ORAL PATHOLOGY, MEDICINE, RADIOLOGY TEST 3

301) The most appropriate vertical angulation to make a bite-wing radiograph in the primary
dentition is
A. – 10º. B. – 5º. C. 0º. D. + 5º. E. + 10º
302) A patient has gingival epithelium that spontaneously sloughs and can be removed with
minor manipulation. The most likely diagnosis is
A. hyperplastic candidiasis. B. aphthous stomatitis. C. herpetic gingivostomatitis. D. mucous
membrane pemphigoid.

303) Cleidocranial dysplasia is distinguished by

A. bulky forehead. B. delayed suture closure. C. persistence of primary teeth. D. clavicles
absent or maldeveloped. E. all of the above

304) The diagnosis of a 1.5cm white patch after incisional biopsy is severe epithelial dysplasia.
The most appropriate management is
A. complete excision. B. repeat biopsy. C. radiation therapy. D. observation

305) What are the dimensions of pain?

A. Intensive and sensory. B. Sensory and peripheral. C. Affective and peripheral. D. Sensory and
affective.

306) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for primary molar ankylosis?
A. Bruxism. B. Genetics. C. Trauma. D. Missing permanent successor.

307) A panoramic radiograph taken at 10 years of age is indicated to

A. measure the space between the temporomandibular joint disc and the condyle. B. calculate the
amount of crowding in the maxilla. C. predict the probability of canine impaction. D. assess the
severity of midline deviation.

308) Which statement is true?

A. Radiographs can differentiate between a granuloma and a cyst. B. A definitive diagnosis of an
apical lesion cannot be made using radiography alone. C. Periapical radiolucencies are indicative
of loss of pulp vitality. D. A periapical radiograph can be used to locate the buccal bone level.

309) Defects in the outflow tract of the heart in individuals with craniofacial malformations are
caused by the disruption of
A. mesoderm development. B. neurulation. C. folding of the embryo. D. neural crest
development.

310) The most appropriate radiograph to assess an interproximal vertical bony defect of the
alveolar bone is the
A. bite-wing. B. periapical. C. occlusal. D. panoramic
311) A 65 year old, underweight patient confirms a longstanding problem with alcohol abuse.
The medical history reveals complaints of muscle weakness, low appetite, lack of energy and
forgetfulness, which the patient attributes to getting old. The patient’s diet is most likely
deficient in
A. ascorbic acid. B. folic acid. C. thiamin. D. retinol

312) Which of the following is NOT associated with an aphthous ulcer?

A. Pain. B. Pseudomembrane. C. Vesicle. D. Inflammation.

313)Preoperative endodontic radiographs will show the

A. presence of a pulp exposure. B. exact location of the apical foramen. C. presence of active
infection. D. vitality of the pulp. E. size of the pulp chamber and root canal(s).

314) Dentigerous cysts are usually found

A. periapically. B. pericoronally. C. interradicularly. D. mid-root.

315) Which of the following is the most appropriate for determining the morphology of the
temporomandibular joint disc?
A. Arthrography. B. Cone beam CT. C. Magnetic resonance imaging. D. Corrected tomography

316) Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis most frequently occurs

A. before age 10. B. between l0 and 20 years of age. C. between 20 and 30 years of age. D.
after age 30. E. at any age

317) Intraosseous nutrient canals are most frequently seen on which of the following
radiographs?
A. Mandibular posterior periapical. B. Mandibular anterior periapical. C. Maxillary posterior
periapical. D. Maxillary anterior periapical.

318) Radiographically, the lamina dura is a

A. thick layer of bone forming the inner surface of the alveolus. B. thin radiolucent line around
the roots of the teeth. C. thick layer of cortical bone. D. thin radiopaque line around the roots
of the teeth.

319)Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usually due to (an)

A. moniliasis. B. ill fitting denture. C. allergy to denture cleanser. D. avitaminosis

320) Which radiographic examination provides the most diagnostic information for the
replacement of a permanent mandibular first molar with an osseointegrated implant?
A. Periapical. B. Occlusal. C. Panoramic. D. Cone beam computed tomography

321) Cleidocranial dysplasia can be associated with (a)

A. premature loss of teeth. B. micrognathia. C. high incidence of palatal clefts. D. associated
high caries index. E. multiple supernumerary and unerupted teeth.

