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Test Paper :12

Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 10 March 2010
Test Location : bangalore
Posted By : my3
NTPC PRACTICE PAPER 1

The paper consists of 120 qns of technical qns and 50 qns of general aptitude.
*****1/3 of negative marking for wrong answers*****
***** NO calculator allowed*****

Section 1: Technical qns

Section 2 : General aptitude

SECTION 1

1 A system has poles at 0.01 Hz, 1 Hz and 80 Hz; zeros at 5 Hz, 100 Hz and 200 Hz. The approximate phase of the
system-response at 20 Hz is
A) – 90°
B) 0°
C) 90°
D) – 180°
Answer : (A)

2 In an abrupt p-n junction, the doping concentrations on the p-side and n-side are NA = 9x 1016/cm3 and ND = 1 x
1016/cm3 respectively. The p-n junction is reverse biased and the total depletion width is 3 m m. The depletion

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width on the p-side is

A) 2.7 mm
B) 0.3 mm.
C) 2.25 mm
D) 0.75 mm
Answer : (B)

3 A master-slave flip-flop has the characteristic that

A) change in the input immediately reflected in the output
B) change in the output occurs when the state of the master is affected
C) change in the output occurs when the state of the slave is affected
D) both the master and the slave states are affected at the same time
Answer : (C)

4 A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate area of l0-4 m2 and plate separation of 10-3 m. It is connected to a
0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement current is (e0 = 1/36p x 10-9 F/m)
A) 10 mA
B) 100 mA
C) 10 A
D) 1.59 mA
Answer : (A)
5 The phase velocity of an electromagnetic wave propagating in a hollow metallic rectangular waveguide in the TE10
mode is
A)equal to its group velocity
B) less than the velocity of light in free space
C) equal to the velocity of light in free space
D) greater than the velocity of light in free space
Answer : (D)

6 Noise with uniform power spectral density of N0W/Hz is passed through a filter H (w) = 2 exp(-jwtd) followed by
an ideal low pass filter of bandwidth BHz. The output noise power in Watts is
A) 2N0 B
B) 4N0 B
C) eN0 B
D) 16 N0 B
Answer : (B)

7 The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of

A) CC-CB
B) CE-CB
C) CB-CC
D) CE-CC
Answer : (B)

8 Consider a lossless antenna with a directive gain of +6dB. If 1 mW of power is fed to it the total power radiated by
the antenna will be
A) 4 mW
B) 1 mW
C) 7 mW
D) 1/4 mW
Answer : (A)

9 The bandgap of Silicon at room temperature is

A) 1.3 eV
B) 0.7 eV
C) 1.1 eV
D) 1.4 eV
Answer : (C)

10 In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio
improves by the factor
A) 8/6
B) 12
C) 16
D) 8
Answer : (C)

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11 A device with input x(t) and output y(t) is characterized by: y(t) = x2(t). An FM signal with frequency deviation of
90 kHz and modulating signal bandwidth of 5 kHz is applied to this device. The bandwidth of the output signal is
A) 370 kHz
B) 190 kHz
C) 380kHz
D) 95kHz
Answer : (C)

12 For the polynomial P(s) = s5 + s4 + 2s3 + 2s2 + 3s + 15, the number of roots which lie in the right half of the
s-plane is
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
Answer : (B)

13 An AM signal is detected using an envelope detector The carrier frequency and modulating signal frequency are 1
MHz and 2 kHz respectively. An appropriate value for the time constant of the envelope detector is
A) 500 msec
B) 20 msec
C) 0.2 msec
D) 1 msec
Answer : (B)

14 In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio
improves by the factor
A) 8/6
B) 12
C) 16
D) 8
Answer : (C)

15 Consider the following statements S1 and S2.

S1: The b of a bipolar transistor reduces if the base width is increased.
S2: The b of a bipolar transistor increases if the doping concentration in the base is increased. Which one of the
following is correct?

A) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE

B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE
C) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE
D) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE
Answer : (D)

16. A digital-to-analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5 V has a resolution close to 14m V. Its bit size
is
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
Answer : (B)

17. A single-phase half-controlled rectifier is driving a separately excited dc motor. The dc motor has a back emf
constant of 0.5 V/rpm. The armature current is 5 A without any ripple. The armature resistance is 2W. The converter
is working from a 280 V, single phase ac source with a firing angle of 80°. Under this operating condition, the speed
of the motor will be
A) 339 rpm
B) 359 rpm
C) 366 rpm
D) 386 rpm
Answer : (C)

17. In relation to the synchronous machines, which one of the following statements is false?
A) In salient pole machines, the direct-axis synchronous reactance is greater than the quadrature-axis synchronous
reactance
B) The damper bars help the synchronous motor self start
C) Short circuit ratio is the ratio of the field current required to produce the rated voltage on open circuit to the rated

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armature current
D) The V-curve of a synchronous motor represents the variation in the armature current with field excitation, at a
given output power
Answer : (C)

18. A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate area of l0-4 m2 and plate separation of 10-3 m. It is connected to a
0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement current is (e0 = 1/36p x 10-9 F/m)
A) 10 mA
B) 100 mA
C) 10 A
D) 1.59 mA
Answer : (A)

19 The 8085 assembly language instruction that stores the content of H and L registers into the memory locations
2050H and 2051H, respectively, is
A) SPHL 2050H
B) SPHL2051H
C) SHLD 2050H
D) STAX 2050H
Answer : (C)

20 If E is the electric field intensity, Ñ(Ñ x E ) is equal to

A) E
B) | E |
C) null vector
D) zero
Answer : (D)

21 The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by

A) load power factor
B) switching over-voltages
C) harmonics
D) corona
Answer : (B)

22.The Q – meter works on the principle of

A) mutual inductance
B) self inductance
C) series resonance
D) parallel resonance
Answer : (C)

23.A 800 kV transmission line is having per phase line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per phase line capacitance of
11.68 nF/km. Ignoring the length of the line, its ideal power transfer capability in MW is
A) 1204 MW
B) 1504 MW
C) 2085 MW
D) 2606 MW
Answer : (C)

24.In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio
improves by the factor
A) 8/6
B) 12
C) 16
D) 8
Answer : (C)

25. At an industrial sub-station with a 4 MW load, a capacitor of 2 MVAR is installed to maintain the load power factor
at 0.97 lagging. If the capacitor goes out of serivce, the load power factor becomes
A) 0.85
B) 1.00
C) 0.80 lag

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D) 0.90 lag
Answer : (C)

26. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best approximated by
A) a parabola
B) a straight line
C) a rectangular hyperbola
D) an exponentially decaying function
Answer : (A)

27. High Voltage DC (HVDC) transmission is mainly used for

A) bulk power transmission over very long distances
B) inter-connecting two systems with the same nominal frequency
C) eliminating reactive power requirement in the operation
D) minimizing harmonics at the converter stations
Answer : (A)

