PIRT

ASNT NDT LEVEL III

ULTRASONIC TESTING
MODEL QUESTION BANK

1. Pulse echo technique is based on the principle of

A. magnetic induction
B. electromagnetic induction
C. piezoelectric effect
D. reflection of ultrasound

2. If a probe frequency with 2 MHz and 10 mm diameter is used, find the wave length in steel for
longitudinal wave testing. (VL, steel = 0.59 cm/ s)
A. 0.5 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 1 mm
D. 2 mm

3. The indication on the cathode ray tube which represents the far boundary of the material being
tested is called:
A. hash
B. the initial pulse
C. the main bang
D. the back surface reflection

4. In immersion testing, the position of the search unit is often varied to transmit sound into the
test part at various angles to the front surface. Such a procedure is referred to as:
A. angulation
B. dispersion
C. reflection testing
D. refraction

5. The piezoelectric material in a search unit which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves is called
a:
A. backing material
B. Lucite wedge
C. crystal
D. couplant
6. One of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy
A. lithium sulfate
B. quartz
C. barium titanate
D. none of the above

7. The beam divergence angle from a crystal is mainly dependent on the

A. type of test
B. thickness of crystal backing in the search unit
C. frequency and thickness of crystal
D. pulse length

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8. A 25 MHz search unit would most likely be used during

A. straight beam contact testing
B. immersion testing
C. angle beam contact testing
D. surface wave contact testing

9. The velocity of surface waves is approximately _____ of the velocity of longitudinal waves
in the same material.
A. 50 %
B. 100 %
C. 45 %
D. 50 %

10. Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the best
surface resolving power?
A. 1 MHz
B. 15 MHz
C. 10 MHz
D. 20 MHz

11. When the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of propagation, the
wave being transmitted is called a
A. longitudinal wave
B. shear wave
C. surface wave
D. lamb wave

12. In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as

A. the initial pulse
B. the main bang or transmitter pulse
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

13. The number of complete waves which pass a given point in a given period of time is referred
to as the
A. amplitude of a wave motion
B. pulse length of a wave motion
C. frequency of a wave motion
D. wavelength of a wave motion

14. In immersion testing, verification that the search unit is normal to a flat entry surface is
indicated
A. maximum reflection from the entry surface
B. elimination of water multiples
C. proper wavelength
D. maximum amplitude of the initial pulse

15. A piezoelectric material can

A. convert a mechanical strain to an electrical output
B. convert an electrical pulse to a mechanical energy
C. be used in the construction of search units
D. all of the above
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16. A disadvantage of using natural quartz in a search unit is that

A. it will dissolve in water
B. it is the least effective generator of ultrasonic energy of all commonly used materials
C. it is mechanically and electrically unstable
D. it easily loses it operating characteristics as it ages

17. The primary purpose of reference blocks is to

A. aid the operator in obtaining maximum back reflections
B. obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an instrument
C. obtain a common reproducible signal
D. none of the above

18. When testing by the surface wave method, patches of oil or dirt on the surface may
A. block the progress of all sound
B. attenuate the sound
C. provide indications on the screen
D. both B and C

19. When testing a plate, increasing the frequency of an ultrasonic longitudinal wave will result
in
A. an increase in its velocity
B. a decrease in its velocity
C. no change in its velocity
D. a decrease in its velocity if diameter of probe decreases

20. The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibrations travel through the material is
referred to as
A. reflection
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. attenuation

21. When inspecting coarse-grained material, which of the following frequencies will generate
a sound wave that will be most easily scattered by the grain structure?
A. 1500 Hz
B. 2.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 25 kHz

22. A term used to describe the ability of an ultrasonic testing system to distinguish between the
entry surface response and the response of discontinuities near the entry surface is
A. sensitivity
B. penetration
C. subtraction
D. resolution

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23. Sound can be focused by means of special curved adapters located in front or the transducer
element. These adapters are referred to as
A. shoes
B. acoustic lenses
C. angle beam adapters
D. collimators

24. Which of the following probes would contain the thickest crystal?
A. 1.5 MHz probe
B. 0.5 MHz probe
C. 2.5 MHz probe
D. 25 MHz probe

25. The interference field near the face of a transducer is often referred to as the
A. Fresnel zone
B. Fraunhofer zone
C. high zone
D. reflection zone

26. A separate time base line imposed on the viewing screen of some ultrasonic testing
instruments that permits measurement of distances is often referred to as
A. an initial pulse
B. a time line
C. a marker
D. a sweep line

27. Which circuit generates a burst of alternating voltage that is applied to the sending transducer?
A. Pulser
B. Amplifier
C. Damping
D. None of the above

28. In a material with a given velocity, when frequency is increased, the wavelength will
A. one-half
B. increase
C. decrease
D. double

29. In addition to other functions, a probe manipulator in a mechanical immersion-scanning unit

permits
A. use of the through-transmission technique
B. use of high scanning speeds
C. detection of obliquely-oriented discontinuities
D. utilization of less skilled operators

30. Which circuit coordinates electronic operation of the entire ultrasonic instrument system?
A. Damping
B. Receiver-amplifier
C. Clock
D. None of the above

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31. The reflected pulse reaching the immersion transducer from the back surface of a 3 inch
aluminum plate standing in a tank of water is equal to _____ of the energy pulse which was
transmitted from the transducer. (Zaluminum = 17, Zwater = 1.5)
A. 50%
B. 6.45%
C. 88%
D. 14.7%

32. If a 1 MHz transducer is substituted for a 2 MHz transducer, what would be the effect on the
wavelength of a longitudinal mode wave produced in the test specimen?
A. The wavelength would be longer
B. The wavelength would remain constant
C. The wavelength would be shorter
D. The wavelength would vary directly with the acoustic impedance

33. An amplitude type gate is necessary for

A. shear wave examinations
B. longitudinal wave examinations
C. automatic examinations
D. all of the above

34. Rough entry surface conditions can result in

A. a loss of echo amplitude from discontinuities
B. an increase in the width of the front surface echo
C. a decrease in the width of the front surface echo
D. both A and B

35. One of the most efficient transmitters of ultrasonic energy

A. lithium sulfate
B. quartz
C. barium titanate
D. none of the above

36. In general, shear waves are more sensitive to small discontinuities than longitudinal waves for
a given frequency and in a given material because
A. the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the wavelength of longitudinal waves
B. transverse waves are easily diffracted in the material
C. the wavelength of shear waves is longer than the wavelength of longitudinal waves
D. all of the above

37. In general, which of the following modes of vibration would have the greatest penetrating
power in a coarse-grained material if the frequencies of the waves are the same?
A. Longitudinal
B. Shear
C. Surface
D. All of the above

38. The angle of reflection of an ultrasonic beam at an aluminum-water interface is

A. 0.25 times the angle of incidence
B. approximately the angle of incidence
C. equal to the angle of incidence
D. approximately 4 times the angle of incidence

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39. What kind of waves travel at a velocity slightly less than shear waves and their modes of
propagation are both longitudinal and transverse with respect to the surface?
A. Rayleigh waves
B. Transverse waves
C. T-waves
D. Longitudinal waves

