INTRODUCTION

Form and Content

Section 1: Listening Comprehension

This section tests your ability to understand and interpret spoken English. Consists of 3 parts :

Part A: Short conversation. You will listen to short conversations and speeches and then answer
questions about the recordings.

Part B: Longer conversation. You will listen to longer conversations and speeches and then answer
questions about the recordings.

Part C: Talks. These may be about any subject. There are several questions about each
conversation.

Section 2: Structure and Written Expression

This section tests your understanding and usage of standard written English. Consists of 2 parts :

Part A: Multiple choice answers to complete sentences. You must choose the best way to complete
the sentences.

Part B: Sentences have four words of phrases underlined. You must choose the one underlined
part that is incorrect.

Section 3: Reading Comprehension

This section tests your ability to understand written English. You will read several passages and
answer questions based on what is stated or implied in the readings.

Length and Number of Questions

Subject Time Number of Questions
Listening Comprehension 40 minutes 50
Structure and Written Expression 25 minutes 40
Reading Comprehension 55 minutes 50
Total 12 minutes 140

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 SECTION 2: STRUCTURE

Quick Quiz
Answer the questions below. If the question has a blank, select the correct answer to fill in the
blank. If the question has four underlined words or phrases, choose the underlined word or phrase
that is incorrect.
1. Louise read the book very thorough, but she performed poorly on the test.
A. Read C. Performed
B. Thorough D. Poorly
2. If your interested in pleasing customers, don’t make them wait for service.
A. Your C. Them
B. Don’t D. Service
3. In 1868, newspapers were filled with the accounts of men ………….. claimed to have
become rich overnight in California’s gold fields.
A. Whom C. Which
B. That D. Who
4. Each of the managers want to renew her contract before the new fiscal year.
A. Managers C. Her
B. Want D. Before
5. The city doesn’t need no more taxes; everyone pays too much already.
A. Doesn’t C. Pays
B. No D. Already
6. The distinct geology of Cape Cod began …………… about 20,000 years ago.
A. Formed C. To form
B. Form D. Was forming
7. In contrast to its soft body and muscular feet, some mollusks have hard shells.
A. In contrast C. Feet
B. Its D. Have
8. Surprisingly, my younger sister dresses more conservative than I do.
A. Younger C. Conservative
B. More D. I
9. Jackson Pollock, the twentieth-century American painter, was concerned …………. The
connection between the unconscious and artistic creativity.
A. With C. Of
B. In D. For
10. After they vandalized the school, the teenager ……… the scene.
A. Flew C. Fleed
B. Flied D. Fled
11. In 1963, Betty Friedan’s expose of domesticity, The Feminine Mystique, became an
immediate bestseller and creating a national sensation.
A. Freidan’s C. An
B. Became D. Creating
12. Homesteaders on the Great Plains brang few possessions to their new home.
A. Homesteaders C. Few
B. Brang D. Their

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 13. Since his release from jail in 1990, Nelson Mandela has emerged as the ……….. spokesman
for South Africa’s anti-apartheid movement.
A. More prominent C. Most prominent
B. More prominently D. Most prominently
14. Neither the actors nor the producer ………….. the advertisement for the movie.
A. To like C. Like
B. Liking D. Likes
15. Less people stood in line for the concert, even thought there were more tickets available.
A. Less C. Even though
B. In line D. More
16. Of the three girls that recently joined the basketball team, Frieda is the tallest.
A. Of C. Joined
B. That D. Tallest

Highlights

Sentences must have a subject and a predicate and express a complete thought.

A subject is the sentence part that tells who or what the sentence is about.

A predicate is the sentence part that describes what the subject is or what the subject is
doing.

A clause is a group of words with a subject and a predicate.

An independent clause stands alone and expresses a complete thought.

A dependent clause needs an independent clause to complete its meaning.

The parts of speech are noun, verb, helping verb, adjective, adverb, and preposition.

For subject-verb agreement, the subject of a sentence must match the verb in number.

Familiarize yourself with the common pitfalls involving subject verb agreement.

For pronoun agreement, a pronoun and its antecedent must match in number.

Know how to identify common pronoun errors and troublesome pronouns.

Adjectives describe nouns or pronouns.

Adverbs describe verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs.

Review the common grammatical mistake involving modifiers and problem modifiers.

Avoid using two negative pronouns or modifiers in one sentence.

Learn how to create the comparative and superlative forms of modifiers.

The five basic verb forms are infinitive, present tense, present participle, past tense, and
past participle.

Study and memorize the forms of the most common irregular verbs.

Review the common errors involving verb tense and problem verbs.

Review and memorize common prepositional idioms.

Practice Test 1 – Structure and Written Expression

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, named Structure and
Written Expression, with special directions for each type. You will have 15 minutes to complete
each section. Follow the directions for each section.
Group 1 – Structure Questions
Time: You have 10 minutes to complete this section (including the reading of the
directions). Now set your clock for 10 minutes.
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English.

