Edition, Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Osmotic Communication,
Misconstructing the Message

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 84 of 200 Question ID: 6110082

Four vendors have responded to a bid request on your project.

Which of the following vendors should you select based on the expected monetary value (EMV)?

A Vendor 1 with an 80% probability of success and profit of $20,000

B Vendor 2 with a 90% probability of success and profit of $19,000

C Vendor 3 with a 75% probability of success and profit of $18,000

D Vendor 4 with an 85% probability of success and profit of $20,000

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which vendor provides the highest EMV?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The expected monetary value (EMV) technique is one that calculates the combined probability and impact values of a
decision or a solution. This question requires a simple multiplication of the profit anticipated from a vendor by the probability
of the vendor's success. Selecting Vendor 2 is the correct answer because they provide a solution with the highest EMV.

Details for Each Option:

A Vendor 1 with an 80% probability of success and profit of $20,000

Incorrect. Vendor 1’s solution is calculated as 0.80 x $20,000 = $16,000, which is not the highest EMV possible of the
answer choices given.

B Vendor 2 with a 90% probability of success and profit of $19,000

Correct. Vendor 2’s solution is calculated as 0.90 x $19,000 = $17,100, which represents the highest profit to the
project from the answer choices given.
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C Vendor 3 with a 75% probability of success and profit of $18,000
Incorrect. Vendor 3’s solution is calculated as 0.75 x $18,000 = $13,500, which is not the highest EMV possible of the
answer choices given.

D Vendor 4 with an 85% probability of success and profit of $20,000

Incorrect. Vendor 4’s solution is calculated as 0.85 x $20,000 = $17,000, which is not the highest EMV possible of the
answer choices given.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 435

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 85 of 200 Question ID: 6112251

While the first phase of a construction project was a success, one of the two lead architects suddenly had to resign from her
position due to a conflict of interest within the company.

What should the project manager do immediately to manage the team composition?

A Write a work performance report to generate awareness of the lead architect's departure

B Update the project organizational chart to reflect the team change

C Review the change management plan and submit a change request

D Use float on the critical path to prevent schedule slippage due to this new risk

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The size of your team may increase or decrease over time. You need to manage changes to it to optimize performance.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The key words in this question "immediately" and "to manage the team composition". The change management plan is a
subsidiary plan of the project management plan. It provides direction to manage the change control process and documents
the roles and responsibilities of the change control board (CCB) if one is used on the project. The question describes a
situation in which the project manager is in the Manage Team process. One of the activities of this process involves managing
team changes to optimize project performance. For example, staffing changes, whether made by choice or by uncontrollable
events, can disrupt the project team (and need to be managed). To do so, the project manager may submit a change request
to either replace team members who leave or outsource some of the work.

Details for Each Option:

A Write a work performance report to generate awareness of the lead architect's departure

/
 Incorrect. Work performance reports are the physical or electronic representation of work performance information
which is intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness. The information from work performance reports and
related forecasts assist in determining future team resource requirements, recognition and rewards, and updates to the
resource management plan. While it is important to inform stakeholders of the change in team composition, it is not the
immediate action a project manager should take in this situation.

B Update the project organizational chart to reflect the team change

Incorrect. A project organizational chart is a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships,
which is contained within the resource management plan. Since the resource management plan is a controlled
document, it cannot be updated at will without an approved change request. While this step will need to be performed
eventually, of the choices provided, it is not the immediate action required in this situation. Additionally, simply updating
the project organizational chart would not address the need of managing the team composition as requested by the
question.

C Review the change management plan and submit a change request

Correct. Since a lead architect has been forced to leave due to a conflict of interest, the project manager must now deal
with the matter by submitting a change request and follow the process outlined in the change management plan to
replace the human resource. The change request may be to update the resource management plan to reflect the
change in team composition, to request an additional architect to replace the one that left, or possibly to outsource the
project work affected by the lead architect's departure. In any case, this is the best answer choice of those provided to
manage your team composition.

D Use float on the critical path to prevent schedule slippage due to this new risk
Incorrect. This answer choice is incorrect for several reasons. The first is that it describes using float on the critical path
to protect the schedule. This is a false statement as a critical path should not contain any float. Second, while there is a
potential risk of having only one project architect, this risk must first be analyzed, and a response planned before any
change can be made to the schedule (e.g., adding a time contingency reserve). Finally, this answer choice does not
directly answer the question of how to manage team composition. Per those reasons, this is not the best answer choice
of those provided.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 350

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 86 of 200 Question ID: 6112479

You are leading a construction project that involves a vendor. A team member tells you that based on the rough assessment
of the vendor's current work in progress, she suspects that the vendor will be unable to complete their work on time. You
share your concerns with the vendor, but they claim that they are progressing as planned.

What is your best course of action to ensure a mutual understanding of the work in progress?

A Conduct a walkthrough

B Perform an earned value analysis (EVA)

C Conduct an audit

D Resort to alternative dispute resolution (ADR)

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
This tool/technique is also called an inspection.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The question suggests that the Control Procurements process is underway. An inspection, as it relates to the Control
Procurements process, is a structured review of the work being performed by the vendor. The inspection may involve a
simple review of the deliverables or an actual physical review of the work itself. On a construction project, inspections may
involve walkthroughs of the site by both the buyer and the vendor to ensure a mutual understanding of the work in progress.

One may argue that the team member has the figures of the work in progress, allowing the implementation of the earned
value analysis (EVA), and, hence, making the EVA a better answer choice. This is not the case, since, according to the
scenario, the team member has only a 'rough' assessment of the vendor's current work in progress, and she 'suspects' that
the vendor will be unable to complete the work on time. Project managers should not act on suspicions. Facts should be
checked, making a walkthrough a better answer.

Details for Each Option:

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A Conduct a walkthrough
Correct. An inspection is a structured review of the work being performed by the vendor. On a construction project,
inspections may involve walkthroughs of the site by both the buyer and the vendor to ensure a mutual understanding of
the work in progress.

B Perform an earned value analysis (EVA)

Incorrect. In order to perform an earned value analysis (EVA), you, as the project manager, must first have a clear
understanding of the progress which has been completed. In this scenario, the status of the work in progress is in
dispute and, therefore, is unknown.

C Conduct an audit
Incorrect. As they pertain to procurements, audits are a structured review of the procurement process. According to the
scenario, you are concerned with the work in progress carried out by the vendor rather than with how well the
procurement process has been managed on your project.

D Resort to alternative dispute resolution (ADR)

Incorrect. ADR is aimed to address contested changes on projects where the buyer and seller cannot reach an
agreement on compensation for the change or cannot agree that a change has occurred. Based on the scenario
described, resorting to ADR is premature at this point.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 498

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 87 of 200 Question ID: 6112723

You are leading a project to develop a product that will be sold through an existing nationwide dealer network. The product
will be built incrementally by a virtual team, while the dealer training and product rollout processes will be well-defined upfront.
You want the dealers to provide the team with regular feedback throughout product development?

What is the best strategy to achieve your goal?

A Suggest that the dealers attend the biweekly iteration retrospective meetings

B Collect requirements upfront and develop a detailed WBS for product development

C Invite the dealers to attend product demonstrations via video conference

D Colocate the dealers with some of the developers for the duration of the project

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
With incremental lifecycle, the product is reviewed as an increment is completed.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario indicates that the product development phase of the project will follow an incremental project lifecycle, and
suggests that the dealer training and product rollout will take a predictive approach. This situation implies that the project, as
a whole, will adopt a hybrid project management framework. With the product development phase following an incremental
model, the product increments can be released as they are completed. In this situation, a product demonstration should be
conducted once the product increment has been developed. Having the dealers attend the product demonstrations virtually
will allow the dealers to view the product increment and provide their feedback while minimizing the impact on the dealer's
regular responsibilities.

Details for Each Option:

A Suggest that the dealers attend the biweekly iteration retrospective meetings
/
 Incorrect. An iteration retrospective is a meeting aimed to learn about, improve, and adapt the process the team uses to
develop the product/service of the project. Those meetings are not used to obtain feedback for the product.

B Collect requirements upfront and develop a detailed WBS for product development
Incorrect. Collecting comprehensive requirements upfront and developing a detailed WBS for the product should be
done when using a predictive project management framework. However, the scenario stipulates that the product will be
developed using an incremental project lifecycle. Therefore, requirements and scope will be progressively elaborated
rather than planned in advance.

C Invite the dealers to attend product demonstrations via video conference

Correct. Since the team is virtual and the dealers are dispersed nationwide, virtual tools will be needed for
collaboration. Having the dealers attend the product demonstrations virtually would allow the dealers to provide
feedback with minimal disruption to their regular duties.

D Colocate the dealers with some of the developers for the duration of the project
Incorrect. Colocating the dealers with the development team would certainly enhance collaboration and provide
maximum opportunity for the dealers to provide feedback to the development team. However, it is unclear as to how
realistic and beneficial would it be to remove the dealers from their locations for the duration of the project and colocate
them with some of the development team members who are also not colocated as a team.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 311

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 22-23, 46, 55

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 88 of 200 Question ID: 6112007

A company is experiencing exponential growth and will soon run out of space in their current production facility. A needs
assessment has been completed to evaluate alternatives. One of the options to support future growth is to build an expansion
on to their existing production facility.

What should the company do next?

A Collect requirements and develop the project management plan

B Understand the business goals and objectives to recommend proposals

C Prepare the business case and benefits management plan

D Perform the processes within the Initiating Process Group

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
After the needs assessment, what is still required to serve as an input to the development of the project charter?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The business case is a documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a selected
component lacking sufficient definition, and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management
activities. The benefits management plan is the documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and
sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program. The business case and benefits management plan comprise the
business documents which are used as an input to create the project charter. Pre-project work includes developing the needs
assessment, business case, and benefits management plan. The pre-project work should be completed before project
initiation. The question states that the needs assessment has already been completed; therefore, the next step is to prepare
the business case and benefits management plan.

Details for Each Option:

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A Collect requirements and develop the project management plan
Incorrect. Collecting requirements and developing the project management plan are activities that take place during
project planning. According to the scenario, the project has not even been initiated yet.

B Understand the business goals and objectives to recommend proposals

Incorrect. The needs assessment involves understanding business goals and objectives, issues, and opportunities and
recommending proposals to address them. The scenario states that the needs assessment has already been
completed. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.

C Prepare the business case and benefits management plan

Correct. Pre-project work includes developing the needs assessment, business case, and benefits management plan.
The pre-project work should be completed before project initiation. The question states that the needs assessment has
already been completed; therefore, the next step is to prepare the business case and benefits management plan.

D Perform the processes within the Initiating Process Group

Incorrect. The Initiating Process Group includes the processes of Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders.
Before these processes are performed, the pre-project work should be completed.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 30, 33, 77

To learn more about this topic, please watch the following video:

Please note, there is a typo on the slide at 16:02. It should read "Close Project or Phase".

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/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 89 of 200 Question ID: 6112358

You are planning a kick-off meeting for your new project. The meeting will communicate the start of the project, key
milestones, and other relevant information.

Which of the following best describes the objective of this meeting?

A Inform and engage stakeholders and gain commitment

B Manage threats and opportunities throughout the project

C Ensure that the project is completed on schedule and budget

D Secure resources required to complete project deliverables

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The project kick-off meeting usually takes place at the end of project planning and the start of executing. The project team
and stakeholders attend the meeting.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario implies that the Develop Project Management Plan process is being carried out. The project management plan
is the main output of this process. The project kick-off meeting is usually associated with the end of planning and the start of
executing. However, before project execution may begin, the project management plan has to be approved. The kick-off
meeting is aimed to communicate the beginning of the project, key milestones, and other relevant information in order to
inform and engage stakeholders and gain commitment.

Details for Each Option:

A Inform and engage stakeholders and gain commitment

Correct. The purpose of a project kick-off meeting is to communicate the objectives of the project, gain commitment of
the team for the project, and explain the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders.
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B Manage threats and opportunities throughout the project
Incorrect. Threats and opportunities are collectively known as risks. While the major project risks can be communicated
on the kick-off meeting, managing the risks is not a goal of this meeting.

C Ensure that the project is completed on schedule and budget

Incorrect. Ensuring that the project is completed on schedule and budget is one of main tasks of the project manager.
However, this task is ongoing throughout the project life cycle rather than a one-time effort presented at the project
kick-off meeting.

D Secure resources required to complete project deliverables

Incorrect. This response describes the task of developing the resource (and, if needed, procurement) management
plan rather than conducting the kick-off meeting.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 86

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 90 of 200 Question ID: 6112046

A project team that is experienced in the waterfall project management approach has been assigned to their first agile project.
To make the transition easier, it has been decided to keep some elements of the waterfall approach in place. During the
iteration review, it was realized that a misunderstanding among the development team has led to a duplication of efforts.

How might the project manager address this issue?

A Bring up the topic during the upcoming iteration retrospective

B Do nothing since the team members are transitioning from waterfall to agile

C Fallback to a waterfall project management framework going forward

D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What common agile practice is used to help the team learn, improve, and adapt?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The question states the project team is transitioning from a waterfall approach to an agile project management framework.
The fact the project still uses some elements of the waterfall to make the transition easier implies the project, as a whole, is
hybrid. While retrospectives are typically associated with the agile project management framework, they can be used on any
project, whether it is managed using waterfall/predictive, agile, or hybrid methodology. Retrospectives can be used to
investigate issues and provide the project team an opportunity to learn from its previous work. Retrospectives allow the team
members to improve and adapt their processes. During the iteration retrospective, the project team has the opportunity to
discuss the issue of duplicate efforts and then adjust their practices to avoid the issue from happening in the upcoming
iterations.

Note, the scenario does not specify what duplicate efforts exactly are there on the project. This information, however, is not
required to answer the question. The idea is, as always, under the circumstances described in this particular scenario and
with the given set of the available answer choices, to select the best answer to the question asked. In this case, bringing up
the topic during the upcoming iteration retrospective is the best answer to the question asked.
/
Details for Each Option:

A Bring up the topic during the upcoming iteration retrospective

Correct. Regularly scheduled retrospectives can be used on any project, predictive, agile, hybrid. Retrospectives
provide the project team an opportunity to learn from its previous work, investigate issues, and improve and adapt their
processes.

B Do nothing since the team members are transitioning from waterfall to agile
Incorrect. Project managers are responsible to do everything in their power to make the projects they are leading
successful. Duplication of efforts may lead to a waste of project resources thus reducing the chances of the project's
success. Therefore, doing nothing is unlikely to be the correct answer.

C Fallback to a waterfall project management framework going forward

Incorrect. It is unclear if switching to a waterfall project management framework would resolve the issue of duplicate
work. Regardless, this is an extreme response to a relatively minor issue. The project manager should not overreact
and revert back to using a waterfall approach, but rather address the issue from within the agile or hybrid framework.

D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan

Incorrect. Change requests may be used when employing a hybrid project management framework implied by the
question. However, even if the project used the change control system in place to manage changes, it is unclear as to
what update exactly to the communications management plan would have been required so that it would have resolved
the issue of duplicate efforts.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 50-51

Agile Retrospectives Making Good Teams Great, Esther Derby, Diana Larson, 2006, Helping Your Team Inspect and Adapt

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 91 of 200 Question ID: 6113727

Two project team members have had frequent clashes, which have at times resulted in shouting matches during team
meetings. The project manager has intervened, asked them to resolve their differences, and even facilitated a meeting
between them, but things have gotten worse. The project manager is concerned that the situation is negatively affecting team
cohesion and is placing the successful completion of the project at risk.

What should the project manager do next?

A Use formal procedures including disciplinary actions

B Allow the team members to resolve their differences on their own

C Facilitate another meeting between the two team members

D Request that the other project team members intercede as a form of peer pressure

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What is the proper escalation path in this scenario?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Project team members are initially responsible for resolving their own conflicts. If the conflict escalates, the project manager
should help facilitate a satisfactory resolution. If the disruptive conflict persists, formal procedures may be used, including
disciplinary action. In this scenario, the project manager has already given the team members the opportunity to resolve their
own issues and attempted to facilitate a resolution. The project manager should not allow conflict to put the success of the
project at risk. The project manager should use formal procedures including disciplinary actions to resolve the issue.

Details for Each Option:

A Use formal procedures including disciplinary actions

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 Correct. Formal procedures may be used including disciplinary actions in order to prevent the project from being put at
risk.

B Allow the team members to resolve their differences on their own

Incorrect. The first step is to allow the team members to resolve the conflict on their own. However, that has failed to
resolve the issue, and the project is at risk.

C Facilitate another meeting between the two team members

Incorrect. The second step is for the project manager to facilitate a resolution between the parties. However, that has
failed to resolve the issue, and the project is at risk.

D Request that the other project team members intercede as a form of peer pressure
Incorrect. Conflict should be addressed privately and confidentially. It is inappropriate to involve the other team
members in conflict resolution.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 348

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 92 of 200 Question ID: 6112777

You are leading a project with two dispersed development teams. One team is using traditional waterfall methods, and the
other is using XP for product development. Budgetary constraints prevent any of the team members from being colocated.

What should you prioritize for team collaboration?

A Documenting collaboration requirements of the XP team in the communications management plan

B Setting up remote pairing for the XP team and providing video conferencing capabilities for both teams

C Allocating dedicated portions of the offices to support the caves and common practice for both teams

D No specific considerations are required as both teams can learn to collaborate as they do their job

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
eXtreme Programming (XP) is known for the practice of pair programming.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question describes a project that will use a hybrid approach by combining predictive and eXtreme Programming (XP)
project management frameworks. XP is most commonly associated with software development but might be used for other
types of deliverables, as well. One of the hallmarks of XP is the use of pair programming. With pair programming, two
members of the development work in tandem, where one writes the code, and the other reviews each line of code as it is
entered. The two programmers then switch roles frequently. Since there is a budgetary constraint that does not permit the
development team members to be physically colocated, you, as the project manager, will need to provide accommodations to
support XP practices, including pair programming. Additionally, the members of the predictive team will need to collaborate
with each other, and both teams will likely need to coordinate their activities. Providing video conferencing capabilities will
support the collaboration requirements in a virtual environment.

Details for Each Option:

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A Documenting collaboration requirements of the XP team in the communications management plan
Incorrect. eXtreme Programming (XP) is one of the methodologies that falls under the agile umbrella. Agile teams do
not typically require a communications management plan as the communication methods are inherent in the agile
ceremonies. Although a communications management plan might or might not be helpful for the XP team, it is not the
most critical element of the options provided that should be prioritized.

B Setting up remote pairing for the XP team and providing video conferencing capabilities for both teams
Correct. One of the primary practices associated with eXtreme Programming (XP) is pair programming. A project
manager will need to replicate this practice in a virtual environment. Additionally, the predictive team members will need
to collaborate with each other, and both teams will likely need to coordinate their activities. Providing video
conferencing capabilities will support the collaboration requirements in a virtual environment.

C Allocating dedicated portions of the offices to support the caves and common practice for both teams
Incorrect. A caves and common approach is a method of delineating workspace, so a development team has a
common area for close collaboration and private areas where team members can work without distractions. Although
one might argue that caves and common can be recreated in a virtual environment, this approach is typically employed
when teams are collocated, which is not the case in this scenario.

D No specific considerations are required as both teams can learn to collaborate as they do their job
Incorrect. It is possible that the teams will eventually collaborate. However, with all team members being geographically
distributed and each team following different project management approaches, it is highly unlikely to count on this
outcome.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 46, 102

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

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Question 93 of 200 Question ID: 6112057

You are the project manager for the initial design phase of a new ergonomic pen. You have conducted multiple interviews with
pen users and have tested various design concepts. Your most recent design has been verified and accepted by key
stakeholders. The pen design is ready to transition to the team managing the next phase.

Which of the following should you consult to find out who will take ownership of the pen design?

A The project management plan

B The final report

C The scope statement

D The communications management plan

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What project artifact describes how a project will be closed?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Since the pen design is ready to transition to the next phase, you can infer the scenario is in the Close Project or Phase
process. A key action when closing a phase is transferring the ownership of your phase's intermediary deliverables to the
proper group or organization tasked with using the output from your phase to meet the project objectives in their phase. You
would consult the project management plan, specifically the subsidiary project life cycle description because it describes the
series of phases that a project passes through from its initiation to its closure. While the PMBOK® Guide does not explicitly
state that the project management plan specifies ‘who’ in the next phase takes ownership of the deliverables from the
previous phase, it is reasonable to assume that, of the choices given, only the project management plan is likely to have this
information and is, therefore, the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

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A The project management plan
Correct. The project management plan defines the basis of all project work and how the work will be performed.
Transferring the ownership of deliverables to the assigned stakeholders is done in accordance with the project
management plan to facilitate project closures. The project management plan would indicate who will manage the next
phase (and subsequent phases) in the development of the new ergonomic pen and would also identify the recipient of
the final product.

B The final report

Incorrect. The final report provides a summary of the project performance, such as a summary level description of the
project or phase, and objectives for scope, quality, cost, and schedule as well as validation information for the output, a
summary of risks/issues, and how the deliverable achieved business objectives. The final report does not include
information on who will take ownership of the project or phase output.

C The scope statement

Incorrect. The project scope statement is created during project planning and includes the description of the project
scope, major deliverables, and exclusions. The project scope does not indicate what group or organization the final pen
design will transfer to at the completion of a project phase.

D The communications management plan

Incorrect. The communications management plan describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will
be administered and distributed. The communications management plan may include communication protocols with the
group(s) or organization(s) who will take ownership of the project deliverables, but it does not explicitly states the
transfer of ownership from phase-to-phase or who the recipient of the final output would be at the end of the project.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 88, 123, 135, 568

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 94 of 200 Question ID: 6112708

You are a scrum master leading an agile project team that has been consistently meeting the goals set for each iteration. The
product owner is pleased with the team's progress, and the performance measurement baseline shows no deviations.
However, you feel that one team member is less productive than the others.

What is the most appropriate feedback approach for you to take in this situation?

A Allow the project team members to address the issue if they deem necessary

B Direct the underperforming team member to work extra hours to bridge the gap

C Call out the team member's low productivity at the upcoming iteration retrospective

D From the next iteration onward, assign the team member the easiest user stories

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What are the responsibilities of a servant leader within an agile project management framework?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario describes a hybrid project in which some of the elements are managed using a predictive/traditional project
management approach (the performance measurement baseline) while others are managed using agile (the product is
developed over the course of several iterations). According to the scenario, the scrum master feels that one team member is
less productive than the others. But this is likely just based on one's subjective perception, which may or may not be reflective
of reality. With agile methodologies, it is the development team members, not the scrum master, who are the experts on the
project work. The scrum master may lack in-depth knowledge of the work requirements compared to the team members
themselves. For example, the identified team member might be taking on the most difficult tasks, which make it appear that
their productivity is lacking. The project team members are in a much better position to determine if a team member holds
back the team. The scrum master should allow the project team members the latitude to collaborate and address relatively
minor issues among themselves. In some cases, such as the one described in the scenario, providing direct feedback to the
individual is not the best approach.

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On a side note, this does not mean to imply that there is no action that should be taken by the scrum master. The scrum
master might ensure that the team has developed and documented their team agreements. The scrum master might dig
deeper to see if there are any training needs that can be addressed. However, of the available answer choices, the best
course of action for the scrum master is to allow the project team members to address the issue if they deem necessary.

Details for Each Option:

A Allow the project team members to address the issue if they deem necessary
Correct. Agile teams are self-organizing and self-managing. The scrum master may provide servant leadership and
guidance with agile best practices, but the team should collaborate to complete the work rather than being directed by
the scrum master.

B Direct the underperforming team member to work extra hours to bridge the gap
Incorrect. A scrum master should perform the role of a servant leader. An agile leader supports the project team rather
than directs its activities. It would be inconsistent with agile best practices to direct any team member to work extra
hours.

C Call out the team member's low productivity at the upcoming iteration retrospective
Incorrect. Calling out a perceived performance issue with a particular team member in a group setting would not be
appropriate. This action will likely cause friction within the group and between the team member and the scrum master.
Performance issues should be addressed in private to respect the privacy of the individuals involved. If the project was
not meeting objectives, it might be appropriate to discuss team productivity but not place blame on a particular
individual.

D From the next iteration onward, assign the team member the easiest user stories
Incorrect. With agile methodologies, the project team collaborates to determine what user stories are assigned to which
individuals. It would be inconsistent with agile best practices for the scrum master to assign user stories to a particular
team member.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 39

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, Second Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, The ScrumMaster

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 95 of 200 Question ID: 6112601

You are drafting a stakeholder engagement plan for a software development project. The product will be built using a scrum
framework. You want to ensure that the stakeholders' level of influence on product development is analyzed and categorized.

What is your best course of action?

A Submit a change request to update the stakeholder register

B Wait until the stakeholders attend the first sprint review

C Suggest that the product owner use a power/influence grid

D Conduct the analysis yourself using hierarchical charts

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What role serves as the voice of the customer?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When using a scrum framework, the product owner works directly with the stakeholders to determine project requirements
and incorporate stakeholder feedback in the development of the items in the product backlog. The product owner serves as
the voice of the customer by representing the relevant stakeholders and providing direction to the project team. Since the
product owner is responsible for working with the stakeholders to determine product requirements, it would make the most
sense to have the product owner analyze and categorize the stakeholders' influence. A power and influence grid can assist
the product owner in a grouping of stakeholders according to their level of authority (power) and ability to influence the
outcomes of the project (influence).

Details for Each Option:

A Submit a change request to update the stakeholder register

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 Incorrect. According to the scenario, the project is in planning. During planning, change requests are not required to
update any of the components of the project management plan or project documents. In general, unless stated
otherwise in the scenario, change requests are not required to update project documents, such as the stakeholder
register.

B Wait until the stakeholders attend the first sprint review

Incorrect. Understanding the stakeholders' level of influence and engaging with them as soon as possible in the project
would allow the project manager to set and better manage their expectations. Waiting with this activity until the first
sprint review would increase the risk of the stakeholders being unsatisfied and the product increment being rejected.

C Suggest that the product owner use a power/influence grid

Correct. On projects where the product is developed using Scrum, the product owner is responsible for working with the
stakeholders to determine product requirements. Therefore, it would make the most sense to have the product owner
analyze and categorize the stakeholders' influence.

D Conduct the analysis yourself using hierarchical charts

Incorrect. Hierarchical charts are an example of the data representation techniques that can be used for various
purposes as part of the Plan Resource Management process or Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. Those
charts, however, are not used during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process implied by the scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 512-513, 145, 726

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 41

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, The Product Owner

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 96 of 200 Question ID: 6114008

Following is an illustration of a project network activity node that includes some information about activity B.

Assuming that work starts on day one (not day zero) and given the information provided, what is the late start of activity B?

A 35

B 36

C 37

D 39

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Since the current activity’s late finish date and duration are provided, you could use the backward pass formula to compute
the late start date. Or, since the early start date and total float are provided, you could use the relevant total float formula. /
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

To answer this question, the first step is to understand the meaning of the values displayed on the network activity node. The
accepted convention is shown below, where:

ES = early start
EF = early finish
LS = late start
LF = late finish

The next step is to select a formula that calculates the late start using the values provided in the question.

Option 1. The total float can be calculated using either one of the following formulas:

Total Float = LF - EF
Total Float = LS - ES

Since both early start and total float are provided, use the formula that has the late start variable:

Total Float = LS - ES

Using basic math operations, the later start can be calculated as:

LS = Total Float + ES = 16 + 21 = 37

Option 2. Alternatively, we could use the relevant formula from the backward pass of the critical path method. Since both late
finish and duration are provided, we could use the late start formula, which takes the late finish, subtracts the duration, and
then adds 1 to account for work starting on day one.

LS = LF – D + 1 = 39 – 3 + 1 = 37

Here is the project schedule network activity node with late start filled in with the correct answer, 37:

/
Details for Each Option:

A 35
Incorrect. You might get this answer if you misremembered the formula, and subtracted 1 instead of adding 1 for the
"start on day one" convention.

B 36
Incorrect. You might get this answer if you used the "start on day zero" formula, which fails to add 1 for the "start on day
1" convention.

C 37
Correct. Based on the information given in the figure, you can use either of two formulas: LS = LF – D + 1 or LS - ES =
Total Float to get this answer.

D 39
Incorrect. 39 is the late finish value. If you use it as the late start, it does not properly account for the duration and start
on day one, nor does it account for the total float.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 210-211

The Practice Standard for Scheduling – Third Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2019

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 97 of 200 Question ID: 6112618

You have been assigned to manage an agile project to develop various analytical tools for your company's executive team.
Everyone involved in the project is new to agile methodologies. After the first few tools are released, the executives are
frustrated that the tools they needed the most are still in the pipeline for future development.

What might you have done differently to avoid this issue?

A Provided the product owner with the training on how to prioritize the product backlog

B Trained the development team on pair-programming and code refactoring

C Explained that agile focuses on developing the highest-risk features last to avoid early failure

D Colocated the development team to take advantage of osmotic communication

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Who is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario describes a situation where the lower business value tools were prioritized for development ahead of the
highest value tools. Agile methodologies promote delivering the highest value features first, so the performing organization
can begin receiving the greatest benefits as soon as possible. The product owner, who is new to agile along with the rest of
the project team, is responsible for assigning and prioritizing the business value of the features in the product backlog.
Although the question does not indicate what, if any, training was provided, of the available options, only providing training for
the product owner might have been beneficial in helping the product owner better prioritize the product backlog so that the
highest value tools would have been developed first.

Details for Each Option:

A Provided the product owner with the training on how to prioritize the product backlog
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 Correct. The product owner is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog according to business value. Training for
the product owner might have been beneficial in helping the product owner understand how to prioritize the product
backlog properly.

B Trained the development team on pair-programming and code refactoring

Incorrect. Pair programming is an XP core practice where two developers write code as a pair. Code refactoring is the
process of improving the design of existing code. Both activities refer to the technical aspects of software development
while, according to the scenario, the issue is with how the tools were prioritized rather than how they were coded.

C Explained that agile focuses on developing the highest-risk features last to avoid early failure
Incorrect. Agile promotes the concept of failing fast/early, rather than avoiding it. Therefore, agile leaders encourage the
development of the highest-risk features first. The idea is that if a project is doomed to fail, it is better to learn that early
in the project lifecycle so that the expenditure of time and resources will be minimized. This answer choice contradicts
the concept of fast failure.

D Colocated the development team to take advantage of osmotic communication

Incorrect. Agile best practices promote the use of collocated project teams for better collaboration. However, the issue
described in this scenario involves the order in which the tools are being development rather than a problem with
collaboration.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 41, 52

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, The Product Owner

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 98 of 200 Question ID: 6125076

During the current sprint, the product owner's availability has been limited due to other commitments. At the daily standup,
the team members complain that they cannot get answers from the product owner, and, as a result, the development of the
product increment is delayed.

What is the best course of action for the scrum master?

A Let the senior developers make the product decisions

B Contact the product owner on behalf of the team members

C Mention the availability issue during the sprint review

D Discuss the availability issue at the sprint retrospective

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Agile Manifesto Principle #4 states, "Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project."

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Agile Manifesto Principle # 4 states, "Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project."
Making product-related decisions without the product owner is not aligned with agile best practices. The absence of the
product owner could cause issues, as team members may not adequately understand the needs of the business. The product
owner is accountable for the product backlog prioritization as well as for the clarification of the backlog items for the
development team. The product owner serves as the point of contact with the business and customers. Therefore, the scrum
master should contact the product owner and request them to meet with the team in order to clarify any questions the team
members have about the product increment. While the correct answer is not elaborative enough as to why the scrum master
should contact the product owner on behalf of the team members, it implies the goal of such contact should be to ask the
product owner to be more approachable. Therefore, of the choices provided, contacting the product owner on behalf of the
team members represents the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option: /

A Let the senior developers make the product decisions
Incorrect. While empowered agile teams can make decisions regarding their work, product decisions should be made
by business representatives, such as the product owner.

B Contact the product owner on behalf of the team members

Correct. The scrum master should contact the product owner and inform them of the team's need for clarification. It
would also be a good idea to remind the product owner that regular and consistent feedback is an integral part of agile
project success.