40. The product of the sound velocity and the density of a material is known as the
A. reflection value of the material
B. acoustic impedance of the material
C. elastic constant of the material
D. penetration depth of the material

41. The amplifier range over which the unsaturated signal response increases in amplitude in
proportion to the discontinuity surface area is the
A. sensitivity range
B. vertical linearity range
C. selectivity range
D. horizontal linearity range

42. In a liquid medium, the only mode of vibration that can exist is
A. longitudinal
B. shear
C. surface
D. both A and B

43. At a water-steel interface the angle of incidence in water is 7º. The principal mode of vibration
that exists in the steel is
A. longitudinal
B. shear
C. surface
D. both A and B

44. In an ultrasonic instrument, the number of pulses produced by an instrument in a given period
of time is known as the
A. pulse length
B. pulse recovery time
C. frequency
D. pulse width
45. In a basic pulse echo ultrasonic instrument, the component that produces the voltage that
activates the search unit is called
A. an amplifier
B. a receiver
C. a pulser
D. a synchronizer

46. In a basic pulse echo ultrasonic instrument, the component that produces the time base line is
called a
A. sweep circuit
B. receiver
C. pulser
D. organizer
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47. Which of the following modes of vibration are quickly damped out when testing by the
immersion method?
A. Longitudinal waves
B. Shear waves
C. Transverse waves
D. Surface waves

48. Thin sheet may be inspected with the ultrasonic wave directed normal to the surface by
observing
A. the amplitude of the front surface reflection
B. the multiple reflection patterns
C. all front surface reflections
D. none of the above

49. An ultrasonic longitudinal wave travels in aluminum with a velocity of 635 000 cm/s and has
a frequency of 1 MHz. The wavelength of this ultrasonic wave is
A. 6.35 mm (0.25 in.)
B. 78 mm (3.1 in.)
C. 1.9 m (6.35 ft)
D. 31700 A°

50. In which medium listed below would the velocity of sound be lowest?
A. Air
B. Water
C. Aluminum
D. Plastic

51. A longitudinal ultrasonic wave is transmitted from water into steel at an angle of 5° from the
normal. In such a case, the refracted angle of the transverse wave is
A. less than the refracted angle of the longitudinal wave
B. equal to the refracted angle of the longitudinal wave
C. greater than the refracted angle of the longitudinal wave
D. none of the above

52. The equation describing wavelength in terms of velocity and frequency is

A. wavelength = velocity × frequency
B. wavelength = z (frequency × velocity)
C. wavelength = velocity / frequency
D. wavelength = frequency + velocity

53. When inspecting aluminum by the immersion method using water for a couplant, the
following information is known. (Velocity of sound in water = 1.49 × 103 m/s, velocity of
longitudinal waves in aluminum = 6.32 × 103 m/s). Angle of incidence = 5°. The angle of
refraction for longitudinal wave is approximately
A. 22°
B. 18°
C. 26°
D. 16°

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54. The primary requirement of a paintbrush transducer is that

A. all crystals be mounted equidistant from each other
B. the intensity of the beam pattern not vary greatly over the entire length of the transducer
C. the fundamental frequency of the crystals not vary more than 0.01%
D. overall length not to exceed 76 mm (3 in.)

55. Since the velocity of sound in aluminum is approximately 245 000 in./s, it takes how long for
sound to travel through 25 mm (1 in.) of aluminum?
A. 4 s
B. 4 s
C. 4 ms
D. 8 ms

56. In contact testing, defects near the entry surface cannot always be detected because of
A. interference
B. attenuation
C. scattering
D. refraction

57. Some information on the shape of a flaw may be given by

A. the shape of the echo
B. the amplitude of the echo
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

58. Rough surfaces cause the echo amplitude from discontinuities within the part to
A. decrease
B. increase
C. not change
D. change frequency

59. The resonant frequency of a 2 cm (0.79 in.) thick plate of naval brass (v = 4.43 × 103 m/s) is
A. 0.903 MHz
B. 0.443 MHz
C 0.222 MHz
D. 0.111 MHz

60. Notches are frequently used as reference reflectors for

A. distance amplitude calibration for shear waves
B. area amplitude calibration
C. thickness calibration of plate
D. determining near-surface solutions

61. Angle beam testing of plate will often miss

A. cracks that are perpendicular to the sound wave
B. inclusions that are randomly oriented
C. laminations that are parallel to the front surface
D. all of the above

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62. Attenuation is the loss of the ultrasonic wave energy during the course of propagation in the
material due to
A. reflection and refraction
B. dispersion and diffraction
C. absorption and scattering
D. all of the above

63. The principal applications of ultrasonic techniques consist of

A. flaw detection
B. thickness measurements
C. determination of elastic modulus
D. all of the above

64. In a plate, skip distance can be calculated from which of the following formula (where t =
plate thickness, = angle of sound beam refraction, and V = sound velocity)
A. S = (2 t) / tan
B. S = 2 t sin
C. S = 2 t tan
D. S = 2 v sin
E. none of the above

65. To prevent the appearance of the second front surface indication before the first back
reflection when inspecting aluminum by the immersion method (water is used as a couplant), it is
necessary to have a minimum of at least 1 inch of water for every
A. 51 mm (2 in.) of aluminum
B. 102 mm (4 in.) of aluminum
C. 152 mm (6 in.) of aluminum
D. 203 mm (8 in.) of aluminum

66. In immersion testing, irrelevant or false indications caused by contoured surfaces are likely to
result in a
A. broad-based indication
B. peaked indication
C. hashy signal
D. narrow-based indication

67. The maximum scanning speed of probe is primarily determined by

A. the frequency of the search unit
B. viscous drag problems
C. the pulse repetition rate of the test instrument
D. the persistency of the CRT screen

68. To evaluate and accurately locate discontinuities after scanning a part with a paintbrush
transducer, it is generally necessary to use a
A. smaller diameter probe
B. scrubber
C. grid map
D. crystal collimator

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69. An aluminum disc with 1000 mm thick is scanned by immersion testing and rotated at 15
RPM. What is the optimum PRR to be set so that the defect do not run past before it reaches the
probe? Minimum number of hits is 5. The effective diameter of probe including the prescribed
over lap is 5 mm.
A. 200
B. 333
C. 785
D. None of the above

70. During a test using A-scan equipment, strong indications that move at varying rates across the
screen in the horizontal direction appear. It is impossible to repeat a particular screen pattern by
scanning the same area. A possible cause of these indications is
A. porosity
B. an irregularly shaped crack
C. a blow hole
D. electrical interference

71. Low frequency sound waves are not generally used in testing of thin materials because of
A. the rapid attenuation of low frequency sound
B. incompatible wavelengths
C. poor near-surface resolution
D. none of the above

72. The fundamental frequency of a piezoelectric crystal is primarily a function of:

A. acoustic impedance
B. the amplifying characteristics of the pulse amplifier in the instrument
C. the thickness of the crystal
D. none of the above

