DC Electrics – Basic principle

1. All effects of electricity take place because of the existence of a tiny particle called the:
a. electric
b. proton
c. neutron
d. electron

2. The nucleus of an atom is:

a. positively charged
b. negatively charged
c. statically charged
d. of zero potential

3. An atom is electrically balanced when:

a. its protons and electrons balance each other
b. the protons outnumber the electrons
c. the electrons outnumber the protons
d. the electric and static charges are balanced

4. The electrons of an atom are:

a. positively charged
b. neutral
c. negatively charged
d. of zero potential

5. A material with a deficiency of electrons becomes:

a. positively charged
b. negatively charged
c. isolated
d. overheated

6. A material with a surplus of electrons becomes:

a. positively charged
b. negatively charged
c. over charged
d. saturated

7. Heat produces an electric charge when:

a. like poles are joined
b. a hard and soft glass is heated
c. the junction of two unlike metals is heated
d. hard and soft material are rubbed together
8. Friction causes:
a. mobile electricity
b. basic electricity
c. static electricity
d. wild electricity

9. Chemical action produces electricity in:

a. a light meter
b. a generator
c. a primary cell
d. starter generator
10. A photo electric cell produces electricity when:
a. two metals are heated
b. exposed to a light source
c. a light source is removed
d. exposed to the heat of the sun
1. The difference in electric potential is measured in:
a. kVARs
b. watts
c. amps
d. volts

2. Electrical power is measured in:

a. watts
b. amperes
c. ohms
d. volts

3. The unit measurement of electrical resistance is:

a. the volt
b. the watt
c. the ohm
d. the ampere

4. An ammeter measures:
a. current
b. power dissipation
c. differences of electrical potential
d. heat energy

5. Materials containing ‘free electrons’ are called:

a. insulators
b. resistors
c. collectors
d. conductors

6. The unit used for measuring the EMF of electricity is:

a. the ohm
b. the ampere
c. the volt
d. the watt

7. The unit used for measuring:

a. current - is the volt
b. resistance - is the ohm
c. electric power - is the capacitor
d. EMF - is the amp
8. Three resistors of 60 ohms each in parallel give a total resistance of:
a. 180 ohms
b. 40 ohms
c. 30 ohms
d. 20 ohms
9. A voltmeter measures:
a. electromotive force
b. the heat loss in a series circuit
c. the current flow in a circuit
d. the resistance provided by the trimming devices

10. Watts =
a. resistance squared × amps
b. volts × ohms
c. ohms × amps
d. volts × amps
1. The total resistance of a number of power consumer devices connected in series is:
a. the addition of the individual resistances
b. the addition of the reciprocals of the individual resistance
c. twice the reciprocal of the individual resistances
d. the reciprocal of the total

2. The total resistance of a number of resistances connected in parallel is:

a. R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4
b. 1 R2 1 R1 = + + + 1 RT 1 R3 1 R4
c. = + + + 1 RT R1 R3 R2 R4
d. = + + + R T1 1 R 1 R R2 1 R4 1

3. Ohm’s Law states:

a. Resistance in ohms Electromotive force in volts Current in amps =
b. Current in amps Electromotive force in volts Resistance in ohms =
c. Electromotive force in volts Resistance in ohms Current in amps =

4. A device consuming 80 watts at 8 amps would have a voltage supply of:

a. 640 volts
b. 12 volts
c. 10 volts
d. 8 volts

5. In a simple electrical circuit, if the resistors are in parallel, the total current consumed is
equal to:
a. the sum of the currents taken by the resistors divided by the number of resistors
b. the sum of the currents taken by the resistors
c. the average current taken by the resistors times the number of the resistors
d. the sum of the reciprocals of the currents taken by the resistors

6. The symbol for volts is:

a. E or W
b. V or E
c. I or V
d. R or W
7. Electrical potential is measured in:
a. watts
b. bars
c. volts
d. ohms
8. If a number of electrical consuming devices were connected in parallel, the reciprocal of the
total resistance would be:
a. the sum of the currents
b. the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances
c. the sum of their resistances
d. volts divided by the sum of the resistances

9. The current flowing in an electrical circuit is measured in:

a. volts
b. ohms
c. inductance
d. amps

10. Electromotive force is measured in:

a. amps × volts
b. watts
c. ohms
d. volts
1. Ohm’s Law is given by the formula:
a. RV I =
b. RI V =
c. VR I =
d. R = V × I

2. The current flowing in a circuit is:

a. directly proportional to resistance, indirectly proportional to voltage
b. directly proportional to temperature, inversely proportional to resistance
c. inversely proportional to resistance, directly proportional to voltage
d. inversely proportional to applied voltage, directly proportional to temperature

3. The unit of EMF is the:

a. ampere
b. vol
c. watt
d. ohm

4. Potential difference is measured in:

a. amps
b. volts
c. watts
d. ohms

5. The unit of current is the:

a. ampere
b. volt
c. watt
d. ohm

6. The unit of resistance is the:

a. ampere
b. volt
c. watt
d. ohm
7. Electrical power is measured in:
a. amperes
b. volts
c. watts
d. ohms
8. 1250 ohms may also be expressed as:
a. 1250 k ohms
b. 1.25 k ohms
c. 1.25 M ohms
d. 0.125 k ohms

9. 1.5 M ohms may also be expressed as:

a. 15 000 ohms
b. 1500 ohms
c. 150 000 ohms
d. 1500 k ohms

10. 550 k ohms may also be expressed as:

a. 550 000 M ohms
b. 0.55 M ohms
c. 55000 ohms
d. 0.55 ohms

11. If the voltage applied to a simple resistor increases:

a. current will decrease but power consumed remains constant
b. resistance and power decrease
c. current flow will increase and power consumed will increase
d. current flow increases and power consumed decreases

12. What is the total resistance in this circuit:

a. 11.5 ohms
b. 11 500 k ohms
c. 11.5 k ohms
d. 11.5 M ohms
LOOK AT THE CIRCUIT AT ANNEX A AND ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS

13. The total resistance of the circuit is:

a. 14 ohms
b. 39.6 ohms
c. 25.6 ohms
d. varies with the applied voltage

14. The current flow indication on ammeter ‘A’ would be:

a. 2 amps
b. 2 volts
c. 2.5 amps
d. 2.5 volts
15. The total power consumed in the circuit will be:
a. 14 kilowatts
b. 56 kilowatts
c. 56 watts
d. 14 watts
16. The power consumed by R5 alone is:
a. 14 watts
b. 28 watts
c. 112 watts
d. 28 kilowatts

17. The indication on voltmeter V1 will be:

a. 2.3 volts
b. 28 volts
c. 9.2 volts
d. 92 volts

18. The indication on voltmeter V3 will be:

a. 28 volts
b. 14 volts
c. 14 amps
d. 3.5 volts

19. The indication on voltmeter V2 will be:

a. 28 volts
b. 4.8 volts
c. 9.6 volts
d. 14 volts

20. The current flowing through R2 is:

a. 0.04 amps
b. 0.4 amps
c. 4 amps
d. 40 milliamps

21. The current flowing through R3 is:

a. 0.04 amps
b. 0.4 amps
c. 4 amps
d. 40 milliamps

22. The current flowing through R4 is:

a. 120 milliamps
b. 1.2 amps
c. 19.2 amps
d. 1.92 milliamps
23. The power consumed by R2 alone is:
a. 1.92 kilowatts watts
b. 1.92 watts
c. 65.3 watts
d. 65.3 kilowatts

24. The power consumed by R3 alone is:

a. 1.92 kilowatts watts
b. 1.92 watts
c. 65.3 watts
d. 65.3 kilowatts
25. The power consumed by R4 alone is:
a. 5.76 kilowatts
b. 5.76 volts
c. 5.76 watts
d. 3.33 watts