28. For the equation,

s3 – 4s2+ s + 6 = 0
the number of roots in the left half of s-plane will be

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer : (C)

29. For the function f(x) = x2 e-x, the maximum occurs when x is equal to
A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
D) -1
Answer : (B)

29.The drain of an n-channel MOSFET is shorted to the gate so that VGS = VDS. The threshold voltage (VT) of
MOSFET is 1 V. If the drain current (ID) is 1 mA for VGS = 2V, then for VGS = 3V, ID is
A) 2 mA
B) 3 mA
C) 9 mA
D) 4 mA
Answer : (D)

30. The first and the last critical frequency of an RC-driving point impedance function must respectively be
A) a zero and a pole
B) a zero and a zero
C) a pole and a pole
D) a pole and a zero
Answer : (D)

31. In what range should Re(s) remain so that the Laplace transform of the function e(a+2)t+5 exits?
A) Re (s) > a + 2
B) Re (s) > a + 7
C) Re (s) < 2
D) Re (s) > a + 5
Answer : (A)

32.A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate area of l0-4 m2 and plate separation of 10-3 m. It is connected to a
0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement current is (e0 = 1/36p x 10-9 F/m)
A) 10 mA
B) 100 mA
C) 10 A
D) 1.59 mA
Answer : (A)
33.For the polynomial P(s) = s5 + s4 + 2s3 + 2s2 + 3s + 15, the number of roots which lie in the right half of the
s-plane is
A) 4

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B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
Answer : (B)

34. The phase velocity of an electromagnetic wave propagating in a hollow metallic rectangular waveguide in the
TE10 mode is
A) equal to its group velocity
B) less than the velocity of light in free space
C) equal to the velocity of light in free space
D) greater than the velocity of light in free space
Answer : (D)

35.A device with input x(t) and output y(t) is characterized by: y(t) = x2(t). An FM signal with frequency deviation of
90 kHz and modulating signal bandwidth of 5 kHz is applied to this device. The bandwidth of the output signal is
A) 370 kHz
B) 190 kHz
C) 380kHz
D) 95kHz
Answer : (C)

36. The Q – meter works on the principle of

A) mutual inductance
B) self inductance
C) series resonance
D) parallel resonance
Answer : (C)

37. The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always

A) imaginary
B) conjugate anti-symmetric
C) real
D) conjugate symmetric
Answer : (C)

38. An ideal op-amp is an ideal

A) voltage controlled current source
B) voltage controlled voltage source
C) current controlled current source
D) current controlled voltage source
Answer : (B)

q-1 A circuit has a resistance of 11 W, a coil of inductive reactance 120 W, and a capacitor with a 120-W reactance,
all connected in series with a 110-V, 60-Hz power source. What is the potential difference across each circuit
element?

A) (a) VR = 110 V, (b) VL = VC = 1.2 Kv

B) (a) VR = 120 V, (b) VL = VC = 2.4 kV
C) (a) VR = 4.8 V, (b) VL = VC = 0 kV
D) (a) VR = 5.0 V, (b) VL = VC = 8.0 V

Q-2 Applying DeMorgan’s theorem to the expression , we get

A) (A+B)+C
B) A(B + C)
C) Both A & B
D) None of above

Q-4 Refer Below figure to Determine the resonant frequency…

A) 123.4 kHz
B) 61.7 kHz
C) 45.97 kHz
D) 23.1 kHz

Q-4 Express the decimal number 57 in binary.

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A) 100101
B) 111010
C) 110010
D) 111001

Q-5 A vertical electric dipole antenna

a) radiates uniformly in all directions.

b) radiates uniformly in all horizontal directions, but more strongly in the vertical direction.
c) radiates most strongly and uniformly in the horizontal directions
d) does not radiate in the horizontal directions

Q-6 A particle oscillates according to the equation y=5.0 cos 23 t, where y is in centimeters. Find its frequency of
oscillation and its position at t=0.15 s.

a) f = 23 Hz, y = -4.8 cm
B) f = 3.7 Hz, y = -5.0 cm
C) f = 3.7 Hz, y = -4.8 cm
D) f = 3.7 Hz, y = +4.8 cm

Q-7 A 10.0-µF capacitor is in series with a 40.0-W resistance, and the combination is connected to a 110-V, 60.0-Hz
line. Calculate (a) the capacitive reactance, (b) the impedance of the circuit, (c) the current in the circuit, (d) the
phase angle between current and supply voltage

A) (a) 0.0038W (b) 305W (c) 0.415 A (d) voltage lags by 8.58°
B) (a) 266W (b) 269W (c) 0.409 A (d) voltage lags by 81.4°
C) (a) 16 kW (b) 72 kW (c) 2.75 A (d) voltage lags by 6.63°
D) (a) 2.6 kW (b) 262W (c) 0.256 MA (d) voltage leads by 81.4°

Q-8 A circuit has a resistance of 11 W, a coil of inductive reactance 120 W, and a capacitor with a 120-W reactance,
all connected in series with a 110-V, 60-Hz power source. What is the potential difference across each circuit
element?

A) (a) VR = 110 V, (b) VL = VC = 1.2 Kv

B) (a) VR = 120 V, (b) VL = VC = 2.4 kV
C) (a) VR = 4.8 V, (b) VL = VC = 0 kV
D) (a) VR = 5.0 V, (b) VL = VC = 8.0 V

Q-9 What is the primary function of multiplexing?

A ) To match the frequency range of a signal to a particular channel.

B ) To reduce the bandwidth of a signal.
C ) To select one radio channel from a wide range of transmitted channels.
D ) To allow a number of signals to make use of a single communications channel.

Q-10 A second step to further increase system capacity is a digital access method called TDMA (Time Division
Multiple Access). Using the same frequency channelization and reuse as FDMA analog but adding a time sharing
element, the effective capacity is:

A) Doubled
B) Tripled
C) Reduced by one third
D) Unchanged

Q-11 What are Pseudo-Random noise sequences, or P/N Sequences?

A) P/N Sequences are known sequences which exhibit the properties or chracteristics of random sequences
B) P/N Sequences can be used to logically isolate users on the same physical (frequency) channel
C) P/N Sequences appear as random noise to everyone else, except to the transmitter and intended receiver
D) All of the above

Q-12 An op-amp integrator has a square-wave input. The output should be

A ) a sine wave.
B) a triangle wave
C) a square wave.
D) pure DC.

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Q-13 What is the relationship between the series and parallel resonant frequencies of a quartz crystal?

A) They are equal.