73. What will be the probe separation distance for a tandem technique for the examination of 50
mm thick weld (double V joint) root using a 45 probe?
A. 50 mm
B. 36.8 mm
C. 45 mm
D. None of the above

74. A point, line, or surface of a vibrating body marked by absolute or relative freedom from
vibratory motion is referred to as
A. a node
B. an antinode
C. rarefaction
D. compression

75. The expansion and contraction of a magnetic material under the influence of a changing
magnetic field is referred to as:
A. piezoelectric effect
B. refraction
C. magnetostriction
D. rarefaction

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76. A 50 mm steel plate requires immersion examination with focusing at the center. 25 mm
minimum water path distance requires for the examination. What will be the radius of curvature
required on the Plexiglas shoe? (VL, plexiglass = 0.273 cm/ s VL, water = 0.148 cm/ s)
A. 93.7 mm
B. 125 mm
C. 55.5 mm
D. None of the above

77. When inspecting aluminum plate by using the 45° shear wave probe, if change in probe angle
is 2° and what would be change in angle of incidence of shear wave in aluminum? (VT, steel =
0.323 cm/ s, V T, aluminum = 0.313 cm/ s).
A. 2°
B. 1.95°
C. 4°
D. 6°

78. During a weld examination a discontinuity was assessed as 25 mm length using 6 dB drop
method. The actual length of the discontinuity can be
A. less than that reported
B. equal to that reported
C. more than that reported
D. less or more than that reported

79. In a water immersion test, what is off-set distance is needed to produce 45° shear wave for
testing of 200 mm diameter steel? (VT, steel = 0.323 cm/ s, VL, water = 0.148 cm/ s )
A. 50 mm
B. 64.8 mm
C. 32.4 mm
D. None of the above

80. When inspecting a 200 mm thick steel block by using 10 mm diameter 4 MHz normal probe,
what would be beam diameter at 100 mm depth from surface of the block? (VL, steel = 0.59 cm/ s )
A. 10 mm
B. 36.6 mm
C. 25.4 mm
D. none of the above

81. The sizing of the discontinuity has been done by 6 dB drop method using 2 and 4 MHz
probes. Which one of the following is most appropriate?
A. 2 MHz will provide better than 4 MHz
B. 4 MHz will provide better than 2 MHz
C. Both will provide same sizing
D. Any of the above

82. Very thin material tube weld of 6 mm diameter and 0.5 mm thick has to be examined. The
ideal ultrasonic examination technique is
A. contact technique with surface wave
B. contact technique with contoured probe of higher frequency and higher angle shear wave
C. immersion technique with high frequency focused probe
D. this cannot be examined by ultrasonic examination

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83. The signal from 2 mm diameter FBH (Flat Bottom Hole) was kept at 80% of Full Screen
Height (FSH). The 1 mm diameter FBH with the same equipment setting will produce signal with
______ % of full screen height.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 80
D. 100

84. In an immersion examination of 15 mm titanium plate (VL = 0610 cm/ s; VT = 0.312 cm/ s)
with the probe tilt of 10 , what angle and mode of ultrasonic beam will produce in the plate?
(V L, water = 0.148 cm/ s)
A. 15°, longitudinal
B. 45°, longitudinal
C. 25°, shear
D. 45°, shear

85. The factor which determines the amount of reflection at the interface of two dissimilar
materials is:
A. an index of rarefaction
B. the frequency of the ultrasonic wave
C. Young's modulus
D. an acoustic impedance

86. Calculate the sound path for pitch catch technique for the examination of 30 mm thick plate
with the region of interest is at of plate thickness by using a 60 probe.
A. 30 mm
B. 80 mm
C. 20 mm
D. None of the above

87. An immersion examination requires 10% overlap while using 10 mm diameter focused probe
with focusing size of 3 mm diameter. What shall be the maximum linear probe shift required to
satisfy the examination requirements?
A. 2.7 mm
B. 2.4 mm
C. 9 mm
D. None of the above

88. In steel, the velocity of sound is greatest in which of the following modes of vibration?
A. Longitudinal
B. Shear
C. Surface wave
D. Sound velocity is identical in all modes, in a given material

89. A 4 MHz normal probe was used in a 10 mm thick titanium plate and if the first back wall
echo appeared at 80% of FSH, second back wall echo appeared at 50% of FSH. The attenuation
on the plate is
A. 0.4 dB/mm
B. 0.2 dB/mm
C. 6.5 dB/mm
D. none of the above
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90. In an immersion testing of steel plate the 5 MHz probe was tilted at 19 and the corner echo
was noted at 4.67 µs from the water steel interface. What is the thickness of the plate?
A. 24 mm
B. 4 mm
C. 10.6 mm
D. None of the above

91. How many probes does Time Of Flight Diffraction (TOFD) use?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

92. While performing the shear wave examination on a thick plate of 50 mm on particular
material as per specification, noise was noted at certain locations. This can be due to
A. presence of small discontinuities
B. in homogeneity of material
C. variation in grain structure
D. electrical disturbances

93. The main advantage of TOFD technique is

A. best technique for sizing of discontinuity
B. easy to operate
C. high speed scanning
D. possible to image the discontinuity

94. A branched crack has to be identified and to be sized. Which one of the following is most
appropriate?
A. Obtain the crack orientation by lower frequency and size it by higher frequency
B. Obtain the crack orientation by higher frequency and size it by lower frequency
C. Both orientation and sizing can be done by higher frequency
D. Both lower and higher frequency probe will provide the same effect

95. The thickness of a discontinuity is less than one-fourth of the wavelength of acoustic sound
used for testing. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The discontinuity will not give any indication
B. The discontinuity will reflect the acoustic sound
C. The discontinuity will produce a good indication with less noise
D. None of the above

96. In a testing of 10 mm steel plate with a 20 MHz and 6 mm diameter normal probe, a signal
was noted at 1.67 µs from the test surface. What is the depth of the discontinuity?
(VT, steel = 0.323 cm/ s)
A. 2 mm
B. 2.35 mm
C. 4.9 mm
D. None of the above

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97. An examination revealed an indication at 5.5 s, while testing with 45° longitudinal angle
beam probe on 50mm thick steel specimen. What is the depth of the discontinuity? (VL, steel = 0.59
cm/ s )
A. 8 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 11 mm
D. None of the above

98. In an immersion testing of a 25 mm steel plate the half beam divergence was noted in the
specimen as 5 . The water path was noted as 100 mm for the 15 MHz immersion probe. What is
the beam diameter?
A. 6.7 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 17.5 mm
D. None of the above

99. The back wall echo from 100 mm job is adjusted to 80% of FSH. The probe is placed on a
200 mm thick job and back wall was found to be 60% of FSH. The attenuation factor of the
material is ______ dB/m. The equipment used is pulse echo A scan mode.
A. 12
B. 18
C. 14
D. 20

100. A FBH located from the transducer at a distance of 40 mm produced echo height 80% of
FSH. From the same size of FBH located at 80 mm produced some height in CRT and then it was
adjusted to 80% of FSH. How much dB should have been added to achieve this?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 16