26. The power consumed by R1 alone is:

a. 18.4 kilowatts
b. 42.32 watts
c. 18.4 watts
d. 4.232 kilowatts

Questions - Circuit Breakers

1. In a circuit fitted with a non-trip free circuit breaker if a fault occurs and persists:
a. if the reset button is depressed and held in, the circuit will be made
b. the trip button may be pressed to reset, but not permanently
c. a non-trip free circuit breaker can never be bypassed
d. the reset button may be pressed to make the circuit permanent

2. A trip free circuit breaker that has tripped due to overload:

a. can be reset and held in during rectification
b. can never be reset
c. can be reset after overhaul
d. may be reset manually after fault has been cleared

3. Circuit breakers and fuses:

a. are used in DC circuits only
b. are used in AC or DC circuits
c. are used in AC circuits only
d. are used in low current circuits only

4. A trip free circuit breaker is one which:

a. cannot be reset by holding the lever in while the fault persists
b. can be reset by holding the lever in while the fault persists
c. must be held in during checks to find faults
d. can be bypassed

5. If the reset button is pressed in the trip free circuit breaker, the contacts with the fault
cleared will:
a. be made and kept made
b. only be made if there is a fuse in the circuit
c. reset itself only after a delay of 20 seconds
d. not be made and the reset will remain inoperative

6. A circuit breaker is a device for:

a. controlling rotor movement only
b. isolating the service on overload
c. isolating the battery when using the ground batteries
d. earthing the magnetos when switching off
7. A non-trip free circuit breaker is:
a. one which can make a circuit in flight by pushing a button
b. a wire placed in a conductor which melts under overload
c. another type of voltage regulator
d. an on-off type tumbler switch
8. A non-trip free circuit breaker that has tripped due to overload:
a. can never be reset
b. can only be reset on the ground by a maintenance engineer
c. can be reset and held in if necessary
d. cannot be reset while the fault is still there

9. A thermal circuit breaker works on the principle of:

a. differential expansion of metals
b. differential thickness of metals
c. differential density of metals
d. differential pressure of metals

10. Circuit breakers are fitted in:

a. series with the load
b. parallel with the load
c. across the load
d. shunt with the load

Questions - Fuses

1. A fuse is said to have blown when:

a. an excess current has burst the outer cover and disconnected the circuit from the supply
b. the circuit is reconnected
c. a current of a higher value than the fuse rating has melted the conductor and disconnected
the circuit from the supply
d. the amperage has been sufficiently high to cause the fuse to trip out of its holder and has
therefore, disconnected the circuit from the supply

2. In a fused circuit the fuse is:

a. in parallel with the load
b. in series with the load
c. in the conductor between generator and regulator
d. only fitted when loads are in series

3. Overloading an electrical circuit causes the fuse to ‘Blow’. This:

a. increases the weight of the insulation
b. fractures the fuse case
c. disconnects the fuse from its holder
d. melts the fuse wire

4. What must be checked before replacing a fuse?

a. The ohms of the circuit
b. The amps being used in the circuit
c. The amps capacity of the consuming device in the circuit
d. The correct fuse volt or watts rating
5. The size of fuse required for an electrical circuit whose power is 72 watts and whose voltage is
24 volts is:
a. 24 amps
b. 10 amps
c. 5 amps
d. 15 amps
6. When selecting a fuse for an aircraft circuit the governing factor is:
a. the voltage of the circuit
b. cable cross-sectional area
c. resistance of the circuit
d. power requirements of the circuit

7. A fuse in an electrical circuit is ‘blown’ by:

a. cooler air
b. the breaking of the glass tube
c. excess voltage breaking the fuse wire
d. excess current rupturing the fuse wire
8. A fuse is used to protect an electrical circuit, it is:
a. of low melting point
b. of high capacity
c. of high melting point
d. of low resistance

9. Fuses:
a. protect the load
b. protect the cable
c. protect the generator
d. protect both the circuit cable and load

10. A current limiter:

a. is a fuse with a low melting point
b. is a circuit breaker
c. is a fuse with a high melting point
d. is a fuse enclosed in a quartz or sand

Questions - Batteries 1

1. Battery voltage is tested with:

a. a megometer
b. a voltmeter on rated load
c. an ammeter with a rated voltage
d. a hygrometer

2. Two 12 V 40 Ah batteries connected in series will produce:

a. 12 V 80 Ah
b. 12 V 20 Ah
c. 24 V 80 Ah
d. 24 V 40 Ah

3. Two 12 V 40 Ah batteries connected in parallel will produce:

a. 12 V 80 Ah
b. 24 V 80 Ah
c. 12 V 20 Ah
d. 24 V 40 Ah
4. A battery capacity test is carried out:
a. 6 monthly
b. 2 monthly
c. 3 monthly
d. every minor check

5. An aircraft has three batteries each of 12 volts with 40 Ah capacity connected in series. The
resultant unit has:
a. a voltage of 36 and a capacity of 120 Ah
b. a capacity of 120 Ah and a voltage of 12
c. a capacity of 36 Ah and 120 watts
d. a voltage of 36 and a capacity of 40 Ah

6. An aircraft has a battery with a capacity of 40 Ah. Assuming that it will provide its normal
capacity and is discharged at the 10 hour rate:
a. it will pass 40 amps for 10 hrs
b. it will pass 10 amps for 4 hrs
c. it will pass 4 amps for 10 hrs
d. it will pass 40 amps for 1 hr

7. Battery capacity percentage efficiency must always be:

a. 10% above saturation level
b. above 70%
c. 80% or more
d. above 90%
8. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead acid battery is by checking:
a. the voltage on open circuit
b. the current flow with a rated voltage charge
c. the voltage off load
d. the voltage with rated load switched ON

9. A battery is checked for serviceability by:

a. using an ammeter
b. measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte
c. a boric acid solution
d. using an ohmmeter

10. In an AC circuit:
a. the battery is connected in series
b. a battery cannot be used because the wire is too thick
c. a battery cannot be used because it is DC
d. only NiCad batteries can be used

Questions - Batteries 2

1. The specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid cell is:

a. 1.270
b. 1.090
c. 1.120
d. 0.1270
2. The nominal voltage of the lead acid cell is:
a. 1.2 volts
b. 1.5 volts
c. 1.8 volts
d. 2.0 volts

3. A lead acid battery voltage should be checked:

a. on open circuit
b. using a trimmer circuit
c. with an ammeter
d. on load

4. In an aircraft having a battery of 24 volts nominal off load and fully charged the voltmeter
would read:
a. 22 volts
b. 24 volts
c. 26 volts
d. 28 volts

5. The system used to maintain aircraft batteries in a high state of charge is the:
a. constant current system
b. constant load system
c. constant resistance system
d. constant voltage system

6. If you connect two identical batteries in series it will:

a. double the volts and halve the capacity
b. reduce the voltage by 50%
c. double the volts and leave the capacity the same
d. double the volts and double the amps flowing in a circuit with twice the resistance

7. The nominal voltage of an alkaline cell is:

a. 2.2 volts
b. 1.8 volts
c. 1.2 volts
d. 0.12 volts
8. The specific gravity of a fully charged alkaline cell is:
a. 0.120 - 0.130
b. 1.160
c. 1.240 - 1.30
d. 1.800

9. The electrolyte used in the lead acid cell is diluted:

a. hydrochloric acid
b. sulphuric acid
c. boric acid
d. potassium hydroxide

10. The electrolyte used in an alkaline battery is diluted:

a. saline solution
b. sulphuric acid
c. cadmium and distilled water
d. potassium hydroxide solution
 Questions - Batteries 3

1. The number of lead acid cells required to make up a twelve volt battery is:
a. 8
b. 12
c. 6
d. 10

2. A voltmeter across the terminals of a battery with all services off will indicate:
a. electromotive force
b. resistance
c. a flat battery
d. residual voltage