B) Parallel resonant frequency is approximately 1 kHz higher than series resonant frequency
C) Series resonant frequency is approximately 1 kHz higher than parallel resonant frequency.
D) none of the above

Q-14 Refer Below figure to Determine the resonant frequency…

A) 123.4 kHz
B) 61.7 kHz
C) 45.97 kHz
D) 23.1 kHz

Q-15 Which FET amplifier(s) has (have) a phase inversion between input and output signals?

A) common-gate
B) common-drain
C) common-source
D) all of the above

section -1 b.

1. The order of the differential equation

23
4t
2
d y dy
ye
dt dt
__−
+__+=
__
is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

2. The Fourier series of a real periodic function has only

P. Cosine terms if it is even
Q. Sine terms if it is even
R. Cosine terms if it is odd
S. Sine terms if it is odd
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) P and S (B) P and R (C) Q and S (D) Q and R

3. A function is given ( ) 2 f t = sin t + cos2t. Which of the following is true?

(A) f has frequency components at 0 and 1/2p Hz
(B) f has frequency components at 0 and 1/p Hz
(C) f has frequency components at 1/2p and 1/p Hz
(D) f has frequency components at 0, 1/2p and 1/p Hz

4. A fully charged mobile phone with a 12V battery is good for a 10minute talktime.
Assume that, during the talk-time, the battery delivers a constant current
of 2A and its voltage drops linearly from 12 V to 10V as shown in the figure. How
much energy does the battery deliver during this talk-time?
(A) 220J (B) 12kJ (C) 13.2kJ (D) 14.4kJ

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5. In an n-type silicon crystal at room temperature, which of the following can have
a concentration of 19 3 4 ×10 cm− ?
(A) Silicon atoms (B) Holes
(C) Dopant atoms (D) Valence electrons

6. The full form of the abbreviations TTL and CMOS in reference to logic families are
(A) Triple Transistor Logic and Chip Metal Oxide Semiconductor
(B) Tristate Transistor Logic and Chip Metal Oxide Semiconductor
10min
t
0
10V
12V
v (t)

(C) Transistor Transistor Logic and Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor

(D) Tristate Transistor Logic and Complementary Metal Oxide Silicon

7. The ROC of Z-transform of the discrete time sequence

()()()
nn
11
x n u n u n 1 is
32
____
=__−__−−
____
(A)
11
z
32
< < (B)
1
z
2
> (C)
1
z
3
< (D) 2 < z < 3

8. The magnitude plot of a rational transfer function G(s) with real coefficients is
shown below. When of the following compensators has such a magnitude plot?
(A) Lead compensator (B) Lag compensator
(C) PID compensator (D) Lead-lag compensator

9. A white noise process X(t) with two-sided power spectral density 1×10-10 W/Hz is

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input to a filter whose magnitude squared response is shown below

The power of the output process Y(t) is given by
(A) 7 5 ×10− W (B) 6 1×10− W (C) 6 2 ×10− W (D) 5 1×10− W

10. Which of the following statements is true regarding the fundamental mode of the
metallic waveguides shown?
(A) Only P has no cutoff-frequency (B) Only Q has no cutoff-frequency
(C) Only R has no cutoff-frequency (D) all three have cutoff-frequency
P. Coaxial Q. Cylindrical
R:Rectangular
−40dB
20dB
G(jw)
logw
−10kHz 10kHz
1
( )2
Hf
X(t) Y (t)
F

11. A fair coin is tossed 10times. What is the probability that ONLY the first two
tosses will yield heads?
(A)
2
1
2
__
__
__
(B)
2
10
2
1
C
2
__
__
__
(C)
10
1
2
__
__
__
(D)
10
10

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2
1
C
2
__
__
__

12. If the power spectral density of stationary random process is a sine-squared

function of frequency, the shape of its autocorrelation is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. ( ) ( ) 1
01
unit
circle
1fz
If f z c c z , then dz is given by
z
−+
= + __
(A) 2pc1 (B) ( ) 0 2p 1 + c (C) 1 2pjc (D) ( ) 0 2pj 1 + c

14. In the interconnection of ideal sources shown in the figure, it is known that the
60V source is absorbing power
Which of the following can be the value of the current source _ ?
(A) 10A (B) 13A (C) 15A (D) 18A

15. The ratio of the mobility to the diffusion coefficient in a semiconductor has the
units
(A) 1 V− (B) 1 em× V− (C) 1 V × cm− (D) V . s

16. In a microprocessor, the service routine for a certain interrupt starts from a fixed
location of memory which cannot be externally set, but the interrupt can be
delayed or rejected. Such an interrupt is
(A) non-maskable and non-vectored (B) maskable and non-vectored
(C) non-maskable and vectored (D) maskable and vectored
_
+−
60V
12A
+ − 20V
R (t)
t
R (t)
t
R (t)
t
R (t)
t

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17. If the transfer function of the following network is

()
()
0
i
Vs1
V s 2 s CR
=
+
The value of the load resistance RL is
(A) R/4 (B) R/2 (C) R (D) 2R

18. Consider the system

dx Ax Bu with A 1 0 and B p
dt 0 1 q
=+=_ =_ ____
where p and q are
arbitrary real numbers. Which of the following statements about the
controllability of the system is true?
(A) The system is completely state controllable for any nonzero values of p and q
(B) Only p=0 and q=0 result in controllability
(C) The system is uncontrollable for all values of p and q
(D) We cannot conclude about controllability from the given data

19. For a message signal ( ) ( ) m m t = cos 2pf t and carrier of frequency fc, which of the
following represents a single side band (SSB) signal?
(A) ( ) ( ) m c cos 2pf t cos 2pf t (B) ( ) c cos 2pf t
(C) ( ) c m cos __2p f + f t (D) ( ) ( ) m c __1 + cos 2pf t cos 2pf t

20. Two infinitely long wires carrying current are as shown in the figure below. One
wire is in the y-z plane and parallel to the y-axis. The other wise is in the x-y
plane and parallel to the x-axis. Which components of the resulting magnetic field
are non-zero at the origin?
(A) x, y, z components (B) x, y components
(C) y, z components (D) x, z components
R
C
iV
+
−
0V
+
−
LR
1A
1A
z
x
y

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21. Consider two independent random variables X and Y with identical distributions.
The variables X and Y take values 0, 1 and 2 with probabilities
111
, and
244
respectively. What is the conditional probability P (X + Y = 2| X − Y = 0) ?
(A) 0 (B)
1
16
(C)
1
6
(D) 1

22. The Taylor series expansion of

sinx
at x is given by
x
=p
−p
(A)
( )2 x
1 ...
3!
−p
+ + (B)
( )2 x
1 ...
3!
−p
− − + (C)
( )2 x
1 ...
3!
−p
− + (D)
( )2 x
1 ...
3!
−p
−++