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Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentences you will see four
words of phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best
completes the sentence.
Example I
Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes --- they both emit hot liquids from below the
Earth’s surfaces.
(A) Due to
(B) Because
(C) In spite of
(D) Regardless of
The sentences should read, “Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they both
emit hot liquids from below the Earth’s surface.” Therefore, you should choose (B).
Example II
During the early period of ocean navigation, --- any need for sophisticated instruments and
techniques.
(A) So that hardly
(B) When there hardly was
(C) Hardly was
(D) There was hardly
The sentence should read, “During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any
need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.” Therefore, you should choose (D).
Group 1 Structure Questions
Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
1. ------------ break up rock, slowly
wearing it away over millions of 4. Set makers ----------- film sets inside
years. huge buildings like aircraft hangars.
(A) Ice, wind, and running water (A) Make
which (B) To make
(B) Ice, wind, and running water (C) Making
(C) If ice, wind, and running water (D) Be making
(D) When ice, wind, and running
water 5. In 1983, the fossilized claw and bones
----- a dinosaur were found in Surrey,
2. The mountain ranges of the world ---- England.
--------- home to all kinds of wildlife. (A) That
(A) Are (B) Is
(B) Which (C) Which is
(C) For they are (D) Of
(D) Is
6. The science of physics is concerned
3. Four centuries ago, in Europe, kings with everything ---------- to the tiniest
and queens made all the laws and ----- particles which are always nearby.
------. (A) Galaxy the greatest distance from
(A) To collect taxes (B) The galaxies the most distant are
(B) Collecting taxes (C) From the most distant galaxy
(C) Taxes they collected (D) Which are the most distant
(D) Collected taxes galaxies

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7. People have used coal for cooking and
---------- for thousands of years. 12. ------------- most lizards, which run on
(A) To heat four legs, the crested water dragon
(B) Heating can run on two legs if threatened,
(C) Heat allowing for greater speed.
(D) Is to heat (A) They are unlike
(B) While not like
8. Workers such as fire fighters ------------ (C) Unlike
clothes that protect them while they (D) Less like
are at work.
(A) Needing 13. Minoan civilization ----------- rapidly
(B) To need after a huge volcanic eruption; Crete
(C) Are needing was eventually overrun with people
(D) Need from mainland Greece.
(A) Declining
9. Charlemagne ----------- read or write, (B) Declined
yet he built up a vast empire. (C) Was declined
(A) Couldn’t hardly (D) To decline
(B) Could hardly
(C) Is barely 14. -------------- to help an endangered
(D) Wouldn’t being species recover its numbers by
breeding it in captivity.
10. Guatemala is the ------------ populated (A) One way of
country in Central America. (B) It is
(A) Most heavily (C) One way
(B) Heaviest (D) One is
(C) Heavy
(D) To be heavy 15. --------------- customs, and morals have
earned her a place among the world’s
11. Iwo Jima, ---------- , was the site of a greatest writers.
famous World War II battle between (A) Jane Austen’s novels are about
Japanese and American troops. English life
(A) An island 750 miles southeast of (B) While Jane Austen’s novels about
Tokyo English life
(B) Is an island 750 miles southeast of (C) The English lives in Jane Austen’s
Tokyo novel
(C) For an island 750 miles southeast (D) Jane Austen’s novels about
of Tokyo English life
(D) An island 750 miles southeast of
Tokyo

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Group 2 – Written Expression Section
Time : You have 15 minutes to complete this section (including the reading of the
directions). Now set your clock for 15 minutes.
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English.
Direction : In the next 25 questions each sentences has four words or phrases in Italics. The four
parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one word or phrase in Italics
that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Example I
Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish because of the males’ bright colors.
(A) Call
(B) Fish
(C) Because of
(D) Bright
The sentences should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the males’
bright colors. “Therefore, you should choose (A).
Example II
Serving several term in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States
politician.
(A) Serving
(B) Term
(C) Important
(D) Politician
The sentences should read,” Serving several terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an
important United States politician.” Therefore, you should choose (B).
Group 2 – Written Expression Questions
Identify the one word or phrase in italics that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
correct. Then, click on the answer you have chosen.
1. The average temperature on Mars, the 3. Any material that is attractive by a
fourth planet from the sun, is about magnet is by definition “magnetic”.
eighty degrees than colder on Earth. (A) Is
(A) Average (B) Attractive
(B) Mars (C) By definition
(C) Planet (D) Magnetic
(D) Than colder
4. Many deaths associated with fires are
2. One of the longest wars in history not actual caused by the flames, but
were the Hundred Years’ War, fought are rather the result of asphyxiation
between England and France in the resulting from the decreased oxygen
fourteenth and fifteenth centuries. supply in burning buildings.
(A) The longest (A) Many
(B) Were (B) Actual
(C) Fought (C) Are
(D) Centuries (D) Burning buildings