3. The voltage of a secondary cell is:

a. determined by the number of plates
b. determined by the area of the plates
c. determined by the diameter of the main terminals
d. determined by the active materials on the plates

4. The level of the electrolyte must be maintained:

a. just below the top plate
b. above the plates level with the filler cap
c. one inch below the top of the plates
d. just above the top of the plates

5. To top up the electrolyte add:

a. sulphuric acid
b. distilled water
c. sulphuric acid diluted with distilled water
d. boric acid

6. Non-spill vents are used on aircraft batteries to:

a. prevent spillage of electrolyte during violent manoeuvres
b. stop spillage of the water only
c. prevent the escape of gases
d. prevent spillage during topping-up

7. The capacity of a lead acid battery is:

a. determined by the area of the plates
b. determined by the active materials on the plates
c. determined by the size of the series coupling bars
d. determined by the number of separators

8. Acid spillage in an aircraft can be neutralized by using:

a. caustic soda
b. soap and water
c. soda and water
d. bicarbonate of soda and water
9. When the battery master switch is switched off in flight:
a. the generators are disconnected from the bus bar
b. the ammeter reads maximum
c. the battery is isolated from the bus bar
d. the battery is discharged through the bonding circuit diodes
10. When the generator is on line the battery is:
a. in parallel with the other loads
b. in series with the generator
c. in series when the generator is on line and is relayed when the generator is off line
d. load sharing
Magnetism
1. The area of force around a magnet is termed:
a. conductance
b. stable
c. magnetic resistance
d. magnetic field

2. When a magnet is unable to accept any further magnetism it is termed:

a. reluctance
b. saturation
c. active
d. reactance

3. Permanent magnets are manufactured from:

a. steel
b. plastic
c. liquid
d. glass

4. Magnetic lines of force flow externally from:

a. one main line station to another
b. the master station
c. the north to the south pole
d. in a random direction

5. Which of the two poles has the greatest strength?

a. North seeking pole
b. South seeking pole
c. Both poles have the same strength
d. The saturated pole

6. Electromagnetism is a product of:

a. voltage
b. current
c. resistance
d. engine resistance

7. To increase electromagnetic force one would:

a. increase coil resistance
b. reduce current flow
c. lower EMF
d. increase current flow

8. If you bring two magnets together:

a. like poles will attract
b. unlike poles will attract
c. over heating will occur
d. their magnetic fields will adjust to avoid overcrowding
9. A soft iron core in an electromagnet:
a. increases flux density
b. decreases flux density
c. reduces arcing
d. increases the lines of strength

Questions - Generator Theory

1. An EMF is induced in a conductor rotating in a magnetic field by:

a. capacitive reaction
b. the reverse current relay
c. electro transmission
d. electromagnetic induction

2. Magnetic field strength is controlled by:

a. battery bus bar current
b. current in the field coil
c. current in the armature
d. current flow to the battery

3. If a conductor is placed in a magnetic field:

a. an EMF is induced in the conductor
b. an EMF is induced in the conductor only when the conductor rotates
c. the applied resistance assists the back EMF
d. an EMF is induced in the conductor only when the conductor is stationary

4. The output of a basic generator before commutation is:

a. AC
b. DC and after commutation is AC
c. DC
d. synchronized AC and DC

5. An internally excited generator is one where:

a. the field is produced within the distribution
b. the field is initiated by a HT and LT coil
c. the field is initiated by the battery
d. the field is initiated within the generator

6. A DC generator has a commutator whose purpose is to:

a. change AC to give a generator output of DC
b. change DC to AC
c. transmit the generator output to the electrical circuit and to cool the generator
d. maintain a constant resistance

7. Another name for a number of conductors rotating in a magnetic field is:

a. a capacitor
b. an armature
c. a condenser
d. a commutator
8. A generator is governed so that:
a. the EMF is constant and the rate of flow varies
b. the rate of flow is constant and the EMF varies
c. the generator voltage reduces generator temperature
d. back EMF is equal and opposite to the applied EMF
9. The voltage regulator:
a. senses cut-out pressure and adjusts field current
b. senses generator output pressure and adjusts field current
c. senses generator output current and adjusts the field voltage
d. senses back EMF

10. The generator master switch is normally:

a. fitted with a mechanical safety catch
b. in the field circuit which is connected in parallel with the generator output
c. in the field circuit which is in parallel with the voltage regulator
d. fitted in series with the commutator

Questions - Generator Control

1. The voltage regulator:

a. provides a constant current flow from the generator with changes of generator speed
b. senses current output
c. maintains a steady generator voltage with changes of generator speed
d. regulates the amount of current supplied by the battery to operate the generator

2. Voltage is controlled in a generator by:

a. a reverse current relay
b. moving the brushes
c. a voltage regulator
d. it is uncontrollable

3. On aircraft, generator voltage is regulated by:

a. varying the generator field strength
b. increasing and decreasing the load
c. changing the generator speed
d. changing generator load

4. In an aircraft having a battery with a nominal voltage of 24 V, generator output would be:
a. 24 volts
b. 28 amps
c. 28 volts
d. 24 amps

5. In DC electrical generating systems, the voltage regulator controls the system voltage within
prescribed limits:
a. regardless of varying engine RPM and electrical load, by varying the current in the
generator field windings
b. by means of a relay which closes contacts in the output line when a certain RPM is reached
c. by temperature
d. by a variable resistance which limits the voltage given by the batteries

6. A voltage regulator is fitted to:

a. prevent high circulating currents
b. prevent backlash
c. to ensure correct voltage output to battery
d. to prevent battery feedback to the generator

7. If an aircraft electrical system is quoted as 24 volts DC, the output of the generator is:
a. 12 volts with the generators connected in series
b. 28 volts with the generators connected in parallel
 c. 36 volts with the generators connected in series/parallel
d. 42 volts
8. If a circuit is designed for 12 volts, the generator will:
a. give paralleled output only
b. give controlled 14 volts
c. 14 volts wild DC
d. give controlled 12 volts

9. The aircraft electrical generator output is controlled in flight by:

a. sensing the generator output pressure
b. ram air
c. a resistance in the generator output circuit
d. the resistance of the armature circuit

10. In a generator control circuit the strength of the magnetic field is controlled by:
a. the commutator
b. the voltage regulator
c. the reverse current contactor
d. the output CB

Questions

1. Rotary actuators are used for:

a. undercarriage retraction
b. centre of gravity assessment
c. operation of fuel cocks
d. movement of control surfaces

2. Actuator normal travel is controlled by:

a. a clutch
b. limit microswitches
c. mechanical indicators
d. mechanical stops

3. On a twin engined DC aircraft having two DC generators load sharing is achieved by:
a. equalizing engine RPMs
b. an equalizing circuit to sense the difference and equalize the voltages of the two generators
c. synchronizing relays and voltage coil tuners
d. an equalizing circuit to sense the difference and equalize the field currents of the two
generators

4. Pilots are informed of rotary actuator positions by:

a. non-return valves
b. lights or doll’s eye indicators
c. travel indicators
d. veger counters

5. Press-to-test lights are used:

a. to indicate to the pilot that the circuit has power and is complete
b. to control the movement of a rotary actuator
c. to indicate to the pilot that the circuit has operated
d. only to indicate to the pilot that the equipment has malfunctioned
6. A device for changing AC to DC is:
a. an inverter
 b. a rotary transformer
c. a rectifier
d. an alternator

7. An inching control is used in conjunction with:

a. a linear actuator
b. a rotary actuator
c. a combination of linear and rotary actuator
d. a rectifier
8. Friction clutches are fitted to actuators for:
a. protection against mechanical overload
b. protection against brake on loads
c. protection against non-return valve failure
d. protection against supply failures

