Mark Scheme (Results)

October 2018

Pearson Edexcel International

Advanced Level
In Chemistry (WCH05)
Paper 01 Transition of Metals and Organic
Nitrogen
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October 2018
Publications Code WCH05_01_1810_MS*
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2018
General Marking Guidance

 All candidates must receive the same

treatment. Examiners must mark the first candidate in
exactly the same way as they mark the last.
 Mark schemes should be applied positively.
Candidates must be rewarded for what they have shown
they can do rather than penalised for omissions.
 Examiners should mark according to the mark
scheme not according to their perception of where the
grade boundaries may lie.
 There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on
the mark scheme should be used appropriately.
 All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be
awarded. Examiners should always award full marks if
deserved, i.e. if the answer matches the mark
scheme. Examiners should also be prepared to award
zero marks if the candidate’s response is not worthy of
credit according to the mark scheme.
 Where some judgement is required, mark schemes
will provide the principles by which marks will be awarded
and exemplification may be limited.
 When examiners are in doubt regarding the
application of the mark scheme to a candidate’s response,
the team leader must be consulted.
 Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the
candidate has replaced it with an alternative response.
Using the Mark Scheme

Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to

penalise. This does NOT mean giving credit for incorrect or inadequate
answers, but it does mean allowing candidates to be rewarded for
answers showing correct application of principles and knowledge.
Examiners should therefore read carefully and consider every response:
even if it is not what is expected it may be worthy of credit.

The mark scheme gives examiners:

 an idea of the types of response expected
 how individual marks are to be awarded
 the total mark for each question
 examples of responses that should NOT receive credit.

/ means that the responses are alternatives and either answer should
receive full credit.
( ) means that a phrase/word is not essential for the award of the mark,
but helps the examiner to get the sense of the expected answer.
Phrases/words in bold indicate that the meaning of the phrase or the
actual word is essential to the answer.
ecf/TE/cq (error carried forward) means that a wrong answer given in an
earlier part of a question is used correctly in answer to a later part of the
same question.

Candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the
mark. Make sure that the answer makes sense. Do not give credit for
correct words/phrases which are put together in a meaningless manner.
Answers must be in the correct context.

Quality of Written Communication

Questions which involve the writing of continuous prose will expect
candidates to:
 write legibly, with accurate use of spelling, grammar and punctuation in
order to make the meaning clear
 select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose and to
complex subject matter
 organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist vocabulary
when appropriate.
Full marks will be awarded if the candidate has demonstrated the above
abilities.
Questions where QWC is likely to be particularly important are indicated
(QWC) in the mark scheme, but this does not preclude others.
Section A (multiple choice)

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
1 (a) The only correct answer is A (1)

B is not correct because Fe(III) acts as an oxidising

agent

C is not correct because Cr(II) loses electrons so is

oxidised

D is not correct because Cr(II) loses electrons so is

oxidised

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
1 (b) The only correct answer is B (1)

A is not correct because they should both be positive

C is not correct because they should both be positive

D is not correct because they should both be positive

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
1 (c) The only correct answer is D (1)

A is not correct because carbonate ions might react

B is not correct because hydroxide ions might react

C is not correct because iodide ions might react

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
1 (d) The only correct answer is A (1)

B is not correct because dividing by 10 for 100 cm3 but

not dividing by 2 for Fe2(SO4)3

C is not correct because dividing by 10 for 100 cm3 but

multiplying by 2 and not dividing by 2

D is not correct because dividing by 2 for Fe2(SO4)3 but

not dividing by 10
Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
2 The only correct answer is C (1)

A is not correct because Fe has an oxidation state of +6

B is not correct because Cr has an oxidation state of +6

D is not correct because W has an oxidation state of +6

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
3 The only correct answer is A (1)

B is not correct because it is oxidised at the negative

electrode

C is not correct because it is oxidised not reduced

D is not correct because it is oxidised not reduced at

the negative electrode

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
4 (a) The only correct answer is C (1)

A is not correct because this is the second step

B is not correct because this is the second step with an

incorrect product

D is not correct because this is the first step

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
4 (b) The only correct answer is C (1)