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5. Three hundred years ago, a
microwave oven would have seemed 11. The Iris potato famine of 1845 and
like magic, because nobody would 1848 were some of the worst in that
have been able to explain how they country’s history and led to
worked. thousands of deaths and mass
(A) Would have emigration.
(B) Like (A) Potato famine
(C) To explain (B) The worst
(D) They (C) History
(D) Thousands
6. What are common know as “lead”
pencils are not lead, but rather a 12. The average cat sleeps sixteen hours
mixture of graphite, clay, and wax. for a day, in short intervals called “cat
(A) Common naps”.
(B) Not (A) Sleeps
(C) But (B) For a day
(D) And wax (C) Intervals
(D) Cat naps
7. Although the accurate of the United
States census is debated, its figures 13. About 150 years ago, Charles Darwin
are used to guide countless public shocked the world with his theory
funding decision. that humans were relativity to apes.
(A) Although (A) About
(B) Accurate (B) Shocked
(C) Debated (C) His
(D) Decisions (D) Relativity

8. In the last two decades, Bombay and 14. Psychological studies show that many
Madras are developed into the centers students feeling terrible about the
of the Indian film industry. results of tests on which they have
(A) Are developed actually performed well.
(B) Centers (A) Feeling
(C) Of (B) About
(D) Film industry (C) The results
(D) Actually
9. Since light spreads out in all 15. Some heating devices convert chemist
directions, a light viewed from a great energy like that found in wood and
distance appearing dimmer than it coal into heat energy.
actually is. (A) Convert
(A) Spreads (B) Chemist
(B) Directions (C) Wood
(C) Appearing (D) Into
(D) Than
16. Two thousand years ago, most of
10. The abilities to work hard, follow western Europe was populated by a
directions, and thinking fierce, strong, artistically people
independently are some of the criteria known as the Celts.
for success in the workplace. (A) Ago
(A) To work (B) Most
(B) Thinking (C) Was
(C) Are (D) Artistically
(D) For success

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17. Monkeys use their foot to eat food, to (C) Generate
gesture, and to climb. (D) Is needed
(A) Foot
(B) Eat food 22. Halley’s comet was named after the
(C) And astronomer Edmund Halley, who was
(D) Climb the first to realize that some comets
appear in regular cycle.
18. When a simple action such as lifting (A) Was named
one’s arm is performed, the work is (B) Was
divided between at least three (C) Appear
different muscle groups. (D) Cycle
(A) Simple
(B) Performed 23. The mosquito has needle-shaped
(C) Between mouthparts that piercing the skin to
(D) Different suck blood.
(A) Has
19. The word “scuba” is actually an (B) Mouthparts
acronym that comes of the words (C) Piercing
“self-contained underwater breathing (D) To suck
apparatus.
(A) The word 24. The overies of certain primates each
(B) Actually container approximately three
(C) Comes of hundred thousand eggs, which are
(D) Words released one by one over a span of
about thirty years.
20. Amphibians are a class of animal that (A) Container
can live and breed neither on land or (B) Approximately
in the water. (C) Which are
(A) Are (D) Years
(B) That
(C) Neither 25. Early radio was called the “wireless”
(D) The water because radio uses invisibly waves to
carry information.
21. Photographs from a satellite are (A) Was
frequently used to generate the (B) Because
information is needed to produce a (C) Invisibly
map. (D) To carry
(A) Are
(B) Used

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Practice Test 2 – Structure and Written Expression
Group 1 – Structure Questions
Use all the information you have learned so far to answer the following questions. Read each
sentence, and then select the answer you think is best.
1. First introduced in 1847, chloroform is
an effective, _________ potentially 7. Ralph Caldecott, __________
dangerous, general anesthetic. illustrations in children’s literature,
(A) And has an award named for him.
(B) But (A) A pioneer of
(C) Or (B) He is a pioneer of
(D) Because (C) Did pioneer
(D) Pioneered
2. The majority of books ________ today
do not reach a wide audience. 8. George Washington was _________
(A) Published president of the United States.
(B) Publishing (A) First
(C) To be published (B) Firstly
(D) Have published (C) A first
(D) The first
3. Antarctica, the fifth largest continent
in the world, __________ that are 9. In the 1960’s, many college graduates,
joined into a single mass by an ice inspired by President John F.
sheet. Kennedy,__________.
(A) Two major regions (A) Joined the Peace Corp
(B) Is consisting of two major regions (B) To join the Peace Corp
(C) While consisting of two regions (C) Having joined the Peace Corp
(D) Consists of two major regions (D) They did join the Peace Corp

4. Natural gas, __________ of methane, 10. Sugar, along with yeast, is

is considered the cleanest of the fossil responsible for __________
fuels. (A) Rise of bread
(A) That is a primarily composition (B) The rising of bread
(B) Which is composed primarily (C) To rise the bread
(C) It is composing primarily (D) The bread has risen
(D) Is primarily composed
11. Condensation involves ___________
5. Thomas Edison worked for years from its vapor to its liquid state.
before __________ invented the light (A) A substance is changed
bulb. (B) The change of a substance
(A) Did (C) A substance of changing
(B) That (D) To change a substance
(C) He
(D) His 12. The central figure in any bee colony is
the queen ___________ all of the
6. In some people, aspirin __________ an hive’s eggs.
allergic reaction. (A) When produced
(A) Producing (B) Which production
(B) Can produce (C) Produce
(C) To produce (D) Who produce
(D) To be producing

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13. ____________, the Monterey Jazz (A) And competing
Festival is the longest continuous jazz (B) To compete
festival in the world. (C) While the competition
(A) Entered its thirty-seventh year (D) To competing
(B) That it entered its thirty-seventh
year 15. Typically, lions live in groups called
(C) Entering its thirty seventh year prides, _________ as many as thirty
(D) Which entered its thirty-seventh individuals.
year (A) Which can include
(B) The inclusion of
14. In spite of protests, contestants gather (C) Included
every fall in Atlantic City ___________ (D) To include
in the Miss America beauty pageant.