Questions - Generator Cut-out

1. In an electrical circuit the reverse current cut-out relay will open:

a. when battery voltage exceeds generator voltage
b. when circuit voltage is less than generator voltage
c. when the main output CB is reset
d. when the batteries are flat

2. A generator cut-out is provided:

a. to prevent the battery over heating
b. to prevent the battery from being overcharged
c. to allow the generator to be isolated in a crash
d. to prevent discharge of the battery through the generator

3. A generator cut-out will open when:

a. circuit loads equal the battery voltage
b. the air temperature reaches 45°C
c. circuit loads equal the generator voltage
d. generator voltage falls below battery voltage

4. A generator cut-out is fitted to prevent:

a. the battery discharging through the generator windings
b. the generator overcharging the battery
c. fire in the event of overloading the system
d. out of phasing

5. In the event of the cut-out points sticking in the closed position, the most probable results,
when the engine stopped would be:
a. gain of engine power
b. a burnt out generator
c. loss of residual magnetism
d. no apparent reaction

6. To prevent circulating currents when more than one generator is being connected to the same
bus bar:
a. reverse current relays are fitted
b. the generators are connected in series
c. rectifiers are fitted
d. differential cut-outs are used
7. A generator cut-out is fitted:
a. in series with the generator output
b. in the diode circuit
c. in parallel with the generator output
d. in the field circuit
8. On a 28 volt system with a 24 volt battery the cut-out contacts close at approximately:
a. 36 volts
b. 24 volts
c. 28 volts
d. 26 volts

9. A component whose job is similar to a generator cut-out is:

a. a rectifier.
b. a converter
c. an inverter
d. a reverse current relay

10. If the cut-out is open, the battery is feeding the loads which are:
a. in series with the battery
b. in parallel with the battery
c. in sequence with the cut-out
d. cross coupled

Questions - Generator Circuit 1

1. In a two-engine aircraft with two generators, there would be:

a. one ammeter for each generator and one voltmeter switchable to indicate either generator
voltage or battery voltage
b. one voltmeter for each generator. and one ammeter switchable to indicate either generator
current or battery current
c. one ammeter showing the total output and one switchable voltmeter
d. one ammeter and one voltmeter each showing the average current and voltage output

2. A generator converts mechanical energy to electrical by:

a. electromagnetic spring action
b. electromagnetic induction
c. electrostatic induction
d. electrodynamic induction

3. In an aircraft electrical system which incorporates a voltmeter, the voltmeter indicates:

a. the flow in the electrical system before the battery cut-out contacts close
b. the rate of flow at all times
c. the pressure in the electrical system before and after the cut-out contacts close
d. the flow in the electrical system after the battery cut-out contacts close

4. If the generator warning light comes on in flight it indicates that:

a. the generator is feeding the battery bus bar
b. the generator is not feeding the battery bus bar
c. the battery has failed
d. a rectifier is faulty
5. A generator failure is usually indicated by:
a. the ammeter reading decreasing or showing a discharge and a red warning lamp lighting
b. the voltmeter reading increasing, the ammeter reading showing discharge and a red lamp
lighting
c. the current consuming devices failing to operate
d. the motor speed increasing

6. A generator warning light will be illuminated:

a. when the battery voltage exceeds that of the generator and the cut-out has opened
b. at night only
c. when the generator is supplying current to a fully charged battery, and no electrical loads
are switched on
d. when the battery charge current is lower than required to maintain its fully charged state
7. If a generator fails in flight:
a. the voltmeter will read maximum
b. the ammeter reading will decrease
c. load sharing circuits will operate
d. the watt metre will show an increase

8. If one generator fails you should:

a. switch off the good generator
b. stop and feather the engine concerned
c. switch off the failed generator and continue normal use of the electrical system
d. switch off the failed generator, and cut down on the electrical services being used

9. A generator is brought ‘on line’ when it is:

a. connected in series with other generators
b. switched into the electrical circuit in parallel with the other generators
c. connected with the ground batteries for starting
d. connected to a phase reducer

10. In a twin-engine aircraft, fitted with two generators, if one should fail:
a. the failed generator must be isolated
b. cut down the air supply to reduce five risks
c. the failed generator must be stopped
d. both generators must be switched off

Questions - Generator Circuit 2

1. A generator is brought ‘on line’ via the cut-out by an increase in:

a. the battery voltage
b. the radio bypass switch
c. the generator voltage
d. the generator field voltage

2. Generator failure is indicated by:

a. load sharing circuits connecting
b. a decrease or discharge in ammeter readings and generator warning light on
c. an increase in voltmeter readings, a discharge in ammeter reading and generator warning
light on
d. failure of electrically driven instruments
3. In a twin-engine aircraft, with a generator fitted to both engines, the starboard generator
fails. Then:
a. the starboard engine cuts
b. the port engine cuts
c. both engines run normally
d. the engine with the failed generator will automatically feather

4. Loads on a bus bar are:

a. in series with the generator so that the voltage can be reduced
b. in parallel so the voltage can be varied
c. in parallel so the current can be reduced
d. determined by the cross-sectional area of the lead cable

5. When the battery master switch is switched off in flight:

a. the generators are disconnected from the bus bar
b. the battery is isolated from the bus bar
c. the battery is discharged through the bonding circuit diodes
d. the battery may overheat

6. A generator is taken ‘off’ line by:

a. the battery switch
b. closing of the field switch
c. opening of the cut-out
d. removing all loads

7. If the ammeter reads plus 5 amp after engine shut down:

a. some switches have been left ‘on’
b. the battery is charging
c. the generator field switch is ‘on’
d. the ammeter is defective
8. If the ammeter shows ‘no’ charge, yet the battery remains charged, you would look for:
a. loose battery connections
b. a defective voltage regulator
c. a defective CB
d. a defective ammeter

9. A field switch in the generator circuit is:

a. kept in the ‘on’ position
b. connected in the armature circuit
c. to ‘shut off’ the generator field
d. to disconnect the battery

10. During flight a malfunction of the generator cut-out would be indicated by:
a. overheating of the battery
b. the ammeter
c. lights going out
d. the current limiter

Questions - Distribution

1. A short circuit in a “single pole” electrical circuit would be caused:

a. by a broken conductor between the source of supply and an item of equipment
b. by an open circuit between loads in parallel
c. when wiring between the source of supply and an item of equipment goes down to earth
 d. by an open circuit between an item of equipment and earth

2. In a “2 pole” electrical circuit, a short of the conductors would result in:

a. an item of equipment operating automatically without switches
b. the component not working
c. an increase in voltage
d. an item of equipment burning out because of a large current flow

3. The indicating range of an ammeter can be increased by fitting:

a. a shunt fitted in parallel with the instrument
b. a shunt fitted in parallel with the load
c. a shunt fitted in series with the instrument
d. a multiplier fitted in parallel with the instrument

4. An electrical system which uses the aircraft structure as a return path for current is known
as:
a. a diode pole circuit
b. an earth return circuit
c. a single phase circuit
d. a dipole circuit

5. On a single pole circuit, if the positive conductor is shorted to the aircraft structure:
a. the electrical component will operate
b. the fuse will blow
c. the circuit will be under loaded
d. the load will only operate at half speed

6. In a double pole circuit:

a. the systems polarity will change
b. the current is supplied by one wire and the current is returned through the aircraft bonding
system
c. the current passes out through one wire and is returned through a second wire
d. the current passes out through one wire and is returned via the aircraft’s immune circuit

7. In an earth return circuit if the conductor is open circuited:

a. the fuse will blow
b. the bus bars will overheat
c. the load will not operate
d. the generator will burn out
8. A ‘hot bus’ is:
a. the bus bar always connected to the battery
b. the bus bar that supplies the galley power
c. the bus bar that supplies the essential loads
d. the bus bar that supplies the non-essential loads