A is not correct because the 3d subshell does split

B is not correct because the 3d subshell is full

D is not correct because there is no movement of

electrons in the 3d subshell
Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
5 The only correct answer is B (1)

A is not correct because orbitals are occupied singly

before pairing

C is not correct because the 4s electrons are lost first to

form an ion

D is not correct because the 4s electrons are lost first

to form an ion

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
6 The only correct answer is A 1

B is not correct because X ray diffraction provides no

evidence for this

C is not correct because X ray diffraction provides no

evidence for this

D is not correct because it is not a true statement

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
7 The only correct answer is B (1)

A is not correct because this is the reverse order

C is not correct because phenylamine has a lower pH
than ammonia
D is not correct because diethylamine has a higher pH
than ethylamine

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
8 (a) The only correct answer is D (1)

A is not correct because this is not a reducing agent

B is not correct because this does not produce the

amine

C is not correct because this is an oxidising agent

Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
8 (b) The only correct answer is D (1)

A is not correct because this is not used to separate

phenylamine

B is not correct because this is not used to separate

phenylamine

C is not correct because this is not used to separate

phenylamine

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
8 (c) The only correct answer is C (1)

A is not correct because this has an extra amine group

B is not correct because use of phenol would leave an -

OH in the molecule

D is not correct because this is a product of the

reaction of 1,4-diaminobenzene with nitrous acid in
hydrochloric acid

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
9 The only correct answer is D (1)

A is not correct because this is the mass of the

intermediate

B is not correct because this is the overall percentage

C is not correct because this is the overall percentage

by mass

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
10 The only correct answer is A (1)

B is not correct because this is not the correct

momomer

C is not correct because this is not the correct

momomer

D is not correct because this is not the correct

momomer
Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
11 (a) The only correct answer is A (1)

B is not correct because 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine

does react with X

C is not correct because 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine

does react with Y

D is not correct because 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine

does react with Z

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
11 (b) The only correct answer is D (1)

A is not correct because W does not react with either

B is not correct because X reacts with acidified

potassium dichromate(VI) but not Tollens’ reagent

C is not correct because Y does not react with either

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
11 (c) The only correct answer is D (1)

A is not correct only W does not react

B is not correct only W does not react

C is not correct only W does not react

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
12 The only correct answer is B (1)

A is not correct has a chiral carbon

C is not correct has a chiral carbon

D is not correct has a chiral carbon

(Total for Section A = 20 marks)
Section B

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
13(a) 1
E/V

(+0.77 Incorrect
Fe3+(aq) + e(—) ⇌ Fe2+(aq)
) state
symbols
(Cl2(aq) + 2e‒ ⇌ 2Cl–(aq)) +1.36
1.36
without +
ALLOW
(+)0.68 /
Single arrow instead of reversible arrows
(+)2.72
IGNORE
Missing state symbols

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
13(b)(i) Zn / Zinc / Zn(s) / Zinc(s) Zn2+ / 1
Zinc(II)

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
13(b)(ii) SO (aq) / sulfate(IV) (ions) / sulfite SO (aq) / 1
(ions) Sulfate(VI)
/sulfate
ALLOW
SO (aq) + H2O(l)

IGNORE
H+
missing state symbols
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
13(c)(i) +2 / 2+ 2 / II / 2
V(II)
This can be scored if there is no answer in
the space and V2+ is shown as the product
in the equation, even if the equation is
incorrect

ALLOW

V2+ /+II / II+ (1)

VO + 4H+ +3e → V2+ + 2H2O

Must be a half-equation not a full

equation with zinc

ALLOW

Multiples (1)

IGNORE

State symbols even if incorrect

No TE for equations on incorrect values of

oxidation state.
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
13(c)(ii) M1 (Recognition of oxidation by air) 4

(Vanadium(II) / V2+ / Vanadium(III) / V3+ /

solution) is oxidised by / reacts with oxygen (in
the air)

This can be scored if an equation is given

showing reaction of V2+ or V3+ with O2 (1)

M2 (Formation of V(III) from V(II)) V(III)

from
4V2+ + O2 + 4H+ → 4V3+ + 2H2O VO2+

ALLOW

V2+ → V3+ + e- / V3+ + e- ⇌ V2+

and
V2+ becomes V3+ which is green (1)