C Mention the availability issue during the sprint review

Incorrect. A sprint review meeting is intended to demonstrate and get feedback for the product increment developed
during the sprint, rather than resolve availability issues. Even if the issue is raised at the sprint review, waiting until the
sprint review would be too late and do nothing to remove the roadblock that the team members are facing now.

D Discuss the availability issue at the sprint retrospective

Incorrect. Having the product owner unavailable or unresponsive to the team is a serious, high-risk issue that needs to
be addressed immediately. A retrospective is held at the end of the sprint and is intended for the team to improve their
processes, rather than resolve ongoing impediments. While there is nothing wrong with discussing the issue at the
retrospective, the team cannot afford to wait until then.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 35

Coaching Agile Teams: A Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins,
2010, Coaching Product Owners on Being a Good Product Owner for the Team

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 99 of 200 Question ID: 6110073

During an initial project planning meeting, the project team decides to save a portion of cost estimates in the work package to
offset the potential risk of advances in technology, which would make their current equipment obsolete.

What is the best course of action for the project manager?

A Create a management reserve

B Submit a change request

C Create a contingency reserve

D Do nothing as the risk has not yet realized

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The project manager and team have set aside a budget for an unplanned event.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario describes a project in planning. Specifically, it can be implied that the team carries out the Estimate Costs
process. Reserve analysis is an example of the data analysis tools and techniques applicable to this process. Cost estimates
may include contingency reserves to account for cost uncertainty. The project team has decided to set aside a contingency
reserve for the potential risk of possible technological advances that, if realized, would make their equipment obsolete.
According to the scenario, the project is in planning. Since there is no information stating that the project management plan
has already been approved, one can make the reasonable assumption that project baselines have not yet been finalized. As
a result, the best course of action for the project manager is creating a contingency reserve.

Details for Each Option:

A Create a management reserve

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 Incorrect. A management reserve is an amount of the project budget or project schedule that is held outside of the
performance measurement baseline (PMB) for management control purposes and is reserved for unforeseen work that
is within the scope of the project. In other words, a management reserve is a predefined amount of time and/or money
set aside for unknown risk events. It typically requires approval from someone above the project manager’s authority
level, such as the project sponsor. As the risk event described in the scenario is known, it would not mandate the
creation of a management reserve, but a contingency reserve.

B Submit a change request

Incorrect. Be sure to look out for the word ‘planning’ in this question. At this stage in the project, it can be reasonably
assumed that the project management plan has not yet been approved. Therefore, no change request is required.

C Create a contingency reserve

Correct. According to the scenario, the project is in planning. Therefore, one may assume the project baselines have
yet been finalized. Under such circumstances, the project manager can just go ahead and create a contingency
reserve.

D Do nothing as the risk has not yet realized

Incorrect. It is true that the risk has not yet realized; the team just suspects there could be a potential risk. Therefore,
the team can decide to accept the risk or, in other words, do nothing. Some threat strategies, such as passive
acceptance, call for accepting the risk without allocating any contingency reserves. However, what makes this choice
an incorrect answer is doing nothing 'as the risk has not yet realized'. This choice could have been a plausible answer if
it called for doing nothing 'as it has been decided to accept the risk' and not 'as the risk has not yet realized'. However,
the former option is not provided.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 245

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 100 of 200 Question ID: 6110086

A project manager is in the process of creating the stakeholder register. He has just completed the stakeholder classifications
and needs to update the project roles.

According to the partial stakeholder register below, which individual is most likely to be the project sponsor?

A John Snow

B Todd Young

C Marie Smith

D Tonya Stewart

J Question answered incorrectly

/
Hint:
Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project such as a sponsor, program or project management office (PMO), or
a portfolio governing body chairperson or authorized representative. The project initiator or sponsor should be at a level that
is appropriate to procure funding and commit resources to the project. Therefore, a project sponsor is external to the project,
is of high power and high interest, and has an upward direction of influence. Of the available choices, only Todd Young
possesses the characteristics of a project sponsor.

Note, being external to the project does not necessarily mean being external to the organization. The terms 'internal' vs.
'external' are relative to something. The column "Internal / External to the Project" in the table specifies what is being referred
to by 'internal' and 'external'. For example, the sponsor is external to the project in that they are not a member of the
immediate project team but they are a stakeholder to the project, and internal to the organization.

One may argue that based on page 550 of the reference provided, a sponsor is a project-internal stakeholder. Unfortunately,
the PMBOK® Guide does not do a great job clarifying that the examples in the "Internal stakeholders" and "External
stakeholders" lists refer to stakeholders as they relate to the performing organization, not project. For example, in that list on
page 550, sponsor, resource manager, PMO, team members, etc., could be either external or internal to the project, but they
are internal to the performing organization. However, customers, end users, suppliers, etc. are external to both project and
performing organization. Therefore, we strongly believe that a sponsor is an individual who is external to the project,
possesses high power and high interest, and has an upward direction of influence.

Details for Each Option:

A John Snow
Incorrect. Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project such as a sponsor or project management office
(PMO). John Snow is identified as internal to the project; therefore, he cannot be the project sponsor.

B Todd Young
Correct. The project sponsor is most likely to be external, high power and high interest, with an upward direction of
influence. Projects are initiated by an entity or person external to the project like a sponsor or PMO. A sponsor, by
definition, has high power over the project and is most likely to be of high interest. The role of the sponsor has an
upward direction of influence. Of the available options, only Todd Young has all of the characteristics of a project
sponsor.

C Marie Smith
Incorrect. Marie Smith is classified as low power on the project. The initiator of a project by definition is high power as
they are the one that is authorizing the project and the expenditure of resources. Additionally, a project sponsor has an
upward direction of influence rather than outward. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.

D Tonya Stewart
Incorrect. Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project such as a sponsor or project management office
(PMO). A project sponsor is, by definition, classified as high power. Additionally, a project sponsor has an upward
direction of influence. Therefore, none of the characteristics of Tonya Stewart match that of a project sponsor.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 77, 513

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/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 101 of 200 Question ID: 6113854

An agile project to develop a new application has just finished its first iteration. To better assess marketing and support
needs, the company's management has requested that the scrum master provide a date for when the application can be
launched.

What is the best course of action for the scrum master?

A Provide an accurate estimate based on the velocity of the first iteration

B Request time to develop the project schedule baseline

C If possible, defer estimating until after a few iterations are completed

D Provide a random date just to calm the management down

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The team should ensure that their forecast is based on the parameters that are as close to their project environment as
possible.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Agile project management approach favors empirical and value-based measurements instead of predictive measurements.
Agile measures what the team delivers, not what the team predicts it will deliver. Theoretically, the scrum master could have
provided management with an estimate based on the velocity of the first completed iteration. However, since there is another
answer choice that could result in a better estimate, such as the one based on several iterations, that answer choice would
more accurately address the question asked. In order to provide the most accurate forecast, the scrum master should use as
much actual and observed data from the project as possible. This estimation, however, assumes that management allows the
team to run several iterations. Since there is no sense of urgency in the scenario, the assumption that the team has time is
reasonable.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Provide an accurate estimate based on the velocity of the first iteration
Incorrect. With no other information available, providing an estimate based on only one iteration is plausible but not the
best course of action. Under the circumstances described in the scenario and with the given set of the answer choices,
another answer choice better addresses the question asked. Additionally, providing an estimate based on only one
iteration would likely be inaccurate since the velocity tends to vary from iteration to iteration until it stabilizes.

B Request time to develop the project schedule baseline

Incorrect. Unless the scenario states otherwise, agile projects do not typically use traditional project management
artifacts, such as the schedule baseline.

C If possible, defer estimating until after a few iterations are completed

Correct. If and when possible, the team should defer estimating until after a few iterations as this should provide a more
accurate forecast. The keyword in this answer choice is "if possible". If there was a sense of urgency in the scenario,
e.g., the management wanted the estimation urgently, deferring the estimation would unlikely be possible.

D Provide a random date just to calm the management down

Incorrect. It should be evident that the way this answer choice is worded makes it an incorrect answer.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 61; see also Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike
Cohn, 2005, Estimating Velocity

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 102 of 200 Question ID: 6110057

A senior executive suggests initiating a project to replace a significant portion of the company's labor force with an automated
production line. Other company executives are skeptical that this approach is the best way to increase profit margins and
wonder if they are ready to sponsor such an effort.

What is the first thing that should be done in this scenario?

A Performing a needs assessment

B Consulting with the project management office

C Appointing a project sponsor to create a project charter

D Providing a project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What order should each of the choices be performed? Which of the choices best covers understanding the business goals
and objectives, issues, and opportunities and recommending proposals to address them?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, the skepticism of the other executives suggests that the proposed solution only partially, if at all, addresses
the need to increase profit margins. The executive team thinks other alternatives and additional solutions should be
considered to increase margins. In other words, the needs assessment should be performed first. The needs assessment
involves understanding business goals and objectives, issues, and opportunities and recommending proposals to address
them. Therefore, the first thing for the company to do in this situation before taking any action is to perform a needs
assessment to evaluate options to address the competitive issues faced by the company, and only then provide
recommendations.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Performing a needs assessment
Correct. A needs assessment involves understanding business goals and objectives, issues, and opportunities and
recommending proposals to address them. A needs assessment is typically the first step of the pre-project work for a
new project.

B Consulting with the project management office

Incorrect. A project management office (PMO) is a management structure that standardizes the project-related
governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools and techniques. While the PMO
may be able to make some suggestions, there is another choice that is more immediate and should be attempted first
prior to consulting with the PMO.

C Appointing a project sponsor to create a project charter

Incorrect. Creating the project charter is the first step when starting a project, but based on the scenario, there is no
agreement that automating the product line is the best way to increase profit margins. Pre-project work should be
completed before a project sponsor can create the project charter.

D Providing a project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources

Incorrect. The project charter authorizes the project manager to apply organizational resources to the project. The pre-
project work should be completed before the project charter is created and a project manager is provided the authority
to apply organizational resources to the project.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 30, 77

To learn more about this topic, please watch the following video:

Please note, there is a typo on the slide at 16:02. It should read "Close Project or Phase".

/
/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 103 of 200 Question ID: 6112437

While monitoring project work, the project manager notices an increase in actual costs that have not been accounted for in
the original budget. To understand whether a change request to update the cost baseline should be submitted, the project
manager gathers raw observations and measurements of all of the costs that have been authorized, incurred, invoiced, and
paid.

What has the project manager gathered?

A Planned value

B Earned value

C Work performance information

D Work performance data

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What are the raw observations and measurements identified during project activities?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Work performance data are the raw observations and measurements identified during activities performed to carry out the
project work. In the scenario, the project manager collects all of the costs, which have been authorized, incurred, invoiced,
and paid. Those are best described as the work performance data. Only after these raw data have been analyzed, will it
become work performance information. Therefore, what the project manager has gathered was the work performance data.

Details for Each Option:

A Planned value
Incorrect. Planned value is the authorized budget assigned to scheduled work. The question describes costs that are
incurred rather than the budget.
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B Earned value
Incorrect. Earned value is the measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.
The question is asking about costs and not earned value.

C Work performance information

Incorrect. Work performance data, once analyzed, becomes work performance information. The question indicates that
the cost analysis has yet to be performed. Therefore, this choice can be eliminated as a correct response.

D Work performance data

Correct. Work performance data contains data on project status such as which costs have been authorized, incurred,
invoiced, and paid.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 26, 260

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 104 of 200 Question ID: 6125147

To engage the newly identified stakeholders in the project at the earliest opportunity, the scrum master suggests inviting them
to the upcoming sprint review meeting to demonstrate to the stakeholders that the team is moving in the right direction and
get feedback from the stakeholders about what the team has accomplished.

Which of the following is another reason for inviting the stakeholders to this meeting?

A To reflect on the team performance

B To prioritize high-risk user stories for the next sprint

C To reprioritize the release backlog

D To discuss the high-level plans for the next sprint

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
It’s a sprint review meeting. It is neither a planning meeting nor a retrospective.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Stakeholder engagement is critical to the success of any project. On agile projects, changes are typically driven by
stakeholder needs. When new stakeholders are identified during an ongoing project, the stakeholders should be engaged as
soon as possible. One of the earliest opportunities for that engagement is at the sprint review meeting. At the sprint review
meetings, the team presents the product increment that they have built during the sprint. According to Rawsthorne and
Shimp, the sprint review is conducted for three main reasons:

1. To prove to the stakeholders that the team is moving in the right direction;
2. To get feedback from the stakeholders about the work completed; and
3. To discuss the work of the next sprint with the stakeholders.

One may argue that work to be completed during the next sprint is discussed at the sprint planning meeting, not sprint review.
While it's generally true, at the sprint review, the discussion of the work to be performed for the next sprint is done at a high-
level only and does not replace the sprint planning meeting. It is at the sprint planning meeting that the sprint goal is defined
/
after the team forecasts what they can deliver on that sprint. Of the choices provided, only discussing what is to be worked on
in the next sprint is the most plausible answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A To reflect on the team performance

Incorrect. Team performance is discussed at the sprint retrospective meeting, not the sprint review meeting described
in the scenario. Typically, stakeholders do not attend sprint retrospective meetings.

B To prioritize high-risk user stories for the next sprint

Incorrect. The prioritization of user stories, regardless of whether they are high-risk or not, for the next sprint typically
happens at the sprint planning meeting. The scenario, however, describes the sprint review meeting.

C To reprioritize the release backlog

Incorrect. An agile release encompasses several sprints. The release backlog is comprised of the items to be
developed during those sprints. Each sprint has its own sprint planning meeting. The release backlog is prioritized
during the release planning meeting, not the sprint planning meeting, and not the sprint 'review' meeting described in
the scenario.

D To discuss the high-level plans for the next sprint

Correct. Among other items, the work to be done during the next sprint is discussed at the sprint review meeting. The
discussion is conducted at a high-level and does not replace the one held at the spring planning meeting.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 55

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Scrum in a Nutshell

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 105 of 200 Question ID: 6112550

A project manager has taken over a project that has been in execution for a few months. He ran into problems right away. He
has had difficulty getting sign off on decisions; he doesn't have the authority to acquire the equipment necessary for the
project; the stakeholders and the project team have differing opinions about the objectives and the outcome of the project.

What is the most likely source of these problems?

A Weak leadership skills

B Lack of a project charter

C Lack of a project management plan

D Lack of a procurement management plan

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which document authorizes the existence of a project and gives the project manager authority?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A project charter is the document that authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the
authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. The project charter also states the purpose, primary
objectives, vision, and mission for the project, aligning the project stakeholders and the project team with the project goals,
expectations, and outcomes. A project sponsor approves the project charter and is supposed to provide support for the
project manager to achieve the project goals. While other answer choices could have been the source of 'some' of the project
manager's problems, the lack of a project charter addresses all of the project manager's problems and is, therefore, the best
answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Weak leadership skills

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 Incorrect. Leadership skills involve the ability to guide, motivate, and direct a team, as well as continuously
communicate the project vision to the stakeholders and the team. The scenario suggests the stakeholders and the
project team have differing opinions about the objectives and the outcome of the project. Although weak leadership
skills may have led to that problem, there are other issues with project implying that the project manager's weak
leadership skills are not the main or the only source of the issues.

B Lack of a project charter

Correct. The project charter formally authorizes the existence of a project and would have provided the project
manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. A project sponsor approves and signs
off the charter and acts as a project champion who supports the project, the project manager, and is concerned with the
project's success. Therefore, the difficulty the project manager is encountering with decision making and acquiring
computer hardware may have been eliminated if there had been a charter. The project charter also states the purpose,
primary objectives, and vision for the project and would have provided the project team, as well as the stakeholders,
with the same understanding of such. An approved project charter could have prevented the issues mentioned in the
scenario from happening. Therefore, the lack of a project charter is the most likely source of the problems.

C Lack of a project management plan

Incorrect. The project management plan describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and
closed. The problems the project manager is having with the project are related to his lack of authority, a lack of project
goals, and difficulty getting sponsors to make decisions. These issues represent the lack of a project charter and not
the lack of a project management plan.

D Lack of a procurement management plan

Incorrect. The procurement management plan describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from
outside of the performing organization. the project manager's problem obtaining the computer hardware is most likely
related to his lack of authority to purchase the equipment, not the lack of a procurement management plan.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 75-76, 81

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 106 of 200 Question ID: 6151391

The agile project team members are all working in an open office space arrangement. There are many conversations
happening concurrently throughout the day.

Which of the following is the best option for the project manager?

A Schedule frequent team checkpoints and post project artifacts in a transparent fashion

B Request team members to hold off their conversations until formal meeting times

C Record the conversations and post them in a shared repository

D Designate afternoons as quiet work times

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Agile projects thrive on regular, informal communications.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Open, frequent, and informal communication is the cornerstone of agile managed projects. The best form of communication is
face to face conversations. Agile teams working in a collocated space that supports communication is ideal. Planning
communications management that hinders or places boundaries on those conversations is counterproductive. A project
manager needs to encourage more communication, not less. A project manager also needs to support the capturing and flow
of communication between stakeholders. Scheduling more communication checkpoints, such as daily standup meetings,
increases the communication exchanges. And, when possible, posting and distributing information to the team aids
communication flow - whether in physical locations, digitized, or both. Withholding conversations or enforcing extended quiet
times is the antithesis of good communication flow.

Details for Each Option:

A Schedule frequent team checkpoints and post project artifacts in a transparent fashion
/
 Correct. Frequent and flexible information exchanges are good for agile management projects. An open work
arrangement supports that. Offering checkpoint times, posting information, and other ways to support the sharing and
access to information extends the free flow of project knowledge and communications.

B Request team members to hold off their conversations until formal meeting times
Incorrect. Agile managed projects thrive on open, constant face to face conversations amongst stakeholders. Holding
conversations to designated meeting times hinders the free flow of information and the informal exchanges that occur
regularly in agile projects.

C Record the conversations and post them in a shared repository

Incorrect. With so many conversations occurring daily, capturing them all, storing them, and distributing them in a
manner that would be relevant, useful, and not out of date would be highly unlikely and counterproductive.

D Designate afternoons as quiet work times

Incorrect. Team members in an agile managed project collocated in an open arrangement thrive on constant
communication and ease of face-to-face conversation. Enforcing long quiet periods is counterproductive.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 365

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 107 of 200 Question ID: 6110071

First, a project manager assisted with the development of the project charter which has been approved. Second, he
completed the development of the stakeholder register.

What should the project manager do next?

A Submit a change request to update any project documents with information gathered during the Identify
Stakeholders process

B Update the communications management plan to include the communication requirements of stakeholders
identified in the newly developed stakeholder register

C Update the stakeholder engagement plan with any pertinent information uncovered during the Identify
Stakeholders process

D Establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the
objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders processes are complete in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question states that the development of the stakeholder register has just been completed. The stakeholder register is
created during the first iteration of the Identify Stakeholders process. Change requests and project management plan updates
can be outputs of the Identify Stakeholders process, but not during the first iteration of the Identify Stakeholders process. The
project management plan does not exist when the Initiating Process Group is first completed. Change requests are not
required until the project management plan has been completed and approved. Once the project charter and the stakeholder
register have been completed at the start of the project, the Initiating Process Group is complete. The next logical step is to
begin project planning with the Planning Process Group. The Planning Process Group is represented by the answer choice
that defines this group as specified in the reference: "establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the
course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve".

/
Details for Each Option:

A Submit a change request to update any project documents with information gathered during the Identify
Stakeholders process
Incorrect. A change request is not required at this point in the project. The question states that the project charter and
the stakeholder register have just been completed, which means the Initiating Process Group has just been completed
and the Planning Process Group has yet to begin. Change requests are not required until the project management plan
has been completed and approved.

B Update the communications management plan to include the communication requirements of stakeholders identified
in the newly developed stakeholder register
Incorrect. The question indicates that the stakeholder register, which is developed during the Identify Stakeholders
process, has just been completed. The communications management plan, a subsidiary of the project management
plan, has yet to be created with the first iteration of the Identify Stakeholder process. Thus, the communications
management plan cannot be updated.

C Update the stakeholder engagement plan with any pertinent information uncovered during the Identify Stakeholders
process
Incorrect. The stakeholder register is created during the first iteration of the Identify Stakeholders process. The
stakeholder engagement plan, a component of the project management plan, does not yet exist after the first iteration
of the Identify Stakeholders process. Therefore, there is nothing to update.

D Establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the
objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve
Correct. The stakeholder register is created during the first iteration of the Identify Stakeholders process. Once the
project charter and the stakeholder register have been completed at the start of the project, the Initiating Process
Group is complete. The next logical step is to begin project planning with the Planning Process Group. This answer
choice is the definition of the Planning Process Group, making this the best answer to the question asked.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 23, 514-515

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 108 of 200 Question ID: 6110030

You are a senior project manager who is mentoring a newly promoted project manager. Your mentee states that she has
recurring arguments with her project team and is having difficulty controlling her own temper. This situation has created a
toxic environment for the project team and threatens the successful completion of the project.

What is the best advice for your mentee?

A Improve leadership skills

B Develop emotional intelligence

C Study conflict management

D Introduce recognition and rewards

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What must the project manager do first to control her own emotions?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Emotional intelligence is the ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as
well as the collective emotions of groups of people. The first step in developing emotional intelligence is self-awareness,
which can then lead to self-management. Only when the project manager learns to exercise self-control as part of self-
management will she be able to deal with the emotions and behaviors of others effectively. Since the scenario describes a
project manager who has difficulty controlling her own temper, the best advice you can give her is to develop her emotional
intelligence skills.

Details for Each Option:

A Improve leadership skills

/
 Incorrect. Leadership is the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well. There is not enough information
in the question to determine if the team member is not doing their job well requiring the mentee to improve her
leadership skills. Based on the scenario described, the issue is related to the self-control of the mentee rather than her
leadership skills. It is unlikely that a project manager can be a good leader without being able to control her own
emotions.

B Develop emotional intelligence

Correct. In the scenario described, your mentee is having troubles controlling her temper. Emotional intelligence is the
ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective
emotions of groups of people. Emotional intelligence skills can be taught and developed. You, as a mentor, can help
your mentee in achieving this goal. Therefore, of the choices provided, the best advice you can give her is to develop
her emotional intelligence.

C Study conflict management

Incorrect. Conflict management may seem like a plausible answer, but it is not the best answer among the choices
given. Conflict management skills will certainly be beneficial in dealing with conflict among the team members.
However, the new project manager must first develop self-awareness of how her own behavior is contributing to the
problem. The project manager must first control her own emotions before coaching others on controlling theirs.

D Introduce recognition and rewards

Incorrect. Recognition and rewards are used to reinforce desired behavior among the project team members. However,
the scenario does not describe any behavior that should be reinforced. Rather, the team member who participates in
the shouting matches described by the scenario, regardless of who triggers them, demonstrates behavior that is
unlikely to meet standards of recognition and rewards.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 349

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 109 of 200 Question ID: 6112725

As a project manager, you are leading a colocated project team that will create deliverables in an agile fashion, followed by a
rollout phase that will use a predictive approach. You are concerned that the transition from agile to waterfall may cause
friction within the project team.

With the development phase complete, how might the team's working agreements need to change in this situation?

A The team charter will need to be updated to reflect collective responsibility for the completion of project tasks.

B The project manager should institute a set of working agreements that worked well on previous waterfall projects.

C Each project team member will need to develop their own social contract to support the new framework.

D The social contract should reflect a transition from collective to individual responsibility for the project tasks.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How are project tasks assigned in agile versus waterfall methodologies?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Every project team needs to clearly define how they will work together, which serves as the basis for their social contract.
These team ground rules should be agreed upon and then documented in the form of a team charter. The rules can be
revised as needed throughout the project. According to the scenario, the project will combine agile and waterfall
methodologies, making the overall project management approach hybrid. When transitioning from agile to waterfall, the
team's working agreements may need to be revised to reflect the differences in how the team members will interact. Agile
teams are self-organizing and self-managing. Therefore, when parts of a project are executed with an agile methodology (as
is the case with the development phase of this project), the entire team is collectively responsible for the deliverables.
However, when using a waterfall framework (as is the case with the rollout phase), the project manager is more likely to
assign tasks to specific individuals, making them individually accountable for completing their assigned tasks. Therefore, the
team charter should reflect these changes in group responsibility versus individual responsibility as the team transitions from
agile to waterfall.

/
Details for Each Option:

A The team charter will need to be updated to reflect collective responsibility for the completion of project tasks.
Incorrect. With agile methodologies, the entire project team is responsible for the project's deliverables. In this scenario,
the project is transitioning from agile to waterfall. Therefore, it is more likely that the project's tasks will be assigned to
specific individuals rather than collectively owned by the team.

B The project manager should institute a set of working agreements that worked well on previous waterfall projects.
Incorrect. A set of working agreements from past waterfall projects might be useful as a template for the team to create
their own team charter. However, the team will need to customize the charter to suit their unique situation. The project
manager might provide guidance for the charter, but should not dictate the team's working agreements.

C Each project team member will need to develop their own social contract to support the new framework.
Incorrect. Having each team member develop their own social contract would not be very helpful as the team needs a
common set of values rather than individual values. The project team members need to develop a set of working
agreements at the team level that everyone can support.

D The social contract should reflect a transition from collective to individual responsibility for the project tasks.
Correct. When using an agile framework, the project team has collective responsibility for the project's deliverables.
With a waterfall model, project tasks are more likely to be assigned to specific individuals, and they will be accountable
for completing their individual assignments.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 528

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 49-50

Agile Project Management, Second Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Molding a Group of Individuals into a Team

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 110 of 200 Question ID: 6151142

Unlike traditional managers, agile leaders:

A Enable team members to act

B Solve problems for the team

C Create working agreements

D Handles uncertainties, risks, and changes

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What would a servant leader most likely be doing?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Agile project management approach emphasizes servant leadership as a way to empower teams. Unlike traditional
managers, agile leaders encourage their teams to be self-organizing, self-directing, and empowered to make their own
decisions. In other words, agile leaders enable their team members to act upon decisions the teams are making. Managers in
an agile environment practice servant leadership by supporting and encouraging others in their endeavors so that they can
perform at their highest level and continue to improve.

Details for Each Option:

A Enable team members to act

Correct. Agile managers are servant leaders who lead through service to the team by focusing on understanding and
addressing the needs and the development of team members in order to enable the highest possible team
performance.

B Solve problems for the team

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 Incorrect. Solving problems for the team is a practice more typical of a traditional manager rather than an agile leader.
Agile encourages its leaders to empower teams to solve problems for themselves. If the team members, after several
attempts, are unable to find a solution, an agile leader may consider stepping in and help.

C Create working agreements

Incorrect. A working agreement is a set of rules by which team members operate. For example, the team can establish
the criteria for what "done" means to judge the completeness of a product increment; the team can decide to use the
work-in-progress (WIP) limits, respect the timebox, etc. The main point here is that it is the team members, not agile
leaders, who create working agreements.

D Handles uncertainties, risks, and changes

Incorrect. Both agile and traditional managers have to handle uncertainties, risks, and changes. Therefore, this choice
does not describe how agile leaders differ from traditional managers.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 33-38

Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products, 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Leadership

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 111 of 200 Question ID: 6112206

The project you are leading is supposed to upgrade the application developed by your company on desktop computers and
mobile devices. Last week, a major supplier of electronics unexpectedly released a new mobile device. You realize that your
application, with a little bit of modification, can run much faster and more securely on the new device.

What should you do next in regards to this opportunity?

A Create a cost forecast and communicate it to stakeholders

B Submit a change request to modify the application

C Update project funding requirements in consideration for the unexpected work

D Conduct variance analysis for an appropriate reserve amount

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Your application upgrade has the opportunity of running faster and with more security. You should find out if your project
resources can support it first.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In this question, an unexpected opportunity presents itself. The modification of the application to be upgraded on the new
mobile device could have a significant impact on multiple project constraints, including project scope, schedule, cost, quality,
communications, risk, etc. Therefore, a change request should be submitted and analyzed first before any decision is made.
The change request will have to go thru the organization's change control process established for the project.

Details for Each Option:

A Create a cost forecast and communicate it to stakeholders

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 Incorrect. A cost forecast contains either a calculated EAC value or bottom-up EAC value used to inform stakeholders
of how much money the project is expected to spend once all activities have finished. Although the project stakeholders
should be made aware of how much money is likely to be spent by the end of the project, a better answer would have
been first to make a decision of whether to allocate more funds to capture the opportunity or not. If the funds were
approved, a cost forecast may then have been issued to update project stakeholders of the new EAC taken from the
revised cost baseline. However, that answer choice was not provided. Therefore, creating a forecast is not what you
should do next.

B Submit a change request to modify the application

Correct. The question describes an opportunity to modify the application to run faster and more securely. Capturing this
opportunity will likely affect multiple project constraints and baselines, so a change request should first be submitted
and reviewed to understand all of its impacts. If approved, additional time and money to cover this unplanned work may
be added to the cost and schedule baselines. While an ideal answer would have been to first conduct a reserve
analysis to see how much of a management reserve is available or needed, followed by a change request, this option is
not provided, Therefore, of the choices given, submitting a change request is the best answer to the question asked.

C Update project funding requirements in consideration for the unexpected work

Incorrect. Project funding requirements are composed of the total funding requirements and periodic funding
requirements for the project. A controlled document, project funding requirements are derived from the cost baseline
and may include the sources of the funding. Although eventually it will be necessary for the project manager to update
the project funding requirements in consideration for any funds needed to secure the opportunity, this is not the 'next'
step that should be taken. A better answer would have been to update the project funding requirements only after a
change request had been submitted and approved to incorporate new funds into the cost baseline for the unexpected
work, however, that option was not listed.

D Conduct variance analysis for an appropriate reserve amount

Incorrect. This answer choice mixes up 'variance analysis' with 'reserve analysis'. Reserve analysis is used to
determine if previously created reserves are still required or if additional reserves should be added. Variance analysis,
on the other hand, is the explanation (cause, impact and corrective actions) for any cost (CV = EV - AC), schedule (SV
= EV - PV) or variance at completion (VAC = BAC - EAC) variances experienced on the project. Although it is important
for the project manager to track and monitor any variances encountered on the project, conducting variance analysis is
not the first step to be taken to capture the opportunity presented. As such, this is not the best answer choice of those
provided.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 113-115

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 112 of 200 Question ID: 6112139

A project manager is assigned to an agile software development project for a large banking corporation. With the project just
getting underway, the project manager has learned about new hacking tactics that present a potential threat to regulatory
compliance for the project.

What should the project manager do next?

A Review the risks during the project retrospective

B Analyze the consequences of non-compliance

C Submit a change request to update the risk management plan

D Develop a cumulative flow diagram

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might one determine the appropriate amount of time and money to invest in compliance activities?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In this scenario, the project manager has just learned about a new potential threat to regulatory compliance. This potential
threat will likely require the project team to carry out additional tasks to comply with the regulations. Compliance activities
typically do not add value and are often considered overhead for a project. Agile best practices strive to minimize overhead
so resources can be focused on producing value. This view is summarized in one of the Agile Manifesto principles that states,
"Simplicity - the art of maximizing the amount of work not done - is essential." Even though overhead does not directly deliver
value, some overhead, like compliance with regulations, is just mandatory. In order to understand the appropriate amount of
time and money to invest in compliance activities, the project manager should analyze the consequences of non-compliance.
If the consequences of non-compliance are minimal, then fewer resources can be allocated for compliance and vice-versa.

Details for Each Option:

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A Review the risks during the project retrospective
Incorrect. The project retrospective is held at the end of the project. Waiting until the end of the project to analyze the
newly identified threat would be too late as and not allow the results of the analysis to be incorporated in the
development of the project's deliverables.

B Analyze the consequences of non-compliance

Correct. Agile practitioners often view compliance as unnecessary overhead that does not deliver value to the
customer. Therefore, the project manager may consider 'minimizing' resources (time, money, team members) allocated
for compliance. However, to understand the appropriate amount of resources to invest in compliance activities, the
project manager should first analyze the consequences of non-compliance.