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Group 2 – Written Expression Questions
Identify the one word or phrase in italics that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
correct. Then, click on the answer you have chosen.
1. Quebec residents will be entertained 7. Hippocrates, a famous Greek doctor
with traditional rock, folk, and from who lived 2,500 years ago, swore an
the Congo music. oath to preserve life and working for
(A) Will the benefit of everyone.
(B) With (A) Famous
(C) Rock (B) Who lived
(D) From the Congo (C) Swore
(D) Working
2. The people in this month’s magazine
is the most important in the news. 8. In 1983 the fossilized claw and bones
(A) In this of a dinosaur was found in Surrey,
(B) Is England.
(C) Most (A) In 1983
(D) In the news (B) Fossilized
(C) Was
3. There is many deposits of ore in the (D) In
surrounding mines of the southwest
region. 9. Robert Owen, a factory owner from
(A) Is the nineteenth century tries to
(B) Of improve working conditions for the
(C) Surrounding poor.
(D) Of (A) Factory
(B) From
4. Growing crops and raising animals (C) Tries
for food are among the more (D) Working
important steps ever taken by
mankind. 10. Many Swedish farmers belonging to
(A) Growing agriculture cooperatives which
(B) For distribute their crops.
(C) Are (A) Many
(D) More (B) Belonging
5. In the eleventh century the horse (C) Agriculture
collar, a device for ploughing, was (D) Their
introduced to Europe about from
China 11. In 1837 Victoria, an eighteen year old
(A) In woman, named queen of England.
(B) For (A) In 1837
(C) Was introduced (B) Eighteen
(D) Onto (C) Named
(D) of England
6. The goat was one of first animals to be
domesticated. 12. Fresco painting invoving brushing
(A) Was pigments that are ground in water
(B) Of first directly onto wet plaster.
(C) To be (A) Involving
(D) Domesticated (B) Are
(C) In water
(D) Onto
11
 (A) Of the
13. Japanese people travel more from (B) Left
train than do travelers in any other (C) Bitterness
country. (D) Many
(A) Travel
(B) From 20. Roman cities were careful planned
(C) Than do with streets, sewers, and running
(D) In any water.
(A) Were
14. In the past all drugs from natural (B) Careful
sources especially herbs and plants. (C) With
(A) In the past (D) Running water
(B) Drugs from
(C) Especially 21. The British in 1600, founded the East
(D) And India Company for trading with
India.
15. After their conquest, Native (A) The British
Americans were treated cruelly and (B) Founded
forceful to work for the (C) For trading
Conquistadors. (D) With
(A) After
(B) Were 22. The retina contain many millions of
(C) Forceful light-sensitive cells called rods and
(D) For the Conquistador cones.
(A) Contain
16. Workers such as firefighters and (B) Of
beekeepers need an outfit that will (C) Called
protect them while they work. (D) And
(A) Such as
(B) Need 23. Most cameras derive their names
(C) An outfit from its film they use.
(D) Them (A) Most
(B) Derive
17. A small amount of steam-powered (C) Names
trains still burn coal for their (D) Its film
locomotion.
(A) Amount 24. The Temple of Artemis, the largest of
(B) Still a day, was dedicated to the goddess
(C) For of the moon and hunting.
(D) Their (A) Of
(B) Of a day
18. In 1960 john F. Kennedy becomes the (C) Was
youngest man ever to be elected (D) Of the moon
president.
(A) In 1968 25. Neither a trip to the country or a visit
(B) Becomes to her aunt was able to cheer up Alice.
(C) Youngest (A) Or
(D) To be (B) To
(C) Was
19. The end of the civil war left the (D) Up
country bitterness for many years.

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 SECTION 3: READING
To succeed in this section, you need to be able to read and understand English. It means that you
interact with what you read – ask questions, locate main ideas, and draw conclusion. The
following table is the reading comprehension segments on the paper based test:

Time 55 minutes
Number of question 50 questions
Number of passages 5 – 6 reading passages
Number of questions per passage 7 – 12 questions

Question Types:
1. Main idea. This question type asks you to locate the main idea of a passage or paragraph.
Example :
 Which sentence best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
 What is this paragraph mainly about?
 What is the author’s main purpose in this passage?
 What would be the best title for the passage?

2. Supporting details. For this kind of question, you will identify a specific fact or detail that
was not mentioned in the passage.
Example:
 What causes Type II diabetes?
 How many people in the United States have Type II diabetes?