23. If a vector field V

__
is related to another vector field A
__
through V = Ñ × A,

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__ __
which
of the following is true? Note: C and SC refer to any closed contour and any
surface whose boundary is C.
(A)
CCS
_ V × d = __ A × dS
__ ___ __ ____
_ _ (B)
CCS
_ A × d = __ V × dS
__ ___ __ ____
__
(C)
CCS
_ Ñ × V × d = __ Ñ × A × dS
__ ___ __ ____
_ _ (D)
CCS
_ Ñ × A × d = __ V × dS
__ ___ __ ____
__

24. Given that F(s) is the one-sided Laplace transform of f(t), the Laplace transform
of ( )
t
0
_ f t dt is
(A) sF (s) − f (0) (B) ( ) 1
Fs
s
(C) ( )
s
0
_ F t dt (D) ( ) ( ) 1
Fsf0
s
__ −

25. Match each differential equation in Group I to its family of solution curves from
Group II.
Group – I Group – II
P.
dy y
dx x
= 1. Circles
Q.
dy y

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dx x
= − 2. Straight lines
R.
dy x
dx y
= 3. Hyperbolas
S.
dy x
dx y
=−
(A) P-2,Q-3,R-3,S-1 (B) P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-1
(C) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-3 (D) P-3,Q-2,R-1,S-2

26. The eigen values of the following matrix are

-1 3 5
-3 -1 6
003
_
_
_
__
(A) 3,3 + 5j,6 − j (B) −6 + 5j,3 + j,3 − j
(C) 3 + j,3 − j,5 + j (D) 3, −1 + 3j, −1 − 3j

27. An AC source of RMS voltage 20V with internal impedance ( ) S Z = 1 + 2j W feeds a

load of impedance ( ) L Z = 7 + 4j W in the figure below. The reactive power
consumed by the load is
(A) 8VAR (B) 16VAR (C) 28VAR (D) 32VAR

28. The switch in the circuit shown was on position a for a long time, and is moved to
position b at time t=0. The current i(t) for t>0 is given by
(A) 125t ( ) 0.2e u t mA − (B) 1250t ( ) 20e u t mA −
(C) 1250t ( ) 0.2e u t mA − (D) 1000t ( ) 20e u t mA −
( ) L Z = 7 + 4j W
( ) S Z = 1 + 2j W
20Ð0ºV
+−
+−
5kW
i (t)
10kW a b
100V
0.5µF 0.3µF
0.2µF

29. In the circuit shown, what value of RL maximizes the power delivered to RL?
(A) 2.4W (B)
8
3

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W (C) 4W (D) 6W
30. The time domain behavior of an RL circuit is represented by
( Rt /L ) ( )
0
di
L Ri V 1 Be sint u t .
dt
+=+−
For an initial current of ( ) 0 V
i0,
R
= the steady state value of the current is given
by
(A) ( ) 0 V
it
R
® (B) ( ) 0 2V
it
R
®
(C) ( ) 0 ( ) V
it1B
R
® + (D) ( ) 0 ( ) 2V
it1B
R
®+

31. In the circuit below, the diode is ideal. The voltage V is given by
(A) ( ) i min V,1 (B) ( ) i max V,1 (C) ( ) i min −V,1 (D) ( ) i max −V,1

32. Consider the following two statements about the internal conditions in an
n-channel MOSFET operating in the active region
S1: The inversion charge decreases from source to drain
S2: The channel potential increases from source to drain
Which of the following is correct?
(A) Only S2 is true
+−
i V 100V
4W 4W
X −V +
−+
X 4W V
LR
+−
iV
1W 1W
+ V−
1A

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(B) Both S1 and S2 are false

(C) Both S1 and S2 are true, but S2 is not a reason for S1
(D) Both S1 and S2 are true, and S2 is a reason for S1

33. In the following astable multivibrator circuit, which properties of v0(t) depend on
R2?
(A) Only the frequency
(B) Only the amplitude
(C) Both the amplitude and the frequency
(D) Neither the amplitude nor the frequency

34. In the circuit shown below, the op-amp is ideal, the transistor has
VBE = 0.6V and b = 150. Decide whether the feedback in the circuit is positive or
negative and determine the voltage V at the output of the op-amp
(A) Positive feedback, V=10 V
(B) Positive feedback, V=0 V
(C) Negative feedback, V=5 V
(D) Negative feedback, V=2 V

35. A small signal source ( ) 6

i v t = A cos20t + B sin10 t is applied to a transistor
amplifier as shown below. The transistor has ie b = 150 and h = 3kW. Which
expression best approximates ( ) 0 V t
(A) ( ) ( 6 )
0 v t = −1500 A cos20t + Bsin10 t
(B) ( ) ( 6 )
0 v t = −150 A cos20t + B sin10 t
(C) ( ) 6
0 v t = −1500B sin10 t
(D) ( ) 6
0 v t = −150Bsin10 t
4R
3R
()0vt
C
2R
1R
−
+
V
1.4kW
+
−
5V
5kW
10V
20kW

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12V
900W
100nF
()ivt
100kW 3kW
100nF
10µF
()0vt

36. If X = 1 in the logic equation _X + Z{Y + (Z + XY)} _ {X + Z(X + Y)} = 1, then _

(A) Y=Z (B) Y = Z (C) Z=1 (D) Z=0

37. What are the minimum number of 2 to 1 multiplexers required to generate a 2

input AND gate and a 2 input Ex-OR gate?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 1 (D) 2 and 2

38. Refer to the NAND and NOR latches shown in the figure. The inputs ( ) 1 2 P ,P for
both the latches are first made (0, 1) and then, after a few seconds, made (1, 1).
The corresponding stable outputs (Q1, Q2) are
(A) NAND: first (0, 1) then (0, 1) NOR: first (1, 0) then (0, 0)
(B) NAND: first (1, 0) then (1, 0) NOR: first (1, 0) then (1, 0)
(C) NAND: first (1, 0) then (1, 0) NOR: first (1, 0) then (0, 0)
(D) NAND: first (1, 0) then (1, 1) NOR: first (0, 1) then (0, 1)

39. What are the counting stages (Q1, Q2) for the counter shown in the figure below?
(A) 11,10,00,11,10,.... (B) 01,10,11,00,01,....
(C) 00,11,01,10,00,.... (D) 01,10,00,01,10,....
2P
1P
2Q
1Q
2P
1P
2Q
1Q
Clock JK Flip Flop JK Flip Flop
1J
1K
1Q
1Q
2J
2K
2Q
2Q
2Q1Q

40. A system with transfer function H(z) has impulse response h(.) defined as
h(2)=1, h(3)=-1 and h(k)=0 otherwise. Consider the following statements
()

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()
S1:H z is a low pass filter
S2 :H z is a FIR filter
Which of the following is correct?
(A) Only S2 is true
(B) Both S1 and S2 are false
(C) Both S1 and S2 are true, and S2 is a reason for S1
(D) Both S1 and S2 are true, but S2 is not a reason for S1