C Submit a change request to update the risk management plan

Incorrect. If the circumstances described in this scenario were applied to a predictive project management framework,
then submitting a change request to update the risk management plan would be a plausible answer choice. However,
the scenario describes an agile project. Change requests are not typically used on agile projects.

D Develop a cumulative flow diagram

Incorrect. A cumulative flow diagram is a tool that depicts the stages of work-in-progress. A cumulative flow diagram
might be helpful in identifying bottlenecks, but it would not be helpful with analyzing the newly identified threat to
regulatory compliance.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 8-9

Agile Project Management, Second Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Delivery versus Compliance

Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline, Project Management Institute Inc., June 2019,
Domain 3, Task 1

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 113 of 200 Question ID: 6150105

You are leading a project to be developed incrementally in small releases. Requirements have been established for the initial
release. Feedback from a focus group will determine the scope of each subsequent release. The client has established a
strict budget for the entire project.

In this adaptive environment, which is the best way to proceed?

A Use a traditional waterfall approach for the project

B Add prioritized features to the project scope with each release until the budget is exhausted

C During initial project planning, develop a detailed budget for each release

D Use a change control board (CCB) to prevent scope creep

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
In this scenario, the schedule and scope will be adjusted to stay within the cost constraint.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question describes a project where the scope beyond the initial release is undetermined. In cases where the project
scope will evolve throughout project execution, the scope and schedule may be adjusted to stay within the cost constraint.
This approach is typically applied to projects lead using agile methods where the product backlog constitutes the project
scope that is defined and redefined throughout the project. Thus, of the available choices, adding prioritized features with
each release until the budget is exhausted is the correct answer.

Details for Each Option:

A Use a traditional waterfall approach for the project

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 Incorrect. The scenario in the question is that the project scope will evolve based on feedback from the focus group for
each subsequent release. Since much of the scope is unknown at the start of the project, this is not suited to a
traditional or predictive approach like waterfall.

B Add prioritized features to the project scope with each release until the budget is exhausted
Correct. With an adaptive approach where the cost is fixed, the schedule and scope must be adjusted to stay within the
cost constraint.

C During initial project planning, develop a detailed budget for each release
Incorrect. The question describes that the project scope is not known and will be based on feedback from a focus
group. As such, it will not be possible to develop a realistic budget for each release without knowing what features will
be developed.

D Use a change control board (CCB) to prevent scope creep

Incorrect. The question implies that the project will use an agile or adaptive methodology. Agile projects do not use
formal change control procedures as is done when using a traditional project management approach.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 234

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 114 of 200 Question ID: 6112713

A new smartphone will be developed by two teams: a hardware team that will use a predictive project management approach
and a software team that will use an agile framework. Each team is colocated but resides in two different parts of the country.
The teams will need to coordinate their activities very closely, but bringing them together in one location is not an option.

What should the project manager do to create the most collaborative environment?

A Use a blended agile approach

B Create a fishbowl window

C Transition the hardware team to agile

D Implement caves and common

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which tool might be used to bring both teams together in a virtual environment?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario describes a project that is being managed using a hybrid approach by combining agile and predictive
frameworks within the same project. Specifically, in this case, the software development team will use an agile framework,
and the hardware development team will use a predictive approach. Regardless of the project management frameworks, the
two teams will need to coordinate their efforts to build the final product closely. The ideal approach would be to colocate both
teams in the same physical location, but the scenario stipulates that this is not an option. Therefore, the project manager can
recreate physical colocation in a virtual environment with the use of a fishbowl window. This approach will allow the project
teams to gain most of the benefits of colocation even though they are physically dispersed. The incorrect answer choices
represent actions that would not likely enhance collaboration between the two groups.

Details for Each Option:

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A Use a blended agile approach
Incorrect. Blended agile is structured by combining two or more agile frameworks, elements, or practices. In this
scenario, the software team, which is using an agile framework, might or might not use a blended agile approach, but
there is not enough information presented to make this determination. More importantly, using a blended agile
approach for software development would not likely enhance collaboration with the hardware development team.

B Create a fishbowl window

Correct. A fishbowl window is created by setting up long-lived video conferencing links to connect dispersed teams in a
virtual environment. Using a fishbowl window will bring the two development teams together in a virtual environment to
enhance collaboration.

C Transition the hardware team to agile

Incorrect. According to the scenario, the hardware team will use a predictive project management approach. While
theoretically transitioning the team to agile is possible, it is unclear if this action would improve the collaboration
between the two teams. The two teams will still need to coordinate their efforts regardless of the project management
framework used by each.

D Implement caves and common

Incorrect. Caves and common can be set up by creating a common area for development work and also providing
offices when individual team members need to work privately. This approach might be used by a colocated team to
enhance collaboration and productivity. However, this strategy would not likely enhance collaboration between the two
geographically separated development teams.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 46

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, We Aren't Co-Located, So We Can't
Be Agile

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 115 of 200 Question ID: 6112891

You have joined a project in which requirements are elaborated at periodic intervals during delivery, and the delivery is
divided into subsets of the overall product. Change is incorporated at periodic intervals, and risk and cost are controlled by
progressively elaborating the plans with new information. Key stakeholders are regularly involved.

What development approach is used on your project?

A Agile

B Predictive

C Hybrid

D Periodic

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which project management approach combines elements of both the predictive and agile?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Development approach is a component of the project management plan that describes, as the name implies, the approach
selected for the development of the product, service, or result delivered by the project. Predictive, iterative, agile, or hybrid
are examples of the development approach. The main differences between the various development approaches lie in a way
requirements are defined and managed, project deliverables are produced, change is handled, risk and cost are controlled,
and stakeholders are involved. The different development approaches can be visually displayed on what is called, the
continuum of project life cycles. A predictive development approach is at one extreme of the continuum, while the agile
approach is at the other end, with hybrid models being anywhere in between. The scenario describes a project in which
requirements are elaborated at periodic intervals during delivery; the delivery is divided into subsets of the overall product;
change is incorporated at periodic intervals; risk and cost are controlled by progressively elaborating the plans with new
information; and, key stakeholders are regularly involved. These practices combine elements of both predictive and agile life
cycles, making the whole development approach hybrid.

Note, the development approach is sometimes called the development life cycle.
/
Details for Each Option:

A Agile
Incorrect. On agile projects, requirements are elaborated frequently during delivery; delivery occurs frequently with
customer-valued subsets of the overall product; change is incorporated in real-time during delivery; risk and cost are
controlled as requirements and constraints emerge; and, key stakeholders are continuously involved.

B Predictive
Incorrect. On predictive projects, requirements are defined up-front before development begins; a single final product is
delivered at the end of the project; change is constrained as much as possible; risk and cost are controlled by detailed
planning; and, key stakeholders are involved at specific milestones.

C Hybrid
Correct. On hybrid projects, requirements are elaborated at periodic intervals; delivery is divided into subsets of the
overall product; change is incorporated at periodic intervals; risk and cost are controlled by progressively elaborating
the plans with new information; and, key stakeholders are regularly involved. This is the exact match with the scenario
described, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.

D Periodic
Incorrect. "Periodic" is not a development approach specified in the reference provided. It's a term that was made-up
for this question.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 666, 88

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 116 of 200 Question ID: 6110059

A project manager is explaining the roles and responsibilities for the quality assurance process with the project team.

Who will play a role in this process?

A The project manager, project team, and management of the performing organization

B The project sponsor along with the project manager and project team

C The project manager along with the project team

D The project manager, project team, project sponsor, management of the performing organization, and the
customer

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The roles in managing quality for the project may differ in size and effort.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The Manage Quality process is sometimes referred to as quality assurance. It is not uncommon to hear opinions that quality
is the responsibility of the quality assurance department in an organization. However, project management practitioners
should understand that Manage Quality is considered the work of everybody including the project manager, project team,
project sponsor, management of the performing organization, and even the customer. All of these have roles in managing
quality in the project, though the roles differ in size and effort.

Details for Each Option:

A The project manager, project team, and management of the performing organization
Incorrect. The project manager, project team, and management of the performing organization all play a role in
managing quality. However, the role of managing quality is not limited to these individuals; therefore, this is not the best
answer of the available choices.
/
B The project sponsor along with the project manager and project team
Incorrect. The project sponsor, project manager, and project team do have roles in managing quality. However, the
management of the performing organization and even the customer have roles in managing quality as well. Thus, of the
available choices, there is a better answer to the question asked.

C The project manager along with the project team

Incorrect. The project manager along with the project team may have the most significant and leading role in managing
quality, but other individuals and groups play a role as well. Therefore, this is not the best answer to the question asked.

D The project manager, project team, project sponsor, management of the performing organization, and the customer
Correct. The project manager, project team, project sponsor, management of the performing organization, and even the
customer have roles in managing quality in the project, though the roles differ in size and effort. Of the answer choices
provided, this choice more completely covers those individuals and groups who play a role in managing quality for the
project and is, therefore, the best answer to the question asked.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 289-290

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

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Question 117 of 200 Question ID: 6112867

A project manager is determining the budget for a software development project where the product will be built incrementally.
Since the project is subject to a strict budget, the project manager has to ensure that scope and schedule baselines stay
within cost constraints. The project manager includes budgetary requirements in the release plan.

How can the information in the release plan help the project manager with determining the project budget?

A The release plan can become a part of the cost management plan.

B The velocity can be increased for the project to stay within budget constraints.

C Release burndown charts can be updated with cost trend lines.

D Review meetings with stakeholders can be used to discuss the scope and schedule.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What should be adjusted with strict budget requirements and when?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The scenario describes a software development project where the product will be delivered incrementally, but the scope,
schedule, and cost will be managed using baselines in combination with agile release planning, implying the project as a
whole is carried out using a hybrid project management approach. Agile release planning provides a high-level summary
timeline of the release schedule. When a product is developed incrementally based on the release plan, iteration and release
review meetings can be used by the team and stakeholders to inspect the completed product increments regularly. During
these meetings, requirements are refined for future activities, and the release plan and key variables can be adjusted. In
hybrid projects with strict budget constraints, like the project described in the scenario, these adjustments would be applied to
scope and schedule, thus helping the project manager to determine the budget based on realistic plans. In other words, the
information in the release plan will serve as an input to the review meetings with stakeholders, which, in turn, may help the
project manager determine the project budget.

Details for Each Option: /

A The release plan can become a part of the cost management plan.
Incorrect. The cost management plan describes how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.
Release plans are typically used on more agile or hybrid projects and are not part of the cost management plan.

B The velocity can be increased for the project to stay within budget constraints.
Incorrect. The velocity is the rate at which deliverables are produced, validated, and accepted per iteration. Increasing
the velocity unreasonably can negatively affect the project team and eventually result in a drop in productivity. It's
unclear how increasing velocity may help the project manager determine the project budget.

C Release burndown charts can be updated with cost trend lines.

Incorrect. Burndown charts are used to visualize the remaining effort towards a specific goal. In the case of a release
burndown chart, the goal is the completion of a release. A trend line in a burndown chart projects a likely completion
date for the effort remaining, based on current progress. The trendline shows the time by which remaining work is
estimated to be done, rather than information related to costs.

D Review meetings with stakeholders can be used to discuss the scope and schedule.
Correct. The scenario describes a hybrid project. When agile or hybrid projects are subject to strict budgets, the scope
and schedule are often adjusted to stay within cost constraints. Review meetings with stakeholders may expose
additional information that can be used to refine requirements, resulting in updates to the release plan and adjustments
to the key release-planning variables.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 216, 224, 234, 250

Essential Scrum, Kenneth S. Rubin, Sprint Review

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

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Question 118 of 200 Question ID: 6112625

A project manager is performing the Acquire Resources process. Based on similar previous projects undertaken by the
organization using its own resources, the resource management plan reflects the need for a Scrum development team with
160 hours of fully dedicated work per week based on a standard 40-hour workweek.

What is the project manager's best course of action?

A Accept any resources that are currently available in the organization

B Ask for eight developers who each will work on the project 20 hours a week

C Request four developers that can be fully allocated to the project

D Outsource the work to an external vendor who is experienced in Scrum

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might task switching penalties impact the development team's productivity?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario suggests that a hybrid approach is being employed to manage the project: the use of the resource management
plan and the fact the project manager is performing the Acquire Resource process point to the predictive/waterfall project
management approach, while the use of a Scrum team to complete the development work refers to the agile framework.
Ideally, agile project team members are 100% dedicated to the project. Sometimes circumstances do not allow for a fully
dedicated project team. However, this scenario imposes no such constraint. Having a fully dedicated development team
minimizes task switching consequences. It has been found that task switching results in a 20%-40% loss in productivity.
Therefore, seeking for a fully dedicated project team would provide sufficient resources to complete the project on time and at
a sustainable pace.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Accept any resources that are currently available in the organization
Incorrect. Accepting any resources that are currently available may or may not be sufficient to meet the project needs.
Project managers should strive to acquire the best resources available for their projects as long as this acquisition is in
line with the company's policies and procedures as well as does not violate the PMI Code of Ethics & Professional
Conduct.

B Ask for eight developers who each will work on the project 20 hours a week
Incorrect. Eight developers working 20 hours per week would meet the resource management plan calling for a total of
160 hours a week. While this apparently seems sufficient, it will not likely meet the needs of the project due to task
switching penalties. Even at a minimal estimate of a 20% loss in productivity, the project manager can only expect 128
hours of actual work: 160 * (100 -20)% = 128 hours

C Request four developers that can be fully allocated to the project

Correct. Ideally, project team members are 100% dedicated to the project. Having a fully dedicated development team
minimizes task switching consequences, and should provide sufficient resources to complete the project on time based
on the requirements provided in the resource management plan.

D Outsource the work to an external vendor who is experienced in Scrum

Incorrect. There is not enough information in the scenario to determine if outsourcing the work to an external vendor is
better than performing the work internally. The way the scenario is worded implies that the question is not about where
the resources should be acquired from but rather about what the team should be comprised of. Additionally, this answer
choice sounds as if the performing organization does not have experience in Scrum. This is not the case as evident
from the scenario that indicates the organization undertook similar projects in the past.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 44-45, 83

Agile Project Management – Second Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Delivery versus Compliance, Work-in-Process versus
Throughput

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
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Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 119 of 200 Question ID: 6110050

A buyer has subcontracted a critical component of their product and wants to ensure strict oversight over its development and
manufacturing. To address this need, it has been suggested to carry out periodic performance reviews.

During which project management process will the buyer conduct these reviews?

A Conduct Procurements

B Control Procurements

C Control Scope

D Plan Procurement Management

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Oversight of a seller takes place in which process group?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Performance reviews for contracts measure, compare, and analyze quality, resource, schedule and cost performance against
the agreement. The Control Procurements process is contained in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. It is the
process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as
needed and closing out contracts. Therefore, the buyer would administer the performance reviews of the seller as part of the
Control Procurements process.

Details for Each Option:

A Conduct Procurements
Incorrect. The Conduct Procurements process is defined as the process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a
seller, and awarding a contract.

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B Control Procurements
Correct. Control Procurements is the process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance,
making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts. It is in this process that the buyer conducts
performance reviews of sellers.

C Control Scope
Incorrect. The Control Scope process is where the project manager monitors the status of the project and project scope
as well as manages changes to the scope baseline. Since the manufacturing of the critical component has been
contracted out, performance reviews of the subcontractor (i.e., the seller) would be part of the Control Procurements
process. Although the procurement output would eventually pass through the Control Scope process, the question asks
specifically in which process the performance review would take place. Buyer conducted performance reviews take
place in the Control Procurements process.

D Plan Procurement Management

Incorrect. The Plan Procurement Management process is where the project's approach to procurement is documented.
This process includes 'buy' decisions if resources are required from outside the project. The Plan Procurement
Management process also determines what to acquire and how and when to acquire it.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 498

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 120 of 200 Question ID: 6112496

You are leading a project that was supposed to be managed using agile methods. Every week, however, the product owner
holds a five-hour backlog refinement meeting with the project team where she presents the project scope broken down to the
work package level. After three iterations, the project team's velocity is slower than expected.

What is your best course of action?

A Ask the product owner to decompose the scope down to the task level and assign the tasks to the team members

B Advise the product owner to hold two five-hour backlog refinement meetings per week to gain further clarity on the
scope

C Coach the product owner on presenting the overall story concept with one-hour weekly backlog refinement
meetings

D Hold a team-building exercise with the team members and product owner to improve the communication between
them

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How is the product scope decomposed on an agile project?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario suggests that the product owner is using a waterfall approach to decompose the product scope, whereas the
question indicates that an agile project management framework is being used. In a traditional waterfall project, the project
scope is decomposed down to the work package level to create the work breakdown structure (WBS). On agile projects, on
the other hand, the product scope is captured in the product backlog, which evolves throughout the course of the project.
Agile best practices recommend that teams allocate no more than one hour per week for backlog refinement. Such an
approach would allow the team to maximize the time spent developing the product increment rather than creating a detailed
plan. Instead of attempting to present an updated WBS every week, the product owner should just present the overall story
concept to the team and then spend no more than an hour refining the stories. This approach will free up time for the team,
thus improving velocity.

/
Details for Each Option:

A Ask the product owner to decompose the scope down to the task level and assign the tasks to the team members
Incorrect. With an agile project, the product owner prioritizes the backlog and sets the iteration goal. However, it is the
development team, not the product owner, who determines the tasks that are required to complete the iteration goal.

B Advise the product owner to hold two five-hour backlog refinement meetings per week to gain further clarity on the
scope
Incorrect. Agile best practices suggest that teams allocate no more than one hour per week for backlog refinement to
maximize the time spent developing the product increment rather than doing the planning. Increasing the frequency of
the meetings from once to twice a week would only further negatively impact the team's velocity.

C Coach the product owner on presenting the overall story concept with one-hour weekly backlog refinement
meetings
Correct. Rather than attempting to present an updated WBS every week, the product owner should just present the
overall story concept to the team and then spend no more than an hour refining the stories. Agile teams strive to
maximize time for the actual development of the product increment rather than building detailed plans.

D Hold a team-building exercise with the team members and product owner to improve the communication between
them
Incorrect. The scenario does not suggest that there is a communication issue between the team members and the
product owner warranting a team-building exercise. The essence of the question lies with the scope management
approach rather than stakeholder interactions and/or communication.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 52-53

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Backlog Refinement

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 121 of 200 Question ID: 6112052

Planning is underway for a project to develop a new online collaboration tool. The team will use eXtreme Programming (XP)
method to develop the tool, while the deployment to the customers will be managed using a waterfall approach. The agile
coach would like to gather early customer feedback to ensure the new tool is aligned with the product vision.

What is the best course of action?

A Develop the complete set of features and showcase it at a developer's conference

B Create a wireframe for the public to use and provide feedback

C Plan for the development of an MVP for a release to a subset of customers

D Perform decomposition to create the work breakdown structure

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What is typically included in the first release of an agile project?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The use of an eXtreme Programming (XP) method to develop the tool and waterfall to deploy it suggests that the project is
managed using a hybrid project management approach. An MVP (minimum viable product, or sometimes called minimal
viable product) is a functioning product but contains the least development that will satisfy early adopters. An MVP might be
used to gather feedback from a subset of customers that can then influence the development of the remainder of the fully-
functioning product. Additionally, an MVP allows the organization to get the product to market in the shortest timeframe to
gain market share and start generating revenue. Although the deployment of the tool will be managed using waterfall, the
best course of action in this scenario to obtain early customer feedback is to plan for the development of an MVP, which will
be released to a subset of customers.

Details for Each Option:

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A Develop the complete set of features and showcase it at a developer's conference
Incorrect. The question states that the team needs to gather customer feedback as soon as possible. Completing the
entire feature set would delay the acquisition of customer feedback beyond what is necessary. Additionally, getting
customer feedback after the product has been completed in its entirety would expose the project to unnecessary
rework in order to incorporate the customers' feedback.

B Create a wireframe for the public to use and provide feedback

Incorrect. A wireframe is not an actual product, not even a prototype. A wireframe is a very basic visual representation
of the product that has no functionality and, therefore, cannot be tested by users.

C Plan for the development of an MVP for a release to a subset of customers

Correct. An MVP (minimum, or minimal, viable product) is a functioning product but contains the least development that
will satisfy early adopters. An MVP might be used to gather feedback from a subset of customers that can then help
direct and adjust the development of the remainder of the fully-functioning product.

D Perform decomposition to create the work breakdown structure

Incorrect. Decomposition is used to create the work breakdown structure (WBS), which is a breakdown of the total
scope of work required to produce the project's deliverables. A WBS is typically used on traditional projects where most
of the requirements are known upfront. On agile projects, requirements are frequently defined a short time before the
beginning of an iteration. Creating the WBS makes little sense if the product will be changed based on users' feedback.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 23

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 122 of 200 Question ID: 6112239

An agile software development project consists of four releases, with features incrementally added with each release. Due to
an excessive number of defects found by users after the first release, the risk response plan was implemented, which
involved more rigorous testing by the project team. After the second release, the client has reported two bugs.

What must first be done to determine the effectiveness of the implemented risk response?

A Schedule a release retrospective

B Complete a sensitivity analysis

C Conduct technical performance analysis

D Perform a reserve analysis

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How should the project manager compare actual results against targets?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Technical performance analysis compares technical accomplishments during project execution to the schedule of technical
achievement. It requires the definition of objective, quantifiable measures of technical performance, which can be used to
compare actual results against targets. Such technical performance measures may include weight, transaction times, number
of delivered defects, storage capacity, etc. In this scenario, technical performance analysis should be used to compare actual
results, such as delivered defects, against performance targets. The next logical step is to conduct technical performance
analysis.

Details for Each Option:

A Schedule a release retrospective

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 Incorrect. A release retrospective is a scheduled review to record lessons learned from a release. Knowledge gained
may include the effectiveness of a risk response to a realized risk. However, an analysis must first be performed on the
data regarding delivered defects before any conclusions can be drawn regarding the effectiveness of the risk response.

B Complete a sensitivity analysis

Incorrect. Sensitivity analysis is an analysis technique to determine which individual project risks or other sources of
uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes, by correlating variations in project outcomes with
variations in elements of a quantitative risk analysis model. A sensitivity analysis is not used to determine the
effectiveness of a risk response.

C Conduct technical performance analysis

Correct. Technical performance analysis can be used to compare actual results, such as delivered defects, against
targets. The results of the technical performance analysis can provide context for the raw data that has been collected.

D Perform a reserve analysis

Incorrect. Reserve analysis may be performed to determine if the remaining reserves are sufficient for the risk
remaining in the project. The question is asking about the effectiveness of a risk response rather than an evaluation of
the remaining reserves.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 456

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 123 of 200 Question ID: 6112956

A project has to procure goods and services from a seller. Some aspects of the procurement are well-defined up-front while
others will be known only after initial deliverables are validated and accepted.

What contracting technique would work best for this procurement?

A Multi-tiered structure

B Cost plus award fee

C Procurement audit

D Request for quotation

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
This technique uses a master services agreement (MSA) to document fixed items and a lightweight statement of work to
capture items that will be elaborated as the project progresses.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario implies the project is in the Plan Procurement Management process. When some aspects of the procurement
are well-defined up-front but others are unknown, the parties to the contract may use a multi-tiered contract structure. This
contracting technique allows for capturing various aspects of the procurement in different documents. For example, mostly
fixed items, such as warranties and arbitration, can be locked in a master services agreement (MSA), while more dynamic
items, such as scope, schedule, and budget, can be formalized in a lightweight statement of work. While the scenario does
not provide specific details as to what items are fixed and what are variable, of the choices provided, multi-tiered structure
best addresses the question asked. This structure reflects a hybrid project management approach in which part of the
procurement is managed using predictive methods, while the other part is addressed with agile contracting techniques.

Details for Each Option:

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A Multi-tiered structure
Correct. A multi-tiered structure is an agile or hybrid contracting technique that best works for procurements in which
some aspects are well-defined up-front while others are unknown. This technique uses a master services agreement
(MSA) to document fixed items and a lightweight statement of work to capture those that are yet to be discovered.

B Cost plus award fee

Incorrect. Cost plus award fee is an example of a cost-reimbursable contract in which the seller is reimbursed based on
specific criteria. This choice is an incorrect answer for two reasons: first, cost plus award fee is a contract, not a
contracting technique, as asked by the question. Second, it does not address the essence of the question, which
focuses on how to contractually handle a procurement that has requirements of a various degree of clarity.

C Procurement audit
Incorrect. A procurement audit is one of the tools and techniques of the Control Procurements process. The audit is a
structured review of the procurement process rather than a contracting technique used to address the uncertainty of
requirements during the Plan Procurement Management process, as described by the scenario.

D Request for quotation

Incorrect. Request for quotation (RFQ) is an example of a procurement document that is used as part of the Plan
Procurement Management process to request price quotations from prospective sellers of common or standard goods
or services. In the scenario, some of the goods/services are unknown and, hence, are not considered common or
standard.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 465

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 77

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 124 of 200 Question ID: 6112468

A project manager is reviewing a document where information about problems impacting project performance is recorded and
monitored. According to the document, a new problem that was logged yesterday by a project team member indicates that
delays have just exceeded the established schedule variance threshold and corrective action is required. No additional details
about the new problem are provided in the document.

What should the project manager do immediately?

A Assign a responsible party to follow up on the problem

B Record the disposition of the change request

C Send the project progress report to the stakeholders

D Update the lessons learned register

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What other information should be recorded in the issue log?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Based on the scenario described, the project is in the Monitor and Control Project Work process. The question implies that
the project manager is reviewing the issue log, which is an input to this process. The question indicates a new issue has been
recorded. The issue log is a project document where information about issues is captured and monitored. According to the
scenario, the information already recorded in the issue log includes the name of the person who raised the issue, the date the
issue was captured, and a description of the issue. Other information that should be documented in the issue log includes the
name of the person assigned to the issue, priority of the issue, target resolution date, status, and final resolution. The
question indicates that corrective action is required, therefore, of the available choices, the next logical step for the project
manager is to assign a responsible party to follow up on the issue so it can be addressed and then record that information in
the issue log.

Details for Each Option: /

A Assign a responsible party to follow up on the problem
Correct. The question implies that the project manager is reviewing the issue log, and a new issue was documented.
The next logical step for the project manager is to assign a responsible party to follow up on the issue and record that
information in the issue log.

B Record the disposition of the change request

Incorrect. The disposition of all change requests is captured in the change log. The question is describing the issue log
as opposed to the change log, and the disposition of change requests is not recorded in the issue log. Additionally, the
question does not provide any information suggesting a change request has been submitted.

C Send the project progress report to the stakeholders

Incorrect. Typically, the communications management plan would define how project communications will be planned,
structured, implemented, and monitored for effectiveness. There is not enough information in the question to determine
if this plan requires to send of the project progress report to stakeholders under the circumstances described in the
scenario.

D Update the lessons learned register

Incorrect. Knowledge gained during the project should be captured in the lessons learned register to improve future
performance on the project. However, based on the limited information available to the project manager, there are no
lessons learned to be documented at this point. Additionally, the project manager should first seek to the resolve the
problem at hand before being concerned about updating the lessons learned register.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 96, 108-109

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 125 of 200 Question ID: 6112323

The project manager is having difficulty with recurring conflict among team members who are self-driven experts in their field.
He is looking for an appropriate way to manage them and calls them to a meeting. He gathers differing perspectives from
each team member and through open dialogue builds consensus and commitment.

What conflict management technique has the project manager used in this situation?

A Withdrawing

B Compromising

C Forcing

D Collaborating

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which conflict management technique can result in a win-win situation?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The project manager is using collaboration by incorporating multiple viewpoints and insights from the differing perspectives
through open dialogue to gain consensus and build commitment. This approach can result in a win-win situation. Of the
available answer choices, collaborating is the best description of the conflict management technique used by the project
manager.

Details for Each Option:

A Withdrawing
Incorrect. The project manager took an active role in addressing the issue by conducting a meeting, rather than
withdrawing from the problem.

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B Compromising
Incorrect. Compromising is characterized by each side of a dispute making concessions which bring some satisfaction
to all parties to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict. There is no indication from the question that any
concessions have been made to support this answer choice.

C Forcing
Incorrect. Forcing involves pushing one's viewpoint at the expense of others, which is inconsistent with the question's
characterization of building consensus among the team members.

D Collaborating
Correct. Collaborating incorporates multiple viewpoints and insights from the differing perspectives through open
dialogue that typically leads to consensus and commitment.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 349

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 126 of 200 Question ID: 6112744

You are leading a complex project with a schedule baseline that cannot be modified due to external constraints. The scope,
however, is flexible. The project deliverables are produced by three development teams that work independently from one
another. The teams manage their workflow using Kanban.

Which of the following is the most effective tool for you to use to measure the project's progress?

A Feature chart

B Burndown chart

C Burnup chart

D Cumulative flow diagram

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Each team will define their own units of measure, which cannot be compared with each other or combined.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The question indicates that the project has a schedule baseline, and the development teams are using Kanban, which
suggests that the project is undertaken using a hybrid method. According to the scenario, the project end date is fixed, but the
scope is variable, which makes scheduling and progress reporting with typical waterfall methods problematic. Additionally, the
question indicates that each of the three project teams is working independently. Both of these factors introduce
complications for measuring the overall project's progress.

One way of addressing the progress reporting issues associated with a project with variable scope and independent project
teams is to use a feature chart. A feature chart uses the number of features rather than story points, so there is a
commonality between the project teams. The individual teams might use burn charts to measure their progress, but since it's
likely that each team will define their units of measure differently, the burn charts cannot be combined into a meaningful
project burn chart. A feature chart can provide a visual aid for understanding the number of features that have been
completed as well as the rate of feature development over time across the project teams. Therefore, a feature chart would be
an ideal tool to use in the circumstances outlined in the scenario.
/
Details for Each Option:

A Feature chart
Correct. A feature chart can provide information about the features that have been completed, the features remaining,
and the total number of features. Additionally, the feature chart can provide a visualization for the rate at which features
are being developed.

B Burndown chart
Incorrect. Since each of the three teams is working independently, they will each perform their own relative sizing
exercises and definitions for the units of measure. As a result, it will not be possible to compare teams or add velocity
across teams. A burndown chart may be helpful to measure progress at the team level but not at the project level in this
case.

C Burnup chart
Incorrect. A burnup chart might be helpful for each of the teams to use to measure their progress but will not be useful
to measure the progress of the project. Since each time will likely define their units of measure differently, you, as the
project manager, will not be able to build a meaningful project level burnup chart.

D Cumulative flow diagram

Incorrect. Although the cumulative flow diagram could provide some useful information about the progress of the
project, the cumulative flow diagram is designed to breakdown work in progress across a Kanban board rather than
measure the project's progress.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 66-67

Lean-Agile Software Development, Achieving Enterprise Agility, Alan Shalloway, Guy Beaver, James R. Trott, 2010,
Establishing Clear Line of Sight

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 127 of 200 Question ID: 6112611

A scrum master is leading an agile project in which the development team has failed to achieve the sprint goal for the past
three iterations. During the sprint retrospective, the team decides to implement several changes to improve velocity.

How might the scrum master verify any performance improvement?

A Calculate the project's CPI

B Create a burndown chart

C Review the burnup chart

D Study the Gantt chart

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Where might one find the amount of work completed over time?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario indicates that the scrum master needs an agile related tool that can be used to visualize the development
team's performance over time. A burnup chart is a graphical representation of the work completed toward the release of a
product. The burnup chart is a type of information radiator that may be placed in a common area to communicate project
performance. The scrum master, as well as anyone viewing the chart, can compare the team's velocity before and after the
proposed changes are implemented. If the development team completes more story points in the following sprint compared to
the previous sprint, it will be reflected in the burnup chart.

Details for Each Option:

A Calculate the project's CPI

Incorrect. The cost performance index (CPI) is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources. However, the
question refers to improvements in velocity (average stories or story points per iteration) rather than cost efficiency.
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B Create a burndown chart
Incorrect. A burndown chart is a graphical representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox. The
burndown chart might provide useful information regarding the development team's productivity. However, the amount
of work completed can be distorted if work gets added to or removed from the backlog.

C Review the burnup chart

Correct. A burnup chart is a graphical representation of the work completed toward the release of a product. The
burnup chart would reveal the development teams productivity over time.