322) Teeth 4.5 and 4.7 are restored with very large, deep MOD amalgams. For the extraction of
tooth 4.6, which of the following sequences of instruments would be LEAST appropriate?
A. Periosteal elevator, forceps. B. Periosteal elevator, dental elevator, forceps. C. Bur to section
tooth, periosteal elevator, forceps. D. Scalpel, periosteal elevator, bur to section tooth, forceps. E.
Scalpel, periosteal elevator, bur to section tooth, dental elevator, forceps.

323) In patients with cleft palates there may be

A. an increase in supernumerary teeth. B. an increase in congenitally missing teeth. C. a higher
incidence of crown defects. D. All of the above.

324) A patient with hyperthyroidism may exhibit

A. weight gain. B. delayed eruption of teeth. C. exophthalmos. D. gingival inflammation.

325) Cephalometrics is useful in assessing which of the following relationships?

A. Tooth-to-tooth. B. Bone-to-bone. C. Tooth-to-bone. D. All of the above.

326) An ankylosed deciduous molar can cause

A. delayed eruption of the succeeding premolar. B. alteration of arch length. C. difficulty with
extraction. D. All of the above

327) A feature of primary syphilis is

A. atrophic glossitis. B. a gumma. C. a chancre. D. a mucous patch

328) A 27 year old woman complains of burning mouth, fatigue, palpitations and lack of energy.
An oral exam shows angular cheilitis and atrophic glossitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Iron deficiency anemia. B. Crohn’s disease. C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia. D. Vitamin B
deficiency.

329) Cleidocranial dysplasia can be associated with

A. fragile bones. B. multiple supernumerary teeth. C. keratocystic odontogenic tumours. D. high
incidence of facial clefts

330) A 23 year old female complains of bilateral stiffness and soreness in the preauricular
region. Her symptoms have been present for the past week and are most pronounced in the
morning. The most likely cause is
A. fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joints. B. nocturnal bruxism. C. early
osteoarthritis. D. mandibular subluxation

331) Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of hyperglycemia?

A. Moist skin. B. Acetone breath. C. Abdominal pain. D. Decreased consciousness

332) A syphilitic gumma is most commonly found on the

A. lip. B. tongue. C. palate. D. buccal mucosa. E. gingiva.
333) Oral leukoplakia has the most favourable prognosis when it is
A. present in a non-smoker. B. accompanied by pain. C. infected with Candida albicans. D.
speckled in appearance. E. on the hard palate.

334) Which of the following has been implicated in the development of oral pigmentation?
A. Atorvastatin. B. Chloroquine. C. Fluoxetine. D. Omeprazole. E. Valsartan

335) Which of the following is necessary to make a diagnosis of a keratocystic odontogenic

tumour (odontogenic keratocyst)?
A. Aspiration cytology. B. Exfoliative cytology. C. Radiographic examination alone. D.
Histopathologic examination

336) Which of the following lesions is most commonly found in the anterior region of the
mandible?
A. Ameloblastoma. B. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour. C. Central cementifying
fibroma. D. periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia).

337) Which of the following statements is correct about Quantitative Light or Laser Induced
Fluorescence used to aid in the early detection of caries?
A. Low specificity when used to detect smooth surface caries. B. Unable to detect caries around
existing restorations. C. High sensitivity when used to detect interproximal caries. D. Assesses
light reflection as opposed to light transmission.

338) Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis most frequently occurs

A. before age 10. B. between l1 and 20 years of age. C. between 21 and 30 years of age. D.
after age 31.

339) The tissue which cannot be seen on dental radiographs is

A. dentin. B. enamel. C. cementum. D. pulp. E. periodontal ligament.

340) The tissue which cannot be seen on dental radiographs is

A. dentin. B. enamel. C. cementum. D. pulp. E. periodontal ligament.

341)A 72 year old male patient complains of bone pain, fever and fatigue. Clinical examination
shows petechiae on the skin and oral mucosa. The tongue has a nodular appearance. A
craniofacial radiograph shows punched-out radiolucencies. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Burkitt’s lymphoma. B. chondrosarcoma. C. acute lymphocytic leukemia. D. multiple
myeloma.