9. A dipole circuit is one where:

a. diode valves are used
b. three conductors are used
c. the aircraft structure is used for the earth return
d. two conductor wires are used
Bonding and Screening
1. Why are static wick dischargers fitted to aircraft?
a. To smooth the generator output
 b. To prevent tyres bursting on landing
c. To minimize radio interference
d. To act as an earth return in a single pole electrical system

2. Bonding is used to protect the aircraft against fire from arcing of static electricity by:
a. providing an earth return
b. shortening the negative strips
c. maintaining different electrical potential throughout the structure
d. ensuring the same electrical potential of all metal components

3. Static electricity constitutes a fire hazard because:

a. metal components become very hot and ignite inflammable gases and materials
b. sparks occur due to differences of potential and could ignite inflammable gases and
materials
c. of colour charged electrons
d. aircraft tyres become heavily charged and may burst on landing

4. Static electrical charges and currents in an aircraft structure are evened out by:
a. hardening
b. screening
c. bonding
d. anodizing

5. The electrical components of aircraft systems are screened to:

a. bond the circuit to reduce risk of fire
b. prevent them discharging
c. prevent short circuits in radio equipment
d. prevent them interfering with the function of radio equipment

6. Bonding is a method of:

a. heat screening
b. providing a positive reaction
c. ensuring that the different parts of the aircraft are maintained at a different potential
d. ensuring that the different parts of the aircraft are maintained at the same potential

7. The purpose of electrical bonding on an aircraft is:

a. to prevent compass malfunctioning and accumulation of local static charges
b. to reduce the anodizing effect
c. to isolate all components electrically and therefore make static potential constant
d. to provide a low resistance path for earth return circuits and safely dissipate local static
charges and lightning strikes

Questions – General 1

1. Spare fuses are carried:

a. at the operators’s discretion
b. for generators only
c. by law with a stated minimum number required
d. by the first officer

2. When selecting a fuse for a circuit the governing factor is:

a. the voltage of the circuit
b. the fuse length and diameter
c. the resistance of the circuit
d. the power requirement of the circuit
3. Differential cut-outs close when a differential voltage exists between the:
a. generator bus and battery bus bar
b. generator bus bar and earth
c. batteries
d. battery bus bar and earth

4. Circulating current is the term used to describe:

a. back EMF
b. current necessary to excite the generator
c. current passing between two paralleled generators of differing voltage
d. current passing between AC and DC systems

5. A megohm is:
a. 10 000 ohms
b. 1000 ohms
c. 1 000 000 ohms
d. 1 000 000 000 ohms

6. Load shedding is:

a. transferring the loads between generators
b. reducing the load voltage
c. overall reduction of electrical load on the system
d. overall reduction of generator voltages

7. When a generator is on line and its associated ammeter reads 10 amps, this is an indication
of:
a. BTBs being energized
b. battery charge rate
c. battery discharge rate
d. generator load
8. The formula for calculating power is:
a. V2 R or I2 × R or I × V
b. V2 R or I × R or I × V
c. V R2 or I2 × R or I2 × V
d. V R2 or I × R2 or I × V

9. Assuming a 5 amp circuit has failed during flight and investigation has shown that the fuse is
open circuit, the action to be taken is to:
a. switch the circuit off immediately
b. switch off, replace the fuse with another of the correct rating for the circuit and repeat this
action as often as necessary
c. leave the switch on, replace the failed fuse with one of increased rating
d. switch off, replace the failed fuse with one of the correct rating once only

10. If the voltage in a circuit is doubled, the current will:

a. double
b. increase only if the battery is in circuit
c. remain the same
d. decrease

11. A simple electrical circuit has a current flow of 4 amperes and its resistance is 5 ohms. How
much power (watts) is used?
a. 20 watts
 b. 45 watts
c. 80 watts
d. 100 watts

12. Check a lead acid battery voltage:

a. only if a fault is suspected
b. on load with a voltmeter
c. on no load with a voltmeter
d. on open circuit with a voltmeter

13. Connecting two batteries in series will:

a. increase the voltage and capacity
b. have no effect
c. decrease the voltage and the capacity
d. increase the voltage, the capacity will remain the same
14. An aircraft has a battery with a capacity of 60 Ah. Assuming that it will provide its nominal
capacity and is discharged at the 10 hour rate:
a. it will pass 60 amperes for 10 hours
b. it will pass 10 amperes for 6 hours
c. it will pass 6 amperes for 10 hours
d. it will pass 60 amperes for 1 hour

15. A NiCad battery shows a high temperature after engine start, this could be an indication of:
a. thermal runaway
b. it is not connected to the battery bus bar
c. normal temperature during charging
d. depends upon the outside air temperature

16. When generators are connected in parallel their output voltage must be:
a. divided by the circuit resistance
b. the same
c. added together
d. controlled by one generator

Questions – General 2

1. In a direct current generating system the voltage regulator controls the system voltage within
prescribed limits:
a. regardless of varying engine RPM and electrical load by inserting a variable resistance in
the generator field winding
b. by means of a relay which closes contacts in the output circuit when a prescribed voltage is
reached
c. of the generator rotor speed
d. by a variable resistance which limits the voltage given by the battery

2. A generator cut-out is fitted:

a. to isolate the battery on touchdown
b. to prevent the battery from being overcharged
c. to allow the generator to be isolated in a crash
d. to prevent the battery feeding back into the generator when its voltage is above the
generator voltage
3. A generator cut-out contacts will close:
a. with an increase in battery voltage
b. with an increase in generator voltage
c. at flight idle only
d. with an increase in generator current

4. Failure of an aircraft generator is indicated by:

a. a red warning light lighting and the ammeter showing zero or discharge
b. a red warning light going out and the ammeter showing a discharge
c. a current limiter tripping
d. a circuit fuse blowing

5. On a twin-engine aircraft with a generator fitted to each engine, if the starboard generator
fails,:
a. the fuel cross feed cocks close
b. the starboard engine cuts (stops)
c. the port engine will cut
d. both engines will run normally

6. On an earth return aircraft wiring circuit:

a. the negative pole is connected to the aircraft structure
b. the positive pole is connected to the aircraft structure
c. the negative pole is connected to the positive pole
d. two fuses are needed

7. In a dipole aircraft wiring circuit if the conductors are bridged:

a. an item of electrical equipment would be burned out
b. no immediate action is necessary
c. the item of electrical equipment would operate normally
d. the fuse or circuit breaker in that circuit will blow
8. A circuit breaker that has tripped due to overload:
a. cannot be reset unless the circuit has returned to normal
b. will not be able to be reset in the air
c. will reset itself when the circuit returns to normal
d. must be replaced

9. When changing a blown fuse:

a. it is changed with one of a lower rating
b. the press to reset button is operated
c. leave circuit switched on
d. it is changed with one of the correct rating

10. As the speed of an electric motor increases the back EMF will:
a. remain the same
b. fluctuate
c. increase
d. decrease

11. The output of a shunt wound generator:

a. will rise gradually as load is applied
b. will remain constant as load is applied
c. will vary with generator speed
d. will fall gradually as load is applied
12. Load shedding is:
a. increasing circuit resistance
b. transferring the loads between generators
c. reducing the load voltage
d. overall reductions of the loads on the system

13. An inertia switch on an aircraft will operate:

a. when selected by the pilot or flight engineer
b. automatically in flight
c. during an emergency or crash landing
d. in flight only

14. The purpose of electrical bonding on aircraft is:

a. to directly earth the positive lead
b. to prevent compass malfunctioning and to gather local static charges
c. to isolate all components electrically and therefore make the static potential constant
d. to provide a low resistance path for earth return circuits and safely dissipate local static
charges and lightning strikes