41. Consider a system whose input x and output y are related by the equation
y (t) x (t )h(2 ) d
¥
−¥
=_−ttt
Where h(t) is shown in the graph
Which of the following four properties are possessed by the system?
BIBO: Bounded input gives a bounded output
Causal: The system is causal
LP: The system is low pass
LTI: The system is linear and time invariant
(A) Causal, LP
(B) BIBO, LTI
(C) BIBO, Causal, LTI
(D) LP, LTI

42. The 4 point Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) of a discrete time sequence
{1, 0, 2, 3} is
(A) __0, −2 + 2j,2, −2 − 2j (B) __2,2 + 2j,6,2 − 2j
(C) __6,1 − 3j,2,1 + 3j (D) __6, −1 + 3j,0, −1 − 3j

43. The feedback configuration and the pole-zero locations of ( ) 2

2
s 2s 2
Gs
s 2s 2
−+
=
++
are
shown below. The root locus for negative values of k, i.e. for −¥ < k < 0, has
breakaway/break in points and angle of departure at pole P (with respect to the
positive real axis) equal to
(A) ± 2 and 0ºError! Not a valid link.
(B) ± 2 and 45º
(C) ± 3 and 0º
(D) ± 3 and 45º
0t
h(t)

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+
+
−
K G(s)
Im (s)
o×
o ×P
Re(s)
44. An LTI system having transfer function
2
2
s1
s 2s 1
+
++
and input x(t)=sin(t+1) is in
steady state. The output is sampled at a rate wS rad/s to obtain the final output
{y(k)}. Which of the following is true?
(A) y(.) is zero for all sampling frequencies wS
(B) y(.) is nonzero for all sampling frequencies wS
(C) y(.) is nonzero for ws>2, but zero for ws>2
(D) y(.) is zero for ws>2 but nonzero for ws>2

45. The unit step response of an under-damped second order system has steady
state value of -2. Which one of the following transfer functions has these
properties?
(A) 2
2.24
s 2.59s 1.12
−
++
(B) 2
3.82
s 1.91s 1.91
−
++
(C) 2
2.24
s 2.59s 1.12
−
−+
(D) 2
3.82
s 1.91s 1.91
−
−+

46. A discrete random variable X takes values from 1 to 5 with probabilities as shown
in the table. A student calculates the mean of X and 3.5 and her teacher

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calculates the variance of X as 1.5. Which of the following statements is true?

()
k12345
P X = k 0.1 0.2 0.4 0.2 0.1
(A) Both the student and the teacher are right
(B) Both the student and the teacher are wrong
(C) Both the student is wrong but the teacher is right
(D) The student is right but the teacher is wrong

47. A message signal given by

()12
11
m t cos t sin t
22
____
=__w−__w
____
Is amplitude modulated with a carrier of frequency wc to generate
( ) ( ) c s t = __1 + m t cos w t
(A) 8.33% (B) 11.11% (C) 20% (D) 25%

48. A communication channel with AWGN operating at a signal to noise ratio SNR>>1
and bandwidth B has capacity C1. If the SNR is doubled keeping B constant, the
resulting capacity C2 is given by
(A) 2 1 C » 2C (B) 2 1 C » C + B (C) 2 1 C » C + 2B (D) 2 1 C » C + 0.3B
49. A magnetic field in air is measured to be
02222
xy
B B ˆy ˆx
xyxy
__
=_−__++_
__
What current distribution leads to this field? [Hint: The algebra is trivial in
cylindrical coordinates.]
(A) 0
22
0
B ˆz 1
J ,r 0
xy
__
=__¹µ_+_
_
(B) 0
22
0
B ˆz 2
J ,r 0
xy

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__
=__¹µ_+_
_
(C) J = 0,r ¹ 0
_
(D) 0
22
0
B ˆz 1
J ,r 0
xy
__
=__¹µ_+_
_

50. A transmission line terminates in two branches, each of length l/4, as shown.
The branches are terminated by 50W loads. The lines are lossless and have the
characteristic impedances shown. Determine the impedance Z1 as seen by the
source
(A) 200W (B) 100W (C) 50W (D) 25W
Common Data Questions: 51 & 52
Consider a silicon p-n junction at room temperature having the following
parameters:
Doping on the n-side = 1×1017cm-3
Depletion width on the n-side = 0.1µm
Depletion width on the p-side =1.0µm
Intrinsic carrier concentration = 1.4×1014F. cm-1
Thermal voltage = 26mV
Permittivity of free space = 8.85×10-14F. cm-1
Dielectric constant of silicon = 12

51. The built in potential of the junction

(A) is 0.70V
(B) is 0.76V
(C) is 0.82V
(D) cannot be estimated from the data given
l/4
0 Z = 100W
0 Z = 100W
l / 4 L Z = 50W
L Z = 50W
l/4
0 Z = 50W
iz

52. The peak electric field in the device is

(A) 0.15 MV.cm-1, directed from p-region to n-region
(B) 0.15 MV.cm-1, directed from n-region to p-region
(C) 1.80 MV.cm-1, directed from p-region to n-region

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(D) 1.80 MV.cm-1, directed from n-region to p-region

Common Data Questions: 53 & 54
The Nyquist plot of a stable transfer function G(s) is shown in the figure. We are
interested in the stability of the closed loop system in the feedback configuration
shown.

53. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) G(s) is an all-pass filter
(B) G(s) has a zero in the right-half plane
(C) G(s) is the impedance of a passive network
(D) G(s) is marginally stable

54. The gain and phase margins of G(s) for closed loop stability are
(A) 6dB and 180º (B) 3dB and 180º (C) 6dB and 90º (D) 3dB and 90º
Common Data Questions: 55 & 56
The amplitude of a random signal is uniformly distributed between -5V and 5V

55. If the signal to quantization noise ratio required in uniformly quantizing the signal
is 43.5dB, the step size of the quantization is approximately
(A) 0.0333V (B) 0.05V (C) 0.0667V (D) 0.10V

56. If the positive values of the signal are uniformly quantized with a step size of
0.05V, and the negative values are uniformly quantized with a step size of 0.1V,
the resulting signal to quantization noise ratio is approximately
(A) 46dB (B) 43.8dB (C) 42dB (D) 40dB
+
+
−
G(s)
Re
−j
-1 -0.5
Im

Linked Answer Questions: Q.57 to Q.60 Carry Two Marks Each

Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 57 & 58
Consider the CMOS circuit shown, where the gate voltage VG of the n-MOSFET is
increased from zero, while the gate voltage of the p-MOSFET is kept constant at
3 V. Assume that, for both transistors, the magnitude of the threshold voltage is
1 V and the product of the transconductance parameter and the (W/L) ratio, i.e.
the quantity ( ) 2
µCox W/ L , is 1mA × V− .