342) The sharpness of a radiographic image can be improved by

A. increasing the object-to-film distance. B. using a larger focal spot. C. using a larger
collimator. D. increasing the focal spot-to-film distance.

343) Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to

A. increase contrast. B. reduce film density. C. reduce exposure time. D. reduce patient
radiation dose

344) Chronically inflamed submandibular lymph nodes are

A. soft. B. not palpable. C. firm. D. fixed.

345) Recurrent unilateral submandibular swelling and pain just prior to meals is indicative of
A. an odontogenic infection. B. sialolithiasis. C. ranula. D. sarcoidosis. E. Sjögren syndrome

346) Residual root tips will not be visible on panoramic radiographs of a completely edentulous
patient if
A. they are not close enough to the focal trough of the machine. B. the patient is wearing
dentures when the image is produced. C. a digital panoramic machine is used. D. the patient
moves during production of the image.

347) Lancinating paroxysmal pain in the posterior part of the tongue, tonsil, nasopharynx and
pharynx is most likely diagnostic of
A. Ménière's disease. B. trigeminal neuralgia. C. sphenopalatine neuralgia. D.
glossopharyngeal neuralgia. E. psychotic glosso pyrosis

348) Which of the following is most radiopaque?

A. Lamina dura. B. Enamel. C. Cortical bone. D. Gold inlay. E. Composite restoration

349) The benign neoplasm that originates from squamous epithelium is called a/an
A. adenoma. B. choriocarcinoma. C. chondroma. D. lipoma. E. papilloma

350) A radicular cyst

A. enlarges rapidly. B. infiltrates bone. C. contains fluid. D. is associated with a vital tooth.

351) Which of the following tissues is the LEAST sensitive to the effects of x-radiation?
A. Hematopoietic. B. Gonadal. C. Bone. D. Glandular.

352) In radiology, if target-skin distance is doubled, the exposure time must be

A. doubled. B. tripled. C. quadrupled. D. increased 10 times

353) In an adult, continued growth of the mandibular condyles, an increase in size of the bones
and soft tissues of the hands, feet, supraorbital ridges and air sinuses suggest
A. Addison’s disease. B. hyperthyroidism. C. pituitary adenoma. D. gigantism.

354) A 4 year old child has a normal complement of deciduous teeth, but in appearance they are
grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates
some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. This condition is typical of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia. B. amelogenesis imperfecta. C. neonatal hypoplasia. D.
dentinogenesis imperfecta.

355) Which of the following conditions is an example of a mucous retention phenomenon?

A. Nicotine stomatitis. B. Koplik’s spots. C. Ranula. D. Residual cyst. E. Nasopalatine cyst

356) What is the minimum CD4 count to perform elective dental treatment?
A. 100 cells/mm3. B. 200 cells/mm3. C. 300 cells/mm3. D. 400 cells/mm3. E. 1000 cells/mm3.

357) Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome?

A. Suppurative arthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis. C. Degenerative arthrosis. D. Psoriatic
arthritis. E. Lupus arthritis

358) Which disease could cause both renal and cardiac complications?
A. Measles. B. Scarlet fever. C. Rubella. D. Rosacea.

359) A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance
to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is
A. achondroplasia. B. malignant hyperthermia. C. ectodermal dysplasia. D. cystic fibrosis.

360) Radiation dose to the patient is reduced by

A. using a low speed film. B. using an aluminum filter. C. decreasing the target-film distance.
D. using a low kVp.

361) Folate deficiency is associated with an increased risk of

A. birth defects. B. microcytic anemia. C. low serum homocysteine. D. elevated high-density
lipoprotein cholesterol.

362) What is the most likely diagnosis of a 9 year old with speech problems, macroglossia,
unilateral premature eruption of teeth, and moderate scoliosis?
A. Down syndrome. B. Hemihypertrophy. C. Gigantism. D. Cleidocranial dysplasia

363) A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of filiform papillae, located in the midline of the
dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to the circumvallate papillae is indicative of
A. benign migratory glossitis. B. median rhomboid glossitis. C. a granular cell tumor. D. iron
deficiency anemia. E. a fibroma

364) A patient complains of fatigue, abdominal pain and lack of appetite. The clinical
examination shows that the sclera of the eyes are yellow. There is also a yellowish diffuse
discolouration of the oral mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Viral hepatitis. B. Iron deficiency anemia. C. Hypercarotenemia. D. Thrombocytopenic
purpura.