M3 (Formation of V(IV))

4V3+ + O2 + 2H2O → 4VO2+ + 4H+ (1)

IGNORE

State symbols even if incorrect

ALLOW

2V2+ + O2 → 2VO2+ Scores 1 (of M2 and M3)

M4 (Calculation of Ecell values)

Ecell for M2 equation = (+)1.49 (V)

and

Ecell for M3 equation = (+)0.89 (V) (1)

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
13(c)(iii) Ecell is (+)0.23 (V) so the oxidation of VO2+ 2
to VO is feasible

ALLOW

Ecell is (slightly) positive (1)

EITHER

the activation energy is too large / Rate is

kinetically inert slow

OR

concentration of oxygen is too low (1)

IGNORE

Non-standard conditions

Mark each as stand alone

(Total for Question 13 = 11 marks)
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
14(a) 2

Downward pointing condenser with a

collection vessel (and correct water
orientation)

OR

Delivery tube to container in ice bath (1) Closed

system
Labels
Water on the left

AND

Mixture for distillation / tarragon leaves /

Estragole (1) Anethole

ALLOW

Description of tarragon leaves as a solution

in water or an organic solvent

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
14(b)(i) C10H12O C10H11OH 1

Ignore names e.g. Anethole

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
14(b)(ii) Restricted rotation around a carbon- 2
carbon double bond

ALLOW

No rotation around a carbon-carbon

double bond (1)

Two different groups attached to each

carbon (1)

Mark independently

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
14(c)(i) Propanoyl chloride Propanyl 1
Ignore formulae as working chloride

ALLOW Propyl
chloride
1-propanoyl chloride
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
14(c)(ii) First mark 4
‒
RCOCl + AlCl3 RCO+ + AlCl4

OR
‒
CH3CH2COCl + AlCl3 CH3CH2CO++ AlCl4

ALLOW any acyl chloride or halogenoalkane from (c)(i)

(1)

Second mark
Curly arrow from on or within the circle towards the C Curly
of CH3CH2CO+ / RCO+ arrow on
ALLOW curly arrow from anywhere within the hexagon or
ALLOW curly arrow to any part of the CH3CH2CO+ outside
including to the + charge the
ALLOW TE for any R group attached to CO+ (1) hexagon

Third mark
Intermediate structure including charge with horseshoe Dotted
covering at least 3 carbon atoms bonds to
and H and
facing the tetrahedral carbon RCO
and unless
some part of the positive charge must be within the part of a
horseshoe 3-D
ALLOW dotted horseshoe (1) shape

IGNORE
Incorrect orientation of product at this marking point

Fourth mark
Curly arrow from C—H bond to anywhere in the Curly
hexagon, reforming the correct delocalised structure arrow
(and H+) (1) from H

‒
IGNORE any involvement of AlCl4 in the final step

Correct Kekulé / skeletal structures score full marks

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
14(c)(iii) Lone pair (of electrons) on the oxygen 2
(of the methoxy- group)

AND

Overlaps with the π / delocalised

electrons in the benzene ring /
delocalised system

OR

Feeds into / donates to / interacts with

the delocalised electrons / delocalised
system / π system of the benzene ring

ALLOW

Increases the electron density of the

benzene ring (1)

Making it more susceptible to

electrophilic attack / attack by propanoyl
cation / RCO+

ALLOW

Making it a better nucleophile (1)

Mark each point independently

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
14(d) Penalise 2
structures
A is without
positive charge
once only

OR

[CH3OC6H4]+ (1)

B is

OR

[CH3OC6H4CO]+ (1)

ALLOW

Kekulé structures

ALLOW

Reversed answers scores 1

If the reversed answers are given and

some indication (e.g. masses of the
ions) are given in the boxes allow both
marks

IGNORE

Absence of brackets / position of +

Note
Allow skeletal / displayed formulae for
both A and B
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
14(e)(i) Any other 1
hydrogens
labelled

Three hydrogens with E

ALLOW

Any other unambiguous identification of the

three hydrogens
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
14(e)(ii) 3