D Study the Gantt chart

Incorrect. A Gantt chart is a type of bar chart that represents schedule information. However, a Gantt chart is typically
for projects where a predictive approach is used. Agile projects do not typically utilize Gantt charts.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 63-64

Agile Project Management, Second Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Project Status Reports

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 128 of 200 Question ID: 6110052

A client completed a walkthrough of the deliverables and formally accepted the work. The next day, the project manager
returns to the project site to pick up company equipment and make arrangements for final payment.

What should the project manager do when meeting the client as part of project closure?

A Confirm the final acceptance of the deliverable

B Settle procurement claims

C Validate the scope objectives have been met

D Ensure quality assurance was performed

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What process group are you in?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The question implies the project is in the Close Project or Phase process. It is important to distinguish the difference between
formal acceptance of project deliverables in the Validate Scope process versus 'confirming' formal acceptance in the Close
Project or Phase process. When closing a project, it is necessary to confirm the acceptance of all project deliverables in order
to adequately complete and close the project. By doing this, the project manager is essentially 'confirming' the delivery and
formal acceptance of deliverables by the client. Sometimes, this can be viewed as ticking a checkbox in the checklist of the
activities carried out during project closure. It is like asking a question, "Have the deliverables been accepted earlier in the
project as part of the Validate Scope process?". If the answer is "Yes", check the box. This would eventually confirm that the
deliverables have already been accepted.

Details for Each Option:

A Confirm the final acceptance of the deliverable

/
 Correct. Based on the scenario described, the project manager is carrying out the Close Project or Phase process.
Although the customer or sponsor formally accepts the completed project deliverables in the Validate Scope process, in
the Close Project or Phase process, you must 'confirm' final acceptance of the project deliverables.

B Settle procurement claims

Incorrect. When a PMP exam question refers to procurements, it does this from the perspective of a buyer. In this
scenario, the buyer is the client, and you are the seller. Therefore, settling procurement claims is not applicable in this
scenario. Theoretically, if the project manager, as a seller, subcontracted part of the work to a vendor, then the project
manager would have to settle procurement claims as specified in the contract with the vendor. However, there is not
enough information in the question to determine whether or not contracts with vendors have been used on in the
project. Even if the question referred to the procurement claims between the seller and the client as a buyer, these
claims would have been settled using the claims administration technique as part of the Control Procurements process,
which should have been completed before project closure. Based on all the above considerations, settling procurement
claims is not the best answer to the question asked.

C Validate the scope objectives have been met

Incorrect. The Validate Scope process is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
This answer choice is incorrect for a couple of reasons. First, the scenario states that the client has already formally
accepted the work. Secondly, the Validate Scope process is part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group and
not part of project closure as implied by the scenario.

D Ensure quality assurance was performed

Incorrect. Quality assurance is done as part of the Manage Quality process to examine and correct the process itself.
Quality assurance would have been performed before the Close Project or Phase process has begun, and therefore is
an incorrect answer.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 123, 164

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 129 of 200 Question ID: 6126050

A development team is working through one of the sprints planned for their agile project. A stakeholder approaches the scrum
master wondering why a certain feature was removed from the last sprint, what features are planned to be delivered in the
next sprint, and how the money is being spent on the project.

What is the best course of action for the scrum master to take in this situation?

A Advise the stakeholder to consult the project burndown charts

B Refer the stakeholder to the team members to get the information

C Recommend that the stakeholder talk to the product owner

D Provide the requested information at the daily standup meeting

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Roles in Scrum are clearly defined. Who makes the business decisions that affect the product direction, schedule, and
budget?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Roles and responsibilities in scrum are clearly defined. It is the product owner, not the scrum master, who makes business
decisions that influence the direction, schedule, and budget of the project. Therefore, questions such as why a certain feature
was removed from the sprint, what features are being planned to be delivered in the next sprint, and how and where the
money is being spent, should be posed to the product owner. In the reference provided, the author states: "Everything related
to the direction, schedule, and budget of the product falls into the product owner's job because the product owner makes the
business decisions that impact these aspects of the product. In a healthy relationship, with a fully functional coach and a fully
functional product owner, when asked about direction, schedule, and budget, the agile coach simply replies, 'That's a good
question for the product owner. She has all the details'."

Please note, the term 'scrum master' comes from Scrum, while 'agile coach' comes from eXtreme Programming (XP).
However, it is possible that the exam will interchangeably use these terms. This is the reason we use the term 'scrum master'
in the scenario while supporting the correct answer with the reference that uses the term 'agile coach'.
/
Details for Each Option:

A Advise the stakeholder to consult the project burndown charts

Incorrect. Burndown charts show the work that remains to be completed in an iteration, or a release, typically
expressed in story points. Burndown charts do not detail the scheduled vs. delivered features, nor do they provide
information on cost or how the money is spent. Burndown charts do not provide the reason a specific feature is not in a
sprint.

B Refer the stakeholder to the team members to get the information

Incorrect. While the team members may have a general idea about some of the questions raised by the stakeholder, it's
the product owner who can and should address such questions. Also, one of the scrum master’s duties as a servant
leader is to shield the team from interruptions; therefore, sending the stakeholder to the team to get the answers is not
aligned with the servant leadership approach.

C Recommend that the stakeholder talk to the product owner

Correct. Questions related to the direction of the project, project schedule, and project budget fall into the responsibility
of the product owner, rather than the scrum master or the development team members.

D Provide the requested information at the daily standup meeting

Incorrect. The purpose of the daily standup meeting is to report on the work performed since the last daily standup,
communicate the plans for the current day, and raise any impediments to progress. Questions asked by the stakeholder
in the scenario are outside the scope of the daily standup meeting.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 41

Coaching Agile Teams: A Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins,
2010, Coaching Product Owners on Being a Good Product Owner for the Team

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 130 of 200 Question ID: 6125135

The following Gantt chart displays the current schedule status for a construction project. At this point in the project, the first
two activities, Select Site and Negotiate Lease, should have been completed along with 50% of the work associated with the
third activity, Perform Civil Works. However, only the first two activities have been completed, and no work has been done on
the third activity. The method used to determine the earned value is based on percent complete.

What is the project's current SPI and what does this mean for the project?

A The project is currently behind schedule with an SPI of 0.5

B The project is currently behind schedule with an SPI of 2.0

C The project is on schedule with an SPI of 1.0 due to the fast-tracking of activities

D The project is currently behind schedule with an SPI of -$10,000

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The schedule performance index (SPI) is the earned value (EV) divided by planned value (PV).

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The schedule performance index (SPI) is equal to the earned value (EV) divided by planned value (PV). The current EV is the
sum of the earned values for every activity that either has been completed or is in progress. As only the first two activities
have been completed, the project's current earned value is $10,000. However, according to the plan, the third activity should
/
also have been 50% complete. Note, since the scenario mentions that the method used to determine the earned value is
based on percent complete, the earned value of a partially completed work package is calculated by multiplying the planned
value of the work package by its the percent complete. Therefore, the total current planned value is ($5000 * 100%) + ($5000
* 100%) + ($20,000 * 50%) = $20,000. Therefore, the SPI = EV / PV = $10,000 / $20,000 = 0.5. Since the SPI of 0.5 is less
than 1.0, the project is currently behind schedule. Note that the information regarding the fast-tracking of activities later in the
project is not relevant in calculating the current SPI. Therefore, an SPI of 0.5 with the project currently behind schedule is the
best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A The project is currently behind schedule with an SPI of 0.5

Correct. The schedule performance index (SPI) is the earned value (EV) divided by planned value (PV). SPI = $10,000
/ $20,000 = 0.5. With the SPI below 1.0, the project is currently behind schedule.

B The project is currently behind schedule with an SPI of 2.0

Incorrect. This answer choice represents a miscalculation. The schedule performance index (SPI) is the earned value
(EV) divided by planned value (PV). If the EV and PV are transposed in the formula, the result is 2.0.

C The project is on schedule with an SPI of 1.0 due to the fast-tracking of activities
Incorrect. A schedule performance index of 1.0 would indicate that the project is on schedule. However, even though
the project manager is confident fast-tracking can bring the schedule back into alignment with the plan, this action will
not occur until later in the project. Currently, the project is behind schedule with the SPI of 0.5.

D The project is currently behind schedule with an SPI of -$10,000

Incorrect. The schedule performance index (SPI) is the earned value (EV) divided by planned value (PV). The schedule
variance (SV) is the earned value (EV) less the planned value (PV). If the formula for SV is used instead of SPI, the
result is -$10,000.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 263

Practice Standard for Earned Value Management - Second Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2011, Page(s) 38-39

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 131 of 200 Question ID: 6112242

A project manager has been asked to create a document that formally authorizes a project to use ground-penetrating radar to
map geological conditions along a proposed crude oil pipeline route. The performing organization has agreed to share the
data with a local university. The project manager has reviewed the business documents and considered any relevant external
environmental factors to create the requested document.

What might the project manager do next?

A Research the stakeholder engagement plan for any information to be included in the document

B Ensure any relevant information from the memorandum of understanding (MOU) is included in the document

C Review the business case for any pertinent information

D Look to see if a benefits management plan was previously created

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The project charter is a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question implies that the project manager is developing the project charter. The project charter is a document issued by
the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project. The question indicates that the project
manager has already included the business documents as inputs into the process of developing the project charter as well as
considered any external environmental factors. The business documents include the business case and benefits
management plan. Agreements are also inputs into the Develop Project Charter process, and a memorandum of
understanding (MOU) is an example of an agreement. Additionally, the agreement to share data with the university in this
scenario may be documented as an MOU. Note that organizational process assets (OPA) are also considered inputs into this
process but were not mentioned in the scenario or offered as an answer choice. Therefore, of the available options, ensuring
that any relevant information from the memorandum of understanding (MOU) is included in the document is the best answer.

Details for Each Option: /

A Research the stakeholder engagement plan for any information to be included in the document
Incorrect. The question suggests that the project manager is developing the project charter. The stakeholder
engagement plan is a subsidiary of the project management plan and is not produced until later in the project during
project planning.

B Ensure any relevant information from the memorandum of understanding (MOU) is included in the document
Correct. An MOU is an agreement that may be used as an input into the development of the project charter, as implied
by the question. For instance, the agreement to share data with the university in this scenario might be documented as
an MOU.

C Review the business case for any pertinent information

Incorrect. The business case is one of the business documents, and the question states that the business documents
have already been reviewed. Therefore, reviewing the business case would be redundant.

D Look to see if a benefits management plan was previously created

Incorrect. The benefits management plan is a business document used in the Develop Project Charter process. The
question states that the business documents have already been reviewed. So, if the plan exists, it would have already
been reviewed.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 78

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 132 of 200 Question ID: 6113371

You are managing a project team that has recently been expanded by new team members working remotely from another
country. Their roles have been outlined to form a preliminary team charter. Nevertheless, you have noticed a considerable
lack of acceptance of cultural differences in the team, resulting in frequent conflicts.

Which of the following techniques could help you in this situation? (Choose three)

A Focus groups

B Role definition

C Ground rules

D Ability tests

E Meetings

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What are tools and techniques to resolve interpersonal and cultural conflicts?

Correct Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

The scenario surrounds the Develop Team process. This process is aimed to improve competencies, team member
interaction, and the overall team environment to enhance project performance. When a team composition changes, conflict is
often inevitable, especially when it involves cultural aspects. A project manager has to demonstrate cultural sensitivity, display
strong interpersonal skills, and lead by example. Focus groups, ground rules, meetings (e.g., team-building activities) are
among the tools and techniques that may help the project manager in reconciling the cultural differences, resolving conflicts,
and, eventually, improving the overall collaboration between the team members, thus resulting in better project outcomes.

Details for Each Option:

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A ✓Focus groups
Correct. Focus groups are an example of individual and team assessment tools and techniques that can be used as
part of the Develop Team process implied by the scenario. With this technique, information is collected in group
interviews to receive insights on a particular topic. The outputs could help the project manager better understand the
root causes of the conflicts in the team and find appropriate solutions.

B Role definition
Incorrect. According to the scenario, role definition has already been done but did not prevent the lack of acceptance of
cultural differences among the team members. The conflict is likely to have deeper underlying causes. A more personal
approach is needed to address the situation.

C ✓Ground rules
Correct. Ground rules can be added to the team charter, helping to set clear guidelines for behavior, especially between
new team members and within the team overall. Ground rules, as well as codes of conduct, are often proven as an
effective tool for reconciling cultural differences in teams.

D Ability tests
Incorrect. Ability tests are an example of individual and team assessment tools and techniques that can be used as part
of the Develop Team process implied by the scenario. These tests, however, are primarily used to assess skills and
knowledge of the team members rather than resolve the cultural differences within the team.

E ✓Meetings
Correct. A team-building activity can be an agenda item at a meeting, helping team members work together more
effectively. Such a meeting could be used to address the issues and conflicts in the team and to collaboratively find
solutions for them.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) - Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 340-342, 348

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 133 of 200 Question ID: 6110025

You are acquiring the necessary resources for your project. The organization where you are employed is an international
company with locations in several countries. With personnel located around the globe, you will be forming your project team
as a virtual team, and the team members will be allowed to work from their home offices.

What special considerations do you need to take into account while working with your team?

A Project expenses

B Communication planning

C Pre-assigned team members

D Team members with disabilities or mobility issues

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What becomes more challenging in a virtual environment?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Communication planning becomes increasingly important in a virtual team environment. Additional time may be needed to set
clear expectations, facilitate communications, develop protocols for resolving conflict, include people in decision making,
understand cultural differences, and share credit for success. When the project team is located in the same physical space,
communication is much easier and more effective. Face-to-face communication is richer and is the most effective form of
communication. Tone and non-verbal communication may be lost in a virtual environment. Additionally, virtual teams lack the
intangible benefits of colocated teams who are able to bond more easily and become more cohesive. Therefore,
communication planning will require special consideration while working with a virtual team.

Details for Each Option:

A Project expenses
/
 Incorrect. One of the advantages of the team members working from their home offices as a virtual team is the expense
savings associated with offices and physical equipment needed for employees if they were working in the company’s
offices. Therefore, project expenses are not a special consideration for a virtual team, making this choice an incorrect
response.

B Communication planning
Correct. Communication planning becomes increasingly important in a virtual team environment. Additional time may
be needed to set clear expectations, facilitate communications, develop protocols for resolving conflict, include people
in decision making, understand cultural differences, and share credit for success. Therefore, communication planning
should be specifically considered while the work is performed by a virtual team.

C Pre-assigned team members

Incorrect. When physical or team resources for a project are determined in advance, they are considered pre-assigned.
Whether or not the project team members were pre-assigned has no bearing on the team operating in a virtual
environment. Therefore, this answer can be eliminated.

D Team members with disabilities or mobility issues

Incorrect. The question states the team members will be allowed to work from their home offices. Therefore, individuals
with disabilities or mobility issues will be able to work from home without a need to commute to their local office. Thus,
no special considerations should be taken into account with the use of a virtual team when some of the team members
have disabilities or mobility issues.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 333

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 134 of 200 Question ID: 6112858

You have been assigned to lead an agile project. The project team is comprised of experienced agile practitioners who have
been working together for a long time.

In this agile environment, what is the best approach for you to take to manage project integration?

A Develop the project management plan that integrates all project activities

B Let the team determine how plans and components should be integrated

C Seek approval to hire an external project integration management expert

D In agile environments, project integration management is not applicable

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What is the role of a project manager in an agile environment?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the team is comprised of experienced agile practitioners who have been working together for a
long time. This suggests the team members are generalizing specialists and experts in their domains. Agile teams are self-
organizing and self-managing. Iterative and agile project management approaches promote the engagement of team
members as local domain experts in integration management. The team members determine how plans and components
should integrate. In adaptive environments, control of the detailed product planning and delivery is delegated to the team. The
project manager's focus is on building a collaborative decision-making environment and ensuring the team has the ability to
respond to changes. Therefore, the best approach for the project manager to take in this situation is to let the team members
decide on the best course of action as to how to integrate the project integration activities.

Details for Each Option:

A Develop the project management plan that integrates all project activities
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 Incorrect. According to the scenario, you are leading an agile project. Agile projects are characterized by a fast pace,
frequently changing requirements, and lean documentation. In such environments, a project management plan may
soon become outdated and would require frequent changes. Therefore, developing the project management plan may
prove to be inefficient.

B Let the team determine how plans and components should be integrated
Correct. Agile projects, like the one described in the scenario, benefit from the expertise of the project team members.
In the scenario, the team is comprised of experienced agile practitioners who have been working together for a long
time. Therefore, letting the team determine how plans and components should integrate on their project is the best
course of action for the project manager.

C Seek approval to hire an external project integration management expert

Incorrect. First, the project manager has the authority over project resources and, therefore, does not need the
approval to hire an expert (unless the cost is unreasonably high). Second, the project manager should be an expert in
project integration management by herself. And third, on agile projects, project integration is typically delegated to the
team, especially when the team members are experienced agile practitioners as in the scenario described.

D In agile environments, project integration management is not applicable

Incorrect. Project Integration Management includes the processes and activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and
coordinate the various processes and activities within the Project Management Process Groups. Regardless of the
project management approach selected, it is highly unlikely that a project would not require at least some integration.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 91

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger and Stacia Broderick, 2008, Integration Management

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 135 of 200 Question ID: 6112327

You are leading a meeting with the project sponsor and key stakeholders to review the recently completed project
management plan. The goal of the meeting is to establish a common understanding of the plan, answer any questions or
concerns, and gain formal approval of the project management plan.

Which of the following interpersonal and team skills is the least beneficial to the project manager to use to achieve the
meeting’s goal?

A Conflict management

B Facilitation

C Meeting management

D Team building

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The correct answer represents a skill that is typically used during the Develop Team process rather than the Develop Project
Management Plan process.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question is asking to select an answer choice that represents the interpersonal and team skill which is least likely to be
useful to the project manager in gaining approval for the project management plan. Conflict management, facilitation, and
meeting management are all skills which will be essential for the project manager to use when presenting the project
management plan to the stakeholders to gain approval for the project management plan. Team building is among the
interpersonal and team skills typically used during the Develop Team process. Team building refers to a set of activities that
enhance the team's social relations and build a collaborative and cooperative working environment. Of the choices provided,
team building is less beneficial for the project manager in gaining approval for the project management plan, and is, therefore,
the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option: /

A Conflict management
Incorrect. Conflict management skills may be necessary to bring diverse stakeholders into alignment on all aspects of
the project management plan making this choice an incorrect answer.

B Facilitation
Incorrect. Facilitation ensures that there is effective participation, that participants achieve a mutual understanding, that
all contributions are considered, and that conclusions or results have full buy-in according to the decision process
established for the project. Since this option is likely to be useful in obtaining approval, it can be eliminated as a correct
response.

C Meeting management
Incorrect. Meeting management skills are necessary to ensure that the presentation of the project management plan is
well run. Therefore, meeting management is an incorrect answer.

D Team building
Correct. Team building can be described as conducting activities that enhance the team's social relations and build a
collaborative and cooperative working environment. Team building is typically used during the Develop Team process
and is not likely to be beneficial in gaining approval for the project management plan, making team building the correct
response.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 86, 341

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 136 of 200 Question ID: 6112130

An organization is transitioning from predictive project management to agile. As a project manager, your upcoming project will
require compliance reporting that will need to be submitted to internal auditors due to regulatory oversight.

How might you address the need for compliance reporting in this hybrid environment?

A Work with the auditors to streamline the process

B Task one of the team members to complete the compliance reporting

C Transfer the responsibility of compliance reporting to the legal department

D Avoid agile as it not suitable for projects that operate in a regulatory environment

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How do agile practitioners maximize the work not done?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

As a servant leader, an agile project manager should pave the way for the project team to do their best work. Whenever
possible, the agile project manager should focus on eliminating any non-value added work. However, sometimes, activities
such as compliance reporting are just a requirement that cannot be eliminated. In such hybrid environments, working with the
auditors to streamline the process and eliminate any unnecessary work would minimize the non-value added activities in
order to maximize the delivery of value while still addressing and balancing the compliance needs.

Details for Each Option:

A Work with the auditors to streamline the process

Correct. Working with the auditors to streamline the process and eliminate any unnecessary work would minimize the
non-value added activities in order to maximize the delivery of value.
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B Task one of the team members to complete the compliance reporting
Incorrect. Agile leaders should avoid assigning non-value added tasks to the team members. When possible, the
developers on the project team should be focused on delivering value rather than performing overhead tasks.

C Transfer the responsibility of compliance reporting to the legal department

Incorrect. It is unlikely that a project manager would have the authority to assign responsibility for compliance report to
another department. Additionally, It is not likely that the legal department would have sufficient insight into the project to
complete the compliance reporting for the project.

D Avoid agile as it not suitable for projects that operate in a regulatory environment
Incorrect. Agile best practices stress the importance of maximizing the work not done. However, sometimes, activities
that do not add value to the project are still required. In cases where non-value added activities are required, the agile
project manager should work to eliminate any unnecessary work and streamline the process as much as possible. An
organization should not avoid agile due to compliance reporting.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 40-41

Agile Project Management, Second Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Delivery versus Compliance

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 137 of 200 Question ID: 6112682

Up until now, your project team has allowed the use of flextime where project team members may take time off during regular
business hours and make up the time during the evening hours or weekends. Recently, excessive use of flextime has
become a roadblock as some team members are not available when needed. The team feels they should set a standard that
flextime is only to be used for personal emergencies.

How should you handle this situation?

A Contact the human resources department to update the corporate policies to prohibit flextime

B Submit a change request to update the team charter based on the team's inputs

C Discuss the issue with the team and update the team charter accordingly

D Do nothing as the team has already agreed to use flextime for personal emergencies only

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What is the best way to gain the commitment of the team for the team's working agreements?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well as establishing
clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. The team charter may be updated to reflect
changes to the agreed-upon team operating guidelines that result from team development. The team charter works best
when the team develops it or at least has an opportunity to contribute to it. Of the available options, discussing the issue with
the team and updating the team charter accordingly is the best course of action in this situation.

Details for Each Option:

A Contact the human resources department to update the corporate policies to prohibit flextime

/
 Incorrect. Although updating the corporate policies to prohibit flextime would likely resolve the issue described by the
question, this action does not represent the best way to address the issue. Just because flextime has been found to be
a roadblock for this particular project does not necessarily mean it will cause problems for other projects or project
teams. Updating the corporate policies to ban flextime is an overreaction based on what has been presented by the
question.

B Submit a change request to update the team charter based on the team's inputs
Incorrect. A change request must be submitted to update any baseline or the project management plan. Project
documents may or not be placed under configuration control depending on the standards outlined in the configuration
management plan. Since the question does not state whether or not the team charter is a configuration element, we
assume the project is using standard practices where the team charter is not a controlled document and therefore does
not require a change request to be updated.

C Discuss the issue with the team and update the team charter accordingly
Correct. The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well
as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. The team charter may be
updated to reflect changes to the agreed-upon team operating guidelines that result from team development. Working
with the team to update the team charter is the best way for the project manager to address the issue described by the
question.

D Do nothing as the team has already agreed to use flextime for personal emergencies only
Incorrect. The question states that the team feels they should set a standard that flextime is only to be used for
personal emergencies. However, this feeling might just be the first impression of several team members. It is best when
the issue is discussed by all team members, and an agreed-upon decision on the team values, agreements, operating
guidelines, and expectations regarding acceptable behavior is made collectively and captured in the appropriate
document such as the team charter. Therefore, doing nothing in this situation is not the best answer to the question
asked.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 319-320, 344

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 138 of 200 Question ID: 6112171

You are leading a software development project for a client. Due to unstable requirements, you have elected to use a change-
driven life cycle. You are currently facilitating an iteration planning meeting with the product owner and the development team.

What should you do as part of the meeting?

A Control the scope to prevent scope creep

B Review the product increment and get feedback

C Make sure the scope of the iteration is fixed

D Recommend improvements for the next iteration

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The correct answer may sound counter-intuitive.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The question describes a project with a change-driven life cycle. Change-driven life cycles are also referred to as adaptive life
cycles. Adaptive life cycles are agile, iterative, or incremental. With an adaptive approach (in this case, agile), the detailed
scope is defined and approved during an iteration planning meeting before the team begins the development. The incorrect
answer choices describe either different development life cycles or other kinds of agile meetings. While "fixed" scope may
sound counter-intuitive for agile projects, the correct answer choice refers to the fixed scope of a particular iteration. Even on
agile projects, the scope should be clearly defined and approved for at least the duration of one iteration. Therefore, of the
available options, ensuring that the scope of the iteration is fixed is the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Control the scope to prevent scope creep

/
 Incorrect. While the scope of the iteration should be fixed, the way this answer choice is worded refers to a project with
a predictive life cycle. The scenario, however, describes a change-driven, or adaptive, life cycle. Projects using a
predictive life cycle define and approve the project scope upfront during initial project planning and strongly discourage
scope creep.

B Review the product increment and get feedback

Incorrect. This answer choice describes an iteration review meeting, where the team demonstrates the product
increment developed during the iteration and gets feedback from the stakeholders.

C Make sure the scope of the iteration is fixed

Correct. Adaptive life cycles are also referred to as change-driven life cycles. With an adaptive approach, the detailed
scope is defined and approved at the start of the iteration.

D Recommend improvements for the next iteration

Incorrect. This answer choice describes an iteration retrospective meeting, not an iteration planning meeting, as stated
by the scenario. An iteration retrospective is held at the end of the iteration to record lessons learned during the
iteration to improve the performance of future iterations.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 19

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 52

To learn more about this topic, please watch the following video:

Please note, there is a typo on the slide at 16:02. It should read "Close Project or Phase".

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/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 139 of 200 Question ID: 6150602

Customer requirements for the new application to be developed by an agile team limit the technology choices to only two
approaches. The team members are not familiar with any of them and ask the scrum master for advice.

Which of the following should the scrum master recommend to select the best approach?

A A risk-based spike

B Exploratory testing

C An architectural spike

D Prototyping

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Look for an answer that is designed to provide a proof of concept that demonstrates a technology is suitable for the project.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Agile projects do not try to plan everything upfront, and they often run into situations where they must determine the correct
approach or technology to use to complete a project. A spike is a timeboxed research aimed to gain knowledge in situations
where there is a lack of clarity in areas of estimation, acceptance criteria definition, the flow of user's actions, the technology
to be selected, and so on. Spikes may help when the team needs to learn some critical technical or functional elements, as in
the scenario described. A spike is an experiment performed quickly to help the team decide which path to take. Of the two
spikes used in agile, namely risk-based or architectural, the scenario requires the latter. An architectural spike is a technical
timeboxed experiment popularized by eXtreme Programming (XP) where the team writes just enough code to explore the use
of an unfamiliar technology or technique.

Details for Each Option:

A A risk-based spike
/
 Incorrect. A risk-based spike is a short, time-boxed effort that is used to investigate and hopefully reduce or eliminate
an issue or threat to the project. Nothing in the scenario suggests that the team has identified a risk or an issue that
needs to be eliminated or reduced. Instead, the team members are trying to determine which development approach
they should use to build the new application.

B Exploratory testing
Incorrect. Exploratory testing is a non-scripted testing approach designed to discover unexpected behavior in an
application or system developed by a project team. In the scenario, the application has not yet even been built;
therefore, conducting exploratory testing makes little sense.

C An architectural spike
Correct. An architectural spike is a technical timeboxed experiment aimed to explore a technical approach to use an
unfamiliar technology or technique as is the one described in the scenario provided.

D Prototyping
Incorrect. Prototyping is used to create a simple working example of what is planned to be built. Prototyping can be
used when there is still a lot of uncertainty about requirements. Rather than expecting the customer or stakeholders to
fully describe and define what the finished product should look like, the prototype provides the parties with something
tangible to use to determine missing features or additional requirements.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 56

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 140 of 200 Question ID: 6112134

A project team will work in a noisy environment requiring hearing protection. To communicate in this type of environment, your
employer has a mandatory proprietary instant messaging mobile phone application that will be installed on the phone of every
project team member for the duration of the project.

The requirement to install this messaging application is an example of which of the following?

A Pull communication

B Push communication

C Enterprise environmental factors

D Communication model

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The instant messaging application is a mandatory communication tool.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The scenario describes the use of a proprietary instant messaging application that, according to your organization, is a
mandatory tool to be used for communications under certain circumstances, for example, when the employees perform
project work in a noisy remote environment. While the use of the instant messaging application on the mobile phones may
lead you to think the question is talking about communication technology, communication models, or communication
methods, the word 'mandatory' should trigger the thought of enterprise environmental factors. Any condition, not under the
immediate control of the team that influences, constraints, or directs the project, is an enterprise environmental factor (EEF).
Established communication channels, tools, and systems are an example of the EEF. Since the instant messaging application
is defined as 'mandatory' by your organization, meaning it is outside the project team's control, the requirement to install the
application qualifies as an EEF, in particular as an established communication tool. Therefore, of the choices provided,
enterprise environmental factors are the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Pull communication
Incorrect. Pull communication is a type of communication method that requires recipients to access the content at their
discretion. This method is typically used for large audiences or complex data sets. The requirement to install the
application described in the scenario does not represent a pull communication method.

B Push communication
Incorrect. Push communication is a type of communication method where information is distributed to specific
recipients. This method ensures the information is sent but does not guarantee the information was received or
understood by the recipient. The requirement to install the application and a communication method are not the same.

C Enterprise environmental factors

Correct. The scenario implies you are carrying out the Plan Communications Management process. Enterprise
environmental factors are input to that process. Enterprise environmental factors are conditions, not under the
immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project. The scenario describes an instant
messaging application that is mandated by your organization to be used for communication. 'Mandatory' means the
application is not under the immediate control of the team, making the requirement to install the application an
enterprise environmental factor.

D Communication model
Incorrect. Communication models represent the communication process in general, rather than a specific
communication application or the requirement to install it, as described in the scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 368, 370

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 141 of 200 Question ID: 6113513

Two days before the end of the last iteration of the project, an agile coach has noticed that the performance of one of the
developers significantly degraded, risking the iteration goal. The coach and the developer have a one-on-one coaching
meeting scheduled a day after the iteration’s end date.

What is the best course of action for the agile coach to take in this situation?

A Conduct the individual performance appraisal of the developer

B Ask the team to swarm on the tasks assigned to the developer

C Employ real-time feedback to address the issue with the developer

D Wait for the one-on-one meeting scheduled with the developer

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Only two days are left to accomplish the iteration goal.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Coaching is aimed to help the team members perform at their best, to stay on track, to resolve issues and concerns, to
continuously improve their skills. The team members need to know what they are doing well and what could they improve.
One-on-one meetings set at scheduled intervals are one of the agile coaching practices. However, issues that require
immediate attention (the iteration goal is in jeopardy risking the whole project) should be addressed by agile leaders in real-
time. As part of the on-going coaching efforts, the agile coach has to step in, understand why the performance of the
developer has degraded, and help the developer to resolve the issue. This help should be provided without waiting for the
pre-scheduled one-on-one meeting, which could be too late in this situation.

As stated by the authors in the reference, "And even these scheduled one-on-ones are not meant to prevent the team’s
coach from helping the team when he or she sees a clear need. Don't wait for a one-on-one if you see an action occurs that
needs redirection. Employ real-time feedback and address the issues as they arise; try to provide the feedback as close to
the event as possible so it is more meaningful and corrections can be made quickly."

/
Details for Each Option:

A Conduct the individual performance appraisal of the developer

Incorrect. Self-organizing teams may challenge internal management policies, and managers may struggle with the
individual performance appraisals. On agile projects, individual team members are typically not appraised. Agile
promotes a team rather than an individual performance assessment.

B Ask the team to swarm on the tasks assigned to the developer

Incorrect. Swarming on the tasks assigned to the developer might be a plausible option. However, with only two days
left to the end of the iteration, it is reasonable to assume that by completing the tasks of the developer, the team
members will be unable to complete their own tasks. Therefore, in this situation, swarming is unlikely to be the best
course of action.

C Employ real-time feedback to address the issue with the developer

Correct. With only two days left until the end of the iteration and the whole project, the agile coach should do everything
in their power to help the team member resolve the issue and accomplish the iteration goal. Then, at the one-on-one
meeting, after the iteration ends, further action can be considered, including a more in-depth analysis of the situation.