15. Electrical components of aircraft systems are screened to:

a. bond the circuit to reduce risk of fire
b. prevent them interfering with the function of radio equipment
c. prevent short circuits interfering with aircraft equipment
d. prevent engine malfunctions
Introduction to AC
1. The impedance of a circuit:
a. is the AC inductive load
b. is the DC inductive load
c. is the total resistance in an AC circuit
d. is the highest resistance of a rectifier

2. The ratio of true power to apparent power is known as:

a. ohms
b. the power factor
c. kVAs
d. the RMS value

3. In a constant frequency AC supply system, the frequency is determined by:

a. the generator drive speed and the number of poles
b. engine drive speed and the power factor
c. the capacitive reactance
d. the impedance

4. The amount of electrical power output for a given generator weight is:
a. dependent on the aircrafts power requirements
b. greater for a DC generator
c. greater for an AC generator
d. determined by the size of the aircraft

5. The frequency of a supply is quoted in:

a. cycles or hertz
b. watts
c. megacycles
d. cycles / minute
6. One advantage that AC has over DC is:
a. that TRUs are not required
b. that the generators require less cooling
c. that the cables require less insulation
d. the ease with which the voltage can be stepped up or down with almost 100% efficiency

7. The voltage output of an AC generator will rise to a maximum value:

a. in one direction, fall to zero and rise in the same direction
b. in one direction and remain there
c. in one direction, fall to zero and rise to a maximum value in the opposite direction
d. in one direction only
8. If the frequency in an inductive circuit is less than it was designed for, then current
consumption will:
a. decrease
b. remain the same
c. fluctuate
d. increase

9. In a capacitive circuit, if the frequency increases:

a. current decreases
b. current increases
c. current flow is unaffected by frequency change
d. the voltage fluctuates

10. The line voltage of a typical aircraft constant frequency paralleled AC system is:
a. 115
b. 208
c. 200
d. 400

11. A 400 Hz supply has:

a. an output capacity of 400 000 watts
b. an impedance of 400 ohms
c. a frequency of 400 cycles per second
d. a frequency of 400 cycles per minute

12. In an AC circuit which is mainly inductive:

a. current will lead voltage
b. current and voltage will be in phase
c. current will lag voltage
d. the power factor will be negative

13. If the frequency is increased in an inductive circuit:

a. reactance will increase
b. reactance will decrease
c. impedance will remain constant
d. the heating effect will increase

14. The RMS value of alternating current is:

a. the mean current value for one half cycle
b. 1.73 times the peak value
c. equal to the square root of the peak value
d. .707 times the peak value
15. The number of separate stator windings in an AC generator determines:
a. the output voltage of the supply
b. the output frequency of the supply
c. the power factor
d. the number of phases present in the supply

16. kVAR is a measure of:

a. the resistive load on the alternator
b. the reactive load on the alternator
c. the total load on the alternator
d. the total circuit impedance

17. The output of an alternator is rated in:

a. kVA
b. kVAR
c. kW
d. kW/kVAR

18. Instruments measuring AC are calibrated in:

a. RMS values
b. average values
c. peak values
d. mean values

19. Impedance is the:

a. vector sum of the resistance and the reactance
b. sum of the resistance and capacitive reactance
c. sum of the capacitive reactance and the inductive reactance
d. sum of the resistance, inductive reactance and the capacitive reactance

20. If an alternator is run at below normal frequency, then:

a. electric motors will stop
b. inductive devices will overheat
c. lights will become dim
d. lights will become brighter

21. The power factor is:

a. kVA kW
b. kW kVAR
c. kW kVA
d. kVAR kW

22. When reactance is present in a circuit:

a. the power factor will be unity
b. the power factor will be negative
c. the power factor will be greater than unity
d. the power factor will be less than one

23. Generator output frequency is decreased by decreasing the:

a. generator field rotation speed
b. generator field voltage
c. generator field current
 d. generator field impedance

24. The RMS value of AC is:

a. 1.73 times the peak value
b. the peak value times the power factor
c. the peak value which would provide the same heating effect as DC
d. the value of DC which would provide the same heating effect

25. In a reactive circuit:

a. the voltage and current will be out of phase
b. the voltage and current will be in phase opposition
c. the voltage will always be led by the current
d. the voltage and current will be in phase

26. A capacitor consists of two metal plates:

a. separated by a diabetic
b. which have current flowing between them
c. which will not allow a potential difference between them
d. separated by waxed paper or mica

27. In a DC circuit, an inductance:

a. never has any effect on the voltage
b. only affects the voltage upon switching on
c. offers opposition to the flow while switching on and off
d. will always increase the voltage

28. The basic unit of inductance is:

a. the henry
b. the ohm
c. the farad
d. the coulomb

29. In an inductive circuit:

a. current leads the voltage
b. current lags the voltage
c. the voltage is in phase with the current
d. only the RMS values vary
30. In a capacitive circuit, if the frequency increases then:
a. current flow is unaffected
b. the voltage varies
c. current flow decreases
d. current flow increases

31. The power factor is:

a. WATTFUL POWER REAL POWER
b. RATED POWER APPARENT POWER
c. APPARENT POWER TRUE POWER
d. REAL POWER APPARENT POWER

32. Transferring electrical energy by means of a magnetic field is called:

a. electrostatic induction
b. electromolecular induction
c. electromagnetic induction
d. electromolecular amplification
 Alternator
1. An alternator is:
a. a reversing input switch
b. an AC generator
c. a DC generator
d. a static inverter

2. To prevent high circulating currents between paralleled alternators, the following conditions
should be met:
a. their voltage and frequency must be the same
b. their frequencies must be identical and their phase sequence must be the same
c. their voltage, frequency, phase and phase sequence must all be the same
d. their inductive and capacitive reactances must match exactly

3. The output of an AC generator is taken from:

a. the exciter windings
b. the field coils
c. the stator windings
d. the rotor coils

4. The moving part of an alternator is:

a. the rotor
b. the megacycle
c. the stator
d. the frequency

5. A frequency wild alternator must be:

a. paralleled
b. a rotating magnet type
c. self-exciting
d. unparalleled

6. In a 3 phase AC generator circuit, the phase voltage is:

a. greater than line voltage
b. 10% higher than line voltage
c. less than line voltage
d. equal to line voltage

7. If an alternator output is frequency wild, it would normally be used for:

a. flight instruments
b. charging a battery
c. all AC equipment
d. prop and engine de-icing systems
8. The generator output voltage is increased by:
a. putting more load on it
b. the frequency controller
c. decreasing the generator field voltage
d. increasing the generator field current

9. A constant frequency AC supply in an aircraft with only frequency wild generators is

provided by:
a. an inverter
b. a diode
 c. an autotransformer
d. a rectifier

10. An alternator normally used to supply an aircraft’s power system would be:
a. single phase
b. three phase
c. two phase
d. frequency wild

11. A permanent magnet in a rotating field generator:

a. provides for initial excitation of the field
b. controls the amount of excitation in the stator windings
c. provides the initial excitation in the voltage regulator
d. can be flashed by the application of alternating current

12. Voltage control of an alternator output is achieved by varying the:

a. excitation of the rotating commutator
b. load current
c. excitation of the rotating field
d. power factor

13. Frequency wild AC is produced when:

a. a transformer winding open circuits
b. the voltage regulator is malfunctioning
c. the rotational speed of the generator varies
d. the alternator becomes angry

14. In a star connected supply system:

a. line and phase current are equal
b. line current is greater than phase current
c. line current is less than phase current
d. phase current is 0.707 times line current

15. In a 3 phase supply system, line voltage would be sensed between the:
a. phases only
b. phase and earth
c. phase and neutral
d. phases and earth
16. One advantage of three phase generation over single phase generation is that:
a. most aircraft services require a three phase supply
b. it can be more easily transformed into DC
c. it gives more compact generators and allows lower cable weights
d. the power factor is much lower