4 3 2 1 0
 / ppm

M1
Two peaks, one centred between 0.1 to
1.9 and one between 1.75 and3.0 (1)

Triplet centred between 0.1 to 1.9

AND

Quartet in the region 1.75 to 3.0 (1)

Peak between 0.1 to 1.9 shown with

peak area of 3 and at 1.75 to 3.0 with
peak area of 2. This could be anywhere on
the page. (1)

IGNORE

Relative peak height and relative

size/height of parts of multiplet.
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
14(f) (Reduction using) Lithium Hydrogen 5
tetrahydridoaluminate((III)) / Lithium and
aluminium hydride / Lithal / LiAlH4 in (dry) nickel
ether

ALLOW

Sodium tetrahydridoborate((III)) / Sodium

borohydride / NaBH4 (1)

IGNORE

Heat / reflux / distillation

ALLOW

Skeletal formula (1)

(Substitution using) PCl5

OR
NaCl / KCl and concentrated / conc.
H2SO4

ALLOW Just acid

PCl3 / SOCl2 / concentrated hydrochloric

acid
Just HCl
(Substitution using) PBr3 / P and Br2 (giving
bromoalkane)

(Substitution using) PI3 / (red) P and I2

(giving iodoalkane) (1)
Or bromo- or iodo- compounds as
appropriate (1)

(Elimination using) ethanolic / alcoholic

/ EtOH / alc. sodium/potassium
hydroxide

AND

Heat / boil / heat under reflux (1)

Marking consequential on correct

intermediates but

ALLOW for max 3 a two step synthesis

using step 1 as above and then

Conc. H2SO4 / H3PO4 / Al2O3

AND
Heat / boil / heat under reflux / 170oC
giving anethole
(Total for Question 14 = 22 marks)
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
15(a)(i) Moles of thiosulfate 2

= 21.60 x 10-3 x 3 x 10-3

= 6.48 x 10-5 / 0.0000648 (mol) (1)

Moles of Cu2+ in 100 cm3 = moles of

thiosulfate x 10

= 6.48 x 10-4 / 0.000648 (mol) (1)

If M1 is scored, then there is no

further attempt, the second mark
can be scored in (a)(ii)

Ignore SF except 1 SF

Correct answer with no working

scores 2

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
15(a)(ii) Mass of Cu = 6.48 x 10-4 x 63.5 1

= 0.041148 / 4.1148 x 10-2 (g)

= 0.041 / 4.1 x 10-2 (g)

Answer must be to 2 SF

TE on (a)(i) x 63.5 and answer to 2 SF

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
15(b) First two marks are stand alone 5

In 0.500g

Mass of water = 0.07(0)

AND

Moles of water = 0.07(0)

18
= 0.0038889 (mol) / 3.8889 x 10-3 (mol)
(1)

n = moles of water
moles of Cu2+

= 0.0038889 = 6(.0014) (1)

6.48 x 10-4

Method 1

moles of sulfate = 2 x moles of Cu2+

= 0.001296 / 1.296 x 10-3 (mol)

Mass of sulfate = moles of sulfate x 96.1

= 0.12455 (g) (1)

Mass of M = 0.500 – mass of copper - mass

of sulfate – mass of water

= 0.500 - 0.12455 – 0.070 –

0.041148

= 0.26430 (g) (1)

Atomic mass of M = mass of M

moles of M

= 0.264 = 203.94
2 x 6.48 x 10-4

So compound is Tl2Cu(SO4)2.6H2O (1)

Method 2
mol compound = mol Cu = 6.48 x 10-4

AND

Mr of compound = 0.5 ÷ 6.48 x 10-4

= 771.6 (g mol-1)

Mr anhydrous = 771.6 – (6 x 18)

= 663.6 (g mol-1) (1)

Mr Cu(SO4)2 = 63.5 + 96.1 x 2

= 255.7 (g mol-1) (1)

2 x Ar(M) = 663.6 – 255.7 = 407.9

Ar(M) = 203.95 (g mol-1)

Therefore

Tl2Cu(SO4)2.6H2O (1)

Method 3

mol compound = mol Cu = 6.48 x 10-4 (mol)

AND

Mass of anhydrous compound = 0.500 – 0.70

= 0.43 (g)

Mr of anhyd. compound = 0.43 ÷ 6.48 x 10-4

= 663.6 (g mol-1) (1)

Mr Cu(SO4)2 = 63.5 + 96.1 x 2

= 255.7 (1)

2 x Ar(M) = 663.6 – 255.7 = 407.9

Ar(M) = 203.95

Therefore

Tl2Cu(SO4)2.6H2O (1)

Other methods may be possible.