101. The size of the discontinuity that can be detected by ultrasonic testing is one-half
wavelength, because
A. the resonance frequency and amplitude is maximum
B. the sound will become normal to the defect
C. the acoustic impedance of the defect exactly matches at high frequency
D. none of the above

102. The attenuation coefficient for structural steel at 2 MHz is.8 dB/m. For this condition a
sample of 100 mm thickness was tested using a pulse echo instrument. The first back wall echo
was adjusted to 80% of FSH. What would be the height of the second back wall echo?
A. 72 %
B. 60 %
C. 66 %
D. 50 %

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103. A 1000 mm diameter (OD) 150 mm thick forged block is to be tested using 45º angle beam
by moving the probe on the circumference for possible cracks propagating radially towards centre
from the rim. From the rim surface how far the inspection is valid?
A. 100 mm
B. 125 mm
C. 150 mm
D. 175 mm

104. A 2 mm diameter FBH showed 60% of FSH located at 25 mm. A 4 mm diameter FBH
located at 50 mm would show an indication at ______ of FSH.
A. 60 %
B. 30 %
C. 45 %
D. 35 %

105. A butt joint scanned with 70 degree probe and the plate thickness is 20 mm and flush ground.
An indication above the DAC noticed and the probe position from the centre of the weld bead is
75 mm and the beam path of the indication is 115 mm. The indication vanished by rotational
scanning. The most probable defect is: (the weld crown width is 15 mm before grinding)
A. lack of fusion
B. lack of penetration
C. slag indication
D. seam from the plate running parallel to weld bead

106. A longitudinal seam in a drum is to be scanned by placing the probe perpendicular to the
seam. The outer diameter and inner diameter are respectively 500 mm and 400 mm. The choice of
probe for complete coverage is
A. 60º
B. 45º
C. 70º
D. 80º

107. By positioning the probe on 25 mm radius of V2 block the fourth echo found to be on the
10th division on Cathode Ray Tube (CRT). The range of the equipment is
A. 0 250 mm
B. 0 50 mm
C. 0 125 mm
D. 0 200 mm

108. A 100 mm OD and 15 mm thick steel tube is to be scanned by generating shear wave in the
tube, for its full volume by placing the job in immersion testing. The angle of incidence in water
is ____.
(VL, water = 0.148 cm/ s and VT, steel = 0.323 cm/ s )
A. 20
B. 22
C. 18.9
D. 22.45

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109. For a highly damped probe the backing material to damp the oscillation shall have
A. a large difference in Z between the crystal and the damping material
B. it is preferred to have same acoustic impedance
C. shall have high Q factor of the crystal
D. shall have long reverberation time

110. While using the couplant the material shall be

A. shall have more contact angle
B. more viscous
C. must stick to job for considerable amount of time
D. as thin as possible

111. In a through transmission technique using 2 MHz probe the echo was set to 80% of FSH on a
material of 100 mm thick. The attenuation coefficient of the testing material is 20 dB/m. If the
material is tested with pulse echo technique with the same frequency and diameter probe, what
would be the height of the first back wall echo in terms of FSH?
A. 40 %
B. 60 %
C. 80 %
D. 70 %

112. A steel plate with thickness of 25 mm is immersed in water and the water path distance is 20
mm. What would be percentage of reflection observed on the CRT after the sound returns to the
transducer after hitting the back surface, assuming the first reflection from water steel interface is
100 % of FSH? (VL, steel = 0.59 cm/ s)
A. 40 % of FSH
B. 10 % of FSH
C. 1.12 % of FSH
D 11.2 % of FSH

113. A 100 mm solid shaft is to be scanned by immersing the shaft in water. It is desired to cover
at least 6.7 mm depth from the periphery. How much off-set from the centre of the shaft for
normal beam probe is required?
A. 1/4th of diameter
B. 1/5th of diameter
C. 14.9 mm
D. 25 mm

114. For good resolution in flaw detection, the ratio of the backing material acoustic impedance to
that of crystal impedance shall be
A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 10
C. 1 : 100
D. 1 : 1000

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115. The pulser excited the crystal with 300 V to generate acoustic vibration of certain frequency.
After attenuation the crystal received back mechanical energy and the voltage generated was 0.1
V. This loss is equal to ______ dB.
A. 12
B. 20
C. 70
D. 16

116. The depth of a vertical crack in a double V joint is at 15 mm and the thickness of the
scanning surface plate is 30 mm. The probe used is 45 in tandem arrangement. The probes gap
from their exit point would be
A. 15 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 27.5 mm
D. 20.5 mm

117. In an immersion examination of 10 mm steel plate (VL = 0.590 cm/ s; VT = 0.323 cm/ s)
with the probe tilt of 15 . Calculate the angle of refraction of transverse wave in steel? (V L, water
= 0.148 cm/ s)
A. 20
B. 34
C. 45
D. 60

118. The number of complete waves which pass a given point in a given period of time is called
as
A. amplitude of a wave motion
B. frequency of a wave motion
C. wavelength of a wave motion
D. pulse length of a wave motion

119. A change in the beam angle is noticed while calibrating a 45 degree probe using IIW block.
The change was found to be + 2 . What would be change in the incident angle in Lucite (perspex)
wedge? (VL, Perspex = 0.273 cm/ s and VT, steel = 0.323 cm/ s )
A. A change by 2º more
B. A change by 1.7º less
C. A change by 3º more
D. None of the above

120. How to ensure that the defect is planar or volume discontinuity like porosity from the CRT trace of
the defect indication?
A. Rotational scanning for porosity and orbital scanning for planar defects
B. Lateral scanning for any such defects
C. Rotational for planar and orbital for porosity
D. By through transmission technique

121. When using two separate search units (one a transmitter, the other a receiver), the most efficient
combination would be a
A. quartz transmitter and a barium titanate receiver
B. barium titanate transmitter and a lithium sulfate receiver
C. lithium sulfate transmitter and a barium titanate receiver
D. barium titanate transmitter and a quartz receiver
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122. The attenuation coefficient for a particular UT system on a certain material is 20 dB/m. If the
echo from FBH is set to 75% of FSH, for a metal path of 50 mm in pulse echo system, what
would be echo height for 100 mm metal path in the same system of testing?
A. 47.5 %
B. 45 %
C. 40 %
D. 35 %

123. A quart crystal cut so that its major faces are parallel to the Z and Y axes and perpendicular
to the X axis is called:
A. a Y-cut crystal
B. an X-cut crystal
C. a Z-cut crystal
D. a Z-Y cut crystal

124. An increase in water path was made by 20 mm, for practical reason. The desired focal
distance would be
A. increased by 5 mm
B. increased by 20 mm
C. decreased by 5 mm
D. decreased by 20 mm

125. In an immersion testing of an aluminum disc with 100 mm thick is scanned by immersion
testing and rotated at 60 RPM. Minimum number of hits is 5. The effective diameter of probe
including the prescribed over lap is 10 mm. What is the Pulse Repetition Rate (PRR) to be set?
A. 100
B. 143
C. 157
D. None of the above