365) Radiographs of a periodontally related osseous defect can be used to confirm the
A. number of bony walls. B. measurement of the clinical attachment loss. C. location of the
epithelial attachment. D. presence of bone loss.

366) The term "carcinoma in situ" implies that the lesion shows
A. metaplasia. B. early invasion of malignant cells through the basement membrane. C.
dysplasia of cells confined within the epithelium. D. distant metastasis of a malignant tumour
367) A 12 year old female patient has a developmental age of 8 years. Radiographic examination
reveals mandibular dysplasia, delayed growth of the cranial vault and reduced facial height.
Dental development is equivalent to 10 years. Panoramic radiographs reveal an abnormal tooth
eruption pattern, crowding of the primary and permanent teeth, delayed eruption of the
permanent canines and absence of the premolars.
The most likely diagnosis is
A. hypogonadism. B. hypoparathyroidism. C. hypothyroidism. D. hyposecretion of growth
hormone

368) An anemia in which the red blood cells are smaller and less intense in color than normal is
called a
A. microcytic hypochromic anemia. B. microcytic hyperchromic anemia. C. macrocytic
hypochromic anemia. D. macrocytic hyperchromic anemia. E. None of the above.

369) A radiographic examination of a 10 year old child reveals retention of deciduous teeth and
presence of many unerupted supernumerary teeth. This is characteristic of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia. B. ectodermal dysplasia. C. dentinogenesis imperfecta. D.
congenital hypothyroidism

370) A 2cm, discrete, white lesion of the buccal mucosa has not resolved after elimination of all
local irritants. The most appropriate management would be to
A. cauterize it. B. apply toluidine blue staining. C. perform an incisional biopsy. D. re-
examine at 6 month intervals. E. refer patient to family physician

371) What is the most significant radiographic finding in hyperparathyroidism?

A. Demineralization of teeth. B. Multiple keratocystic odontogenic tumors. C.
Hypercementosis. D. Rampant caries. E. Generalized loss of lamina dura

372) Which of the following can cause a contact stomatitis?

A. Dentifrice. B. Lipstick. C. Acrylic. D. Antibiotics. E. All of the above.

373) Hypernatremia may be induced by

A. elevated synthesis of atrial natriuretic peptide. B. excessive vasopressin secretion. C. impaired
aldosterone secretion. D. diabetes insipidus.

374) Oral peripheral giant cell lesions of the periodontium are most likely
A. non-neoplastic granulomatous lesions. B. precursors of sarcoma. C. malignant neoplasms.
D. benign neoplasms. E. tuberculomas.

375) Pleomorphic adenomas exhibit

A. rapid growth with death of patient. B. early metastasis. C. slow growth but tendency to
local recurrence. D. early ulceration and bleeding.

376) The clinical appearance and texture of an early carcinoma of the floor of the mouth can be
A. red and soft. B. white and rough. C. ulcerated and indurated. D. All of the above.
377) Multiple osteomas and supernumerary teeth may be associated with
A. Gorlin syndrome. B. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome. C. Gardner syndrome. D. Cleidocranial
dysplasia. E. Ectodermal dysplasia.

378) Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a cause of

A. supernumerary incisors. B. pigmented teeth. C. peg lateral incisors. D. Fordyce's granules.
E. blue sclerae.

379) A patient is not able to close her left eye, wrinkle her forehead or smile on the left side. The
most likely diagnosis is
A. contralateral subarachnoid hemorrhage. B. fracture of the base of the skull. C. Horner's
syndrome. D. acute mastoiditis. E. facial nerve paralysis

380) Crusted hemorrhagic and ulcerative lesions of the lips in a patient with target-like skin
lesions are typical of
A. lupus erythematosus. B. Reiter’s syndrome. C. Behçet’s syndrome. D. erythema multiforme.
E. pemphigus vulgaris

381) The percentage of documented child abuse cases estimated to involve orofacial injuries is
A. 10-20. B. 30-40. C. 50-60

382) Which of the following structures may be mistaken as a pathologic finding on periapical
radiographs of the premolar segments of the maxilla?
A. Bony septa in the maxillary sinus. B. Nasopalatine foramen. C. Nasolacrimal canal. D. Mental
foramen.