57. For small increase in VG beyond 1V, which of the following gives the correct
description of the region of operation of each MOSFET?
(A) Both the MOSFETs are in saturation region

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(B) Both the MOSFETs are in triode region

(C) n-MOSFET is in triode and p-MOSFET is in saturation region
(D) n-MOSFET is in saturation and p-MOSFET is in triode region

58. Estimate the output voltage V0 for VG=1.5V. [Hint: Use the appropriate current
voltage equation for each MOSFET, based on the answer to Q.57]
(A)
1
4V
2
− (B)
1
4V
2
+ (C)
3
4V
2
− (D)
3
4V
2
+
Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 59 & 60
Two products are sold from a vending machine, which has two push buttons P1
and P2. When a button is pressed, the price of the corresponding product is
displayed in a 7-segment display.
If no buttons are pressed, ‘0’ is displayed, signifying ‘Rs. 0’.
If only P1 is pressed, ‘2’ is displayed, signifying ‘Rs. 2’.
If only P2 is pressed, ‘5’ is displayed, signifying ‘Rs. 5’.
If both P1 and P2 are pressed, ‘E’ is displayed, signifying ‘Error’.
The names of the segments in the 7-segment display, and the glow of the display
for ‘0’, ‘2’, ‘5’ and ‘E’, are shown below
GV
3V
5V
0V

Consider
(i) push button pressed/not pressed is equivalent to logic 1/0 respectively
(ii) a segment glowing / not glowing in the display is equivalent to logic 1/0
Respectively

59. If segments a to g are considered as functions of P1 and P2, then which of the
following is correct?
(A) g = P1 + P2,d = c + e (B) 1 2 g = P + P ,d = c + e
(C) 1 2 g = P + P ,e = b + c (D) 1 2 g = P + P ,e = b + c

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60. What are the minimum numbers of NOT gates and 2-input OR gates required to
design the logic of the driver for this 7-segment display?
(A) 3 NOT and 4 OR (B) 2 NOT and 4 OR
(C) 1 NOT and 3 OR (D) 2 NOT and 3 OR

Answer Keys
1B2A3B4C5C6C7A
8 D 9 B 10 A 11 C 12 B 13 D 14 A
15 A 16 D 17 C 18 C 19 C 20 D 21 C
22 D 23 B 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 A 28 B
29 C 30 A 31 D 32 D 33 A 34 D 35 D
36 D 37 A 38 C 39 A 40 A 41 B 42 D
43 B 44 A 45 B 46 B 47 C 48 B 49 C
50 D 51 B 52 B 53 C 54 C 55 C 56 D
57 A 58 59 B 60 D

SECTION 2
APTITUDE QUESTIONS
1.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15
(b)12
(c)18
(d)10

Ans. (b)
2.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

(a)12
(b)8
(c)16
(d)6

Ans. (b)
3. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020
(b) 99/10
(c) 0.9
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
4.Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins
and Pipe C can
empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work
together, find the time
taken to fill the tank

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(a) 17 1/7 mins

(b) 20 mins
(c) 8 mins
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9
hours a day.How
many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the
job?
(a) 8 hrs
(b) 7 1/2 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 9 hrs
Ans. (b)
6. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38
and product 1728
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 8
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms
downstream in 4
hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the
speed of the
water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of
side 12m by a rope
7m long.Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m
(b) 155 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m
(d) 19.25 sq.m
Ans. (a)
9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a
tube station. He
found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30
seconds to
reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs
he would only
require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time
is measured from
the moment the top step begins to descend to the
time he steps off
the last step at the bottom, find out the height of
the stair way in
steps?

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Ans.46 steps.
10. The average age of 10 members of a committee is
the same as it was
4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced
by a young
member. Find how much younger is the new member ?
Ans.40 years.
11. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and
c respectively;
and container A is full of water while the other two
are empty. If
from container A water is poured into container B
which becomes 1/3
full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how
much water is
left in container A?
12. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a
rectangle. AB = 10
and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
Ans. AE = 10.
13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the
circle at A and
B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to
tangent PA. If AC = 6
cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what
is the length of
the chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm.
15 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary
pack of cards.
Find the probability that they will consist of a king,
a queen and an ace.
Ans. 64/2210.
16. A number of cats got together and decided to kill
between them
999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of
mice. Each cat
killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats
do you think
there were ?
Ans. 991.
17. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the
value / values of
x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.
18. The square of a two digit number is divided by
half the number.
After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then
divided by 2.
The digits of the resulting number are the same as
those in the
original number, but they are in reverse order. The

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ten's place of
the original number is equal to twice the difference
between its
digits. What is the number?
Ans. 46
19.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner
that there shall
be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise
coins.?
Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten
paise coins, and 1
twenty-five paise coins.
20.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each
hour, it hops
3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take
the monkey to
reach the top?
Ans.18 hours.
21. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2
14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
Ans. 9
22. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing
brand A at Rs.9 a
kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth
Rs.7 a kg., how
many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of
the mixture?
Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.
23. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my
son's age. My
father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together
the three of us
are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.
24. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in
front of me.
The other one also shouts that he too had two behind
him. How many are
they?
Ans. Three.
25. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day
eating 6 more than
the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the
first day?
Ans. Eight.
26. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long
will it take to
boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.
27. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand
at intervals of
64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the

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clock gain or lose?

Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.
28. Solve for x and y: 1/x - 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2
= 5/9.
Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.
29. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last
month its rate
was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family
reduce its
consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?
Ans. 20 %.
30. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6.
Ans. 10.
31. Can you find out what day of the week was January
12, 1979?
Ans. Friday.
32. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days,
when given at a
rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a
reinforcement
arrives and it was found that now the provisions will
last 8 days
less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head.
How, many more men
can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men.
33. From 5 different green balls, four different blue
balls and three
different red balls, how many combinations of balls
can be chosen
taking at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.
34. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A &
B can fill it
in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it
in 15 minutes.
If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute
each, how soon
will the tank be filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.
35. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40
minutes late. What is
his usual time? Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.

36.For a motorist there are three ways going from City

A to City C. By
way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is
$0.75. A tunnel
between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and
toll is $1.00 for
the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A
two-lane

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highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B

and then 20
miles in a northwest direction to City C.

1. Which is the shortest route from B to C

(a) Directly on toll free highway to City C

(b) The bridge
(c) The Tunnel
(d) The bridge or the tunnel
(e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll
free highway

Ans. (a)

2. The most economical way of going from City A to

City B, in terms of
toll and distance is to use the

(a) tunnel
(b) bridge
(c) bridge or tunnel
(d) toll free highway
(e) bridge and highway

Ans. (a)

3. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A

every working day.
His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for
lateness. Which
factor would most influence his choice of the bridge
or the tunnel ?