126. In a pitch and catch technique on a casting, 60 shear wave probe encounters with a defect
oriented at an angle and the normal probe, which is arranged on the same surface of 60 probe,
picks up the strong indication. At what angle the defect is oriented with respect to the back
surface if both the surfaces are parallel to each other?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60

127. A 20 mm plate is scanned by selecting a probe of 70º so that the beam hits the fusion zone
perpendicular for maximum reflection from unfused surface. What is groove angle to meet this
condition?
A. 60
B. 50
C. 40
D. 20

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128. In immersing testing a scanner is moving at 300 mm/s, and the diameter of a focused beam
on the area of interest is 10 mm and 10% overlap between the scan is to be ensured. The number
of hits inside the specimen shall be 4 for total decay of pulse. Find the PRR.
A. 120
B. 136
C. 176
D. 156

129. An aluminum disc is scanned by immersion testing. The water path distance is 60 mm and a
strong reflection is found from a discontinuity, and arrived after 89.21 µs in pulse echo system of
scanning. Assume the velocity of sound in water is 0.148 cm/ s, and in aluminum it is 0.632
cm/ s. What is the depth of the defect from water-aluminum interface from the entry surface?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 25.5 mm
D. 20.5 mm

130. In an immersion testing the effective diameter of a focused beam on the area of interest is 8
mm and PRR is 375 pulses per second. The number of hits inside the specimen shall be 4 for total
decay of pulse. Find the scanner speed.
A. 500 mm/s
B. 150 mm/s
C. 750 mm/s
D. 600 mm/s

131. Two defects are oriented at 12 degree to the scanning surface at two different locations. Of
the two defects one is very smooth and the other is rough.
A. Normal beam transducer would not receive any reflection from both the defects because of its
orientation
B. A smooth would reflect better than a rough
C. A rough defect would reflect better than smooth
D. The reflection would be same for both

132. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006) the number of training hours required, if high school graduate or
equivalent educational qualification, for direct certification to Level II in UT method is ______
hours.
A. 8
B. 16
C. 40
D. 80

133. The attenuation coefficient for a particular UT system on a certain material is 20 dB/m. If the
echo from FBH is set to 60% of FSH, for a metal path of 50 mm in pulse echo system, what
would be echo height for 100 mm metal path in the same system of testing?
A. 47.6%
B. 45%
C. 40%
D. 35%

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134. Couplant displaces the __________ and makes it possible to get more sound energy into the
test specimen.
A. air
B. surface tension
C. sound energy
D. surface rust

135. What is used to establish a general level of consistency in measurements, and to help
interpret and quantify the information contained in the received signal?
A. Reference standards
B. Industry standards
C. Accuracy standards
D. Modelling standards

136. A decibel is
A. a unit of measure used only for sound measurements
B. a logarithmic unit that describes a ratio of two measurements
C. a logarithmic unit that describes the product of two measurements
D. none of the above

137. Ultrasound is generally defined as sound at frequency above the threshold of human hearing,
which is?
A. 20,000 Hz
B. 20,000 kHz
C. 20 MHz
D. 2 MHz

138. Resolution generally decreases

A. with increased depth of a defect
B. with a decrease in the transducer frequency
C. when the transducer diameter is reduced
D. with an increase in transducer frequency

139. What type of set-up can provide information about both the size of the flaw and distance
between the flaw and the transducer?
A. Through transmission
B. Pitch-catch with two transducers
C. Pulse echo
D. Both B and C

140. DAC stands for

A. Direct Amplitude Code
B. Distance Application Code
C. Distance Amplitude Correction
D. Divergence Application Couplant

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141. Which type of screen presentation displays the amount of received ultrasonic energy as a
function of time?
A. A-scan
B. B-scan
C. C-scan
D. None of the above

142. The ability to locate discontinuities that are close together within the material is called
A. sensitivity
B. resolution
C. phase delay
D. effectiveness

143. The purpose of the backing material in a transducer is to

A. provide impedance matching between the active element and the test component
B. direct the sound out of the transducer
C. control the ringing of the active element
D. all of the above

144. In a water immersion test, ultrasonic energy is transmitted into steel at an incident angle of
14°. What is the angle of the refracted shear wave within the material?
(VT, steel = 0.323 cm/ s, VL, water = 0.148 cm/ s)
A. 14°
B. 31°
C. 35°
D. 28°

145. If a probe frequency with 2 MHz and 8 mm diameter is used, what is the minimum length of
the defect would be detected in steel for longitudinal wave testing?
A. 1.5 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 8 mm

146. Which component in an ultrasonic immersion system is used to adjust and maintain a known
transducer angle?
A. A collimator
B. A manipulator
C. A search tube
D. A slit

147. Which of the following will give best resolution?

A. Highly damped probe
B. Low frequency probe
C. Large angle probe
D. Non-damped angled probe

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148. An ASME code has accepted TOFD in lieu of radiography

A. for surface breaking flaws
B. for thickness not exceeding 1 in.
C. for thickness between 1 in. and 2 in.
D. for thickness exceeding 4 in.

149. A pipe with outside diameter 10.4 in. and thickness 1.5 in. is to be tested with angle probe in
circumferential direction. The approximate angle which will ensure complete coverage
A. 60°
B. 45°
C. 50°
D. 70°

150. What is the minimum water path required for a 6 in. block of steel to be tested by immersion
testing with 0.75 in. diameter probe? (VL, steel = 0.59 cm/ s, VL, water = 0.148 cm/ s)
A. 1.5 in.
B. 1.75 in.
C. 2.0 in.
D..4.0 in.

151. In the far field of a probe a 2 mm diameter FBH gives a 25% FSH echo. At the same metal
path a 4 mm diameter FBH (Flat Bottom Hole) in the same material will give an echo whose
height will be
A. 100 %
B. 50 %
C. 25 %
D. none of the above

152. The beam width (diameter) at the depth of 75 mm in a thick aluminum disk (v = 0.632
cm/ s ) with a 10 mm diameter and 2 MHz probe is
A. 22.5 mm
B. 28.9 mm
C. 44.5 mm
D. 61.5 mm

153. Which of the following modes of vibration can be sustained by ice?

A. Longitudinal
B. Shear
C. Surface
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

154. A plan view display or recording of a part under examination is called:

A. a C-scan display
B. an A-scan display
C. an X-axis plot
D. a B-scan display

155. In A-scan equipment, the RF pulser output voltage is normally in the range of
A. 0-10 V
B. 10-100 V
C. 100-1000 V
D. 1000-5000 V
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156. The symbol commonly used to express acoustic impedance is:

A. Z
B. XL
C.
D.

157. What type of ultrasonic examination uses wheel-type search units that eliminate the use of a
tank?
A. Through-transmission testing
B. Contact testing
C. Resonance testing
D. Immersion testing

158. Most ferrous and nonferrous welds may be ultrasonically tested using a frequency range of
A. 25 100 kHz
B. 200 500 kHz
C. 1 2.25 MHz
D. 3 6 MHz
E. 10 20 MHz