17. In a typical aircraft constant frequency supply system, the phase voltage is:
a. 200
b. 115
c. 208
d. 400
18. An alternator with its output taken from its stationary armature, has:
a. a stationary field
b. its field excitation fed directly to the armature
c. AC excitation
 d. a rotating field

19. The phase voltage in a star wound three phase system is measured between:
a. phase and neutral
b. two phases
c. two lines
d. neutral and earth

20. If one phase of a star wound three phase system becomes earthed, it will:
a. earth all three phases
b. cause a large current to flow in the neutral
c. have no effect on the other phases
d. cause a reduction in the frequency of the supply

21. The alternators fitted in an aircraft’s main power supply system would normally be:
a. brushed self-excited machines
b. frequency wild
c. self-excited
d. externally excited

22. A voltage regulator works by:

a. sensing the battery voltage
b. assessing the impedance of the circuit
c. varying the circuit voltage
d. varying the rotating field strength

23. To ensure correct load sharing on paralleled alternators:

a. both real and reactive loads should be balanced
b. actual loads should be the same
c. reactive loads should be the same
d. the load impedance should be constant
24. Reactive load sharing is achieved by:
a. altering the loads on the bus bars
b. varying the generator rotational speed
c. varying the generator field current
d. altering the CSDU output torque

25. Real load sharing is achieved by:

a. varying the alternator rotational speed
b. varying the generator field current
c. altering the loads on the bus bar
d. the voltage regulator

26. The phase relationship of paralleled generators should be:

a. unimportant
b. 180° apart
c. synchronous
d. 120° apart
27. In a constant speed parallel operation alternator system:
a. each alternator has its own constant speed drive unit
b. all engines are run at the same speed
c. all alternators are driven by the same engine
d. engine speed is governed by the constant speed drive unit
28. An aircraft’s constant frequency supply is maintained at:
a. between 350 - 450 Hz
b. between 380 - 420 Hz
c. between 115 - 200 Hz
d. between 395 - 495 Hz

29. For a modern aircraft powered by an AC system, the ground power unit must supply:
a. 28 volts AC only
b. 200 volts
c. 115 volts, three phase
d. 115/200 volts, three phase, 400 Hz

30. Oil for the operation of a CSDU is:

a. supplied from the engine oil system
b. a separate self-contained supply
c. drawn from a common tank for all CSDUs
d. only required for lubrication purposes

31. Malfunction of a CSDU requires:

a. automatic electrical disconnection of the drive at any time in flight
b. that the input drive will shear on the ground only
c. operation of the drive disconnect switch at any time in flight
d. operation of the drive disconnect switch on the ground only
32. Before two constant frequency AC generators can be connected in parallel:
a. their frequency, phase, phase sequence and voltage must match, and a means of automatic
real and reactive load sharing must be available
b. real and reactive loads must match. Frequency, phase and voltage must be within limits
c. the synchronization lights on the alternator control panel must be fully bright
d. suitable control arrangements must exist for the sharing of real and reactive loads. These
will correct any phase or frequency error existing at the time of connection

33. The generator control relay (GCR) is:

a. in the excitation circuit
b. between the alternator and its load bus bar
c. in the stator circuit
d. between the load bus bar and the synchronous bus bar

34. The running excitation current for an alternator is:

a. AC
b. DC from the aircraft batteries
c. DC from the static inverter
d. DC which is rectified AC and could be from a separate excitation generator on the main
rotor shaft

35. If each phase of a three phase star wound system has a phase voltage of 115 volts, the voltage
obtained by bridging two phase would be:
a. 200 volts AC
b. 173 volts DC
c. 28 volts DC
d. 173 volts AC

36. Protection from ‘earth’ faults and ‘line to line’ faults is given by:
a. a negative earth detector
b. a fault protection system including a differential protection monitor
 c. the synchronization unit
d. reactive load sharing circuits

37. Warnings of CSDU oil overheat are given in the cockpit by:
a. audio warning
b. an ‘oil overheat’ warning light
c. a ‘low oil pressure’ warning light
d. a temperature gauge

38. One disadvantage of parallel operation is that:

a. faults can propagate, and any error in supply can affect all services
b. the system is less flexible due to the need for additional control and protection circuits
c. the greater load on the CSDUs means that their power / weight ratio is much reduced
d. there is a considerable increase in complexity compared with a non-paralleled system, due
to the need for CSDUs and load sharing circuits
39. Alternators in parallel operation require the maintenance of constant frequency and phase
synchronization to:
a. balance the battery voltage when more than one battery is being used
b. prevent recirculating currents
c. control their voltage
d. reduce their magnetic fields

40. The APU generator can only be used when:

a. another generator is on line
b. the aircraft is on the ground
c. the bus bars are being fed from another source
d. when no other power source is feeding the bus bar

41. The purpose of the differential protection circuit in a three phase AC system is:
a. to compare alternator output current to bus bar current
b. to compare on and off load currents
c. to compare the alternators reactive load to its real load
d. to compare the CSDU efficiency ratings

42. An alternator driven by a CSDU

a. can never be paralleled
b. will require a voltage controller
c. will require a lubrication system separated from its drive oil system
d. will not require a voltage controller

43. In the event of a mechanical malfunction of the alternator:

a. the drive disconnect unit will automatically separate the CSDU from the alternator
b. the real load will be adjusted to compensate
c. the quill drive will fracture
d. the CSDU oil temperature will decrease

44. The load meter, upon selection to “kVAR” would indicate:

a. total power available
b. reactive loads
c. active loads
d. only DC resistive loads

45. Disconnection of the CSDU in flight would be advisable if:

a. the frequency meter indicated a discrepancy of greater than 5 Hz between alternators
 b. there was an over or under voltage
c. the oil temperature was high or the oil pressure was low
d. the engine failed

46. To increase the real load taken by a paralleled AC generator, the:

a. generator drive torque is increased
b. generator excitation is increased
c. generator drive torque and field excitation are increased
d. generator voltage regulator adjusts the generator rotor torque

47. Load sharing circuits are necessary whenever:

a. generators are operating in series
b. generators are operating independently
c. the ground power and the APU are serving the bus bars together
d. generators are operating in parallel

48. Paralleled alternators will have:

a. one load meter which measures total system load
b. one voltmeter for each alternator
c. one load meter for each alternator
d. one meter which indicates both voltage and frequency

49. Frequency controlled generators are:

a. always paralleled
b. not always paralleled
c. never paralleled
d. paralleled only when the DC is paralleled

50. If the CSDU drive disconnect unit has been used, the drive can:
a. only be reconnected when the aircraft is on the ground
b. be reinstated in flight from the electrical supply department
c. be reinstated in flight from the flight deck
d. be reinstated when necessary by using the Ram Air Turbine

51. When selected to ‘kW’, the alternator load meter will indicate the:
a. total circuit load
b. real load
c. reactive load
d. current flowing in the field

52. An AC generator’s IDU oil system:

a. is self-contained
b. is common with the engine oil system
c. is used only for cooling
d. is used only for lubrication

53. An alternator driven by a non-integrated constant speed drive unit, has windings that are
cooled by:
a. water
b. oil
c. oil and water
d. air
54. The load in a paralleled AC system is measured in:
a. kW & kVA
b. kW & kV
c. kV & kVAR
d. kW & kVAR

55. Paralleled generators must share real and reactive loads:

a. to prevent large current flows through the TRUs
b. to prevent out of balance forces being fed through the CSDUs to the engines
c. to prevent large flows of current from one generator to another
d. to prevent harmonic frequencies being created in the synchronous bus bars