3. Exceptions. For this question type, you will identify a specific fact or detail that was not
mentioned in the passage.
Example:
 Which characteristic does NOT describe the cuttlefish?
 The passage implies that bees can be found in each of the following parts of the
world EXCEPT :

4. Location of information. These questions ask you to find the place in the passage where
specific information is given.
Example:
 Where in the passage does the author define the term ecosystem?

5. Vocabulary. There are two kinds of vocabulary questions : one asks you to determine the
meaning of a word based on how it is used in the passage; the other asks you to choose a
synonym for the vocabulary word.
Example:
 The word intrinsic in paragraph 2 most likely means :
 The word species in the first sentence is closest meaning to :

6. Inferences. For this question type, you will draw a logical conclusion based on the
information in the passage.
Example:

13
  The author suggests that cloning will lead to :
 This passage suggests that racial profiling is discriminatory because :

7. Reference. These questions require you to determine what a specific word (often a
pronoun) or phrase refers to in the passage.
Example:
 The word which in the fourth sentence refers to :

Example 1:
The railroad was not the first institution to value of this tradition is today more apparent
impose regularity on society, or to draw than ever. Were it not for public acceptance
attention to the importance of precise of a single yard stick of time, social life would
timekeeping. For as long as merchants have be unbearably chaotic : the massive daily
set out their wares at line day break and transfers of goods, services, and information
communal festivities have been celebrated, would proceed in fits and starts; the very
people have been in rough agreement with fabric of modern society would begin to
their neighbors as to the time of day. The unravel.

1. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning os society.
(D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.

2. In line 4, the phrase “this tradition” refers to

(A) The practical of starting the business day at dawn
(B) Friendly relations between neighbors
(C) The railroad’s reliance on time schedules
(D) People’s agreement on the measurement of time
The phrase “this tradition” refers to the preceding clause, “people have been in rough agreement
with their neighbors as to the time of day. “ Therefore, you should choose answer (C).
Example 2:
Jazz is an improvisational form of music that originated in the southern United States after the
Civil War. Although its origins and history are somewhat vague, we know that it began as the
musical expression of black people who had formerly been slaves, combining hymns, spirituals,
and traditional work songs into something quite new. The style was a blend of the rhythms bought
to American by Africans line who were imported as slave labor and the popular music of the era
that featured the ragtime piano. The term jazz itself is of obscure and possible nonmusical origin,
but it was first used to describe this particular kind of musical expression in about 1915.
A jazz band commonly includes four to twelve musicians with a relatively large proportion of
the group in the rhythm section. Customarily, there are a drummer, a bass player, and a pianist.
Often there is also a banjo player or guitarist. In traditional jazz, the clarinet, trumpet, and
trombone carry the melody. In more modern jazz, the saxophone, violin, and flute may also be
included in the melody section. Some jazz bands employ a blues singer. Most jazz is premised on
the principle that an almost infinite number of variations can accommodate themselves to a
progression of chords that can be repeated indefinitely to feature an improvisation by solo
instruments or vocalist. For example, while the trumpet plays the melody, the clarinet might
embellish and invent compatible melodies around the original theme. Such improvisation is a test
of the jazz musician’s skill and is referred to as tone color.
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 Jazz first became popular outside the United States in the 1920s when jazz bands began to
record, distribute, and even export their recordings to Europe. Since jazz is improvisational, it does
not exist in the form of printed scores and recorded performances were and still are the best way
of preserving the music. A very basic library of recorded jazz would include work by such classic
artists as Jelly Roll Morton, Luis Armstrong, Duke Ellington, Count Basie, and Billie Holiday.
Theirs is probably America’s most unique and most important contribution to the musical world,
although a few contemporary artists are keeping the tradition alive.
1. Which of the following is the main (A) Mixture
topic of the passage? (B) Rejection
(A) A definition of jazz (C) Imitation
(B) Jazz musicians (D) Variety
(C) Improvisation in jazz
(D) Jazz bands 4. The author mentions all of the
following as characteristics of jazz
2. The new music of jazz was first heard EXCEPT
(A) In Europe (A) A large number of percussion
(B) In Africa instrument
(C) In South America (B) A printed score for the music
(D) In North America (C) A melody played by the trumpet
(D) A ragtime piano
3. The word “blend” in line number 4 in
the first passage is closest in meaning
to