159. In immersion testing, a wetting agent is added to the water to

A. adjust the viscosity
B. eliminate the formation of air bubbles
C. prevent cloudiness
D. none of the above

160. Which of the following is a reference reflector that is not dependent on beam angle?
A. Flat bottom hole
B. A vee notch
C. Side drilled hole which is parallel to the plate surface and perpendicular to the sound path
D. Disc-shaped laminar reflector

161. In ultrasonic testing, the time duration of the transmitted pulse is referred to as:
A. the pulse length or pulse width
B. the pulse amplitude
C. the pulse shape
D. none of the above

162. What law can be used to calculate the angle of refraction within a metal for both longitudinal
and shear waves?
A. Boyles law
B. Snell's law
C. Fresnel's field law
D. Charles' law

163. In immersion testing, when the sound beam strikes a concave surface, the sound beam tends
to:
A. converge
B. diverge
C. stay the same
D. mode convert

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164. A straight beam contact search unit consists of which of the following basic components?
A. Case, crystal, mount and backing
B. Case, crystal, backing and plastic wedge
C. Case, crystal, backing and acoustic lenses
D. All of the above

165. The variable in distance amplitude calibration block, construction is the

A. drilled hole size
B. drilled hole point angle
C. metal distance above the drilled hole
D. angle of the drilled hole to block longitudinal axis

166. In contact testing, if the ultrasonic instrument is set with an excessively high pulse repetition
rate, which of the following may occur?
A. The screen trace will become too light to see
B. The time-base line will become distorted
C. The initial pulse will disappear
D. Ghost or "phantom" indications will appear onscreen during scanning

167. Delay-tip (stand-off) type contact search units are primarily used for
A. defect detection
B. sound wave characterization
C. thickness measurement or flaw detection in thin materials
D. attenuation measurements

168. In Figure 1, transducer C is being used to check (see Figure 1 in Annexure -I)
A. distance calibration
B. resolution
C. sensitivity calibration
D. verification of wedge angle

169. In Figure 1, transducer A is being used to check

A. verification of wedge angle
B. sensitivity calibration
C. resolution
D. index point

170. In Figure 1, transducer D is being used to check:

A. sensitivity calibration
B. distance calibration
C. resolution
D. verification of wedge angle

171. Figure 2 is an illustration of a

A. A-scan presentation
B. B-scan presentation
C. C-scan presentation
D. D-scan presentation

172. Immersion transducers have

A. a large angle of refraction
B. a small angle of refraction
C. a large angle of reflection
D. an acoustical impedance matching layer
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173. The act of evaluating and adjusting the precision and accuracy of the measurement
equipment is called
A. standardization
B. calibration
C. accuracy
D. tuning

174. The material of the reference standard used to setup for a flaw inspection
A. can be made from similar material as long as the velocity is the same
B. should be the same material being inspected
C. must have the same impedance values as the base
D. can only be used once

175. Why aren't real defects commonly used in calibration and reference standards?
A. They are more difficult to detect with NDT methods
B. They are always the same size and length
C. It is cost prohibitive to produce them
D. Both A and C

176. Which of the following could influence the behavior of a transducer?

A. Electrical construction
B. Material construction
C. Mechanical construction
D. All of the above

177. Resolution generally increases

A. with increased depth of a defect
B. with a decrease in the transducer frequency
C. when the transducer diameter is reduced
D. with an increase in transducer frequency

178. Surface or Rayleigh waves traveling along the surface of relative thick solid material,
penetrate to a depth of approximately
A. one wavelength
B. two wavelengths
C. three wavelengths
D. infinite wavelengths

179. In order to have a reasonable chance at detecting a discontinuity, the reflective surface of the
discontinuity must have a dimension that is at least as long as ________ wavelength.
A. one- half
B. one- quarter
C. one
D. two
E. none of the above

180. Which type of screen presentation displays a plan-type view of the location and size of the
test specimen features?
A. A-scan
B. B-scan
C. C-scan
D. All of the above

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181. As frequency increases, sound tends to

A. become more compressed
B. scatter more from large or course grain structure
C. convert to a different wave mode
D. become more penetrating

182. A 6 dB change in the measured ultrasonic signal strength indicates that the sound intensity
changed by a factor of
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 50

183. Snell's Law describes the relationship between the sound velocity and
A. the refracted angle of the wave
B. the reflected angle of the wave
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

184. The sound energy or ultrasonic beam is more uniform in the

A. far field zone
B. near field zone
C. interface between the transducer and plastic wedge
D. band along the central axis

185. Contact transducers often incorporate a

A. composite frequency adjustment
B. vibration suppressor
C. wear plate
D. phase adjustment sensor

186. Which type of calibration block is used to determine the resolution of angle beam
transducers per requirements of AWS?
A. An IIW block
B. A DSC block
C. A rumpus block
D. An RC block

187. Which type of transducer can be used to scan wide areas when high sensitivity is not
required?
A. Mosaic transducer
B. Single crystal transducer of small diameter
C. Composite transducer
D. Paint brush transducer

188. Which of the following waves is able to follow a surface around a curve?
A. Longitudinal
B. Shear
C. Surface
D. Lamb

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189. The active element of most acoustic transducers used today is

A. lithium sulfide
B. piezoelectric ceramic
C. barium titanate
D. quartz

190. What is used to support the active element and dampen the transducers characteristics?
A. Resin
B. Oil
C. Backing material with a similar the impedance of the transducer
D. Any of the above will work

191. The total resistance that the cable presents to the electrical current passing through it is called
A. impedance
B. attenuation
C. shielding
D. resistance

192. Which of the following is a most effective couplant in pulse-echo contact test?
A. Water
B. Oil
C. Glycerin
D. All of the above

193. When a wave encounters an interface at an oblique angle, what takes place at the interface
due to the different sound velocities of the two materials?
A. Attenuation
B. Refraction
C. Beam spread
D. Beam impedance

194. A large acoustic impedance mismatch at an interface will result in:

A. a high amount of transmitted sound energy
B. a small degree of refraction
C. a large critical angle
D. a high amount of reflected sound energy

195. The sound that emanates from a piezoelectric transducer originates

A. from a point on the active surface
B. from most of the active surface
C. from a small area in the center of the active surface
D. from the edges of the active surface

196. The measure of how a signal from a defect compared to other background reflections is
called
A. acoustic impedance
B. signal to noise ratio
C. refraction
D. reflection

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197. Less damped transducers will exhibit

A. a wide frequency range
B. a wide resolution range
C. a shift in frequency range
D. a narrow frequency range

198. In angle-beam testing, when the geometry of the part is relatively uncomplicated and the
orientation of a flaw is well known, the length of a crack can be determined by a technique known
as
A. tip diffraction
B. immersion
C. surface mode diffraction
D. contact testing

199. When sound travels through a medium

A. its intensity diminishes with distance
B. it spreads perpendicular to the primary direction of wave travel
C. its speed remains constant
D. all of the above

200. Which of the following waves is only able to travel through a thin section of material?
A. Longitudinal
B. Shear
C. Surface
D. Lamb