D Wait for the one-on-one meeting scheduled with the developer

Incorrect. Although one-on-one meetings are one of the agile practices to coach team members, in this situation,
waiting until after the iteration is completed would be too late. Feedback and help should be provided in real-time so
that the iteration goal could be met.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 33-38

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Manage the Project Team

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 142 of 200 Question ID: 6126200

Midway into an iteration, an agile team faces a minor technical issue. One of the team members recalls that the agile coach is
an expert in the field from her past experience as a senior developer. The team requests that the coach help resolve the
issue.

What should the agile coach do first?

A Let the team resolve the issue

B Help the team resolve the issue

C Resolve the issue for the team

D Consult with the product owner

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
One of the principles servant leaders follow is creating an environment of functional accountability.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

It is reasonable to assume that selecting the correct answer to this question is challenging due to the subtle wording
differences between the answer choices. Based on our own experience as well as feedback from our customers, answer
choices in the actual exam can be very similar to one another. Sometimes, a tiny nuance in the wording determines which
choice is the correct answer.

To answer agile questions correctly, it is important to get into the agile mindset. This particular question deals with the
concept of duties and principles of agile servant leadership. One of the principles that servant leaders follow is creating an
environment of functional accountability. In the reference provided, the author states that servant leaders "give the team
ample space to come up with the best ideas and build the best product." In order for the team to become self-organized and
accountable for their own results, the author suggests that "If you [the agile coach] stay at the process level and stay away
from the details of the team’s every decision and plan, you can achieve detachment. Your being detached invites them to
attach and to own their results. This helps them achieve goals asked (and sometimes demanded) of them." Owning the
results is one of the principles servant leaders should engrain in their teams. In this way, teams can learn to be accountable
for outcomes. /
The question is asking what the agile coach should do 'first'. There is not enough information in the question to determine that
if the issue is not resolved, the team will miss the iteration goal or the project will fail. According to the scenario, the issue is
minor. It is not an extreme situation where the agile coach would need to step in and help the team resolve the issue or even
resolve the issue by herself. Even though the agile coach has the needed expertise, resolving the issue is not the agile
coach's responsibility. Furthermore, servant leaders should let the team make technical decisions and own the outcomes,
whether the outcome leads to success or failure. Servant leaders should detach themselves from the outcome. The author
stresses that "If you diagnose the problem and implement a solution, you run the risk of being way off base. Worse, you have
subtly undermined the team's ability to solve its own problems."

Details for Each Option:

A Let the team resolve the issue

Correct. Applying agile servant leadership principles to this situation, the 'first' thing the agile coach should do is letting
the team members try to resolve the issue on their own so that the team can own the decision and be accountable for
the outcome.

B Help the team resolve the issue

Incorrect. According to the scenario, the issue is minor. Therefore, letting the team resolve the issue would be a better
approach. If the team doesn’t succeed, the coach should help. However, the coach should not do the technical work for
the team. Rather, the coach may help in providing expertise or getting necessary development tools, etc.

C Resolve the issue for the team

Incorrect. Even though the agile coach has the expertise to resolve the issue, resolving the issue for the team would
not be the first step for the agile coach to take, nor is this the responsibility of an agile coach regardless of what
previous experience she may have.

D Consult with the product owner

Incorrect. In general, a product owner should leave technical decisions up to the team to resolve and, in many cases,
would not have much to offer in terms of technical expertise.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 36-37

Coaching Agile Teams: A Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins,
2010, Command-and-Control-ism: Recovering from

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 143 of 200 Question ID: 6113181

You are managing a project, and members of your project team are at odds about the tasks they are assigned.
Disagreements between the team members have escalated and have created a reduction in performance across the project.

What tool or technique will you use to address the team's issues and get the project back on track?

A Networking

B Recognition and rewards

C Training

D Conflict management

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The probability of a project manager successfully managing their project teams often depends on their ability to find
resolutions when differences arise within the team using this tool or technique.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Managing a project team requires various management and leadership skills to promote teamwork and maintain a cohesive
and productive environment. Conflict management, a component of the interpersonal and team skills grouping, is one of the
skills needed. Conflict is inevitable in a project environment, as such conflict should be addressed in a timely manner. The
success of a project will often depend upon the project managers' use of the tools and techniques of the Manage Team
process, which in this case, is conflict management.

Details for Each Option:

A Networking

/
 Incorrect. Networking is interacting with others to exchange information and establish contacts. Networking may
provide a means to solve problems, influence stakeholders or garner support for a project. Networking is a tool or
technique used in several project processes. However, it would not be the appropriate option to address the situation
described in this question.

B Recognition and rewards

Incorrect. Recognition and rewards are used in the Develop Team process to award desirable behavior. The question
describes a disagreement creating performance issues versus desirable behavior. Recognizing and rewarding would
not be a reasonable approach to this situation.

C Training
Incorrect. Training is a tool used in the Develop Team process. It includes all activities utilized to increase the project
team's competency. Though training may be identified as a needed element as you move forward, it is not a viable
option to address the immediate situation.

D Conflict management
Correct. Conflict management is the most appropriate answer to the question. Conflict management is a tool or
technique used in the Manage Team process. When conflict is managed properly, it can lead to improved productivity
and working relationships. Conflict should be addressed early and privately using a collaborative approach.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 348-349

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 144 of 200 Question ID: 6113350

After completing an iteration, an agile team is planning to hold an iteration review meeting to demonstrate the new product
increment developed during the iteration. To ensure that relevant stakeholders are invited, the team is classifying all project
stakeholders according to the type of requirements the stakeholders are likely to be interested in during product
demonstration.

How should the team classify the stakeholders (on the right) with regard to their requirements (on the left)?

Organizational requirements Project manager

Functional requirements Project sponsor

Non-functional requirements End user

Technical requirements Data security expert

All types of requirements Developer

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which stakeholders are interested in product-specific features? Who is mostly concerned with organizational interfaces? Who
could help fulfilling security requirements?

Correct Answer:

Organizational requirements Project sponsor

Functional requirements End user

Non-functional requirements Data security expert

Technical requirements Developer /

 All types of requirements Project manager

Explanation:

Theoretically, any of the stakeholders can be interested in any of the various requirement types. While this can definitely be
true in real-life situations, the idea, while taking the exam, is to find the 'best match' even if it does not look/sound to be a
perfect/ideal combination.

For example, project sponsors are commonly high-ranking managers who endorse and provide political support for the
completion of a project; therefore, a project sponsor would likely be interested in organizational requirements being met.

Those who will use the project deliverables (e.g., the software product developed by the project) are primarily interested in
the product features; hence, the functional requirements are likely to be the central interest of the end users.

The foremost concern of data security experts is to make sure the product meets security requirements, policies, and
regulations, making non-functional requirements the best match for their area of interest/expertise.

Project team members, such as developers, may be interested to see that the technical requirements are properly
implemented.

For project managers, seeing the whole picture is their main focus.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) - Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 148, 514

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 145 of 200 Question ID: 6112745

As part of the Develop Schedule process, the project manager creates the project schedule using a Gantt chart. Three Scrum
teams will develop the project deliverables. Due to dependencies, the teams will be required to coordinate their work twice a
week using extended standup meetings.

What should the project manager do next?

A Submit a change request to switch the Gantt chart to burndown chart

B Include Scrum of Scrums (SoS) meetings in the project schedule

C Crash the schedule to eliminate the dependencies between the teams

D Reflect the actual velocity of the teams in the project schedule

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How do Scrum teams coordinate their activities?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario describes a hybrid project that will use some elements of a predictive approach as indicated by the use of a
project schedule in the form of a Gantt chart along with the product development teams using the Scrum framework. When a
project has two or more Scrum teams with dependencies, the teams will need to coordinate their work. This coordination is
typically accomplished with regularly scheduled Scrum of Scrum meetings, also known as "meta Scrum". Meta Scrum is a
technique in which a representative of each Scrum team attends a meeting with the other representative(s) to coordinate their
work. Since the project described in the scenario will utilize a project schedule in the form of a Gantt chart, these regularly
scheduled and, as indicated by the scenario, extended Scrum of Scrum meetings should be reflected in the schedule to
account for the time the relevant team members will spend attending these meetings.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Submit a change request to switch the Gantt chart to burndown chart
Incorrect. First, the scenario indicates that the project is still in planning. Change requests are not required during
planning. Second, switching the Gantt chart to the burndown chart makes little sense and does not address the
essence of the question, which surrounds the coordination between the teams rather than tracking their progress.

B Include Scrum of Scrums (SoS) meetings in the project schedule

Correct. A Scrum of Scrum meeting, also known as "meta Scrum", is a meeting in which two or more Scrum teams
coordinate their activities. This technique is necessary if there are dependencies between the Scrum teams.

C Crash the schedule to eliminate the dependencies between the teams

Incorrect. Crashing is an example of a schedule compression technique. This technique can be used to shorten the
schedule duration rather than eliminate dependencies between activities or teams.

D Reflect the actual velocity of the teams in the project schedule

Incorrect. The project schedule will eventually need to be adjusted to reflect the actual velocity of the teams. However,
the teams will need to perform at least one sprint in order to calculate their actual velocity. The scenario suggests that
the project is still in planning; therefore, the teams will not have any performance data with which to calculate their
velocity.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 178, 217

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 111-112

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 146 of 200 Question ID: 6125158

The PMBOK® Guide defines project charter as a document that "formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides
the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities."

Developing project charters on agile projects:

A Must follow the PMBOK® Guide processes

B Must not follow the PMBOK® Guide processes

C Is not required because Agile is paperless

D Does not necessarily require a formal document

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
As a rule of thumb, choices with absolute statements such as 'never, 'always', 'must, etc., typically constitute incorrect
answers. Which of the remaining two choices makes more sense?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Be suspicious when you see answer choices with absolute statements such as 'never, 'always', 'must', etc. With some
exceptions, choices containing these words represent incorrect answers. It's not a MUST to follow the PMBOK® Guide
process while developing a project charter on an agile project. On the other hand, there is nothing that stops you from
following the PMBOK® Guide process to develop a charter on an agile project. Agile is paperless is a made-up statement.
Theoretically, you can go paperless on agile, but it is hard to see how this would be implemented in real-life situations.

While not ideal, the only correct choice is the one that states that agile projects do not necessarily require a formal document
that represents a project charter. As stated by the authors in one of the references provided, "There are two ways to develop
a project charter in an agile environment. One is to continue along the traditional route of preparing the paperwork needed in
order to obtain approval. The other way presumes that either provisional funding has been awarded or that tacit approval has
already occurred without the need for internal paperwork."

/
Details for Each Option:

A Must follow the PMBOK® Guide processes

Incorrect. Developing a project charter on an agile project may or may not follow the PMBOK® Guide processes. It
depends on the organization’s policies and procedures as well as the approach chosen for the specific project. Even
traditional projects are not supposed blindly follow the processes specified in the PMBOK® Guide.

B Must not follow the PMBOK® Guide processes

Incorrect. Developing a project charter on an agile project may or may not follow the PMBOK® Guide processes. It
depends on the organization’s policies and procedures as well as the approach chosen for the specific project. If the
organization decides to follow the PMBOK® Guide, then saying that developing a project charter on an agile project
must not follow the PMBOK® Guide processes would be an incorrect statement.

C Is not required because Agile is paperless

Incorrect. While it's true that agile projects typically have less documentation than traditional projects (whether actual
documents or digital ones), agile is not paperless. This is a made-up statement.

D Does not necessarily require a formal document

Correct. In some instances, agile projects do not require formal documents when it comes to project charters.
Examples include, but are not limited to, teams that accept contracts from outside sources, teams that are working on
special projects, teams that are working in smaller organizations.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 49-50

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Develop Project Charter

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 147 of 200 Question ID: 6112636

You are leading an agile project to develop a computer game, which will be broken down into four releases. After the first
release, the initial online reviews are poor, and the early adopters have provided detailed feedback about what they don't like
about the game. You are concerned about the impact of the poor reviews on future releases.

What is the best course of action?

A Hold a release retrospective

B Terminate the project

C Discuss the issue with the project sponsor

D Expedite the delivery of the second release

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which option represents an action that supports continuous improvement?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Early adopters are project stakeholders. Stakeholders should be kept engaged throughout the project life cycle. The question
implies the project manager is performing the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process. Meetings are among the tools and
techniques used in this process. Types of meetings include status meetings, standup meetings, retrospectives, and any other
meetings as agreed upon in the stakeholder engagement plan to monitor and assess stakeholder engagement levels. A
retrospective is a scheduled review to record lessons learned. The project manager should hold a release retrospective to
analyze the feedback that has been provided by the early adopters and take necessary actions to improve the product (the
computer game) in the upcoming releases. The knowledge gained should then be captured in the lessons learned register
and used in the current project as well as entered into the lessons learned repository for use in future projects. Therefore, of
the available options, the best course of action for the project manager is to hold a retrospective to analyze the feedback that
has been provided and incorporate the knowledge gained into future releases.

Note, the fact the scenario describes an agile project does not change the correct answer. Holding retrospectives (or lessons
learned meetings) is a good practice that can be adopted by any project regardless of the project management methodology
used. /
Details for Each Option:

A Hold a release retrospective

Correct. A retrospective is a scheduled review to record lessons learned. The project manager should hold a release
retrospective to analyze the feedback that has been provided by the early adopters and incorporate the knowledge
gained into future releases.

B Terminate the project

Incorrect. If the gaming community rejects the game, then the project may be terminated before delivering the final
release. However, terminating the project at this point in the project is a premature action. The project manager should
seek to understand the feedback that has already been provided and use the knowledge gained to incorporate into
future releases.

C Discuss the issue with the project sponsor

Incorrect. The project sponsor may or may not need to be notified of the initial customer reviews depending on what is
documented in the communications management plan. However, discussing the matter with the project sponsor will not
better align the game design with the expectations of the gaming community.

D Expedite the delivery of the second release

Incorrect. Expediting delivery of the second release without addressing feedback provided by the early adopters of the
game for the first release will unlikely make the game better. It may lead to even worse results, a waste of the project
resources, and eventually to the project termination.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 535

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 148 of 200 Question ID: 6151381

Your company was awarded a software development project. You have just drafted the scope management plan and
submitted it to the sponsor for her initial review. The sponsor reviews the plan and states that the client specified the use of
Scrum, while according to the plan, the scope will be delivered using waterfall project management practices.

Which component of the project management plan should you correct?

A Project life cycle description

B Development approach

C Requirements management plan

D The contract with the client

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which input for the Plan Scope Management process specifies the development framework for the project?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The scope management plan is created as an output of the Plan Scope Management process. The question indicates that
the project requirements specified by the client included the use of Scrum as a development methodology, while the scope
management plan reflects a waterfall framework. The components of the project management plan that may serve as inputs
into the Plan Scope Management process typically include the quality management plan, project life cycle description, and
development approach. The development approach defines whether waterfall, iterative, adaptive, agile, or a hybrid
development approach will be used on the project. Scrum is an example of an agile methodology. Therefore, according to the
scenario, it is reasonable to assume that the development approach indicated in the project management plan mistakenly
called for waterfall instead of Scrum. Hence, the development approach is the component of the project management plan
that should be corrected.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Project life cycle description
Incorrect. The project life cycle determines the series of phases that a project passes through from its inception to the
end of the project. Whereas, the question is asking about the development approach (Scrum versus waterfall) rather
than the use of phases.

B Development approach
Correct. The development approach is considered an element of the project management plan. The development
approach defines whether waterfall, iterative, adaptive, agile, or a hybrid development approach will be used on the
project. Scrum is an example of an agile methodology.

C Requirements management plan

Incorrect. The question suggests that you are carrying out the Plan Scope Management process. The two outputs of
this process include the scope management plan and the requirements management plan. Thus, the requirements
management plan cannot serve as an input into the process in which it is created.

D The contract with the client

Incorrect. The contract with the client should contain any requirements for a particular development approach for the
project. However, the question is asking about a component of the project management plan. The contract with the
client is not a component of that plan.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 135,137

/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 149 of 200 Question ID: 6113546

A member of an agile project team gathered data about the project and discovered an opportunity for improvement. The team
member thinks that a change to the process used by the team to develop the product of the project would improve team
performance. The team member approaches the scrum master for advice on the best way to implement the change.

What advice can the scrum master give to the team member?

A Make the change, see what happens, then report the results during the upcoming retrospective meeting

B Submit a change request, wait for the approval of the change control board, and implement the change

C Send an email to the functional manager to report the findings and ask for permission to make the change

D Inform the team of the opportunity for improvement and, if the team supports it, implement the change

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Careful consideration of agile values in terms of individual roles and responsibilities as a member of an empowered team
should help you answer this question.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In addition to the initiative and creative thinking, incremental implementation of continuous improvements (Kaizen) requires a
climate of trust, mutual respect, self-control, loyalty, and responsibility to colleagues and teammates. Because agile teams
are empowered at the team level to define, implement, and maintain their own processes and procedures, any unilateral
action taken by a team member, even as a measure of process improvement, carries a risk of breaking dependencies.
Therefore, before implementing a change, it is important to involve others on an empowered team, in order to have their full
commitment, trust, and support.

Details for Each Option:

A Make the change, see what happens, then report the results during the upcoming retrospective meeting
/
 Incorrect. Unilaterally implementing a change in the team process could undermine the success of the team's efforts
and negatively affect trust. Additionally, the benefits of the change are based on the opinion of only one team member.
Since the change would affect the process used by the entire team, the team should be consulted first to ensure
everybody is on the same page.

B Submit a change request, wait for the approval of the change control board, and implement the change
Incorrect. The scenario describes an agile project. Unless stated otherwise in the scenario, change control boards are
typically not used on agile projects.

C Send an email to the functional manager to report the findings and ask for permission to make the change
Incorrect. A functional manager (assuming the team member has one) may be in a position to offer advice, but is not
necessarily empowered to make decisions or give permissions to the team members who have been assigned to an
agile project.

D Inform the team of the opportunity for improvement and, if the team supports it, implement the change
Correct. Bringing up the opportunity for an improved process used by the team to develop the product demonstrates
proper agile best practices, fosters trust, loyalty, and collaboration.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 39

Effective Project Management: Traditional, Agile, Extreme, Fifth Edition, Robert K. Wysocki, 2009, Participatory Decision-
Making

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 150 of 200 Question ID: 6112626

As project execution begins, the project manager acquires the project team and, based on project needs, decides that the
team will use Scrum to develop the product of the project. After conducting an assessment of the project team's Scrum
skillset, the project manager realizes that according to the Shu-Ha-Ri model, the team is at the Shu level.

What should the project manager recommend to the team?

A Request project termination

B Modify Scrum to fit the project needs

C Develop a new agile method

D Closely follow Scrum ceremonies

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
At the Shu level, the project team has little, if any, experience with the Scrum framework.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The scenario states that the project team is at the Shu level of the Shu-Ha-Ri model with respect to the Scrum framework.
The Shu-Ha-Ri model describes the progression of skills acquisition by an individual or group. The Shu level indicates, in this
case, that the project team lacks proficiency with the Scrum framework, and they should follow the rules as set forth in Scrum.
Once the project team has acquired sufficient expertise with the Scrum framework, they can progress beyond the Shu level
and begin to customize the approach to better suit the needs of the project and project team. Therefore, of the available
choices, the best approach for the project manager is to follow the scrum ceremonies as close as possible.

Note, the way the scenario is worded implies that the project at its higher level is managed using predictive/traditional
methods, while the team is using (or will use) Scrum to develop the product of the project. This means the project as a whole
is carried out using a hybrid project management approach.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Request project termination
Incorrect. Terminating the project is an overreaction. The Shu level of the Shu-Ha-Ri model indicates that the project
team has little knowledge of the Scrum framework. Providing training to the team and/or following an established
method is a better approach than terminating the project.

B Modify Scrum to fit the project needs

Incorrect. Once an individual or team has progressed to the Ha level of the Shu-Ha-Ri model, it is appropriate to begin
to consciously move away from the rules and begin tailoring the approach. However, the question states that the team
is still at the Shu level, meaning that they should follow the rules until their Scrum skills have progressed.

C Develop a new agile method

Incorrect. Developing a new agile method would imply that the project team has reached the Ri level of the Shu-Ha-Ri
model. However, the question states that the project team is still at the Shu level. Thus, the project team is not likely to
possess the necessary skill set to develop a new agile approach that will better meet project needs.

D Closely follow Scrum ceremonies

Correct. The Shu level of the Shu-Ha-Ri model, as it pertains to this scenario, indicates that the project team has little, if
any, knowledge of the Scrum framework. At the Shu level, the individual or team should follow the Scrum guidelines as
close as possible.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 119

Agile Software Development: The Cooperative Game, Second Edition, 2007, Shu-Ha-Ri

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 151 of 200 Question ID: 6112703

For the third consecutive time, at the end of each iteration, a software application developed by the team fails during the
Control Quality process conducted by the quality assurance (QA) department. This situation causes rework for the product
and a delay in the project schedule. The project manager wants to reduce the feedback loop to the shortest possible interval.

What is the best course of action for the project manager?

A Shorten the iteration length

B Reduce the size of the user stories

C Revise the schedule baseline

D Suggest pair programming to the team

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which answer choice represents a technique from eXtreme Programming (XP)?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The scenario describes a hybrid project in which some of the elements are managed using a predictive/traditional project
management approach (the schedule baseline, the Control Quality process, the dedicated QA department) while others are
managed using agile (the product is developed over the course of several iterations). Pair programming is an agile software
development technique from eXtreme Programming (XP) in which two developers work side-by-side in tandem at the same
workstation. While one programmer writes the code, the other reviews the code as it is entered. The two then switch roles
frequently. With pair programming, the feedback loop is immediate. If a developer enters a coding error, their partner has the
opportunity to catch the error where it can be fixed immediately. Thus, of the available responses, pair programming offers
the feedback loop with the shortest interval.

Details for Each Option:

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A Shorten the iteration length
Incorrect. While shortening the iteration length would allow the team to gain feedback from the QA department earlier in
comparison to the current cadence, agile best practices discourage changing the iteration length in the middle of a
project.

B Reduce the size of the user stories

Incorrect. Since the testing is done at the end of each iteration, reducing the size of the user stories would not progress
work items from development to testing quicker. The QA department would still have to wait until all the user stories in
the iteration are completed whether the user stories are big, medium, or small. Additionally, it's up to the team, not the
project manager, to determine whether a user story should be split.

C Revise the schedule baseline

Incorrect. According to the scenario, there are already delays to the project schedule. Therefore, it is reasonable to
assume that the schedule baseline will need to be revised. However, this action would not shorten the feedback loop,
as requested by the question.

D Suggest pair programming to the team

Correct. Pair programming is an agile software development technique in which two developers work side-by-side: one
programmer writes the code, the other reviews the code as it is entered. In this manner, the feedback loop is immediate
and is the shortest of any other available options.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 102

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, XP

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 152 of 200 Question ID: 6113364

Midway into project execution, a key stakeholder leaves the company. A new stakeholder fills in the vacant role. The project
manager understands that the stakeholder engagement plan should be updated to reflect the strategies and actions required
to involve the new stakeholder in the project. The project manager meets with the new stakeholder for an interview.

Which of the following questions would be the most helpful for the project manager in updating the plan? (Choose four)

A Have you ever managed a project before?

B How much risk are you willing to take for an anticipated benefit?

C What position did you hold in your previous company?

D What are your communication preferences?

E Do you have any lessons learned to share from your previous projects?

F Do you think it was the right thing to undertake the project?

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which information serves as input or is a tool and technique in the plan stakeholder engagement process? Which information
is likely to be found elsewhere?

Correct Answer: B,D,E,F

Explanation:

When a stakeholder leaves a project or when a new stakeholder joins the project, an iteration of the Identify Stakeholders
process as well as the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process takes place. Meetings are an example of the tools and
techniques that can be used as part of both processes. A meeting between the project manager and the new key stakeholder
can take the form of an interview allowing both parties to get to know each other and set expectations for the project. The
questions asked during the interview should be designed in a way that would help the project manager identify the inputs of
the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process as it relates to this particular stakeholder. For example, stakeholder's risk
/
appetites, stakeholder's communication preferences, lessons that the stakeholder has learned from past projects, level of
stakeholder's support for the project are among the inputs that can be used by the project manager in the process of updating
the stakeholder engagement plan.

Details for Each Option:

A Have you ever managed a project before?

Incorrect. The new stakeholder joins the project to replace another stakeholder, not the project manager. Therefore,
while the project management experience may come in handy, it is not required for and is unlikely to be a factor in
updating the stakeholder engagement plan as requested by the scenario.

B ✓How much risk are you willing to take for an anticipated benefit?
Correct. Stakeholder risk appetites are among the enterprise environmental factors (EEFs) that can be used as an
input to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process implied by the scenario. Risk appetite is an important input because
it can have a direct impact on the risk management strategies applied throughout the course of the project.

C What position did you hold in your previous company?

Incorrect. It is unlikely that the answer to this question will have a significant (if any) impact on the stakeholder
engagement process implied by the scenario or would require an update to the stakeholder engagement plan.
Therefore, this question can be considered irrelevant.

D ✓What are your communication preferences?

Correct. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Communications Management are two Knowledge Areas that
often intertwined. Understanding the communication requirements, needs, and preferences of a stakeholder can help
plan effective communication with that stakeholder as well as help in proper stakeholder involvement in the project.

E ✓Do you have any lessons learned to share from your previous projects?
Correct. Lessons learned from previous projects are organizational process assets (OPAs) that serve as an input to the
process of planning stakeholder engagement. Whether the new stakeholder comes from within the organization or
outside of it, lessons learned are valuable assets that may help the current project team learn from others' mistakes.

F ✓Do you think it was the right thing to undertake the project?
Correct. By asking this question, the project manager can determine how much support and awareness for the project
the stakeholder has. This kind of information can be tracked in the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, a key
tool in carrying out the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process implied by the scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) - Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 516-522

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 153 of 200 Question ID: 6112345

While performing monitoring and controlling activities, the project manager discovers inconsistencies between the project
management plan and the project's actual performance. She now needs to determine corrective actions to minimize the
impact of the inconsistencies on the project.

In what project document would she have documented the inconsistencies and would look at to review them?

A Quality report

B Change log

C Assumption log

D Issue log

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What are inconsistencies?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Inconsistencies are also known as issues. An issue log is a record of problems, gaps, inconsistencies, and conflicts that
require action, so they do not impact project performance. In this scenario, the project manager would have logged the
inconsistencies in the issue log, which she would then review to perform corrective action. The other answer choices can be
eliminated because inconsistencies are not changes or assumptions, and a quality report is an output of the Manage Quality
process, while the scenario states the project manager is performing monitoring and controlling activities.

Details for Each Option:

A Quality report

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 Incorrect. Quality reports provide information that can be used by other processes and departments to take corrective
actions in order to achieve the project quality expectations. Quality reports are an output of the Manage Quality process
which belongs to the Executing Process Group, while the scenario states that the project manager is performing
monitoring and controlling activities. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.

B Change log
Incorrect. A change log is a comprehensive list of change requests submitted during the project and their current
status. The disposition of all change requests is recorded in the change log as a project document update. The
scenario describes inconsistencies (or 'issues') and not change requests, and therefore the change log is an incorrect
answer.

C Assumption log
Incorrect. An assumption log is first created as part of the Develop Project Charter process as a project document used
to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project life cycle. Inconsistencies are not assumptions, making
this answer choice incorrect.

D Issue log
Correct. The issue log is a project document where all the issues are recorded and tracked. The issue log will help the
project manager effectively track and manage issues, ensuring that they are investigated and resolved. The issue log is
updated as a result of monitoring and controlling activities throughout the project's life cycle. Therefore, the issue log is
the document where the project manager would have documented the inconsistencies (or 'issues') and would look at to
review them, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 96

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 154 of 200 Question ID: 6112272

As the project manager, you are in the process of developing a draft of a document that authorizes a new software
development project. You have reviewed the agreements and both business documents.

What else should be done as part of this process?

A Identify stakeholders and prepare the stakeholder register

B Study the governance functions and processes to provide guidance and decision making

C Update the business documents to correct any errors

D Review the benefits management plan

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
You, as the project manager, are developing the project charter.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario describes a project manager who is developing a draft of the project charter, implying the Develop Project
Charter process is carried out. One of the typical activities performed while developing the charter is to review organizational
process assets (OPAs), which may influence this process. One of the OPAs is the project governance framework which often
provides information about the governance functions, processes, that are important when making decisions that are relevant
to the project charter.

One may argue that a stakeholder register can be created at the same time the project charter is developed and approved.
While it's true, the question is asking to select the answer choice that represents an action performed 'during this process'.
Since the scenario describes the Develop Project Charter process, any action that is associated with 'this process' would be a
better option than an action associated with 'another process', even if that process can be done in parallel with the one
described in the scenario. Therefore, as we always recommend selecting the best answer of those provided, studying the
governance functions and processes to provide guidance and decision making is a better answer choice than identifying
stakeholders and preparing the stakeholder register since the former is associated with the inputs to the Develop Project
Charter process while the latter is not even part of this process.
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Details for Each Option:

A Identify stakeholders and prepare the stakeholder register

Incorrect. The question implies that you, as the project manager, are conducting the Develop Project Charter process.
The stakeholder register is developed during the Identify Stakeholders process and not the Develop Project Charter
process.

B Study the governance functions and processes to provide guidance and decision making
Correct. The project governance framework is part of the organizational process assets (OPA), which serve as an input
into the Develop Project Charter process.

C Update the business documents to correct any errors

Incorrect. The project manager may make recommendations but does not update or modify the business documents
since they are not project documents.

D Review the benefits management plan

Incorrect. The benefits management plan and business case comprise the business documents, and the question
states that these documents have already been reviewed.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 79, 545

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

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Question 155 of 200 Question ID: 6112505

You have just been assigned to an upcoming agile project. As part of pre-project work, you review all of the organization's
policies and procedures regarding compliance. You realize that only some of them may be applicable to your project.

What should you do first?

A Switch the project management approach from agile to traditional

B Incorporate all compliance policies and procedures in the implementation strategy

C Ensure compliance activities are included in the project schedule baseline

D Classify the compliance categories to determine the expenditure of project resources

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What action might help maximize the work not done?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The scenario describes a situation where only some compliance-related policies and procedures for an agile project will be
applicable. One of the principles outlined in the Agile Manifesto states, "Simplicity - the art of maximizing the amount of work
not done - is essential." Compliance activities represent overhead, which does not directly provide value. In keeping with an
agile mindset, the project manager should minimize the overhead and only include those compliance activities that are
necessary. Classifying the compliance categories is one of the tasks associated with the Business Environment domain of the
Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline. Classifying the compliance categories that have
been captured in the organization's policies and procedures may be helpful in differentiating those that require the
expenditure of resources and those that do not. For example, the organization may have specific guidelines for complying
with union rules and activities. However, if the project underway will not have union involvement, then that entire compliance
category can be disregarded.

Details for Each Option:

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A Switch the project management approach from agile to traditional
Incorrect. The selection of a project management framework should be based upon the needs of the project rather than
simply compliance activities. Compliance can be effectively addressed by any project management framework.

B Incorporate all compliance policies and procedures in the implementation strategy

Incorrect. According to the scenario, only some of the organization's policies and procedures regarding compliance will
be applicable to the project. There is no reason to develop strategies for the policies and procedures that do not apply
to the project. This action would be inconsistent with the agile principle of maximizing the amount of work not done.

C Ensure compliance activities are included in the project schedule baseline

Incorrect. A schedule baseline is typically used on projects lead by predictive project management approach, while the
scenario describes an agile project.

D Classify the compliance categories to determine the expenditure of project resources

Correct. Classifying the compliance categories that have been captured in the organization's policies and procedures
may be helpful in differentiating those that require the expenditure of resources and those that do not.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 8-9

Agile Project Management, Second Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Delivery versus Compliance

Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline, Project Management Institute Inc., June 2019,
Domain 3, Task 1

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 156 of 200 Question ID: 6112292

A project manager is drafting a charter for a software development project. In support of this process, the project manager
has scheduled a brainstorming meeting to gather relevant information.