Answer:
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B

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Exercise 1:
The Woodstock Music and Art Fair – better known to its participants and to history simply as
“Woodstock” – should have been a colossal failure. Just a month prior to its August 15, 1969
opening, the council of Wallkill, New York, informed the fair’s organizer that it was withdrawing
its permission to hold the festival.
Amazingly, the organizers found a new site, a large field in Woodstock, New York, owned by
local dairy farmer. Word spread to the public of the fair’s new location. The event drew a larger
audience than the organizers had expected. On the first day of the fair, crowd estimates of 30.000
kept rising, traffic jams blocked most roads leading to the area. Some musician could not reach the
site to appear at their scheduled times. In addition, fences that were supposed to facilitate ticket
collection never materialized, so the organizers abandoned all attempts at taking tickets.
But that was not all, as the large crowd gathered, so did summer storm clouds. It started raining
on opening night and continued for much of the three days event. To deal with the crowd, which
reached an estimated 500.000 by third day, helicopters flew in food, doctors, and medical supplies.
Despite all of its problems, the festival featured some of the greatest musicians of the 1960s,
including Janis Joplin, Joan Baez, Crosby, Stills, Nash, and Young; Sly and the Family Stone;
Credence Clearwater Revival; and Jimi Hendrix. Today many people think of Woodstock not only
as a milestone for rock but as the defining moment for an entire generation.
1. The main idea of this passage is best 4. The phrase defining moment in
expressed in which sentence? paragraph 4 could best be replaced by
(A) Most Americans think of which word or phrase?
Woodstock as a bunch of kids (A) Symbol
dancing to music in the mud (B) Belief
(B) The organizers underestimated (C) Anecdote
how many people the festival (D) Fun time
would attract
(C) Despite poor planning, 5. Where is the passage does the author
Woodstock was a success and a describe the weather conditions
high point for a generation of during the event?
Americans (A) at the end of paragraph 2
(D) The organizers succeeded in their (B) at the beginning of paragraph 3
goal of creating a historically (C) at the end of paragraph 3
significant event (D) at the beginning of paragraph 4

2. What was the final crowd estimate? 6. The word facilitate in paragraph 2 is
(A) 20.000 closest in meaning to
(B) 30.000 (A) Make easier
(C) 50.000 (B) Make more difficult
(D) 500.000 (C) Build a facility
(D) Increase
3. Which of the following was NOT a
problem faced by the event’s 7. What does the author mean by the
organizers? statement the Woodstock Music and
(A) Blocked access to the site Art Fair should have been a colossal
(B) Attracting musical talent failure?
(C) Bad weather (A) Woodstock should not have
(D) Finding a location for the festival happened
(B) Woodstock was a financial failure

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 (C) When you mix dairy farmers with (A) A free concert would never
young rock fans, you are asking happen today
for trouble (B) Area residents thought the rock
(D) The large crowd and other fans were weird
problems could easily have (C) The impact of the event exceeded
resulted in a crisis expectations
(D) Music brings people together in a
8. The passage suggests that way other art forms cannot

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Exercise 2:
The largest of the world’s 17 penguin species, emperor penguins stand nearly four feet and
weigh up to 90 pounds. These sea birds never set foot on dry land. An estimated 200.000 breeding
pairs live in about 40 penguin colonies scattered along the coast of Antarctica. Their waterproofed
feathers, flipper-like wings, and streamlined bodies make them excellent swimmers and divers. On
ice they can travel distance up to 50 miles by “tobogganing” – gliding on their stomachs while
pushing with their wings and feet.
Emperor penguins breed during the Antarctic winter in some of the world’s most severe
weather conditions (temperatures of -80 F and winds up to 112 miles per hour). Breeding during
the winter allows chicks to mature in midsummer when food is plentiful. After the female lays a
single egg, the male holds it in a fold if skin near his feet for two month incubation period. During
this time he huddles with other males to keep warm. The male moves very little and does not eat,
usually losing up to a third of his body weight. Meanwhile the females go to sea and dive for fish
so that when they return they can feed and care for the newly hatched chicks. After the male
restores his body weight, both parents take turns caring for their young.
The world’s emperor penguin population declined in the last 50 years due to a period of
warning ocean temperature. Warm water shrinks ice cover and reduces the population of krill—a
small crustacean that is the emperor penguin’s staple food. Today the emperor penguin
population has stabilized, but warming trends could again threaten this magnificent sea bird.
1. What is the author’s main purpose in this (C) Scientists have never been close
passage? enough to observe the emperor
(A) To describe the recent plight of the penguin
emperor penguin (D) Changes in the global environment
(B) To show the differences between can threaten the emperor penguin
penguins species
(C) To describe the characteristics and 5. What makes up the staple diet of the
breeding practice of the emperor emperor penguin?
penguin (A) Cuttlefish
(D) To describe the eating habits of the (B) Krill
emperor penguin (C) Seaweed
(D) Fried clams
2. Which of the following is NOT true of the
emperor penguin? 6. Where in the passage does the author
(A) They can travel 50 miles by gliding describe the characteristic that make
(B) They breed during Antarctic summer emperor penguins excellent swimmers?
(C) The male incubates the egg (A) At the beginning of paragraph 1
(D) They can withstand severe weather (B) At the end of paragraph 1
(C) At the beginning of paragraph 2
3. The word stabilized in paragraph 3 is (D) At the end of paragraph 2
closest in meaning to
(A) Held steady 7. Why do male emperor penguins form a
(B) Increased huddle?
(C) Slowed (A) To protect the eggs from sea lions
(D) Fluctuated (B) To share their food supply
(C) To maintain body heat in harsh
4. The passage suggests that temperatures
(A) Female emperor penguin should take (D) To share parenting advice
better care of her young
(B) No animal can survive in subzero
temperatures