ALLOW TE on 15(a)(ii) for mass and moles of

copper where appropriate.

Correct answer with some correct working

scores 5.
(Total for Question 15 = 8 marks)
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
16(a)(i) (2-)aminobutan(e)dioic acid Answers with 1
dibutan(e) in
(2-)aminobutan(e)-1,4-dioic acid the name e.g.
aminodibutanoic
(2-)aminebutan(e)dioic acid acid

(2-)aminebutan(e)-1,4-dioic acid

IGNORE
Punctuation marks (e.g. hyphens,
commas, full stops etc) in either
version of the answer so for example
2 aminobutandioic acid would score.

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
16(a)(ii) Neutral structure 1

Single negative
ion

ALLOW

Structural formulae / displayed

formulae e.g.
‒
OOCCH2CHNH2COO‒
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
16(a)(iii) Diagram (1) 2

ALLOW

NH3+

Phenylalanine molecules are held to each Internal ionic

other by ionic bonds / strong electrostatic bonds specifically
attractions between oppositely charged mentioned but
ions (so high melting temperature) / held assume
in (giant) ionic lattice (1) intermolecular if
not specific.
IGNORE
Strong electrostatic attractions between
molecules without mention of ionic bonds
or between oppositely charged ions

Reference to hydrogen bonds

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
16(b)(i) Methanol / CH3OH 1
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
16(b)(ii) Put spots of the amino acid mixture / Just already 3
hydrolysis products (and known amino separated amino
acids) acids
AND
on a tlc plate / filter paper / Amino acids
chromatography paper dissolved in
AND mobile phase
in a (suitable) solvent / run with a (suitable) solvent
solvent
just ‘paper’
ALLOW
Labelled diagram (1)

Use ninhydrin (to make amino acids Ni as an

visible) abbreviation

ALLOW
Iodine vapour in place of ninhydrin (1)

Compare distance travelled of mixture Just ‘compare

components with known amino acids with data book
values’
OR

Compare Rf / formula of Rf / description of Just ‘Calculate Rf

Rf with data book values (1) values’

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
16(b)(iii) Heat causes hydrolysis Just ‘cooking’ 1
without ‘heat’
OR
Amino acids are not sweet

ALLOW
Decomposition / breakdown / unstable on
heating Decomposition /
breakdown /
IGNORE unstable without
Methanol is toxic heat
Changes to flavour without mention of
sweetness
(Total for Question 16 = 10 marks)
(Total for Section B = 50 marks)
Section C

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
17(a) Two calculations which must be accompanied 2
by a correct statement about toxicity.
Several approaches are possible.
e.g.

Mass of CO released = 0.35 x 28 = 9.8 (g) (1)

Mass per m3 = 9.8 = 0.049 (g) / 49 (mg)

200

Which is greater than the toxicity limit (1)

OR

Max. mass = 43.2 x 200 = 8640(mg) (1)

Maximum moles allowed = 8640

1000 x 28
= 0.30857143

Which is less than was released (so not within

the limits) (1)

OR

Max. moles per m3 = 43.2 x 10-3

28
= 0.0015429 / 1.5429 x 10-3 (mol) /
1.5429 (mmol) (1)

Moles per m3 released = 0.35 = 0.00175 (mol)

200
Which is more that the toxicity limit (1)

OR

Moles per m3 released = 0.35 = 0.00175 (mol)

200 (1)

Mass per m3 released = 0.00175 x 28

= 0.049 (g) / 4.9 x 10-2 (g) / 49 (mg)

Which is more than the toxicity limit (1)

ALLOW TE only on a suitable attempt at a

calculation of mass or moles in M1

Other approaches may be possible

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
17(b)(i) If the name of a shape is given award 2
M1 for the name if correct. Do not
negate with and incorrect diagram.