Which of the following activities is the project manager least likely to conduct?

A Inviting relevant stakeholders to attend the meeting

B Ensuring that a software engineer joins the meeting

C Arranging for a facilitator to lead the meeting

D Following the communications management plan to determine meeting attendees

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which answer choice represents an activity that can only occur later in the project?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question states that the project charter is being developed, which occurs during project initiation. Brainstorming is a data
gathering technique which may be useful in the development of the project charter. Brainstorming is a specialized meeting led
by a facilitator which can be used to gather data and solutions or ideas from stakeholders, subject matter experts, and team
members when developing the project charter. Note, the question is asking for the activity which is 'least' likely to be
conducted during the development of the project charter. The communications management plan is not created until later in
the project during the Plan Communications Management process. Therefore, the project manager would not be able to
follow the communications management plan in determining the meeting attendees, making this the 'least' likely activity to be
conducted in this scenario.

Details for Each Option:

A Inviting relevant stakeholders to attend the meeting

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 Incorrect. A stakeholder is an individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be
affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project. Since stakeholders have a vested interest in the project, it may
be beneficial to seek their feedback to incorporate into the project charter.

B Ensuring that a software engineer joins the meeting

Incorrect. A software engineer can be considered a subject matter expert. Since the project in this scenario involves
software development, a software engineer will be able to provide technical insights that may influence the
development of the project charter.

C Arranging for a facilitator to lead the meeting

Incorrect. A brainstorming session is conducted in a group environment. To ensure the meeting is run effectively and
kept on track, arranging for a facilitator to lead the meeting is likely to be one of the actions taken by the project
manager.

D Following the communications management plan to determine meeting attendees

Correct. The question states that the project charter is being developed which occurs during project initiation. The
communications management plan is not created until later in the project during the Plan Communications
Management process.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 80

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 157 of 200 Question ID: 6113201

You have been provided a list of concerns some stakeholders have with your project. You meet with them to address the
concerns in hopes of gaining their support and cooperation. You pay close attention by actively and effectively listening. You
focus on each person's input to ensure you are aware of and are taking all perspectives into consideration. You then clearly
articulate your point and your position and ask for their support.

Which tool or technique best describes the skills you are using?

A Influencing

B Team performance assessments

C Conflict management

D Emotional intelligence

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The question references key skills included in this technique which can assist project managers in resolving issues promptly
and obtaining needed resources.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Influencing skills is a component of interpersonal and team skills which is a tool and technique used in the Manage Team
process. Influencing skills are often critical to the success of a project in a matrix environment because of the limited authority
project managers have in those environments. Influencing skills can help the project manager obtain resources and solve
issues promptly. Vital influencing skills include an ability to be persuasive, clearly articulating points and positions, high levels
of active and effective listening, awareness of, and consideration for, the various perspectives in any situation, and gathering
relevant information to address issues and reach agreements while maintaining mutual trust.

The PMBOK® Guide groups many process tools and techniques, like influencing skills, based on their purpose. Useful
information and tables that categorize these tools and techniques by group and tie them to their respective process can be
found using the included page reference.

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Details for Each Option:

A Influencing
Correct. Influencing is one of 17 interpersonal and team skills tools and techniques within the Manage Team process.
This question demonstrates the use of many of the key influencing skills, including but not limited to, active and
effective listening, clearly articulating points and positions, and others.

B Team performance assessments

Incorrect. Team performance assessments are inputs to but are not tools and techniques of the Manage Team process.
Additionally, in the scenario, you are not assessing the performance of your project team. Rather, you are working with
the stakeholders to address their concerns and gain their support and cooperation.

C Conflict management
Incorrect. Conflict management is a tool or technique in the Manage Team process. When conflict is appropriately
managed, it can lead to improved productivity and working relationships. However, this question does not indicate that
there is conflict, it merely describes a meeting to address stakeholder concerns.

D Emotional intelligence
Incorrect. Although emotional intelligence can be used as a tool in this situation, it is not the 'best' answer. Actions
described in the question go beyond the definition of emotional intelligence, assessing and managing emotions, and
apply more specifically to characteristics of the influencing tool or technique.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 350, 685-694

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

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Question 158 of 200 Question ID: 6150109

You are leading a software development project using agile methodologies. If the project is successful, it will open up vast
opportunities for future revenue and growth. The project has a high risk of failure, but the potential benefits outweigh the risks.
These risks and rewards must be considered when selecting the content of each iteration.

Which features should be prioritized and developed first in this scenario?

A High-value and low-risk features

B Low-value and low-risk features

C High-value and high-risk features

D Low-value and high-risk features

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
An important concept in agile is 'fast failure' which suggests that if a project is going to fail, it is better to fail early in the project
life cycle when fewer resources have been expended.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In agile projects, a backlog is a list of features, or requirements, to be developed. The features are first prioritized and then
developed accordingly. When prioritizing a backlog, risks and value are typically the primary considerations (aside from legal
or other requirements). The backlog must be prioritized and reprioritized throughout the project to determine what to include
in each iteration. High-value features should be prioritized first as not all features are likely to be developed due to project
constraints. Agile projects generate revenue by releasing product increments to the market with the high-value features first
while lower priority features are still being developed.

Risks must also be considered when prioritizing the product backlog. High-risk features should be prioritized over lower risk
ones. When there is a risk of failure, as in this case, it is better to fail earlier in the project rather than later when more project
resources have been expended. Additionally, the development of high-risk features is more likely to cause rework.
Developing high-risk features earlier may reduce the amount of rework required.

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It is important to remember that a feature’s risk and value profile may change during the project life cycle and will require
monitoring for possible reprioritization.

Therefore, of the available choices, the high-value and high-risk features should be prioritized and developed first in this
scenario.

Details for Each Option:

A High-value and low-risk features

Incorrect. High-value and low-risk features should be prioritized after the high-value and high-risk features. Although
these features might provide as much value as the high-value and high-risk features, they have less risk. High-risk
features carry an inherent risk of failure for the project and it is more cost effective to fail early rather than later in the
project.

B Low-value and low-risk features

Incorrect. Low-value features are prioritized after all high-value features. With agile projects, it is likely that some
features will not be developed given the project constraints. It is best to give these features a lower priority because of
the greater likelihood that they will generate less revenue and, therefore, would not be included in the final product.

C High-value and high-risk features

Correct. High-value and high-risk features should be developed first. These features deliver the most value to the
project. Additionally, the high-risk features should be prioritized over low-risk features because, among other reasons,
high-risk features are far more likely to cause the project to fail. If a project is going to fail, it is better to fail earlier in the
project when fewer resources have been expended.

D Low-value and high-risk features

Incorrect. Low-value and high-risk features should be avoided whenever possible. If there is little value in a feature, it
does not make sense to assume a substantial risk in developing it.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 400

PMI-ACP Exam Prep 2nd edition by Mike Griffiths and Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Risk Management.

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

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Question 159 of 200 Question ID: 6112144

A project manager is developing a quality management plan for a project to design a medical device. Given the nature of the
product, quality will play a vital role. Additionally, the acceptance criteria for the project deliverables will have a direct impact
on quality standards. The project manager wants to gain an understanding of the acceptance criteria.

What document should the project manager review for this purpose?

A The project charter

B The requirements management plan

C The scope statement

D The acceptance criteria register

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The correct answer is the component of the project management plan that describes the project's major deliverables along
with assumptions and constraints.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The question states that the quality management plan is being developed, which indicates that the Plan Quality Management
process is underway. One of the inputs for the Plan Quality Management process is the scope baseline. The WBS, along with
the deliverables documented in the project scope statement, is considered while determining which quality standards and
objectives are suitable for the project, and which project deliverables and processes will be subjected to quality review. The
scope statement includes the acceptance criteria for the deliverables. The definition of acceptance criteria may significantly
increase or decrease quality costs and, therefore, project costs. Therefore, of the choices provided, to gain a clear
understanding of the acceptance criteria for the project, the project manager should review the scope statement.

Details for Each Option:

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A The project charter
Incorrect. The project charter will have the key deliverables of the project as well as project exit criteria among its other
components. However, the project charter would not include the acceptance criteria for project deliverables.

B The requirements management plan

Incorrect. The requirements management plan provides the approach for identifying, analyzing, and managing the
requirements that the quality management plan and quality metrics will reference. However, the requirements
management plan is not a source for the acceptance criteria, making this an incorrect response.

C The scope statement

Correct. The scope statement includes the acceptance criteria for the deliverables, making this option the correct
choice.

D The acceptance criteria register

Incorrect. The 'acceptance criteria register' is a made-up term.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 279

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

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Question 160 of 200 Question ID: 6112754

A project manager has just received a signed formalized document as an output from one of the initiation processes in her
project. This document was prepared by someone external to the project and will be utilized as a catalyst for the project to
move forward.

Which of the following describes this document?

A The business case

B The scope statement

C The project charter

D The approved project plan

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which document formally authorizes the existence of a project?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The project charter is a document developed during the Initiating Process Group that formally authorizes the existence of a
project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. In other
words, the project charter is utilized as a catalyst for the project to move forward which is what is described in the scenario.
The project charter is typically developed by an entity external to the project, such as the project initiator or sponsor, and is
the primary output of the Develop Project Charter process. For these reasons, the project charter is the best answer to the
question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A The business case

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 Incorrect. The business case is a feasibility study that determines whether the project is economically advantageous to
the company. The business case lists the reasons and objectives for project initiation and is an input to the Develop
Project Charter process. The development of the business case precedes the initiation process of a project and
therefore cannot be an output of an initiation process.

B The scope statement

Incorrect. The scope statement is a detailed description of the project and the product the project will deliver. As an
output of the Define Scope process, which is a planning process, the scope statement is developed by the project team
and not someone external to the project.

C The project charter

Correct. The project charter is a document developed during the Initiating Process Group that formally authorizes the
existence of a project. An output of the Develop Project Charter process, the project charter is issued by someone
external to the project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project
activities. Therefore, the project charter is the correct answer to the question asked.

D The approved project plan

Incorrect. The term 'approved project plan' typically refers to the project management plan which defines the way a
project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed. The project management plan is developed during the
Planning Process Group by the project manager and the project team and, therefore, does not describe the document
mentioned in the scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 75-78

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

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Question 161 of 200 Question ID: 6112155

You are attempting to coordinate activities between your project, another related project, and operations, all of which are
being managed as a group. A conflict has arisen over control of a key resource that is vital to both projects as well as
operations. The conflict has reached an impasse and needs to be resolved by a higher authority.

What is your best course of action?

A Discuss the problem with the portfolio manager

B Escalate the issue to the operations manager

C Raise the issue with the other project manager

D Request help from the project management office

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which role has direct responsibility for projects, programs, and operations?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The question describes a situation where a problem needs to be addressed by someone that is responsible for projects,
programs, and operations being managed as a group. A portfolio is a collection of projects, programs, and operations
managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives. Only a portfolio manager has direct responsibility for projects, programs,
and operations. Therefore, discussing the problem with the portfolio manager is the best course of action in this scenario.

Details for Each Option:

A Discuss the problem with the portfolio manager

Correct. The question suggests that the conflict needs to be addressed by someone that is responsible for projects,
programs, and operations. Only a portfolio manager has direct responsibility for all three of these areas.
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B Escalate the issue to the operations manager
Incorrect. Based on the scenario, the conflict has reached an impasse, which implies that further discussion with the
operations manager will not resolve the issue. Additionally, the question indicates that the conflict will need to be
escalated to someone with authority over projects and operations, and an operations manager is not likely to have
authority for project execution.

C Raise the issue with the other project manager

Incorrect. The question states that the conflict is at an impasse, which suggests that further discussion with the other
project manager is futile. Additionally, the question implies that the issue needs to be escalated to someone with
authority over projects, programs, and operations being managed as a group. A project manager is not likely to oversee
programs and operations as part of their regular duties.

D Request help from the project management office

Incorrect. The project management office (PMO) is a management structure that standardizes the project-related
governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques. While the PMO
may help (depending on its role in the organization) with settling the conflict between the projects, the PMO would
unlikely have the authority over operations.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 13, 15

To learn more about this topic, please watch the following video:

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/
PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 162 of 200 Question ID: 6112081

On a project you are managing, the development of the application for a client is complete. You need to transfer the final
product to your client.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate technique to transfer ownership of the application to your client?

A Brainstorming session

B Meeting

C Focus group

D Interview

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Three incorrect answer choices are data-gathering techniques.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Three of the answer choices are data-gathering techniques, which can be eliminated because they would not be appropriate
ways to 'give' or transfer ownership of deliverables. A meeting is the only technique listed that would allow for a 'give-and-
take' understanding that you have relinquished ownership, and the client has accepted ownership of the final delivery of the
product (the application). The PMBOK® Guide does not explicitly state that meetings are used to transfer the ownership of
deliverables to clients. However, it does indicate that meetings can be used to confirm that the deliverables have been
accepted, to validate that the exit criteria have been met, to formalize the completion of the contracts, etc. Additionally, since
transferring the ownership of deliverables to clients is one of the goals of the Close Project or Phase process, and meetings
are among the tools and techniques of that process, of the choices provided, meetings are the best answer to the question
asked.

Details for Each Option:

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A Brainstorming session
Incorrect. Brainstorming is a data-gathering technique is used to identify a list of ideas in a short period of time. The
brainstorming technique is a way to gather information and would not be the most appropriate technique to transfer
ownership of deliverables to the client.

B Meeting
Correct. Meetings are used by the project manager to communicate in real time with stakeholders. Holding a meeting
with the client ensures that all relevant information about the ownership 'handoff' is understood and that the transfer of
the final product is apparent. Depending on the requirements of the project management plan, the transfer of ownership
typically requires some formality, such as a sign-off document that records time, date and affirms acceptance of the
final product (i.e., ownership), which can be accomplished during the meeting.

C Focus group
Incorrect. Focus groups are a data-gathering technique used to bring together stakeholders and subject matter experts
to collect information pertinent to the project in a more conversational way than an interview. Focus groups, being a
data-gathering technique, would not be the most appropriate way for the owner to accept ownership of the application.

D Interview
Incorrect. An interview is a data-gathering technique used to obtain information from stakeholders by talking directly to
them. In this case, the transfer of ownership requires you giving up ownership and the client accepting ownership,
which does not coincide with the premise of the interviewing technique.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 127

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 163 of 200 Question ID: 6113819

Late in a project, a key team member leaves the company. The project manager realizes that he does not have enough team
members to meet the hard deadline. At a weekly status meeting, the project manager discusses several options with his
project team, including authorizing additional overtime, hiring subcontractors, or bringing in additional resources from another
project team within the company.

Which resource management technique does the project manager use?

A Cost-benefit analysis

B Alternatives analysis

C Problem solving

D Interpersonal skills

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which technique involves the evaluation of the different choices available to achieve a particular project
management objective?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

After analyzing several different options to determine which of those options will most help the team meet the objectives of
the project, the project manager is selecting a corrective action to address his resource needs. This method is an example of
alternatives analysis - a technique used in the Control Resources process. The other answer choices are also techniques
used in the Control Resources process but based on the specific actions being described in this scenario; alternatives
analysis emerges as the best choice.

Note, the PMBOK® Guide refers to Control Resource as a process concerned with physical resources, while the question
describes a scenario with human resources which is typically addressed by the Manage Team process. The fact the
alternatives analysis technique is associated with the Control Resource process and not the Manage Team process does not
mean the technique cannot be used in other processes to resolve issues the project manager is facing. In the scenario
provided, the discussion the project manager is having with the team members regarding different options such as
/
authorizing additional overtime, hiring subcontractors, or bringing in additional resources from another project team within the
company is best described by the alternatives analysis technique. Therefore, among the available choices, alternatives
analysis, while not ideal, is the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Cost-benefit analysis
Incorrect. This type of analysis focuses on determining the best corrective action in terms of cost, but there is no
indication from the question that cost was the major determining factor in the decision.

B Alternatives analysis
Correct. Alternatives analysis is a technique of the Control Resources process used to select the best resolution for
correcting variances in resource utilization. Alternatives may include paying additional for overtime or additional team
resources and weighing these alternatives against a late delivery or other factors.

C Problem solving
Incorrect. Problem solving involves taking methodical steps to deal with a problem. Those steps include: identifying,
investigating, and analyzing the problem; choosing a solution; and checking the solution to determine if the problem
has been fixed. In the scenario, the project manager is simply discussing various options. Nothing in the scenario
indicates that methodical steps to deal with a problem have been taken.

D Interpersonal skills
Incorrect. Interpersonal skills, which include negotiation and influencing skills, are not the primary techniques being
used in this scenario. The project manager is not negotiating with anyone for additional project resources or using
influencing to solve the problem. Therefore, this is not the best answer choice.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 356-357

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 164 of 200 Question ID: 6112211

You are leading a project to replace an aging bridge spanning a river in a heavily populated area. The new bridge would
include a pedestrian pathway, that is not a feature of the existing bridge. The bridge is well under construction when residents
learn the pathway would allow strangers to enter their neighborhood at all times. The residents demand the elimination of the
pathway.

What would have been the best course of action to avoid this situation?

A Identify the pathway as a possible point of contention with stakeholders early in the project

B Nothing could have been done differently because the project was authorized per the project charter

C Engage a public relations company to handle community outreach once local residents voiced their disapproval

D Reroute the pathway entrance during construction to an old railway trail instead of the local street

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The project manager should have been proactive.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The project team under the guidance of the project manager needs to be able to assess the project situation, balance the
demands, and maintain proactive communications with stakeholders in order to deliver a successful project. In this case, a
thorough assessment of the project's impact on all stakeholders early in the project life cycle may have identified the potential
resistance of the local residents to the pathway. Identifying potential issues early allows the project team to proactively
address the problems and implement strategies to resolve them to increase the prospect of project success.

Details for Each Option:

A Identify the pathway as a possible point of contention with stakeholders early in the project

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 Correct. By identifying the problem with the pathway early, the project team could have engaged the local residents
proactively and worked out a possible win-win solution for both parties.

B Nothing could have been done differently because the project was authorized per the project charter
Incorrect. Just because the project was authorized does not mean steps could not have been taken to avoid the
situation. The conflict could have been avoided if a proper assessment of the project's impact on the stakeholders was
conducted early in the project before the project management plan was approved so that the stakeholders' concerns
could have been heard and addressed.

C Engage a public relations company to handle community outreach once local residents voiced their disapproval
Incorrect. This answer choice is not the best answer because engaging a public relations company after the local
residents voice their disapproval is reactive and would not have 'avoided' the situation. The project manager and team
should be proactive whenever possible in identifying potential issues and dealing with them.

D Reroute the pathway entrance during construction to an old railway trail instead of the local street
Incorrect. Rerouting the entrance and exit points to another location may or may not resolve the local residents
immediate concern and very well could lead to another conflict with the local community. Therefore, this choice is not
the best answer to the question asked.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 35

To learn more about this topic, please watch the following video:

Please note, there is a typo on the slide at 16:02. It should read "Close Project or Phase".

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 165 of 200 Question ID: 6112025

You are preparing for an upcoming software development project. The project will be initiated and planned using a predictive
approach, while the development team will use Kanban. A budget has been established for training, and you need to
determine how to allocate those funds.

What is your best course of action?

A Send the development team to a seminar on maximizing WIP

B Provide training to transform T-shaped people into I-shaped people

C Deliver training to convert I-shaped people into T-shaped people

D Train the team on how to best prioritize the features to be developed

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What type of employee is capable of completing more tasks on a Kanban board?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The fact the project will be initiated and planned using a predictive approach, while the development team will use Kanban
(one of the agile methods), indicates that a hybrid management approach has been selected for the project. High performing
agile teams are cross-functional as they are comprised of T-shaped people (also known as generalizing specialists).
Generalizing specialists can perform a wider range of project tasks compared to I-shaped people (specialists). An agile team
of generalizing specialists will have greater flexibility, which will help avoid bottlenecks and increase throughput. Transforming
the development team from I-shaped to T-shaped should improve velocity. The incorrect answer choices represent actions
that would provide little to no value or would be counterproductive.

Details for Each Option:

A Send the development team to a seminar on maximizing WIP

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 Incorrect. One of the goals in Kanban is to maximize the value of a product delivered to the customer while minimizing
work in progress (WIP). One of the principles of the Agile Manifesto states, "Working software is the primary measure
of progress." Thus, WIP represents no value to the customer and should be minimized, not maximized.

B Provide training to transform T-shaped people into I-shaped people

Incorrect. T-shaped people may have a specialized skillset but are also able to perform a wide range of tasks beyond
their specialty. I-shaped people have specialized skillset but are limited to their specialty. T-shaped people offer the
project team more flexibility and greater redundancy. It would not make sense to transform T-shaped into I-shaped
people.

C Deliver training to convert I-shaped people into T-shaped people

Correct. T-shaped people are also known as generalizing specialists. Generalizing specialists can perform a broader
range of project tasks compared to I-shaped people (specialists).

D Train the team on how to best prioritize the features to be developed

Incorrect. With agile projects, it is the product owner, not the development team, who has the responsibility for
prioritizing the product backlog. Thus, training the team to better prioritize the features in the backlog would provide
little or no benefit.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 42

The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Acquiring a Project Team

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 166 of 200 Question ID: 6113174

A project team is using the Stacey Complexity Model to evaluate the degree of uncertainty in the project and select the
appropriate project life cycle. The team maps the technical degree of uncertainty on the horizontal axis and requirements'
uncertainty on the vertical axis. The resulting mapping suggests that a predictive life cycle would work best for this project.

Where on the Stacey Complexity Model did the team most likely map the project?

(Please note that on the real PMP exam you may be asked to provide your answer by clicking the correct area in the image.
But here in the simulator, we are asking you to select the answer below.)

A A
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B B

C C

D D

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What area represents the low degree of both technical uncertainty and uncertainty of requirements?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A project life cycle is the series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion. (Note, the word
"phase" in this context is used differently from how it's used in multi-phase projects). The project life cycle provides the basic
framework for managing the project. Predictive, iterative, incremental, adaptive, hybrid are examples of a project life cycle.
The selection of the life cycle depends on project characteristics. There are various models that can be used to describe
project characteristics. One of them is the Stacey Complexity Model. The model addresses the degree of uncertainty as it
relates to the project requirements on the one hand and how to fulfill those requirements using current knowledge and
technology on the other hand. The technical degree of uncertainty is mapped on the horizontal axis, and the uncertainty of
requirements is on the vertical axis. According to the model, as project uncertainty increases along any of those dimensions,
so too does the risk of rework and the need to use a different project management approach.

When project requirements, as well as the technology to implement these requirements, are clear, the predictive project life
cycle is typically the way to go. As the degree of uncertainty increases, the likelihood of changes, risk, and rework increases
as well. Such projects would benefit from either iterative, incremental, adaptive, or hybrid life cycles. When both the technical
degree of uncertainty and the degree of uncertainty in project requirements is very high, a project is considered chaos (or
anarchy). Managing such a project is very hard to impossible.

In the scenario, the project team selects a predictive life cycle, implying the project has been mapped within area A, which
represents the low degree of both technical uncertainty and requirements uncertainty.

Details for Each Option:

A A
Correct. Area A represents a low degree of both technical uncertainty and requirements uncertainty. Projects that are
mapped within this area are referred to as simple projects and would benefit from a predictive life cycle. In the scenario,
the team selects the predictive life cycle, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.

B B
Incorrect. Area B represents a low-to-medium degree of both technical uncertainty and requirements uncertainty.
Projects that are mapped within this area are referred to as complicated projects and would benefit from one of the
adaptive life cycles. In the scenario, the team selects the predictive life cycle, making this choice an incorrect answer.

C C
Incorrect. Area C represents projects with one uncertainty aspect being high and the other uncertainty aspect being
low-to-medium. Projects that are mapped within this area are referred to as complex projects and would benefit from an
adaptive life cycle. In the scenario, the team selects the predictive life cycle, making this choice an incorrect answer.

D D
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 Incorrect. Area B represents a high degree of both technical uncertainty and requirements uncertainty. Projects that are
mapped within this area are referred to as chaotic (or anarchy) projects and are unlikely to be even selected as
feasible. In the scenario, the project has already been selected. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 19

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 13-16

Effective Project Management: Traditional, Agile, Extreme, Hybrid, 8th Edition, Robert K. Wysocki, 2019, Extreme Complex
Project Management Models

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 167 of 200 Question ID: 6112038

A project manager has compiled a list of key deliverables, which include the working software, employee training materials,
user manuals, etc.

When is the first time that these key deliverables would have been identified?

A During the Define Scope process

B When processes of the Executing Process Group are performed

C During the Develop Project Charter process

D When processes of the Planning Process Group are performed

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Key deliverables are identified very early in the project life cycle.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The key deliverables are identified during the Develop Project Charter process as part of the pre-project work. The identified
key deliverables are then included in the project charter as one of its elements. Of the available choices, the Develop Project
Charter process occurs earliest in the project life cycle, and it is when key deliverables are first identified.

Details for Each Option:

A During the Define Scope process

Incorrect. The Define Scope process results in the project scope statement which lists major project deliverables. Major
project deliverables are derived from the key deliverables. However, the key deliverables are identified earlier in the
project life cycle, during project initiation, and are listed in the project charter which is an input to the Define Scope
process.

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B When processes of the Executing Process Group are performed
Incorrect. Deliverables are produced during the Executing Process Group. Deliverables must be identified before they
can be produced. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.

C During the Develop Project Charter process

Correct. The key deliverables are identified during the Develop Project Charter process and included as an element in
the project charter. Of the available choices, the Develop Project Charter process is when key deliverables are first
identified.

D When processes of the Planning Process Group are performed

Incorrect. The key deliverables are listed in the project charter. The Develop Project Charter process is part of the
Initiating Process Group which is completed before the Planning Process Group begins.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 80-81, 154

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 168 of 200 Question ID: 6112510

You have been assigned to lead a drug development project for a small pharmaceutical company. The drug development
aspect of the project is characterized by a high degree of uncertainty, complexity, and risk. The governmental approval
process, on the other hand, is highly structured and well defined.

What project management approach would you recommend for this project?

A Agile for the drug development phase, and predictive for the governmental approval process

B Predictive for the drug development phase, and agile for the governmental approval process

C Kanban to maximize WIP for compliance activities related to the governmental approval process

D Crystal clear for both the drug development phase and the governmental approval process

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might the project management framework differ between drug development phase and the governmental approval
process?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario describes a project with two very different phases. The drug development phase, being characterized by a high
degree of uncertainty, complexity, and risk, is well-suited to an agile project management framework. Governmental approval
is described as a highly structured and well-defined process, which is best suited to a predictive approach. It is important to
remember that it is not necessary to maintain a single approach throughout the project. In some cases, it can be
advantageous to combine different life cycles in order to best support the needs of the project. Thus, a hybrid approach using
agile for drug development and a predictive framework for the governmental approvals provides the best strategy to manage
the project.

Details for Each Option:

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A Agile for the drug development phase, and predictive for the governmental approval process
Correct. In this scenario, the drug development phase, which is characterized by a high degree of uncertainty,
complexity, and risk is well-suited to an agile project management framework. Whereas, the governmental approval
process would benefit from a predictive approach.

B Predictive for the drug development phase, and agile for the governmental approval process
Incorrect. The scenario indicates that drug development will have a high degree of uncertainty, complexity, and risk.
These aspects of the project would be better served with an agile approach rather than predictive. Additionally, projects
that are highly structured and well defined are better suited to a predictive approach rather than agile.

C Kanban to maximize WIP for compliance activities related to the governmental approval process
Incorrect. The project might benefit by incorporating the Kanban method. However, Kanban best practices seek to limit
rather than maximize work in progress (WIP).

D Crystal clear for both the drug development phase and the governmental approval process
Incorrect. Crystal is a family of methodologies that can be scaled depending on the project size and its criticality. Crystal
clear is the lightest weight of the crystal family and is not suited for a life-critical project described in the scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 276

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 26

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 169 of 200 Question ID: 6112663

It has been decided that the project will be managed using waterfall. However, due to ambiguous requirements, the software
will be developed in short iterations using Scrum. After acquiring a team from within the organization, the project manager
realizes that the organization lacks technical expertise in several key areas and will require external resources from a vendor.
The organization, however, wants to preserve its strategic discretion on the work performed.

What is the best contracting technique for the project manager to use to maximize collaboration with the vendor?

A Team augmentation

B Early cancellation option

C Fixed-price increments

D Not-to-exceed time and materials

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might a development team comprised of internal and external resources best collaborate?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario implies the project, as a whole, is managed in a hybrid project management approach: waterfall and Scrum.
Scrum is one of the agile methods. Agile methods place a great emphasis on collaboration, a sentiment reflected in the Agile
Manifesto that values customer collaboration over contract negotiation. Agile methods are typically selected for projects
where the project scope cannot be well-defined at the start of the project and will be progressively elaborated as the project
progresses. As a result, collaboration becomes a critical factor in the project's success. In this scenario, the question is
asking for the contracting technique that will maximize collaboration with the vendor. With a team augmentation approach, the
supplier's services are embedded directly into the customer's organization. Having the development team comprised of
internal and external resources, working as a cohesive unit, best supports the collaborative efforts.

Details for Each Option:

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A Team augmentation
Correct. Team augmentation is an approach where the supplier's services are embedded directly into the customer's
organization. Colocating the supplier's services with the customer will enhance collaboration.

B Early cancellation option

Incorrect. Including an early cancellation option in the contract is probably a good idea for an agile project. However,
the question is specifically asking about how to maximize collaboration with the vendor. An early cancellation option
has nothing to do with enhancing collaboration.

C Fixed-price increments
Incorrect. A fixed-price increments contracting technique allows the buyer to decompose the project scope into fixed-
price micro-deliverables. This technique provides benefits to both the buyer and the seller/vendor, such as control over
how the money is spent (for the buyer) and limiting the financial risk (for the seller). Maximizing collaboration with the
seller/vendor, however, is not the main goal of this technique.

D Not-to-exceed time and materials

Incorrect. The main advantage of the not-to-exceed time and materials contracting technique is to provide the buyer
with room for new ideas and innovations that were not planned initially rather than increase collaboration with the
seller/vendor.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 78

Agile Software Development: The Cooperative Game, Second Edition, 2007, Contracts

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 170 of 200 Question ID: 6110047

A project manager is leading an agile research and development project. The project team is using a diagram, which breaks
down the causes of an identified problem into discrete branches to determine the main cause of the problem.

Which diagram might the project team be using in this situation?

A Pareto diagram

B Matrix diagram

C Tornado diagram

D Why-why diagram

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which answer choice represents a cause-and-effect diagram?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Cause-and-effect diagrams are also known as fishbone diagrams, why-why diagrams, or Ishikawa diagrams. This type of
diagram breaks down the causes of the problem statement identified into discrete branches, helping to identify the main or
root cause of the problem. Of the available choices, only the why-why diagram breaks down the causes of an identified
problem into discrete branches.

Details for Each Option:

A Pareto diagram
Incorrect. A Pareto diagram is a type of histogram which shows how many results were generated by each identified
cause. While a Pareto diagram displays the causes of the problems, it does not break the causes down into discrete
branches.

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B Matrix diagram
Incorrect. A matrix diagram is a quality management and control tool used to perform data analysis within the
organizational structure created in the matrix. Matrix diagrams are not used to identify the cause of a problem.

C Tornado diagram
Incorrect. Tornado diagram is a special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative
importance of the variables. Tornado diagrams have nothing to do with the cause-and-effect diagrams described in the
scenario.

D Why-why diagram
Correct. Cause-and-effect diagrams are also known as fishbone diagrams, why-why diagrams, or Ishikawa diagrams.
This type of diagram breaks down the causes of the problem statement identified into discrete branches, helping to
identify the main or root cause of the problem.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 293

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 171 of 200 Question ID: 6110036

A project manager is executing the quality management plan of a project to develop a prototype medical device. Given the
nature of the project, the quality standards are very stringent. With no known cause, it becomes apparent that the product
quality does not meet project requirements.

What is the best course of action for the project manager to take in this situation?