(a) Whether his wife goes with him

(b) scenic beauty on the route
(c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel
(d) saving $0.25 in tolls
(e) price of gasoline consumed in covering additional
10 miles on the
bridge

Ans. (a)

4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the

tunnel the chief
factor(s) would be:
I. Traffic and road conditions

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II. Number of passengers in the car

III. Location of one's homes in the center or
outskirts of one of the
cities
IV. Desire to save $0.25

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) III and IV only
(e) I and II only

Ans. (a)

37.The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarily

in that order,
stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10
D is 3 less than A
B is the middle term
F is as much less than B as C is greater than D
G is greater than F

1. The fifth integer is

(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

Ans. (a)

2. A is as much greater than F as which integer is

less than G
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Ans. (a)

3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is

(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
(e) 16

Ans. (a)

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4. A - F = ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) Cannot be determined

Ans. (a)

5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is

greater than E. T
can be written as A + E. What is D?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) Cannot be determined

Ans. (a)

6. The greatest possible value of C is how much

greater than the
smallest possible value of D?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6

Ans. (a)

38.
1. All G's are H's
2. All G's are J's or K's
3. All J's and K's are G's
4. All L's are K's
5. All N's are M's
6. No M's are G's

1. If no P's are K's, which of the following must be

true?

(a) All P's are J's

(b) No P is a G
(c) No P is an H
(d) If any P is an H it is a G

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(e) If any P is a G it is a J

Ans. (a)

2. Which of the following can be logically deduced

from the conditions
stated?

(a) No M's are H's

(b) No M's that are not N's are H's
(c) No H's are M's
(d) Some M's are H's
(e) All M's are H's

Ans. (a)

3. Which of the following is inconsistent with one or

more of the
conditions?

(a) All H's are G's

(b) All H's that are not G's are M's
(c) Some H's are both M's and G's
(d) No M's are H's
(e) All M's are H's

Ans. (a)

4. The statement "No L's are J's" is

I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated
II. Consistent with but not deducible from the
conditions stated
III. Deducible from the stated conditions together
with the additional
statement "No J's are K's"

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only
(e) Neither I, II nor III

Ans. (a)

39.In country X, democratic, conservative and justice

parties have
fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore

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stability an
agreement is reached to rotate the top offices
President, Prime
Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each
party controls
one and only one office at all times. The three top
office holders
must each have two deputies, one from each of the
other parties. Each
deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members
of his or her
chiefs party and member of the third party.

1. When Justice party holds one of the top offices,

which of the
following cannot be true

(a) Some of the staff members within that office are

justice party members
(b) Some of the staff members within that office are
democratic party
members
(c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are
justice party members
(d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are
conservative
party members
(e) Some of the staff members within the other offices
are justice
party members.

Ans. (a)

2. When the democratic party holds presidency, the

staff of the prime
minister's deputies are composed
I. One-fourth of democratic party members
II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth
of conservative
party members
III. One-half of conservative party members and
one-fourth of justice
party members.

(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II or III but not both
(d) I and II or I and III
(e) None of these

Ans. (a)

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3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules

as stated:

(a) More than half of the staff within a given office

belonging to a
single party
(b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging
to a single party
(c) Any person having a member of the same party as
his or her
immediate superior
(d) Half the total number of staff members in all
three offices
belonging to a single party
(e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging
to parties
different from the party of the top office holder in
that office.

Ans. (a)

4. The office of the Army Chief passes from

Conservative to Justice
party. Which of the following must be fired.

(a) The democratic deputy and all staff members

belonging to Justice party
(b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff
members
(c) Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative
staff members in
the chief of staff office
(d) The Conservative deputy and all of his or her
staff members
belonging to Conservative party
(e) No deputies and all staff members belonging to
conservative parties.

Ans. (a)

40.In recommendations to the board of trustees a

tuition increase of
$500 per year, the president of the university said
"There were no
student demonstrations over the previous increases of
$300 last year
and $200 the year before". If the president's

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statement is accurate
then which of the following can be validly inferred
from the
information given:
I. Most students in previous years felt that the
increases were
justified because of increased operating costs.
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of
students to
protest the previous tuition increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new
tuition increases.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I or II but not both
(d) I, II and III
(e) None

Ans. (a)

41. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently

consists of three
bookeepers--A, B, C and 5 secretaries D, E, F, G, H.
The management is
planning to open a new office in another city using 2
bookeepers and 3
secretaries of the present staff . To do so they plan
to seperate
certain individuals who don't function well together.
The following
guidelines were established to set up the new office
I. Bookeepers A and C are constantly finding fault
with one another
and should not be sent together to the new office as a
team
II. C and E function well alone but not as a team ,
they should be
seperated
III. D and G have not been on speaking terms and
shouldn't go together
IV Since D and F have been competing for promotion
they shouldn't be a
team
1.If A is to be moved as one of the bookeepers,which
of the following
cannot be a possible working unit.

A.ABDEH
B.ABDGH
C.ABEFH
D.ABEGH

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Ans.B

2.If C and F are moved to the new office,how many

combinations are
possible

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4

Ans.A

3.If C is sent to the new office,which member of the

staff cannot go
with C

A.B
B.D
C.F
D.G

Ans.B

4.Under the guidelines developed,which of the

following must go to the
new office

A.B
B.D
C.E
D.G

Ans.A

5.If D goes to the new office,which of the following

is/are true

I.C cannot go
II.A cannot go
III.H must also go

A.I only
B.II only
C.I and II only
D.I and III only

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Ans.D

42.After months of talent searching for an

administrative assistant to
the president of the college the field of applicants
has been narrowed
down to 5--A, B, C, D, E .It was announced that the
finalist would be
chosen after a series of all-day group personal
interviews were
held.The examining committee agreed upon the following
procedure

I.The interviews will be held once a week

II.3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview
session
III.Each candidate will appear at least once
IV.If it becomes necessary to call applicants for
additonal
interviews, no more 1 such applicant should be asked
to appear the
next week
V.Because of a detail in the written applications,it
was agreed that
whenever candidate B appears, A should also be
present.
VI.Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C
will appear for
only 1 interview.
1.At the first interview the following candidates
appear A,B,D.Which
of the follwing combinations can be called for the
interview to be
held next week.

A.BCD
B.CDE
C.ABE
D.ABC

Ans.B

2.Which of the following is a possible sequence of

combinations for

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interviews in 2 successive weeks

A.ABC;BDE
B.ABD;ABE
C.ADE;ABC
D.BDE;ACD

Ans.C

3.If A ,B and D appear for the interview and D is

called for
additional interview the following week,which 2
candidates may be
asked to appear with D?