56. One advantage of running alternators in parallel is that:

a. the supply to all circuits is in phase
b. a large capacity is available to absorb heavy transient loads when switching of heavy
currents occurs
c. the risk of overloading the system is reduced
d. there is only a requirement for one CSDU

57. When an external AC supply is feeding the bus bars:

a. the internal bus bars are disconnected
b. the aircraft generators are run in parallel with the external supply
c. the aircraft generators are taken off line
d. the synchronizing unit will ensure that no frequency difference exists between the aircraft
generators and the external supply

58. A three phase AC system can be used to supply:

a. both one or three phase equipment
b. only three phase equipment
c. only single phase equipment
d. only inductive or capacitive loads

59. In a frequency wild generation system:

a. generators can be run in parallel only when all engine RPMs match
b. generators can never be run in parallel and there can be no duplication of supply
c. generators can never be run in parallel, but after rectification, the DC can be fed to a
common bus bar to provide a redundancy of supply
d. capacitive and inductive loads can be fed with no problems of overheating

60. A fault on one phase of a three phase AC star connected system would:
a. have no effect
b. affect only the phase concerned
c. cause inductive loads to overheat
d. affect all three phases
61. The purpose of an inverter is:
a. to change AC into DC
b. to change the frequency of the AC supply
c. to act as a back up for the alternator
d. to change DC into AC

62. A low reactive load on one generator is compensated for by:

a. altering the excitation current flowing in its field circuit
b. increasing the rotor speed
 c. increasing the real load on the other generators
d. overall load reduction

63. I n the event of a mechanical failure occurring in the generator, the CSDU is protected by:
a. a hydraulic clutch
b. a universal joint
c. a quill drive
d. a feather drive

64. To increase the real load which is being taken by a paralleled alternator:
a. the voltage regulator adjusts the generator rotor torque
b. both its drive torque and its excitation are increased
c. only its excitation is increased
d. its drive torque is increased

65. An earth fault on a bus bar of a parallel generator system:

a. would require that the appropriate GCB should open
b. would require that the appropriate BTB should open
c. would require that both the appropriate GCB and BTB should open
d. would require that all alternators should operate independently

AC Electrics - Practical Aircraft Systems

1. The purpose of a synchronizing bus bar is to:
a. enable interconnections to be made between generator bus bars
b. supply essential services
c. monitor on load currents
d. interconnect DC bus bars

2. Fuses and circuit breakers are fitted:

a. in DC circuits only
b. in both AC and DC circuits
c. in AC circuits only
d. only to protect the wiring

3. Where the aircraft’s main electrical supply is AC, DC requirements are met by:
a. batteries
b. TRUs
c. inverters
d. a static inverter

4. In a split bus system using non-paralleled constant frequency alternators as the primary
power source:
a. essential AC loads are supplied directly from No. 1 AC bus bar
b. essential AC loads are supplied directly from No. 2 AC bus bar
c. only non-essential AC loads are supplied from the AC bus bars
d. essential AC loads are normally supplied from No. 1 AC bus bar via the changeover relay

5. In a split bus system using non-paralleled constant frequency alternators as the primary
power source, if both alternators fail:
a. all non-essential services are lost
b. all non-essential services will be supplied direct from the battery bus bar
c. all non-essential services will be supplied from the static inverter
d. essential DC consumers only will be supplied from the No. 1 TRU, all other DC services
will be lost
6. In normal operation, the split bus bar AC system takes its DC supply from:
a. two TRUs which are always isolated
b. a battery which is supplied from No. 1 TRU only
c. two TRUs which are connected together by the isolation relay
d. the static inverter

7. The static inverter in the split bus system supplies:

a. the essential DC consumers
b. the essential AC consumers
c. both essential and non-essential consumers
d. the batteries

8. In the split bus system, the AC bus bars:

a. are automatically connected via the isolation relay if one alternator fails
b. are automatically connected via the bus tie breaker if one alternator fails
c. can be connected together by switch selection if one alternator fails
d. can never be connected together because there is no load sharing circuit

9. With parallel generator operation:

a. there are two synchronizing bus bars which are normally kept isolated
b. the GCBs connect the generators to the synchronizing bus bar
c. the BTBs connect the synchronizing bus bars together
d. the GCRs connect the generators to their load bus bars

10. In a parallel alternator operation, should one alternator fail, then:

a. the other alternators can be selected to supply its load
b. the failed alternator’s loads will not be supplied
c. the GCB of the failed alternator will remain closed to allow its loads to be supplied by the
remaining alternators
d. the SSB will close allowing the three remaining alternators to share all of the load

11. If external power is plugged into an aircraft which utilizes the split bus system of power
distribution, then:
a. it will automatically parallel itself with any alternators already on line
b. it will only supply non-essential AC consumers
c. it will supply all the aircraft services
d. essential AC consumers will be supplied from the static inverter

Transformer
1. Instrument transformers normally:
a. convert 14 volts DC to 26 volts AC
b. reduce the AC supply to 26 volts for some instruments
c. change 115 volts to 200 volts for engine instruments
d. convert 28 volts DC to 28 volts AC

2. An autotransformer:
a. varies its turns ratio automatically to maintain a constant output voltage with varying input
voltage
b. has only one coil which is used as both primary and secondary
c. will maintain a constant output frequency with a varying supply frequency
d. requires an inductive supply
3. A step up transformer is one in which the number of turns on the secondary winding is:
a. the same as the primary if the cable diameter is the same
b. greater than that on the primary
c. less than on the primary
d. always the same as on the primary

4. A transformer which halves the voltage will have:

a. twice as many turns on the secondary as on the primary
b. half as many turns on the secondary as on the primary
c. half as much current flowing in the secondary as in the primary
d. four times as many turns on the secondary as on the primary

5. The power output of a transformer is:

a. in proportion to the transformation ratio
b. in inverse proportion to the transformation ratio
c. the same as the power input
d. increased in a step up transformer

6. With no load across the output terminals of a transformer:

a. the current flow will be maximum
b. the current flow will be negligible
c. the current will be in phase with the voltage
d. the voltage in the primary will be always greater than the secondary

7. If the voltage induced in the secondary windings is greater than that in the primary then the
transformer is:
a. an autotransformer
b. a step up
c. a step down
d. a magnetic amplifier
AC Motors

1. Synchronous motors are usually supplied by:

a. three phase AC
b. single phase AC
c. DC to the stator
d. DC to the stator and AC to the rotor
2. Reversing two phases to a three phase motor will:
a. blow the phase fuses
b. cause the motor to run in reverse
c. overheat the stator windings
d. stall the motor

3. A synchronous motor runs at a speed that depends upon the supply:

a. voltage
b. current
c. reactance
d. frequency
4. If one phase of the supply to a three phase motor fails, then:
a. the motor will continue to run at the same speed
b. will slow down and stop
c. will stop immediately
d. will run at about half speed but will not start on its next selection

5. The basic principle of operation of a 3 phase induction motor is:

a. a rotating field created in the rotor
b. a rotating field created in the stator
c. a stationary field created in the stator
d. a stationary field created in the rotor

6. In an induction motor:
a. the rotor is star connected
b. magnetic fields blend evenly with one another
c. AC is induced in the rotor
d. a DC supply produces DC in the rotor

7. In a synchronous motor, the rotor is:

a. energized by DC and it lines up with the magnetic field in the stator
b. wave wound
c. both AC and DC energized
d. impeded by the AC induced into it
8. An induction motor has:
a. slip rings and brushes
b. a commutator
c. no slip ring or brushes
d. slip rings but no brushes

9. A squirrel cage rotor:

a. is not connected to the supply
b. is expensive to produce
c. rotates at exactly synchronous speed
d. is a closed circuit of high resistance

10. A starting circuit for a powerful single phase induction motor might be:
a. a capacitance starter
b. a resistance / inductance starter
c. a cartridge starter
d. a bump starter