18
Exercise 3:
Bees, classified into over 10.000 species, are insects found in almost every part of the world
except the northern most and southern most regions. One commonly known species is the
honeybee, the only nee that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles,
lipstick, and other products, and they use the honey as a food. While gathering the nectar and
pollen with which they make honey, bees are simultaneously helping to fertilize the flowers on
which they land. Many fruits and vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the pollen
from blossom to blossom.
Bees live in structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a nest with
storage space for the honey. The different types of bees each perform a unique function. The
worker bee carries nectar to the hive in a special stomach called honey stomach. Other workers
make beeswax and shape it onto a honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six sided
compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in completed cells. As the workers build more cells,
the queen lays more eggs.
All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The male
honeybees are called drones; they do not work and cannot sting. They are developed from
unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized in
order to lay worker egg. During the season when less honey is available and the drones is of no
further use, the workers block the drones from eating the honey so that they will starve to death.
1. Which of the following is the best title (B) A nest
for this reading? (C) A type of bee
(A) The many species of bees (D) A storage space
(B) The useless drone
(C) The honeybee – its characteristic 6. According to the passage, the drone
and usefulness (A) Collects less honey than workers
(D) Making honey (B) Mates with the queen and has no
other purpose
2. The word species in the first sentence (C) Comes from eggs fertilizer by
is closest in meaning to other drones
(A) Mates (D) Can be male or female
(B) Varieties
(C) Killers 7. The author implies that
(D) Enemies (A) Bees are unnecessary in the food
chain
3. The word which in the fourth (B) Drones are completely
sentences refers to dispensable
(A) Fertilizer (C) The queen can be a worker
(B) Flowers (D) Drones are never females
(C) Honey
(D) Bees 8. According to the passage, honey is
carried to the hive in a honey stomach
4. The word simultaneously in the by the
fourth sentence is closest in meaning (A) Queens
to (B) Drones
(A) Stubbornly (C) Males
(B) Concurrently (D) Workers
(C) Skillfully
(D) Diligently 9. In what way does the reading imply
that bees are useful in nature?
5. According to the passage, a hive is (A) They pollinate fruit and vegetable
(A) A type of honey plants
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 (B) They make marvelous creations (A) Africa
from wax (B) China
(C) They kill the dangerous drones (C) Europe
(D) They create storage spaces (D) Antarctica
10. All of the following are characteristic
of a honeycomb except 12. It can be inferred from the reading
(A) It contains hexagonal sections that beeswax is
(B) It is made of honey (A) Absorbent
(C) It is made of wax (B) Pliable
(D) It is impermeable (C) Complex in structure
(D) Sweet
11. The passage implies that bees can be
found in each of the following parts of
the world except

20
Exercise 4:
Collecting coins can be good investment, but it requires the study of popularity, availability,
and grading techniques. Some coins are more desirable than others, their popularity being affected
by the artists’ talent, the subject of the design, the material from which the coin is made, and the
time period when the coin was created. Availability is just as critical. Providing the coin is
otherwise interesting or pleasing to the eye, the number of coins minted and available on the
market seems to have a direct relationship to the popularity.
The ability to grade coins is perhaps the most important requirement of a collector. A coin that
is popular and scarce, which would normally make it valuable, may be worth much less or nothing
at all if it has a low grade. Grading is standardized, and one can buy books and take courses on
how to do it.
Grades are given letter designations as well as numbers. The letters represent general levels of
the grade, while the numbers are more detailed. For example, there are 11 number grades within a
letter grade for a mint state coin. A mint state coin is uncirculated, which means it has never been
used in commerce. It is in the condition that it left the mint, the place where a coin is created. The
mint state letter designation is MS, and the number range from 60 through 70. An absolutely
perfect coin is MS-70. It takes much training and a good eye to tell the difference between coins in
this range. The things one considers include whether the coin has contact marks, which are marks
obtained when coins bounce against each other in a coin bag; hairlines, which are marks appearing
on the face of the coin from the minting process; luster, which is the natural coloration; and eye
appeal. For example, an MS-70 is said to have no contact marks, no hairlines, very attractive and
fully original luster, and outstanding eye appeal, while an MS-60 may have been heavy contact
marks, noticeable hairlines, impaired luster, and poor eye appeal.
Below the mint state coin, the letter designation and number have the same meaning. That is,
there are generally no numbers within the range letters. But there are categories:
 Coins that are About Uncirculated: Very Choice about Uncirculated, known as AU-
58; Choice about Uncirculated, known as AU-55; and About Uncirculated, known as
AU-50.
 Coins that are Fine: Choice Extremely Fine, known as EF-45; Extremely Fine, known
as EF-40; Choice Very Fine, known as VF-30; Very Fine, known as VF-20; and Fine,
known as F-12.
 Coins that are Good: Very Good, known as VG-8; Good, known as G-4; and about
Good, known as AG-3.
Thus, a circulated coin can have a number designation between 3 and 58, with only the numbers
shown above available. That is, one cannot have a coin with a grade of 6, for example. It is either
G-4 or VG-8. It is possible for a coin labeled G-4 or even AG-3 to be extremely valuable, but
generally it will be a coin with a grade that is almost unavailable in higher grades. Books and
publications monitor the coin market regularly, just like the stock market is monitored, and they
describe a coin’s type, date and grade, assigning a price to every one unless that grade would have
no value.
In general, coin collector loathes cleaned coins, also artificial cleaning by adding any chemical
will detract greatly from a coin’s value. A true coin collector will say the dirt in the creases is a
positive attribute and much preferable to a cleaned coin.
1. A good title for this passage would be (C) Coin grading – one of the most
(A) The financial benefits of coin important skills in coin collection
collection (D) How to grade coins – a detailed
(B) How popularity and availability study
affect coin value