201. Longitudinal waves are also called

A. surface waves
B. pressure waves
C. compressional waves
D. both B and C

202. Artificial flaws can be produced by using

A. side drilled holes
B. flat bottom holes
C. EDM notches
D. all of the above

203. When a single element transducer is operating in the pulse echo mode, the element
A. cannot start receiving reflected signals until the element has stopped ringing from its transmit
function
B. needs to have a high pulse rate
C. should be used in the dual mode
D. can only be made with lithium sulfate

204. What type of transducer contains two independently operating elements in a single housing?
A. Crystal mosaic transducer
B. Dual element transducer
C. Liquid crystal transducer
D. All of the above

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205. The combined effect of scattering and absorption is called

A. shear factor
B. attenuation
C. propagation
D. impedance

206. When performing a contact inspection on a curved surface, what pieced of equipment can be
used to improve coupling?
A. A spherically focused transducer
B. A cylindrically focused transducer
C. A shaped shoe
D. A large diameter transducer

207. A special scanning device with the transducer mounted in a tire-like container filled with
couplant is commonly called
A. a rotating scanner
B. an axial scanner
C. a wheel transducer
D. a circular scanner

208. A diagram in which the entire circuit stage or sections are shown by geometric figures and
the path of the signal or energy by lines anchor arrows is called a:
A. schematic diagram
B. blueprint
C. block diagram
D. any of the above

209. In an A-scan presentation, the horizontal line formed by the uniform and repeated movement
of an electron beam across the fluorescent screen of a cathode ray tube is called
A. a sweep line
B. a square wave pattern
C. a marker pattern
D. none of the above

210. Which of the following is not an advantage of contact ultrasonic search units (probes)
adapted with Lucite shoes?
A. Eliminates most of the crystal wear
B. Permits adaptation to curved surfaces
C. Increases sensitivity
D. Allows ultrasound to enter a part's surface at oblique angles

211. A primary purpose of a reference standard is:

A. to provide a guide for adjusting instrument controls to reveal discontinuities that are
considered harmful to the end use of the product
B. to give the technician a tool for determining exact discontinuity size
C. to provide assurance that ail discontinuities smaller than a certain specified reference reflector
are capable of being detected by the test
D. to provide a standard reflector which exactly simulates natural discontinuities of a critical size

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212. Shear waves do not propagate in

A. solids
B. gases
C. liquids
D. both B and C

213. Ultrasonic method is useful to detect

A. surface defects
B. sub surface defects
C. both A and B
D. internal defects
E. surface, sub surface and internal defects

214. If the distance traveled by the longitudinal wave in steel is 200 mm, how much travel time
will it take?
A. 25 s
B. 33 s
C. 45 s
D. 47 s

215. Calculate the frequency for a wave length of 1.5 mm if velocity = 0.600 cm/ s..
A. 3 MHz
B. 4 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 4 MHz

216. Bending of sound waves at the tip or edge of a discontinuity is

A. reflection
B. refraction
C. interference
D. diffraction

217. When the diameter of a transducer is increased for a particular frequency in the same
material, the beam spread would be
A. increased
B. decreased
C. no change
D. either A or B

218. When an ultrasound wave passes through an interface between two materials at an oblique
angle, and the materials have different refractive indices, it produces
A. reflected waves
B. refracted waves
C. interface waves
D. both A and B

219. The sound intensity in far zone decrease with the

A. distance of its travel
B. length of refracted wave length
C. distance of travel and also across the beam
D. both B and C

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220. The zone where interference and fluctuations of maxima & minima intensities occur is a
A. near filed
B. Fresnel zone
C. far field
D. either A or B

221. Surface wave is generated at the boundary of Perspex and steel, if the incident angle of
acoustic beam is above
A. first critical angle
B. the incidence angle of 30°
C. second critical angle
D. both A and B

222. A large discontinuity found with the through transmission technique will cause the CRT,
display to
A. increase in amplitude at a point equal to the depth of the defect.
B. show a pip equal to the relative size of the discontinuity.
C. show a decrease in reflected energy from the back surface of the part.
D. show a decrease in energy at the receiving transducer.

223. Acoustic impedance is said to be

A. resistance to the passage of sound waves by a material
B. density or velocity of a material
C. the product of velocity and density of material
D. both A and C

224. A change of 12 dB on the attenuator corresponds to an amplitude ratio of

A. 6 : 1
B. 5 : 1
C. 4 : 1
D. 3 : 1

225. Lamb or plate waves are used to inspect

A. bar stock
B. forging
C. thick plates
D. thin sheets

226. The velocity in which the lamb waves travel in a plate depends upon
A. the thickness of the plate
B. the material type
C. the frequency of sound wave
D. all of the above

227. A 4 MHz shear wave probe having 60° angle is used for testing steel plate, the angle and the
frequency of this probe in copper will be (VT, copper = 0.226 cm/ s, VT, steel = 0.323 cm/ s )
A. 60° , 4 MHz
B. 60°, 2.5 MHz
C. 37° , 2 MHz
D. 38° , 4 MHz

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228. One of the following wave modes undergoes less attenuation compared to other modes.
A. longitudinal wave mode
B. transverse wave mode
C. surface wave mode
D. shear wave mode

229. The acoustic impedance for brass is (v = 4.43 × 105 cm/ s, density = 8.42 g/ cm3)
A. 3.7 × 106 g/cm3
B. 1.9 × 104 g cm-2 s-1
C. 9.4 × 105 g cm-2 s-1
D. 3.7 × 106 g cm-2 s-1

230. First critical angle for Perspex and steel interface would be (VL, perspex = 0.273 cm/ s and
VL, steel = 0.590 cm/ s)
a. 10°
b. 15°
C. 27.5°
D. 30°
E. none of the above

231. In immersion testing, the near field effects of a probe could be eliminated by
A. increasing transducer frequency
B. use of large diameter transducers
C. using appropriate water path
D. use of a focused transducer

232. Forged and rolled materials generally give

A. more scattering than castings
B. less scattering than castings
C. same scattering as that of castings
D. none of the above

233. Beam divergence is a function of the diameter of the crystal and the wave length of the beam
transmitted through a medium and it
A. increases if the frequency or crystal diameter is increased
B. decreases if the frequency or crystal diameter is decreased
C. decreases if the frequency is increased and the crystal diameter is decreased
D. none of the above

234. Transverse waves are the waves in which the particles motion is
A. in the direction of wave prorogation
B. in perpendicular direction of wave prorogation
C. in elliptical direction to the wave propagation
D. none of the above

235. For thickness and corrosion measurements, ______ damped probe is used.
A. highly
B. slightly
C. moderately
D. either B or C

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236. Absorption of ultrasonic energy occurs mainly

A. by conversion of mechanical energy to eddy current
B. by conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
C. by conversion of heat energy in to mechanical energy
D. by conversion of mechanical energy in to heat energy

237. The Curie point or critical temperature is defined as

A. the temperature at which the vibration of crystal suddenly falls to 50%
B. the temperature at which the vibration of crystal suddenly falls to 0%
C. the temperature at which the crystal loses its piezo electric properties
D. none of the above