A Direct the project team to improve the quality of their work

B Ask the project sponsor what to do

C Create an affinity diagram

D Develop an Ishikawa diagram

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The correct answer is also referred to as a cause-and-effect diagram.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Manage Quality is the process of translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate
the organization's quality policies into the project. The question states, "A project manager is executing the quality
management plan of a project..." This implies that the Manage Quality process is being performed. Data representation
techniques including the cause-and-effect diagram can be useful during this process. Cause-and-effect diagrams are also
known as fishbone diagrams, why-why diagrams, or Ishikawa diagrams. This type of diagram breaks down the causes of the
problem statement identified into discrete branches, helping to identify the main or root cause of the problem. Of the available
choices, the cause-and-effect or Ishikawa diagram is the most useful in determining the main cause of a quality issue, making
the development of an Ishikawa diagram the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

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A Direct the project team to improve the quality of their work
Incorrect. Directing the project team to improve the quality of their work is not very helpful without first knowing the main
cause of the problem. For example, it is possible that the issue lies with the material and/or equipment rather than the
quality of the project team's work. Therefore, this choice is an incorrect response.

B Ask the project sponsor what to do

Incorrect. The project sponsor may very well need to be informed of the quality issues, but it is the project manager's
responsibility to determine the cause and implement the necessary action. Therefore, this answer choice can be
eliminated.

C Create an affinity diagram

Incorrect. Affinity diagrams can organize potential causes of defects into groups showing areas that should be focused
on the most. However, the question indicates that the causes of the poor quality are not known at this point. Therefore,
the project manager should first seek to understand the main cause(s) of the quality issues, making the creation of an
affinity diagram an incorrect answer.

D Develop an Ishikawa diagram

Correct. Cause-and-effect diagrams are also known as fishbone diagrams, why-why diagrams, or Ishikawa diagrams.
This type of diagram breaks down the causes of the problem statement identified into discrete branches, helping to
identify the main or root cause of the problem. Therefore, of the choices provided, developing an Ishikawa diagram is
the best course of action for the project manager to take to understand why the product quality does not meet project
requirements.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 293

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 172 of 200 Question ID: 6112865

You have been assigned to lead an initiative for which the business case has not been sufficiently made to get approval to
initiate a hybrid project. In some of the past projects, teams realized too late into project execution that no one in the company
had the skills needed to build some of the features, so it was developed by a contractor, resulting in cost overruns.

What would you do differently in your assignment to avoid cost overruns?

A Start with a proof of concept

B Use burndown charts for reporting

C Develop a project charter

D Encourage team knowledge sharing

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How can you best identify the skills needed for the project before the project is formally chartered?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the business case has not been approved, suggesting that the project has not yet been initiated.
You are leading an initiative that, if successful, may result in the approval to go ahead with the project. Since past projects
show that the organization did not plan resources properly, necessitating some of the work to be contracted out, thus resulting
in cost overruns, you want to ensure that this time the lessons are learned and proper planning is done. To understand what
resources are needed for your current (potential) project, a proof of concept cycle can be undertaken. The proof of concept
could involve prototyping, feasibility study, storyboarding, development of use cases or user stories, or any other activity that
can demonstrate potential business value helping to get the business case approved and the project initiated. By undertaking
one of the proof-of-concept activities, the project manager can determine if the skills needed to develop the product are
available in the organization, thus ensuring that the project budget is estimated realistically and the risk of cost overruns is
reduced.

Details for Each Option: /

A Start with a proof of concept
Correct. In hybrid projects, a proof-of-concept cycle can be used to explore product features and map the skills needed
to develop them. Mapping the skills helps identify gaps in the organization and plan resources accordingly. These
actions, in turn, allow the project manager to create a more realistic budget estimate and reduce the risk of cost
overrun.

B Use burndown charts for reporting

Incorrect. Burndown charts are typically used on agile projects to report work remaining in the iteration or release
backlog. A burndown chart would unlikely help with the task requested in the scenario, which is estimating a realistic
project budget based on features to be delivered and the skills required to develop them.

C Develop a project charter

Incorrect. The project charter is the document providing the project manager with the authority to apply organizational
resources to project activities. While having a charter is important for any project, the scenario states that the business
case, which is one of the inputs to the Develop Project Charter process, is insufficiently built, preventing the
development of the project charter.

D Encourage team knowledge sharing

Incorrect. Knowledge-sharing is an essential part of every successful project. However, the scenario implies the skills
and knowledge necessary to develop the product are likely unavailable in the organization. Therefore, it is premature,
and possibly even futile, to share something that is not yet available.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 322

Effective Project Management: Traditional, Agile, Extreme, Hybrid, 8th Edition, Robert K. Wysocki, 2019, Proof of Concept

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 173 of 200 Question ID: 6113701

A vendor has been contracted by a buyer to develop a new device. The vendor insisted that the contract thoroughly captures
the device specifications. The buyer does not have clear requirements upfront and, therefore, requested that the vendor
develop the device using agile. The vendor delivers as per the contract, but the buyer is not satisfied with the outcome.

Which Agile Manifesto's value was most likely not appropriately applied?

A Business people and developers must work together

B Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C Pair programming over continuous integration

D Customer collaboration over contract negotiations

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Collaboration forms the basis for joint decision-making to ensure the customer receives the intended benefits of the project.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The third value of the Agile Manifesto is "Customer collaboration over contract negotiation." Customer collaboration forms the
basis for the joint decision-making process. It establishes a bond between the customer and the development team, helping
ensure the customer receives the intended benefits of the project. The question describes a situation where the vendor insists
that product specifications are thoroughly documented in the contract even though the buyer (customer) does not have a
clear picture of the requirements upfront. The vendor produces the deliverables according to the contract negotiated at the
beginning of the project, but the product does not deliver the intended value/result. In some cases, a buyer is not a product
expert and relies on the vendor to guide the buyer in the product design and development. This approach is an example of
collaborating with the customer over rigidly adhering to specifications outlined in a contract.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Business people and developers must work together
Incorrect. This principle may have prevented the problem outlined in the scenario from occurring. However, this answer
choice represents a principle of the Agile Manifesto rather than one of its values.

B Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

Incorrect. There is not enough information in the question to determine if processes and tools were valued over
individuals and interactions, resulting in the buyer's dissatisfaction with the deliverables. Better collaboration between
the parties would have had a more positive effect on the outcome of the project.

C Pair programming over continuous integration

Incorrect. Pair programming is a technique in which two developers work side-by-side developing software code.
Continuous integration is a practice in which each team member's work products are frequently integrated and
validated with one another. Both are valuable agile techniques; however, it is unclear if applying/valuing one of them
over another would have prevented the problem described in the scenario from occurring in the first place.

D Customer collaboration over contract negotiations

Correct. Thoroughly negotiating contracts is typical for projects that are lead using the traditional approach. In the
scenario, however, the customer does not have detailed requirements upfront and requests that the vendor develops
the device using agile methods. Collaboration over negotiations would be more beneficial for both parties.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 8

Agile Software Development: The Cooperative Game, 2nd Edition, Alistair Cockburn, 2007, The Manifesto

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 174 of 200 Question ID: 6112021

You are leading a project in a small startup company with decentralized purchasing. A supplier informs you that they have
excess inventory that can be purchased at a reduced price. You review the project's inventory needs and find that most of the
excess inventory offered by the supplier can be used for the project.

What is your best course of action?

A Refer the supplier to the project sponsor for procurement

B Negotiate and sign a procurement contract with the supplier

C Refer the supplier to the procurement department

D Refer the supplier to the project management office (PMO)

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How does decentralized purchasing affect your authority?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Decentralized purchasing is found in smaller organizations or startup companies, and those without a purchasing,
contracting, or procurement department. In such organizations, the project manager may assume the purchasing authority
role to negotiate and sign contracts directly. For larger organizations with centralized purchasing, the actual procurement and
contracting functions may be carried out by a separate department whose role is to purchase, negotiate, and sign contracts.
In the scenario described, your company has decentralized purchasing. When a supplier offers you discounted goods, you
have the authority to complete the purchase. Therefore, the next thing you should do is negotiate and sign the contract for the
procurement of the discounted supplies.

Details for Each Option:

A Refer the supplier to the project sponsor for procurement

/
 Incorrect. While you may want to discuss the procurement with the project sponsor, in a decentralized purchasing
environment, the project manager may assume the authority to negotiate and sign contracts directly. Therefore, you
would not need to involve the sponsor in the procurement.

B Negotiate and sign a procurement contract with the supplier

Correct. Your company uses decentralized purchasing, which means there is not a purchasing, contracting, or
procurement department. Therefore, negotiating and signing a procurement contract with the supplier would be your
best course of action.

C Refer the supplier to the procurement department

Incorrect. A company with decentralized purchasing does not have a procurement department. The project manager
has the authority to negotiate and sign purchasing agreements directly.

D Refer the supplier to the project management office (PMO)

Incorrect. The PMO can centralize and standardize the management of projects. While PMOs vary as to what role play
in the organization, PMOs are typically not involved in conducting procurements.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 462

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 175 of 200 Question ID: 6113610

Halfway into a software development project, your most experienced programmer resigns leaving only two programmers. The
previously planned response to this risk is to acquire a programmer from another project manager, with whom you are not
well acquainted.

What is the best way for you to handle this situation?

A Escalate to the project sponsor

B Ask the remaining two programmers to work overtime to cover the gap

C Use your soft skills

D Use your authority as a project manager and demand the release of the other programmer

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What tool or technique of the Implement Risk Responses process is helpful to encourage someone to take necessary action?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The question implies that the Implement Risk Responses process is being conducted. One of the tools and techniques used
as part of the Implement Risk Responses process is that of interpersonal and team skills including influencing. Interpersonal
and team skills are also known as soft skills. As the project manager, you will need to demonstrate your influencing skills in
order to encourage the other project manager to take the necessary action of releasing a programmer to cover the gap
created by the resignation. While there is no guarantee that the other project manager will agree to release the resource,
using your soft skills is the best way to handle this issue.

Details for Each Option:

A Escalate to the project sponsor

/
 Incorrect. Escalating to the project sponsor is a premature action. Project managers should first try to resolve the issue
directly with the involved party, and only when no options are found, resort to escalation.

B Ask the remaining two programmers to work overtime to cover the gap
Incorrect. Acquiring a programmer from another project, not paying overtime, is the response planned for this risk.
Therefore, this choice is not the best answer to the question asked. If the planned risk response does not work, you can
explore other options, including paying overtime.

C Use your soft skills

Correct. Interpersonal and team skills are sometimes known as soft skills. In this situation, the interpersonal and team
skill of influencing can be used to gain the release of a programmer for the project.

D Use your authority as a project manager and demand the release of the other programmer
Incorrect. The question does not suggest that you have any authority over the other project manager. Additionally, it is
unlikely that demanding the release of the resource will work better than politely requesting this using your soft skills.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 451, 357

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 176 of 200 Question ID: 6113184

As a project manager, you recently completed a project team performance appraisal, and a previously unknown competency
gap in technical skills was uncovered, which needs to be addressed.

What should you do next?

A Implement the response planned for this risk

B Conduct unplanned training to address the competency gap

C Consult the training management plan

D Let go of the staff who have technical skill gaps

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Unplanned training takes place as a result of observation, conversation, and project performance appraisals conducted
during management of the project team.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question states that a competency gap was uncovered as a result of a project team appraisal that was previously
unknown. As a result, the newly discovered training need is not likely to be addressed in the resource management plan. If
project team members lack the necessary management or technical skills, such skills can be developed as part of the project
work. Scheduled training takes place as stated in the resource management plan. Unplanned training takes place as a result
of observation, conversation, and project performance appraisals conducted during the management of the project team. The
incorrect answer choices represent actions that do not directly address the newly discovered training need. Therefore, of the
available options, conducting unplanned training to address the competency gap is the best response.

Note, since the unplanned training will likely consume project resources (time, budget, etc.), an approved change request will
be required. While the correct answer choice does not indicate this, it's still the best of those provided.

Details for Each Option:

/
A Implement the response planned for this risk
Incorrect. Risk responses are developed to address risks that have been identified during project planning or later as
the project progresses. The competency gap is a risk. However, according to the scenario, the gap was previously
unknown, implying no response exists for this risk.

B Conduct unplanned training to address the competency gap

Correct. When project team members lack the necessary technical skills, these skills can be developed as part of the
project work. Unplanned training takes place as a result of observation, conversation, and project performance
appraisals conducted during management of the project team.

C Consult the training management plan

Incorrect. 'Training management plan' is a made-up term not specified in the PMBOK® Guide.

D Let go of the staff who have technical skill gaps

Incorrect. There is not enough information provided in the question to suggest that termination of employment is
appropriate in this situation. Termination is a serious action that when initiated is generally the culmination of a series of
progressive actions. Typically, a plan should be created and followed to fill the technical deficiencies.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 342

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 177 of 200 Question ID: 6112333

During project execution of a high priority project, a previously identified risk is realized. The project manager sends an email
to the risk owner and receives an automated response indicating that this individual will be out of the country on vacation for
the next two weeks. The risk owner did not disclose a backup contact to use during the interim.

What should the project manager do first?

A Capture the problem in the issue resolution register

B Update the communications management plan

C Submit a change request

D Record the information in the issue log

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Where are problems encountered during a project tracked and monitored?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question implies that the project manager was carrying out the Implement Risk Responses process. An issue log is one
of the project documents that may be updated during that process. The issue log is a project document where all issues are
recorded and tracked. Data on issues may include the issue type, who raised the issue and when, description, priority, who is
assigned to the issue, target resolution date, status, and final resolution. The issue log will help the project manager
effectively track and manage issues, ensuring that they are investigated and resolved. Therefore, capturing this issue in the
issue log is what the project manager should do first.

Details for Each Option:

A Capture the problem in the issue resolution register

Incorrect. 'Issue resolution register' is a fake term made up for this question.
/
B Update the communications management plan
Incorrect. The communications management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how,
when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. It is not clear from the
description provided whether or not the communications management plan will need to be updated. However, even if
the communications management plan needs to be updated, the issue should first be captured in the issue log, and
then a change request would need to be submitted and approved before the communications management plan can be
updated.

C Submit a change request

Incorrect. There is not enough information provided by the question to determine if a change request is needed to
resolve the issue. The issue should first be captured in the issue log. The issue will then be assigned for follow up
where a determination can be made about the appropriate action to be taken which may or may not include a change
request.

D Record the information in the issue log

Correct. The issue log is a project document where all issues are recorded and tracked. The problem described by the
question should be recorded in the issue log along with other pertinent information including to whom the issue is
assigned. From there the issue should be monitored and tracked to ensure a resolution.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 452, 96

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 178 of 200 Question ID: 6150104

A junior project manager is struggling with the implementation of the schedule management plan for a project to create a new
smartphone application. The product is being developed incrementally, and the project manager decided to use an adaptive
approach for this project.

What would be the best advice to provide to the project manager?

A An adaptive approach is not appropriate for incrementally developed products

B Maximize work in progress by using a Kanban board

C Use pull-based scheduling by incorporating a Kanban board

D Focus on developing a highly detailed schedule of activities

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Adaptive approaches use short cycles to undertake work, review the results, and adapt as necessary.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Adaptive approaches use short cycles to undertake work, review the results, and adapt as necessary. These cycles provide
rapid feedback on the approaches and suitability of deliverables, and typically manifest as iterative schedule and on-demand,
pull-based scheduling. This approach, typically used in a Kanban system, is based on the theory-of-constraints and pull-
based scheduling concepts to limit a team's work in progress in order to balance the demand against the team's delivery
throughput. A Kanban board provides a visual representation of the workflow. Rather than using a previously developed
schedule, activities to develop the product are captured on cards that are pulled through the stages of the workflow
represented by columns on the Kanban board. Therefore, of the available options, the best advice to provide to the project
manager is to use pull-based scheduling by incorporating a Kanban board.

Details for Each Option:

/
A An adaptive approach is not appropriate for incrementally developed products
Incorrect. Adaptive approaches use short cycles to undertake work, review the results, and adapt as necessary. In this
manner, the product is developed incrementally which is the opposite of what is described by this answer choice,
making it an incorrect answer.

B Maximize work in progress by using a Kanban board

Incorrect. A Kanban system is based on the theory-of-constraints and seeks to limit, not maximize, work in progress in
order to balance demand against the team's delivery throughput.

C Use pull-based scheduling by incorporating a Kanban board

Correct. A Kanban board provides a visual representation of the workflow. Rather than using a previously developed
schedule, activities to develop the product are captured on cards which are pulled through the stages of the workflow
represented by columns on the Kanban board.

D Focus on developing a highly detailed schedule of activities

Incorrect. An adaptive approach, as it applies to project scheduling, does not rely on a schedule that was developed
previously for the development of the product, but rather pulls work from a backlog as resources become available.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 177-178

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 179 of 200 Question ID: 6112346

The project manager and a stakeholder get into a heated debate about the stakeholder's idea requiring a scope change to
the project. The project manager says the change will not be implemented and that the stakeholder must drop the idea. The
project manager emphasizes that she is the project manager and the decision is final.

Should the project manager have responded differently to resolve the conflict?

A No; The project manager has the formal authority to make the final decision.

B Yes; The project manager should have discussed the idea with other stakeholders.

C No; The project manager was demonstrating the culture in which the company works.

D Yes; The project manager should have compromised with the stakeholder.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What conflict resolution technique usually results in a win-win situation for the involved parties?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The project manager is using the force/direct conflict resolution technique, which involves pushing one's viewpoint at the
expense of others and offering only a win-lose solution. While force/direct is a legitimate conflict resolution technique, it
should be used only when other conflict resolution techniques fail or when the situation warrants this approach. The scenario
described in the question does not suggest that other conflict resolution techniques have been used or that the situation is so
acute that the project manager was left with no option except to use the force/direct technique. Since it appears the project
manager did have other options, she should have pursued a win-win outcome, which the collaborative/problem-solving
technique often creates. Discussing the stakeholder's idea with other stakeholders is the only conflict resolution technique
offering the possibility of a win-win situation, and therefore is the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

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A No; The project manager has the formal authority to make the final decision.
Incorrect. Unless the situation is an emergency (which is not the case in the scenario described), the project manager
should not push her viewpoint onto others from a stance of power, known as a force/direct conflict resolution technique.
This approach usually ends with a win-lose situation and therefore is not the best course of action in this situation. The
project manager should have responded differently.

B Yes; The project manager should have discussed the idea with other stakeholders.
Correct. The project manager should have used a collaborative/problem-solving approach to address the conflict, such
as discussing the idea with other project stakeholders and/or the team. Such a discussion would have allowed both
sides to incorporate multiple viewpoints and insights from differing perspectives and hopefully lead to a win-win
outcome with consensus and commitment.

C No; The project manager was demonstrating the culture in which the company works.
Incorrect. The project manager may well have been demonstrating the culture of the company (raising another issue,
which is outside the scope of this question) but using a force/direct technique is still not the best way to resolve a
conflict.

D Yes; The project manager should have compromised with the stakeholder.
Incorrect. Compromising often leads to a lose-lose outcome because this technique searches for a resolution to the
conflict in order to appease both parties, but the decision may not be the best for the project. While compromising could
have been a better approach than forcing, a collaborative/problem-solving approach is preferred. Therefore, this
answer is not the best choice.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 348-349

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 180 of 200 Question ID: 6112734

The first phase of a software development project that was conducted using a predictive project management approach is
over. The project enters its second phase which will require the project team to utilize an eXtreme Programming (XP) method
to develop the rest of the product.

How might the team ground rules need to be updated?

A Acceptance of collective responsibility for the project's deliverables

B Addition of agreements for working in a virtual environment

C The ground rules will no longer be needed as the team will use XP

D Accountability for the creation of highly detailed documentation

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How do agile teams collaborate to produce the project's deliverables?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario indicates that a project team will be transitioning from a waterfall approach to an agile framework with elements
of an eXtreme Programming (XP) method. Sometimes it is advantageous to use different project management frameworks for
different phases of a project, meaning the project is taking a hybrid approach. Project teams typically collaborate in a different
way when using predictive versus agile methodologies. Thus, it is likely that the project team will need to revise their working
agreements to be tailored to the project management framework.

Agile teams are known for being self-organizing, and, as a result, have collective ownership for delivering the project's
deliverables. With a waterfall project, the project team members are more likely to be assigned specific tasks and are
individually accountable for completing their assignments. Agile, on the other hand, and XP specifically, stresses the
importance of collective code ownership (as it applies to software development). This collective responsibility and team
accountability may need to be included as part of the social contract, as reflected by the ground rules in the team charter.

/
Details for Each Option:

A Acceptance of collective responsibility for the project's deliverables

Correct. Teams that utilize an eXtreme Programming (XP) method to develop the product (typically a software product)
are bound by collective responsibility for delivering the project's deliverables.

B Addition of agreements for working in a virtual environment

Incorrect. There is no indication from the question that the project team will be transitioning to a virtual environment.
Additionally, agile best practices encourage the use of colocated teams. Therefore, transitioning to an agile framework,
all else being equal, is more likely to move away from a virtual environment in favor of face-to-face communication.

C The ground rules will no longer be needed as the team will use XP
Incorrect. The ground rules can be useful regardless of the project management framework being employed. The
ground rules may need to be revised for use in an agile environment but are not likely to be discarded.

D Accountability for the creation of highly detailed documentation

Incorrect. The Agile Manifesto values the development of working software (or completed deliverables) over
comprehensive documentation. The creation of documentation should be reduced to the barely sufficient minimum.
Thus, the creation of highly detailed documentation should be avoided unless it is a project requirement, which is not
suggested by the scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 528

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 49-50, 102

Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products, Second Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Molding a Group of
Individuals into a Team

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 181 of 200 Question ID: 6113722

In order to take advantage of the best talent available, a project manager recruits developers internationally rather than just
locally. She is delighted to have acquired such highly skilled individuals but now needs to develop them into a cohesive team.
Ideally, the project manager would like to bring everyone together at the home office, but the project budget does not allow for
travel expenses.

What is the best tool or technique for the project manager to use in this situation?

A Sensitivity analysis

B Recognition and rewards

C Virtual teams

D Colocation

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What is the best way to create a team atmosphere without bringing everyone together in the same physical space?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The question suggests that the Develop Team process is being performed, and virtual teams is a tool that may be used
during this process. A virtual team can use technology to create an online team environment to build team cohesion. In this
way, the project manager can take advantage of a broader pool of candidates without paying travel expenses. The use of a
virtual team is the best tool that the project manager can use under the circumstances provided in the question.

Details for Each Option:

A Sensitivity analysis
Incorrect. Sensitivity analysis is an analysis technique to determine which individual project risks have the most
potential impact on project outcomes. The question is asking about building team cohesion and not project risks.
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B Recognition and rewards
Incorrect. Recognition and rewards can be helpful in team development by recognizing and rewarding desirable
behavior. However, recognition and rewards are not the best tools for building team cohesion.

C Virtual teams
Correct. A virtual team can use technology to create an online team environment to build team cohesion. In this way,
the project manager can take advantage of a broader pool of candidates without paying travel expenses.

D Colocation
Incorrect. Colocation involves placing the project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability
to perform as a team. Although this may be the best way to build team cohesion, the question states that budget
constraints prohibit this option.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 340

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 182 of 200 Question ID: 6110022

As your project progresses, a team member suggests a minor modification to one of the project deliverables, saying that the
modification will improve the overall performance of the final product. You believe that the modification constitutes a minor
change to the project scope, schedule, and budget, and should be approved without going to the change control board.

What should you do next?

A Approve the change request. As the project manager, you should use expert judgment to decide what is best for
the project.

B Meet with the change control board members individually and try to persuade them to approve the change
request.

C Submit the change request to the change control board and abide by their decision.

D Review the change management plan and follow the established process for processing change requests.

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Every project change requires that a formal change control procedure be followed.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Change requests should be processed according to the change management plan, which defines the process for managing
changes to the project, including the process for submitting, evaluating and implementing change requests. Since one of the
answer choices is for the project manager to abide by whatever is in the change management plan, you can eliminate the
other answer choices since those options may contradict the change management plan. For example, in this scenario, if the
change management plan grants authority to the project manager to authorize certain types of change requests, then it would
be unnecessary for the project manager to go through the change control board for approval. However, to make this
determination, the change management plan should be consulted. In order to answer this question correctly, one needs to
understand that project managers should handle change requests in accordance with the change management plan.

Details for Each Option: /

A Approve the change request. As the project manager, you should use expert judgment to decide what is best for the
project.
Incorrect. Change requests should be processed according to the change management plan. Depending on the change
management plan, you, as project manager, may or may not have the authority to make the final decision on change
requests, regardless of your expertise.

B Meet with the change control board members individually and try to persuade them to approve the change request.
Incorrect. You should follow the process outlined in the change management plan. Assuming that you are not a
member of the change control board (CCB) in this scenario, it may be inappropriate for you to circumvent the change
control meetings process to try and influence their decision. The CCB should make the ultimate decision as to what, if
any, changes are to be made to the project based on their expert judgment and the information presented in the actual
change request.

C Submit the change request to the change control board and abide by their decision.
Incorrect. You should follow the process outlined in the change management plan. However, since that process was not
given in the question, it is possible that the change management plan allows you, as project manager, under certain
conditions, to make the final decision. Since it cannot be assumed that every change request must go through the
change control board, this choice is not the best answer of those provided.

D Review the change management plan and follow the established process for processing change requests.
Correct. Change requests should be processed according to the change management plan. Since the correct
procedure defined by the change management plan is unknown in this scenario, the other answer choices should be
eliminated, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 120

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 183 of 200 Question ID: 6112551

A project manager and team are in the process of finalizing all project activities. They have obtained final acceptance and
transferred ownership of deliverables, obtained administrative closure, collated lessons learned, archived all project
documents, and obtained feedback from relevant stakeholders. Finally, the project manager and team have been released
and reassigned to other assignments.

Based on the information provided, what might have been forgotten?

A Reviewing project requirements

B Verifying project deliverables

C Sharing the final project report

D Conducting benefit analysis

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which of the answer choices is an activity associated with the Close Project or Phase process?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario suggests the project manager and team are carrying out the activities associated with the Close Project or
Phase process. To convey project performance and assist in project evaluation, the final project report should be prepared
and shared according to the communications management plan. All of the incorrect answer choices represent tasks that
should be completed as part of process groups other than the Closing Process Group. The information provided by the
question suggests that all of the tasks associated with project closure have been completed except for sharing the final
project report.

Details for Each Option:

A Reviewing project requirements

/
 Incorrect. A review of project requirements would have been completed much earlier in the project as part of project
planning. The question implies that the project team is performing the Close Project or Phase process.

B Verifying project deliverables

Incorrect. The question states that final acceptance has been obtained which suggests that the project deliverables
have already been verified, otherwise they would not have been accepted. Additionally, the question implies that the
Close Project or Phase process is being performed, while this answer choice represents an activity associated with the
Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

C Sharing the final project report

Correct. The information provided by the question suggests that all of the tasks associated with project closure have
been completed except for the preparation and communication of the final project report.

D Conducting benefit analysis

Incorrect. The benefits analysis is completed during project initiation rather than during project closure as suggested by
the question.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 127-128, 121

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 184 of 200 Question ID: 6110012

A supplier requires two months to manufacture the necessary equipment for a project. This situation means that the project
manager must order the equipment at least two months before the installation start date.

This dependency is an example of which of the following?

A Mandatory logic

B Discretionary dependency

C Hard logic

D Soft logic

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The scenario refers to a dependency that is inherent in the nature of the work.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario refers to a dependency that is inherent in the nature of the work. Mandatory dependencies are those that are
contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work. Mandatory dependencies are also sometimes referred to as hard
logic. Therefore, of the choices provided, hard logic is the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Mandatory logic
Incorrect. 'Mandatory logic' is a fake term made up for this question.

B Discretionary dependency

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 Incorrect. Discretionary dependencies are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular
application area or some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be
other acceptable sequences. The scenario suggests that the dependency is required rather than desired.

C Hard logic
Correct. Mandatory dependencies are those that are contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.
Mandatory dependencies are also sometimes referred to as hard logic. Being forced to place the equipment order at
least two months before the installation start date is best described by hard logic.

D Soft logic
Incorrect. Discretionary dependencies are sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic. The
dependency described by the question is inherent in the nature of the work. Therefore, the dependency represents a
requirement rather than a preference.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 191

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 185 of 200 Question ID: 6110007

As a scrum master, you are facilitating a retrospective for a sprint that failed to meet all of its objectives. Members of the
development team and the product owner are arguing over who is responsible for the failure. After performing a root cause
analysis, you uncover the source of the conflict.

Of the following, what did you most likely discover?

A The product owner determined how many user stories were to be completed during the sprint

B The development team decided how many user stories were to be completed during the sprint

C You, as the scrum master, failed to assign user stories to the development team

D The Gantt chart did not include enough story points

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Who is responsible for determining how many user stories will be developed during a sprint?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When properly using a scrum framework, the product owner prioritizes the user stories in the product backlog. The product
owner, however, should not determine 'how many' user stories will be completed during the sprint. Instead, it is the
development team members who decide how many user stories they can commit to completing. If the product owner
overcommitted the development team, then the sprint will likely fail to meet some or all of its objectives. Additionally, if the
product owner assigns the work to the development team, then the team is less likely to be fully committed to completing the
sprint objectives. The incorrect answer choices represent the correct application of scrum best practices or are not relevant to
scrum.

Details for Each Option:

A The product owner determined how many user stories were to be completed during the sprint
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 Correct. When a scrum framework is used properly, it is the development team and not the product owner who
determines how many user stories will be completed during the sprint.

B The development team decided how many user stories were to be completed during the sprint
Incorrect. When using a scrum as a project management methodology, the development should determine how many
stories will be completed during the sprint and they make a commitment to completing them. Since the approach
described by this answer choice is consistent with scrum practices, it would not be a reason for a failed sprint.

C You, as the scrum master, failed to assign user stories to the development team
Incorrect. When a scrum project management framework is employed, the scrum master should not assign user stories
to the team. By 'failing' to assign user stories to the team you essentially acted in accordance with the Scrum
frameworks and, therefore, were not the reason for the sprint to fail.

D The Gantt chart did not include enough story points

Incorrect. A Gantt chart is an example of a tool that represents the project schedule. Gantt charts are typically used in
predictive project management and have nothing to do with story points. Regardless, not including enough story points
in the sprint, rather than adding too many, is unlikely to cause the sprint to fail.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 40-41

Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, The Story's Agreement

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 186 of 200 Question ID: 6125166

In their first iteration, an agile team completed only half of the planned work. It turns out that before the current project began,
the team members were requested to provide ongoing support for the prior release. Angry project stakeholders meet with the
scrum master and complain that supporting prior releases should have never been included in the project plans.

How should the scrum master respond?

A Agree with the stakeholders and remove all further support work from the next iterations

B Ignore the stakeholders' complain and instruct the team to continue supporting the prior releases

C Explain that routine work of supporting prior releases may be included in project plans

D Request that from now on the team work overtime to complete both the planned work and support

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Whether the routine work of the team should be accounted for in the iteration/release plans is the key to answering this
question

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In the reference provided, the author writes, "In addition to making progress on a project, many teams are responsible for
support and maintenance of another system. It may be a prior version of the product they are working on, or it may be an
unrelated system. When a team makes a commitment to complete a set of stories during an iteration, they need to do so with
their maintenance and support load in mind." In the scenario provided, it seems as the team knew that they were responsible
for supporting products that were not associated with completing the work on the current project. However, the team most
likely missed to account for this work during the iteration/release planning. Therefore, the failure to complete and deliver the
planned work lies with the team. However, this does not mean the scrum master should remove support work from the next
iteration onward. While the situation is not ideal, the scrum master should explain that routine work of supporting prior
releases may be included in project plans and try to come to a reasonable solution with the stakeholders, solution that would
allow the team to complete the current project and, at the same time, support the prior releases, without too much overtime
work.

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One approach to account for work not directly related to the current project is first to allocate a percentage or an average
amount of time typically required to accomplish these routine tasks. Once this is done, the time left in the iteration can be
used to estimate the number of user stories (or story points, features, etc.) of the current project that can be reasonably
completed in the time remaining. Another alternative would be to place a user story of a size equivalent to the estimated size
of the support work in the iteration backlog.