21
2. The word talent in the third sentence 7. The one grading category that has the
is closest in meaning to most numbered grades within it is
(A) Ability (A) Good
(B) Pay (B) Mint state
(C) Source (C) Fine
(D) Money (D) About Uncirculated

3. The author describes a coin’s 8. According to the author, the phrase

popularity as involving all the contact marks means
following except (A) Marks on a coin caused by
(A) Grade banging from other coins
(B) How well the artist created the (B) Defects in the minting process
work (C) Connections among coin dealers
(C) The depiction on the coin (D) Defects caused by cleaning
(D) The coin’s material
9. The word luster in the third
4. The word scarce in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
paragraph is closest in meaning to (A) Value
(A) Popular (B) Sheen
(B) Old (C) Marked
(C) Rare (D) Material
(D) Valuable
10. All of the following grades would be
5. The author implies that availability is possible except
primarily related to (A) MS-64
(A) The popularity of a coin (B) AU-56
(B) The material used to create a coin (C) VF-30
(C) The age of coin (D) AG-3
(D) The number of coins of a given
type and date that they were 11. The author implies that
minted (A) A low grade coin never has value
(B) The only difference between and
6. The author implies that the most MS-60 and an AU-58 may be that
important feature of a coin is its the AU-58 has been in circulation
(A) Grade (C) Cleaning a coin can increase its
(B) Date value
(C) Artist (D) One must be a professional in
(D) Depiction order to obtain information on
coin value

22
Exercise 5:
It was previously believed that dinosaurs were cold blooded creatures, like reptiles. However, a
recent discovery has led researchers to believe they may have been warm-blooded. The fossilized
remains of a 66 million-year-old dinosaur’s heart were discovered and examined by x-ray. The
basis for the analysis that they were warm-blooded is the number of chambers in the heart as well
as the existence of a single aorta.
Most reptiles have three chambers in their hearts, although some do have four. But those that
have four chambers, such as the crocodile, have two arteries to mix the oxygen – heavy blood with
oxygen lean blood. Reptiles are cool-blooded, meaning that they are dependent on the
environment for body heat. Yet the fossilized heart had four chambers in the heart as well as a
single aorta. The single aorta means that the oxygen rich blood was completely separated from the
oxygen poor blood and sent through the aorta to all parts of the body.
Mammals, on the other hand, are warm blooded, meaning that they generate their own body
heat and are thus more tolerant of temperature extremes. Birds and mammals, because they are
warm blooded, move more swiftly and have greater physical endurance than reptiles.
Scientists believe that the evidence now points to the idea that all dinosaur were actually warm
blooded. Ironically, the particular dinosaur in which the discovery was made was a Tescelosaurus,
which translates to “marvelous lizard.” A lizard, of course, is a reptile.
1. They word they in second sentence (D) They viewed a fossil of a
refers to dinosaur’s heart and discovered
(A) Researchers that it had two aortas
(B) Discoveries
(C) Reptiles 4. The author implies that reptiles
(D) Dinosaur (A) Have four chambered hearts
(B) Have one aorta
2. According to the author, what theory (C) Are cold blooded
was previously held and now is being (D) Are faster and have more
questioned? endurance than mammals
(A) That dinosaur were warm
blooded 5. The word generate in paragraph three
(B) That dinosaur had four is closest in meaning to
chambered hearts (A) Produce
(C) That dinosaur were swifter and (B) Lose
stronger than reptiles (C) Use
(D) That dinosaur were cold blooded (D) Tolerate

3. What is the basis of the researchers’ 6. The author implies that birds
new theory? (A) Move faster and have greater
(A) They performed mathematical endurance than reptiles
calculations and determined that (B) Move slower and have less
dinosaurs must have had four endurance than reptiles
chambered hearts (C) Move faster and have great
(B) They found a fossil of an entire endurance than dinosaur
dinosaur and reviewed the (D) Move slower and have less
arteries and veins flowing from endurance than dinosaur
and to the heart
(C) They found a fossil of a dinosaur’s 7. What does the author imply by the
heart and discovered it had four sentence: “ironically, the particular
chambers and one aorta dinosaur in which the discovery was

23
made was a Tescelosaurus, which (C) It is surprising that the fossilized
translates to “marvelous lizard.” heart was discovered
(A) It is paradoxical that the (D) It should have been realized long
dinosaur’s name includes the ago that dinosaurs were warm
word lizard, because now blooded
scientists believe it is not a lizard
(B) It is unusual that the creature
would have a name with the suffix
of a dinosaur

24