Trigonal bipyramid(al) Square based

pyramids
ALLOW

Pyramidal / bipyramidal if a correct Just

diagram is given ‘pyramidal’ or
‘bipyramidal’

ALLOW

If no name is given, a three dimensional

diagram showing three bonds in plane
(straight lines) and two bonds out of
plane, either a wedge and dots (which
may also be wedged, but ignore the
direction of this wedge) or two
oppositely directed wedges (one fat at
Fe and another fat at CO)
(1)

Any
additional
One angle labelled 120o and one angle angles which
labelled 90o, which may be shown as the are labelled
symbol ‘г’. (1) incorrectly
but not the
correct 180o
ALLOW angle

If no other mark has been scored, a

diagram with no dots and wedges which
has at least one correct 90o and one
correct 120o angle scores (1)

IGNORE

Point of attachment of CO to Fe
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
17(b)(ii) 2

Dative covalent bond from C to Fe

AND
lone pair on O (1)

Triple bond between C and O with one dative

covalent bond. (1)

ALLOW

Crosses for carbon and dots for oxygen

Dative covalent bond to Fe, double bond

between C and O and two lone pairs on O
scores (1)

IGNORE

Circles for electron shells / lines as well as dots

and crosses to show bonds / lone pairs on the
Fe
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
17(c)(i) Moles of CO = 4.8 = 0.2 moles (1) 3
24

Mass of CO = 0.2 x 28 = 5.6 g

AND

Mass of Mn = 7.8 – 5.6 g = 2.2 (1)

Moles of Mn = 2.2 = 0.04007286

54.9
AND

Ratio is 0.04 : 0.2

1:5 (So Mn(CO)5) (1)

If Ar Mg used instead (24 / 24.3) final answer

of
0.091667 : 0.2 / 0.090535 : 0.2

or 1:2 can score M1 and M2.

ALLOW

TE for incorrect mass of manganese in M2 for

ratio M3.
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
17(c)(ii) Empirical formula mass = 194.9 2

390 = 2 x 194.9
so molecular formula = Mn2(CO)10

ALLOW

Just Mn2(CO)10 without working or a structure

with 2Mn and 10CO (1)

ALLOW

Any sensible structure of two Mn and ten CO

covalently bonded at any angle to each other
(1)
IGNORE

Connectivity of the CO group

Use of M / Mg as a slip if structure is correct

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
17(d)(i) Sulfuric acid is a catalyst (1) 2

IGNORE

Sulfuric acid / H+ is an electrophile

Hydrogen ion (reacts with 2- Just ‘sulfuric acid is

methylpropene and) is regenerated at the chemically
end / in the last step of the reaction / unchanged after
takes part in the reaction but is still the reaction’
present at the end (1) ‘Not participating in
the overall reaction’
M2 dependent on M1.
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
17d(ii) 2

Lone pair of electrons on C (1) CO-

Arrow from a lone pair on the C of CO to C or to

+ on C of correct organic cation

ALLOW

Arrow from the C of CO to C or the + on C of

correct organic cation if the first mark has not From CO-
been scored
Arrow from a lone pair on O of CO to C or the +
on C of correct organic cation if the first mark From CO-
has not been scored (1)

IGNORE

Number bonds between C and O in carbon

monoxide.
Product, even if incorrect

Mark independently

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
17(d)(iii) Sulfuric acid is corrosive Just cost 1

OR

Difficult to recover the sulfuric acid

IGNORE

Irritant
Burns skin / toxic / discussion of yield
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
17(e) The (two) reactants are / carbon monoxide is absorbed 3
adsorbed onto the surface / active sites of the
catalyst (1)

The activation energy for the reaction is lowered

/ bonds are weakened in the reactant molecules
(1)

The products are desorbed from / diffuse from /

leave the catalyst (1)

(Total for Question 17 = 20 marks)

(Total for Section C = 20 marks)
Total for Paper = 90 marks
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