383) Healing of a recurrent herpes simplex lesion occurs within

A. 7-14 days without scar formation. B. 7-14 days with scar formation. C. 2-4 weeks without
scar formation. D. 2-4 weeks with scar formation

384) An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in

A. the anterior region of the maxilla. B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the
ramus. C. the posterior region of the maxilla. D. in the anterior region of the mandible near the
midline

385) A 29 year old patient developed multiple ulcerated lesions on the buccal attached gingiva
one day ago. No fever, malaise or lymphadenopathy is present. The most likely diagnosis is
A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. B. recurrent herpes simplex infection. C. aphthous ulcers.
D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

386) The radiographic term used to describe the more radiopaque bone of the socket and septal
crest is
A. periodontal ligament space. B. cancellous bone. C. cribriform plate. D. lamina dura. E.
cortical bone.
387) A 50 year old woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, bilateral enlargement of one or
more salivary glands and lacrimal glands, as well as dryness of the eyes, nose, mouth and throat.
The diagnosis is
A. erythema multiforme. B. Reiter syndrome. C. Gardner syndrome. D. Sjögren syndrome.
E. Plummer-Vinson syndrome.

388) In mucous membrane pemphigoid (cicatricial pemphigoid), a positive Nikolsky sign is the
result of a/an
A. separation at the basement membrane. B. intraepithelial separation. C. separation of the
lamina propria and submucosa. D. intraepithelial bulla formation.

389) In an adult, continued growth of the mandibular condyles, an increase in size of the bones
and soft tissues of the hands, feet, supraorbital ridges and air sinuses suggest
A. Addison’s disease. B. hyperthyroidism. C. pituitary adenoma. D. gigantism.

390) During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in

A. peg-shaped teeth. B. partial anodontia (hypodontia). C. Hutchinson's incisors. D. enamel
hypoplasia. E. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

391) The highest incidence of congenitally missing lateral incisors is most likely seen in a patient
with
A. unilateral cleft lip and palate. B. congenital heart disease. C. Down's syndrome. D.
hyperthyroidism

392) A squamous cell carcinoma located near the midline of the anterior floor of the mouth
normally spreads to which of the following lymph nodes?
A. Unilateral neck lymph nodes. B. Mediastinal lymph nodes. C. Bilateral neck lymph nodes. D.
Retropharyngeal lymph nodes.

393) Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta. B. Regional odontodysplasia. C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. D.
Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
394) A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the
mandibular second premolar. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. The radiolucency is
most likely
A. a periradicular periodontitis. B. a dentigerous cyst. C. a rarefying osteitis. D. the mental
foramen.

395) Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of a maxillary midline diastema?
A. Mesiodens. B. Space shortage. C. Gemination. D. Dens invaginatus

396) Which of the following conditions produces a radiolucent image?

A. Sialolith. B. Osteosclerosis. C. Odontoma. D. Ameloblastic fibroma.

397) Fordyce's granules are

A. ectopic sebaceous glands. B. ectopic sweat glands. C. small calcified nodules. D. aberrant
mucous glands

398) Which of the following is characteristic of periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical

cemento-osseous dysplasia)?
A. Pain. B. Expansion. C. Biopsy is not necessary. D. Requires endodontics or extraction

399) "Dens in dente" is most commonly associated with

A. supernumerary teeth. B. dentinogenesis imperfecta. C. osteogenesis imperfecta. D.
anterior teeth. E. amelogenesis imperfecta.

400) Which viral hepatitis does NOT have a chronic carrier state?
A. Hepatitis A. B. Hepatitis B. C. Hepatitis C. D. Hepatitis D