Details for Each Option:

A Agree with the stakeholders and remove all further support work from the next iterations
Incorrect. Even though the support duties seem to be negatively impacting the current project, removing all further
support work from the next iterations without consulting with the stakeholders that were involved in the prior
projects/releases and were likely those who requested the support, would be an overreaction. While removing the
support work would likely help the current project, it would harm the customers who use the prior releases, which, in
turn, may have a negative impact on the performing organization.

B Ignore the stakeholders' complain and instruct the team to continue supporting the prior releases
Incorrect. With some rare exceptions, statements that suggest ignoring stakeholders typically constitute incorrect
answers.

C Explain that routine work of supporting prior releases may be included in project plans
Correct. Routine work of supporting prior releases may be included as part of the current project/release/iteration.
However, this routine work should be planned ahead and discussed at release and iteration planning meetings.
Relevant stakeholders from the current and previous projects should be invited to ensure the plans are agreed upon by
all parties involved.

D Request that from now on the team work overtime to complete both the planned work and support
Incorrect. It seems as if the team failed to account for the support work in the current release and did not provide a
realistic estimation of what could be accomplished in the current project, thus resulting in unrealistic stakeholder
expectations. However, requesting the team to work overtime to cover for this gap would be unfair and likely negatively
impact the overall team performance. Agile promotes sustainable development, one that allows teams and
stakeholders to maintain a constant pace indefinitely.

Reference:

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 55

Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Maintenance and the Commitment

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 187 of 200 Question ID: 6110095

As you execute the quality management plan for a project to develop a new autopilot feature for a vehicle, you have created
the diagram below, which compares the vehicle speed with uncommanded lane departures.

What can be said about this diagram?

A Affinity diagram, which shows a weak correlation between the speed and lane departures

B Scatter diagram, which shows a strong correlation between the speed and lane departures

C Affinity diagram, which shows a strong correlation between the speed and lane departures

D Scatter diagram, which shows a weak correlation between the speed and lane departures

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The diagram presented by the question is a graph that shows the relationship between two variables.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
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The question states that the project manager is executing the quality management plan, which indicates that the Manage
Quality process is being performed. A scatter diagram is a data representation technique that may be used during the
Manage Quality process. A scatter diagram, as presented in the question, is a graph that shows the relationship between two
variables. The diagram shown in the question demonstrates very close proximity between the data points and the trendline,
which indicates a strong correlation between the two variables. Therefore, we can surmise that the defect rate (lane
departures) increases as speed increases.

Details for Each Option:

A Affinity diagram, which shows a weak correlation between the speed and lane departures
Incorrect. An affinity diagram organizes potential causes of defects into groups showing areas that should be focused
on the most. The diagram presented by the question shows the relationship between two variables. Therefore, this
answer choice can be eliminated.

B Scatter diagram, which shows a strong correlation between the speed and lane departures
Correct. The diagram presented by the question is a scatter diagram. This diagram demonstrates very close proximity
between the data points and the trendline, which indicates a strong correlation between the two variables.

C Affinity diagram, which shows a strong correlation between the speed and lane departures
Incorrect. The diagram from the question shows the relationship between two variables. An affinity diagram organizes
potential causes of defects into groups showing areas that should be focused on the most, making this an incorrect
response.

D Scatter diagram, which shows a weak correlation between the speed and lane departures
Incorrect. The diagram demonstrates very close proximity between the data points and the trendline, which indicates a
strong, not weak, correlation between the two variables. Therefore, this response is incorrect.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 293

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 188 of 200 Question ID: 6112900

You are managing a project with a team of junior engineers. You understand that a high-performance team will increase the
likelihood of meeting project objectives. To grow a successful project team, you implement activities such as training and
team building.

Which of the following outputs will help you the most in evaluating the effectiveness of your efforts to develop a successful
team?

A The team charter

B Team performance assessments

C Team building register

D Individual and team assessments

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
You want to evaluate how well the team is performing as a whole giving you insight into how to improve their effectiveness.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Team building activities are tools used to develop a project team that will work together interdependently and cooperatively to
accomplish the project work. A successful team needs to work well together and be effective. By conducting evaluations of
the team's overall performance, the project manager can identify specific training, coaching, mentoring, or changes required
to improve the team's performance. This is done by team performance assessments.

Details for Each Option:

A The team charter

Incorrect. A team charter is a document that establishes the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines for the
team. It can aid in team building but does not evaluate how well the team is performing on the project.
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B Team performance assessments
Correct. Team performance assessments are an output of the Develop Team process. As a result of conducting an
evaluation of the team's overall performance, the project manager can identify the specific training, coaching,
mentoring, assistance, or changes required to improve the team's performance.

C Team building register

Incorrect. 'Team building register' is a made-up term for this question.

D Individual and team assessments

Incorrect. Individual and team assessments are a tool (not an output) used in the Develop Team process. Various tools
are available such as attitudinal surveys, structured interviews, and ability tests. These tools can assist with team
building, but will not evaluate how well the team is performing on the project.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 343

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 189 of 200 Question ID: 6112128

To ensure that lessons learned are captured and documented throughout the project life cycle, the project manager creates
the lessons learned register.

What project management process is being performed?

A Direct and Manage Project Work

B Monitor and Control Project Work

C Manage Project Knowledge

D Create Lessons Learned

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
During which project management process is the lessons learned register created?

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Manage Project Knowledge is the process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project’s
objectives and contribute to organizational learning. The lessons learned register is an output of the Manage Project
Knowledge process, making this process the best answer to the question asked.

Details for Each Option:

A Direct and Manage Project Work

Incorrect. Direct and Manage Project Work is the process of leading and performing the work defined in the project
management plan. The lessons learned register can be updated as a result of this process. However, the lessons
learned register is not created during this process.

B Monitor and Control Project Work

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 Incorrect. Monitor and Control Project Work is the process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall project progress.
The lessons learned register can be updated as a result of this process. However, for the first time, the lessons learned
register is created as part of Manage Project Knowledge and not the Monitor and Control Project Work process.

C Manage Project Knowledge

Correct. Manage Project Knowledge is the process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve
the project’s objectives and contribute to organizational learning. The lessons learned register is created during the
Manage Project Knowledge process.

D Create Lessons Learned

Incorrect. 'Create Lessons Learned' is not a process specified in the PMBOK® Guide.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 98, 104

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 190 of 200 Question ID: 6112700

Development team members argue with the product owner who rejected a deliverable the team developed during the recent
iteration. The project manager schedules a meeting with the team, product owner, and other relevant stakeholders to break
down the situation and identify the root cause of a misunderstanding.

Which of the following will be considered an antipattern if used during the meeting?

A Drawing a fishbone diagram

B Using the five whys method

C Maximizing the number of action items

D Defining the problem statement

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
An antipattern is an ineffective or counterproductive response to address an issue.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

An antipattern can be described as an action that is taken to resolve an issue but is ineffective and may even prove
counterproductive. Since the question is asking for an antipattern, the incorrect answer choices represent actions that are
consistent with best practices or techniques associated with root cause analysis. In this case, attempting to maximize the
number of action items is considered an antipattern. Assigning too many action items aimed to resolve a problem may cause
a distraction from performing the most important actions that may produce the best results. It is better to pick the top one or
two actions and focus efforts on those that are most likely to be effective.

Note, the scenario describes a hybrid project that involves elements from both the traditional/predictive project management
approach and agile. The fact the project manager is involved in the project who schedules and leads a meeting with the team,
product owner, and other stakeholders indicate that the project is using a predictive project management approach. The use
of iterations, the fact a product owner is involved in the acceptance of the product increments developed by the team are an
indication that this part of the project is managed using the agile project management approach. While this information does

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not change the correct answer, it is important to understand that projects can be managed using various approaches,
including predictive (sometimes called traditional or waterfall), agile (Scrum, Kanban, etc.), or hybrid which is a combination of
both.

Details for Each Option:

A Drawing a fishbone diagram

Incorrect. A fishbone diagram is a common type of cause-and-effect diagram that is used for root cause analysis.
Utilizing a fishbone diagram would not be considered an antipattern.

B Using the five whys method

Incorrect. The five whys method is a technique where repeatedly asking "why?" breaks down the identified problem to
identify the root cause. Convention suggests that five iterations are required to drill down to the root cause of the
problem. The five whys method is a common form of root cause analysis and would not be considered an antipattern.

C Maximizing the number of action items

Correct. Maximizing the number of action items may not be an effective method of resolving the identified problem. For
the greatest effectiveness, the meeting participants should focus on the most important action items rather than on the
number of action items.

D Defining the problem statement

Incorrect. Defining the problem statement is one of the first steps for conducting a root cause analysis. Once the
problem has been defined, it can be decomposed to help identify the main cause(s). Asking the team to define the
problem statement is consistent with best practices and not considered an antipattern.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 292-294

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 51

Agile Retrospectives Making Good Teams Great, Esther Derby, Diana Larson, 2006, Decide What to Do

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 191 of 200 Question ID: 6110043

The project requires ongoing stakeholder engagement and needs to respond to high levels of change. The project manager
has chosen an adaptive life cycle for the project. The backlog contains an ordered list of requirements and work. At the
beginning of each iteration, the team determines how many of the items on the backlog can be delivered within the next
iteration.

Which process(es) will the project team need to repeat with each iteration?

A Define Scope

B Collect Requirements and Create WBS

C Collect Requirements and Define Scope

D Collect Requirements, Define Scope, and Create WBS

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The project manager will need to begin each iteration with processes from the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In the scenario described, the project is managed with an adaptive life cycle. Projects with adaptive life cycles are intended to
respond to high levels of change and require close and consistent stakeholder engagement. Often the full scope of the
project is not understood at the beginning of the project, or it evolves during the project. Therefore, the deliverables are
developed over multiple iterations where a detailed scope is defined and approved at the beginning of each iteration. In an
adaptive life cycle, a high-level vision for the project is decomposed into an ordered list of requirements and work which is
contained in the backlog list. At the beginning of each iteration, the team determines how many of the items on the backlog
list can be delivered with the iteration. This action corresponds to the Collect Requirements process. The chosen
requirements from the backlog list are then used to define a detailed scope for that iteration. Lastly, the scope for the iteration
is decomposed into the work required for that iteration's approved scope, meaning the Create WBS process is performed.
Therefore, the processes of Collect Requirements, Define Scope, and Create WBS are performed for each iteration of the
project.

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Details for Each Option:

A Define Scope
Incorrect. Before beginning the iteration, the team determines which items on the backlog will be delivered or, in other
words, which requirements will be addressed in the iteration. The requirements will be used to define a detailed scope
for the iteration. Therefore, the iteration requires more than the Define Scope process.

B Collect Requirements and Create WBS

Incorrect. In an adaptive life cycle, the deliverables are developed over multiple iterations where a detailed scope is
defined and approved for each iteration when it begins. While Collect Requirements and Create WBS are performed
with each iteration, so is Define Scope. Therefore, this is not the best answer to the question asked.

C Collect Requirements and Define Scope

Incorrect. In an adaptive life cycle, the requirements constitute the backlog, and the team will determine how many of
the requirements will be delivered in the next iteration. After the requirements are determined for the iteration, a
detailed scope will be defined. However, the iteration also needs to be broken down into manageable parts for
execution, which is accomplished through the Create WBS process. This answer is missing the Create WBS process.

D Collect Requirements, Define Scope, and Create WBS

Correct. In an adaptive lifecycle, the deliverables are developed over multiple iterations. At the beginning of each
iteration, the team will determine how many of the requirements on the backlog can be delivered in the next iteration,
and a detailed scope is defined and approved. The detailed scope is decomposed into manageable pieces of work
through the Create WBS process. Therefore, three processes are repeated for each iteration; Collect Requirements,
Define Scope, and Create WBS.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 131

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 192 of 200 Question ID: 6112509

To better use existing knowledge and to create new knowledge for a project, the project manager is looking for ways to
identify any knowledge gaps.

Which of the following would help the project manager the most to complete this process?

A Bid documents

B Resource breakdown structure

C Quality metrics

D To-complete performance index

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which of the following includes information on the composition of the team?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge for a project is essentially the definition of the Manage Project
Knowledge process. When the knowledge that the project has is compared to its knowledge needs, then the gaps in
knowledge can be identified and addressed. Specifically, the resource breakdown structure, as it pertains to the Manage
Project Knowledge process, includes information on the composition of the team and may help to understand what
knowledge is available as a group and what knowledge may be missing.

Details for Each Option:

A Bid documents
Incorrect. Bid documents are used to solicit information, quotations, or proposal from prospective sellers. First, it is not
clear from the scenario if the project involves sellers. Second, even if it does, the information included in the bid
documents is limited to the work outsourced to the sellers.
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B Resource breakdown structure
Correct. The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type. The
resource breakdown structure is one of the project documents that serve as an input for the Manage Project
Knowledge process described in the scenario. The resource breakdown structure includes information on the
composition of the team and may help to understand what knowledge is available as a group and what knowledge is
missing

C Quality metrics
Incorrect. A quality metric is a description of a project or product attribute and the way the Control Quality process will
verify compliance to it. Quality metrics have little to do with using and preservice knowledge on a project.

D To-complete performance index

Incorrect. The to-complete performance index (TCPI) is a measure of the cost performance that is required to be
achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal. The TCPI is just one piece of
information, while the goal of the project manager in the scenario provided is to use existing knowledge and create new
knowledge for the project. It does not seem reasonable that the TCPI can help in accomplishing this goal.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 101

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 193 of 200 Question ID: 6112769

You are leading an off-grid housing construction project. Each of the ten homes in the development will have solar shingles to
generate energy and a novel energy storage system. The performing organization is highly experienced with traditional
construction methods, but this is their first project to incorporate energy generation and storage.

How might you best support continuous improvement efforts throughout the project?

A Construct the homes sequentially using a predictive model and hold a retrospective after the completion of each
home

B Review the lessons learned repository during project planning and apply the knowledge gained during project
execution

C Build all of the homes concurrently using a predictive approach and update the lessons learned register
continuously

D Utilize an incremental project management approach for the development of the homes and hold a project
retrospective

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
How might you take learnings from the construction of one home and apply to the other homes?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario describes a project with aspects of low uncertainty and risk, along with other aspects that have high uncertainty
and risk. Since the performing organization has a great deal of experience with traditional construction methods, these
aspects of the project represent little uncertainty and risk. However, the organization does not have experience with solar
shingles and energy storage, making these aspects of the project high uncertainty and risk. One method of managing the
uncertainty and risk is to combine a predictive project management framework with an incremental approach, resulting in a
hybrid project. The construction of each home can follow the traditional waterfall framework, but also incorporate an
incremental approach by building one home at a time (sequentially). Using the incremental approach and conducting a

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retrospective after the completion of each deliverable (similarly to how this process is carried out on agile projects) will
provide the opportunity for lessons learned to be applied to each subsequent deliverable (home), thus providing opportunities
for continuous improvement throughout project execution.

Details for Each Option:

A Construct the homes sequentially using a predictive model and hold a retrospective after the completion of each
home
Correct. Adopting an incremental approach by constructing the homes sequentially and, after each consecutive home
is built, learning what went well and what should be improved will allow the project team to gain valuable information
that can be applied to the construction of the subsequent homes in the development.

B Review the lessons learned repository during project planning and apply the knowledge gained during project
execution
Incorrect. Reviewing the organization's lessons learned repository might yield some useful information regarding home
construction. However, the question indicates that this will be the organization's first project incorporating solar panels
and energy storage. Thus, it is highly unlikely that the lessons learned repository will have information regarding energy
generation and storage, which represents the highest risk and uncertainty for the project.

C Build all of the homes concurrently using a predictive approach and update the lessons learned register
continuously
Incorrect. Updating the lessons learned register continuously is a proper project management practice. However,
building all of the homes concurrently would not provide an opportunity for lessons learned to be applied to the current
project. For example, if the solar shingles are installed on all of the homes at the same time, any mistakes or poor
practices would likely be duplicated across all of the homes.

D Utilize an incremental project management approach for the development of the homes and hold a project
retrospective
Incorrect. Utilizing an incremental approach is a good idea for this project. However, the project retrospective is held at
the end of the project. While the project retrospective might be helpful in improving performance with future projects, it
will not be helpful with improving performance throughout the current project as requested by the scenario.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 400

Agile Practice Guide - First Edition, Project Management Institute Inc, 2018, Pages(s) 22-23, 50-51

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 194 of 200 Question ID: 6113265

The deliverables of a two-year-long project have just been accepted. It is four months late, but the customer is pleased to
have it. The project manager is glad to be done with the deliverables but is concerned about the cost and schedule overruns.
He decides to re-run the initial cost-benefit analysis using the actual project costs.

Where should the project manager obtain the initial cost-benefit analysis?

A From the customer

B The project charter

C The business case

D The benefits management plan

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
It is the document that justified the project.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A business case contains a documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a selected
component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management
activities. The business case has the complete cost-benefit analysis for the project. It can provide the project manager with all
the initial information used to justify the project, allowing the project manager can re-run the cost-benefit analysis substituting
actual costs for the analysis.

Details for Each Option:

A From the customer

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 Incorrect. The question is taken from the perspective of the supplier. The customer will be aware of the price charged
by the supplier but will not likely have any relevant information on the vendor's costs and cost-benefit analysis for the
project. The data for a cost-benefit analysis, including conditions that were known at the start of the project, are
included in the vendor's business documents.

B The project charter

Incorrect. The project charter defines success criteria and other measurable objectives but is not likely to have the
complete cost-benefit analysis.

C The business case

Correct. The business case has the complete cost-benefit analysis for the project. It can provide the project manager
with all the initial information used to justify the project.

D The benefits management plan

Incorrect. The benefits management plan explains the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits
provided by a project or program. It outlines the benefits of all projects and how they are to be maintained beyond the
completion of the project. It does not have the cost-benefit analysis.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 125

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 195 of 200 Question ID: 6113354

A software development project is in planning. The planning is done traditionally, but the product will be developed
incrementally. The project manager creates a resource breakdown structure to identify staffing needs, work assignments, and
training required for the team members. The project manager assigns hierarchical level 1 to individuals in a leading role.

How should the project manager map the resource breakdown structure's entries (on the right) to the resource breakdown
structure's categories (on the left)?

Equipment Team space room

Facilities Product owner

Personnel (level 1) Office clerk

Personnel (level 2) Team member

Software Digital scrum board

Personnel (level 3) Data server

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
What does a resource breakdown structure visualize, and which categories does it typically contain?

Correct Answer:

Equipment Data server

Facilities Team space room

Personnel (level 1) Product owner

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 Personnel (level 2) Team member

Software Digital scrum board

Personnel (level 3) Office clerk

Explanation:

The scenario suggests that the project employes a hybrid project management approach. This means that the project
manager and team will likely use a combination of agile as well as traditional tools and techniques while planning, executing,
monitoring, controlling, and closing the project. A resource breakdown structure is a project document that is created as one
of the outputs of the Estimate Activity Resources process implied by the scenario. This document can be graphically
displayed as a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type and can help in project resource planning by
providing a structured view of project resources.

A common way to decompose staff (personnel) entries in the resource breakdown structure is to categorize them according
to their level of skills or authority. With level 1 indicating a project stakeholder in a leading role, such as the product owner,
who is likely to be mapped to the "Personnel (level 1)" category. A team member best fits the "Personnel (level 2)" category,
and so on.

A data server best matches the equipment category, and the team space room reasonably falls under facilities. The
remaining digital scrum board can be logically mapped as software.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) - Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 326-327

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 196 of 200 Question ID: 6112011

The project management plan and the performance measurement baseline have been approved. As you monitor the project's
progress, you realize the approved budget is limiting the project and will affect the targeted completion date. This constraint
could affect the company's success in the new venture.

What is your best course of action?

A Use the contingency reserves

B Use the management reserves

C Cut costs to stay within the budget

D Ask for a change in the budget

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
A project manager needs to take appropriate actions to meet the project's objectives which likely will assist the company in
achieving its strategic goals.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

As the project manager, you are ultimately responsible for the project as a whole and its success. You are also the one that
has the overall view of the project. The scenario suggests the project budget is limiting the project's ability to meet the
targeted completion date. While staying within budget is one of your responsibilities, you also need to make integrated
decisions and act to ensure the project's objectives are met and remain aligned with the business plan and the benefits
management plan. By deciding to ask for a budget increase so that the completion date can be met, rather than trying to cut
costs to stay within the budget, you are contributing toward the project's success. An approved change request will be
required to change the project budget.

Details for Each Option:

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A Use the contingency reserves
Incorrect. Contingency reserves are allocated for known risks that have been specifically identified during risk analysis.
Since the contingency reserves are included in the budget, using them would not increase the funding for the project
and therefore is not your best course of action.

B Use the management reserves

Incorrect. Management reserves are additional funds to cover unforeseen risks that could impact the project. These
reserves are not included in the cost baseline but are part of the approved cost budget. An approved change request is
required to utilize management reserves and, therefore, cannot be used at the project manager's discretion.

C Cut costs to stay within the budget

Incorrect. The scenario suggests the current budget is a constraint to the project, and that increased funding is required
to meet the objectives. While staying within budget is one of your responsibilities as the project manager, you also need
to make integrated decisions and act to ensure both the project's and the company's objectives are met. By cutting
costs to stay within budget, the company might miss its strategic goals.

D Ask for a change in the budget

Correct. The scenario suggests you find the budget is a constraint that could hinder the company's realization of one of
their strategic goals. By asking for a change in the budget, you increase the chances of the company's to meet its
strategic goals.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 72

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 197 of 200 Question ID: 6112612

You are halfway through a project, which has experienced several setbacks due to unanticipated problems. Based on recent
feedback, you are concerned that critical support for the project among key stakeholders is eroding. You want to bring the
stakeholders together for a meeting to address any concerns and rebuild support for the project.

Which of the following meetings would be the most beneficial for the key stakeholders to attend?

A Customer wrap-up meeting

B Change control meeting

C Celebration meeting

D Iteration retrospective

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
The ability of stakeholders to influence the project is typically highest during the initiating stage and gets lower as the project
progresses.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The question suggests that the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is underway. Various meetings can be beneficial in
this process including the iteration retrospective. An iteration retrospective is a specialized type of meeting used on projects
with an agile framework and is conducted at the end of each iteration. The purpose of a retrospective is to cover project
progress thus far and determine what worked well, what did not work well, and how project performance can be improved
going forward. Inviting the key stakeholders to the iteration retrospective will allow the project team to address any concerns
the stakeholders may have and develop a plan to ensure the problems encountered do not recur. This approach should be
beneficial in reassuring the stakeholders that positive action is being taken to bring the project back into alignment with
project goals. Additionally, the iteration retrospective is held throughout project execution at the end of each iteration. The
ability of stakeholders to influence the project is typically highest during the initiating stage and gets lower as the project
progresses. The incorrect answer choices represent meetings that are held at the end of the project and/or are not relevant to
the Manage Stakeholder Engagement Process.

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Note, even though in "pure" agile environment, the iteration retrospective meetings are typically held by and for the team
members with an agile leader (such as a scrum master or an agile coach), other project stakeholders can be invited as
necessary. Therefore, while not ideal, of the available choices, the iteration retrospective would be the most beneficial for key
stakeholders to attend as it pertains to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process.

Details for Each Option:

A Customer wrap-up meeting

Incorrect. The customer wrap-up meeting occurs at the end of the project. The level of influence of project stakeholders
is the lowest at the end of the project. With the project halfway complete and project support in jeopardy, it would be
best to take more immediate action and not wait until the end of the project. While the customer wrap-up meeting may
be required for certain stakeholders, it is not the most beneficial meeting from the standpoint of managing stakeholder
engagement.

B Change control meeting

Incorrect. Change control meetings are held with a change control board (CCB) that is responsible for meeting and
reviewing the change requests and approving, rejecting, or deferring change requests. It is not known from the
description provided by the question if a CCB has been authorized by the project management plan. Even if the project
utilizes a CCB, the focus of the meeting is to review and dispose change requests, which is unlikely to have the desired
effect on stakeholder engagement.

C Celebration meeting
Incorrect. A celebration meeting usually occurs at the end of a project to reward the project team and celebrate the
success of the project. The celebration meeting may also include key stakeholders. However, at the conclusion of a
project is when stakeholders have the least influence on the outcome of the project, making the celebration meeting of
lesser importance for managing stakeholder engagement compared with meetings conducted earlier in the project.
Additionally, the scenario describes a project that has been experiencing issues. It is not clear yet if there will be
anything to celebrate.

D Iteration retrospective
Correct. An iteration retrospective is a specialized type of meeting used on projects with an agile framework conducted
at the end of each iteration. The purpose of an iteration retrospective is to cover project progress thus far and
determine what has gone well, what has not gone well, and how project performance can be improved going forward.
Inviting the key stakeholders to the iteration retrospective will allow the project team to address any concerns the
stakeholders may have and develop a plan to ensure the problems encountered do not recur.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 528

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 198 of 200 Question ID: 6112031

You are managing a project to build 100 site towers, and you have just completed building the 50th tower. To mark the
successful completion of this first significant milestone, you hold a celebration where you share the developments,
challenges, and lessons learned so far on the project.

In what process will you use this information and knowledge gained so far to improve the future performance of the project?

A Control Quality

B Perform Continuous Improvement

C Manage Quality

D Direct and Manage Project Work

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
You are gathering lessons learned and using them to improve the future performance of the project.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

This scenario showcases the iterative nature of a project. Work performance data, collected during project execution, is
transformed into work performance information and is used as an input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process
which provides feedback into the lessons learned register. The lessons learned from which the project can benefit are then
translated into change requests which are subsequently implemented in the Direct and Manage Project Work process to
improve the future performance of the project. You are using the celebration of the first milestone to reflect on the lessons
learned to date and to highlight how to incorporate them into the remainder of the project. Therefore, it is the Direct and
Manage Project Work process where information and knowledge gained throughout the project will be used to improve the
future performance of the project.

Details for Each Option:

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A Control Quality
Incorrect. Control Quality is the process of determining the correctness of the deliverables. Some of the improvement
suggestions presented at the celebration may have come from the Control Quality process; however, they will be
implemented as part of the Direct and Manage Project Work process.

B Perform Continuous Improvement

Incorrect. 'Perform Continuous Improvement' is not a process specified in the PMBOK® Guide.

C Manage Quality
Incorrect. Manage Quality focuses on whether the processes in use are effective in meeting the quality requirements
needed to satisfy the customer. This process is not used to implement improvement suggestions that come from project
execution.

D Direct and Manage Project Work

Correct. The Direct and Manage Project Work process involves not only the implementation of planned project activities
but also any approved changes submitted as a result of improvement suggestions identified throughout the project.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 92, 298

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 199 of 200 Question ID: 6112856

You are creating the schedule to deploy a new ERP software in your company. The company is currently undergoing an agile
transformation, so it was decided to develop the new ERP iteratively. The first release of the ERP should be rolled out in four
months, and you know that another project, a company-wide operating system upgrade, is scheduled in three months.

With the upgrade project affecting your schedule, an impact on which of the following should you assess to determine the
number of iterations until rollout?

A Release planning

B Product roadmap

C Iteration backlogs

D Project charter

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Which level of agile planning establishes the number of iterations?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Agile release planning provides a high-level summary timeline of the release schedule based on the product roadmap and the
product vision. In the scenario, the project manager needs to develop a schedule for the first release, which will establish the
number of iterations required. Since there is a potential impact on the schedule from another project, the project manager
should analyze the impact and take the findings into account when developing the release plan for the current project. The
assessment and evaluation of this impact could be done using the what-if scenario analysis, which is an example of the data
analysis technique that can be used as part of the Develop Schedule process implied by the scenario. The what-if scenario
analysis may typically help assess the feasibility of the project schedule under different conditions, thus allowing the project
manager to make an informed decision as to the number of iterations required before the rollout.

Details for Each Option:

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A Release planning
Correct. Agile release planning determines the number of iterations in the release and helps decide how much needs to
be developed and how long it will take to have a releasable product based on business goals, dependencies, and
impediments. A company-wide operating system upgrade described by the scenario represents a dependency, thus
requiring the project manager to analyze its impact on the release planning of the ERP project.

B Product roadmap
Incorrect. A product roadmap shows the anticipated sequence of deliverables over time. In agile release planning, the
product roadmap drives the release plans. While it may be important to evaluate the overall feasibility of the roadmap in
the scenario described, the number of iterations, as requested by the question, is determined at the release level, not
the product roadmap level.

C Iteration backlogs
Incorrect. An iteration backlog is a prioritized list of items (requirements, features, user stories) to be developed in an
iteration. The iteration length is typically fixed and not determined by its content. The number of iterations in a release is
determined by the iteration length and the time available until the rollout, rather than the content of iteration backlogs.
Therefore, assessing the impact of the upgrade project on the iteration backlogs of the current project would not help
determine the number of the iterations until rollout.

D Project charter
Incorrect. A project charter is a document that authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager
with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. The information captured in the project charter
is typically presented at a high-level and does not specify the number of iterations planned for a project, whether the
project is managed using a traditional or agile approach.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 213, 216

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PMP Exam Simulator 2021
PMP Exam 1

Filtered Mode: Displaying 200 questions

Question 200 of 200 Question ID: 6112259

A project manager invited several vendors to a pre-bid conference. After a private conversation with one of the vendors who
had an inquiry about a new mandatory government requirement, the project manager sent an email to the vendor to address
the question. The project manager realizes that the requirement should have been included in the project scope baseline and
the statement of work (SOW).

What should the project manager do in this situation?

A No further action is needed as the vendor's question have been addressed

B Update the statement of work and the scope baseline, and communicate the changes to all vendors

C Update the statement of work and the scope baseline, and hold another pre-bid conference

D Update the SOW, submit a change request to update the scope baseline, and communicate the changes to all
vendors

J Question answered incorrectly

Hint:
Consider that the requirement needs to be added to a project baseline and that the project manager needs to be fair to all
vendors.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the project manager is performing the Conduct Procurements process. A bidder conference (also
called a contractor conference, vendor conference, and a pre-bid conference) is one of the tools and techniques used as part
of this process. The project manager should be fair to all vendors and abide by the value of fairness in the PMI Code of Ethics
and Professional Conduct. Project managers should constantly re-examine their impartiality and objectivity, taking corrective
action as needed. The project manager, in this scenario, should provide equal access to information to those who are
authorized to have that information. The missed requirement should also be added to the project scope baseline, which
requires the Perform Integrated Change Control process to be carried out, including an approved change request.

Note, a procurement SOW can be revised as required as it moves through the procurement process until incorporated into a
signed agreement. After that, if the SOW requires an update, an approved changed request is needed to modify it as it is part
of the agreement. While this point is not covered by the correct answer choice, updating the SOW, submitting a change /
request to update the scope baseline, and communicating the changes to all vendors is still the best answer of those
provided.

Details for Each Option:

A No further action is needed as the vendor's question have been addressed

Incorrect. The project manager’s response may give that vendor an unfair advantage in bidding.

B Update the statement of work and the scope baseline, and communicate the changes to all vendors
Incorrect. The procurement statement of work is the description of the procurement item based on the scope baseline
and should indeed be updated. The changes should be communicated to the vendors. The scope baseline is part of the
project management plan and is, therefore a controlled document. This answer is incorrect since it skips the change
control procedure.

C Update the statement of work and the scope baseline, and hold another pre-bid conference
Incorrect. Another pre-bid conference is one way to communicate clearly to all vendors in fairness for the procurement
process. However, since the scope baseline is part of the project management plan, it is a controlled document which
cannot be updated without an approved change request. This choice skips the Perform Integrated Change Control
process.

D Update the SOW, submit a change request to update the scope baseline, and communicate the changes to all
vendors
Correct. Changes to the baseline must undergo the Perform Integrated Change Control process. A change to the
statement of work should be clearly communicated to all vendors.

Reference:

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) 486-491, 478, 496

PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, Fairness.

To learn more about this topic, please watch the following video:

FYI: This video uses the old-style 4:3 video dimensions

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