I. A
II B
III.C
IV.E
A.I and II
B.I and III only
C.II and III only
D.III and IV only

Ans.D

4.Which of the following correctly state(s) the

procedure followed by
the search committee

I.After the second interview all applicants have

appeared at least once
II.The committee sees each applicant a second time
III.If a third session,it is possible for all
applicants to appear at
least twice

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.Both I and II

Ans.A

43. A certain city is served by subway lines A,B and C

and numbers 1 2
and 3
When it snows , morning service on B is delayed

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When it rains or snows , service on A, 2 and 3 are

delayed both in the
morning and afternoon
When temp. falls below 30 degrees farenheit afternoon
service is
cancelled in either the A line or the 3 line,
but not both.
When the temperature rises over 90 degrees farenheit,
the afternoon
service is cancelled in either the line C or the
3 line but not both.
When the service on the A line is delayed or
cancelled, service on the
C line which connects the A line, is delayed.
When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on
the B line which
connects the 3 line is delayed.
Q1. On Jan 10th, with the temperature at 15 degree
farenheit, it
snows all day. On how many lines will service be
affected, including both morning and afternoon.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. D

Q2. On Aug 15th with the temperature at 97 degrees

farenheit it begins
to rain at 1 PM. What is the minimum number
of lines on which service will be affected?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. C

Q3. On which of the following occasions would service

be on the
greatest number of lines disrupted.
(A) A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45
degree farenheit
(B) A snowy morning with the temperature at 45 degree
farenheit
(C) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 45
degree farenheit
(D) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 95
degree farenheit
Ans. B

44. In a certain society, there are two marriage

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groups, red and

brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On
marriage, males
become part of their wives groups; women remain in
their own group.
Children belong to the same group as their parents.
Widowers and
divorced males revert to the group of their birth.
Marriage to more
than one person at the same time and marriage to a
direct descendant
are forbidden
Q1. A brown female could have had
I. A grandfather born Red
II. A grandmother born Red
III Two grandfathers born Brown
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I, II and III
(D) I and II only
Ans. D

Q2. A male born into the brown group may have

(A) An uncle in either group
(B) A brown daughter
(C) A brown son
(D) A son-in-law born into red group
Ans. A

Q3. Which of the following is not permitted under the

rules as stated.
(A) A brown male marrying his father's sister
(B) A red female marrying her mother's brother
(C) A widower marrying his wife's sister
(D) A widow marrying her divorced daughter's
ex-husband
Ans. B

Q4. If widowers and divorced males retained their

group they had upon
marrying which of the following would be permissible (
Assume that no
previous marriage occurred)
(A) A woman marrying her dead sister's husband
(B) A woman marrying her divorced daughter's
ex-husband
(C) A widower marrying his brother's daughter
(D) A woman marrying her mother's brother who is a
widower.
Ans. D

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Q5. I. All G's are H's

II. All G's are J's or K's
III All J's and K's are G's
IV All L's are K's
V All N's are M's
VI No M's are G's
45. There are six steps that lead from the first to
the second floor.
No two people can be on the same step
Mr. A is two steps below Mr. C
Mr. B is a step next to Mr. D
Only one step is vacant ( No one standing on that step
)
Denote the first step by step 1 and second step by
step 2 etc.
1. If Mr. A is on the first step, Which of the
following is true?
(a) Mr. B is on the second step
(b) Mr. C is on the fourth step.
(c) A person Mr. E, could be on the third step
(d) Mr. D is on higher step than Mr. C.
Ans: (d)
2. If Mr. E was on the third step & Mr. B was on a
higher step than
Mr. E which step must be vacant
(a) step 1
(b) step 2
(c) step 4
(d) step 5
(e) step 6
Ans: (a)
3. If Mr. B was on step 1, which step could A be on?
(a) 2&e only
(b) 3&5 only
(c) 3&4 only
(d) 4&5 only
(e) 2&4 only
Ans: (c)
4. If there were two steps between the step that A was
standing and
the step that B was standing on, and A was on a higher
step than D , A
must be on step
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
Ans: (c)

5. Which of the following is false

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i. B&D can be both on odd-numbered steps in one

configuration
ii. In a particular configuration A and C must either
both an odd
numbered steps or both an even-numbered steps
iii. A person E can be on a step next to the vacant
step.
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) iii only
(d) both i and iii
Ans: (c)

46. Six swimmers A, B, C, D, E, F compete in a race.

The outcome is as
follows.
i. B does not win.
ii. Only two swimmers separate E & D
iii. A is behind D & E
iv. B is ahead of E , with one swimmer intervening
v. F is a head of D
1. Who stood fifth in the race ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans: (e)
2. How many swimmers seperate A and F ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) cannot be determined
Ans: (d)
3. The swimmer between C & E is
(a) none
(b) F
(c) D
(d) B
(e) A
Ans: (a)

4. If the end of the race, swimmer D is disqualified

by the Judges
then swimmer B finishes in which place
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3

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(d) 4
(e) 5
Ans: (b)
47. Five houses lettered A,B,C,D, & E are built in a
row next to each
other. The houses are lined up in the order A,B,C,D, &
E. Each of the
five houses has a colored chimney. The roof and
chimney of each
housemust be painted as follows.
i. The roof must be painted either green,red ,or
yellow.
ii. The chimney must be painted either white, black,
or red.
iii. No house may have the same color chimney as the
color of roof.
iv. No house may use any of the same colors that the
every next house
uses.
v. House E has a green roof.
vi. House B has a red roof and a black chimney
1. Which of the following is true ?
(a) At least two houses have black chimney.
(b) At least two houses have red roofs.
(c) At least two houses have white chimneys
(d) At least two houses have green roofs
(e) At least two houses have yellow roofs
Ans: (c)
2. Which must be false ?
(a) House A has a yellow roof
(b) House A & C have different color chimney
(c) House D has a black chimney
(d) House E has a white chimney
(e) House B&D have the same color roof.
Ans: (b)
3. If house C has a yellow roof. Which must be true.
(a) House E has a white chimney
(b) House E has a black chimney
(c) House E has a red chimney
(d) House D has a red chimney
(e) House C has a black chimney
Ans: (a)
4. Which possible combinations of roof & chimney can
house
I. A red roof 7 a black chimney
II. A yellow roof & a red chimney
III. A yellow roof & a black chimney

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only

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(d) I & II only

(e) I&II&III
Ans: (e)
48. Find x+2y
(i). x+y=10
(ii). 2x+4y=20
Ans: (b)

49. Is angle BAC is a right angle

(i) AB=2BC
(2) BC=1.5AC
Ans: (e)
50. Is x greater than y
(i) x=2k
(ii) k=2y
Ans: (e)

4.A box contains 16 balls of 4 different colors green blue yellow &red each. if you were to close your eyes
and pick them at random , how many marbles must you take out to be sure that there at least two of one
colour among the marbles picked out.
A. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 14
ans.b

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