238. With the aid of cylindrical lens, we will be able to achieve

A. line focus
B. point focus
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

239. Standing waves are set up within a specimen when using the
A. pulse-echo system
B. through-transmission system
C. resonance system
D. immersion system

240. To improve the directivity of a ultra sound beam and decrease beam spread, use
A. filters
B. collimators
C. acoustic lens
D. both A and C

241. In angle beam testing, the longitudinal wave is converted to transverse wave by means of
A. couplant
B. damping material
C. angle Perspex wedge
D. all of the above

242. Highly damped, small pulses are ideal for

A. flaw detection
B. thickness and corrosion measurements
C. drawing DAC
D. both A and C

243. The basic set of ASTM reference blocks is

A. V1 or V2 block
B. standard reference block
C. concave and convex block
D. it is a combination of area and distance amplitude blocks

244. Normally, angle beam technique is used to check

A. plates with lamination and delamination
B. the bonding between two materials
C. welds and tubes
D. refinery pipes
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245. One of the prime advantages of contact testing is

A. clear CRT presentation
B. good sensitivity is achieved
C. its portability
D. none of the above

246. The near field of a round 0.5 in. diameter contact L-wave transducer being used on a steel
test part (VL, steel = 0.590 cm/ s ) operating at 6 MHz is
A. 0.5 inch
B. l inch
C. 1.2 cm
D. 4.3 cm

247. If plate thickness is 12.7 mm, pulse-echo, straight beam measured elapsed time = 4 µs. What
is the most likely material?
A. Aluminum
B. Copper
C. Titanium
D. Steel

248. A change in echo amplitude from 80 percent of full screen height (FSH) to 20 percent FSH is
a change of
A. 20 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 12 dB
D. 2 dB

249. The sound beam emanating from a continuous wave sound source has two zones. These are
called the
A. Fresnel zone
B. Fraunhofer zone
C. focused and unfocused zones
D. both A and B

250. To set metal path range for angle beam inspection using radii of V1 or V2 block, _____
A. only the beam angle must be known
B. only the probe index must be known
C. both the beam angle and the probe index must be known
D. neither the beam angle nor the probe index need be known

251. In Figure 3, transducer B is used to check

A. distance calibration.
B. resolution.
C. sensitivity calibration.
D. verification of wedge angle.

252. Which of the following is connected to the vertical deflection plates of CRT in an A-scan
display mode?
A. Vertical linearity circuit.
B. Sweep circuit.
C. Out-put of the receiver amplifier.
D. None of the above.
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253. In immersion testing, a beam of sound travels from water into steel in this process
A. the velocity of sound beam will change.
B. the frequency of sound beam will change.
C. neither frequency nor velocity will change.
D. both frequency and velocity will change.

254. The full angle beam spread for 2.25 MHz and 13 mm (1/2 in.) diameter transducer
longitudinal wave probe in brass is: (VL, brass = 0.383 cm/ s)
A. 11o
B. 18 o
C. 14 o
D. 28 o

255. Skip distance is determined by _____.

A. incidence angle
B. the test frequently used
C. pulse width used
D. the angle of reflection

256. The percentage reflection of sound energy in the case of compressional wave at water-
aluminum interface is
A. 70%
B. 21 %
C. 14 %
D. 64 %
257. Figure 4 is an illustration of a
A. A-scan presentation
B. B-scan presentation
C. C-scan presentation
D. D-scan presentation

258. Angle beam inspection using longitudinal wave is a special case recommended for testing of:
A. high thickness carbon steel.
B. austenitic stainless steel.
C. brass tubes.
D. none of the above.

259. The incidence angle of 12º in water would produce refracted angle of longitudinal wave in
steel:
A. 70º
B. 56º
C. 40º
D. 46º

260. The focal length of a probe in water is 100 mm. If this probe is to be used for normal
scanning of 10 mm thick steel plate with the beam focused in the mid-section of the plate, what
should be the water path?
A. 40 mm
B. 60 mm
C. 80 mm
D. 100 mm
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261. High sensitivity levels are not employed when testing austenitic steel forgings because
A. very sensitive equipments not available
B. high level noise caused by the coarse grain structure
C. the surface is very smooth
D. none of the above

262. The Time Of Flight Diffraction (TOFD) principle is based on evaluation of the
A. diffraction signals at crack edges
B. amplitude of the echo night
C. sound attenuation
D. frequency

263. In the far zone, the intensity of sound is

A. minimum in the centre of beam and maximum toward the outer edges.
B. same in either way.
C. maximum at the centre of the beam and minimum toward the outer edges.
D. minimum at the centre and minimum toward the edges too.

264. Figure 5 is an illustration of a

A. A-scan presentation
B. B-scan presentation
C. C-scan presentation
D. D-scan presentation

265. Probes used for Time Of Flight Diffraction (TOFD) technique must have the performance of
A. high band width
B. narrow band width
C. low frequency
D. high frequency

266.When a 30 mm plate is tested by using a 5 MHz, 15 mm dia. normal beat: probe, the second
back wall echo is obtained at scale division 2 and the third back wall echo at scale division 8. The
equipment has been calibrated for the test range of
A. 20 to 40 mm
B. 0 to 100 mm
C. 50 to 100 mm
D. 0 to 300 mm

267. If an ultrasonic wave is transmitted through an interface of which the first material has a
higher acoustic impendence but same velocity as the second material, the angle of refraction will
be
A. greater the angle of incidence.
B. less than the angle of incidence.
C. equal to the angle of incidence.
D. none of the above.

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268. Figure 6 illustrates a contact test on a 20 cm (8 in.) steel block. (No sweep delay is being
used). A discontinuity is located 15 cm (6 in.) from the front surface. The screen representation
for this is shown to the right. What does indication A represent?
A. Initial pulse or front surface indication
B. First discontinuity indication
C. First back surface reflection
D. None of the above

269. In Figure 6, what does indication B represent?

A. Initial pulse or front surface indication
B. First discontinuity indication
C. First back surface reflection
D. None of the above

270. In Figure 6, what does indication C represent?

A. Second back surface reflection
B. First discontinuity indication
C. Second discontinuity indication
D. First back surface reflection

271. In Figure 6, what does indication D represent?

A. First discontinuity indication
B. Second indication of the discontinuity
C. First back surface reflection
D. Second back surface reflection

272. In Figure 6, what does indication E represent?

A. First discontinuity indication
B. Second discontinuity indication
C. First back surface reflection
D. Second back surface reflection

273. In an immersion testing the effective diameter of a focused beam on the area of interest is 4
mm and the scanner speed is 600 mm/s. The number of hits inside the specimen shall be 5 for
total decay of pulse. Find the maximum PRR.
A. 1000
B. 750
C. 500
D. None of the above

274. Changing the amplification by -6 dB results in reduction of an echo height to

A. 6%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 60%

275. Echo amplification of 60 dB results in increase of echo height by: (if Reject is set to off)
A. 6 times
B. 60 times
C. 120 times
D. 1000 times

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276. If the gain of the ultrasound testing equipment is increased by l2 dB, what was the amount of
change in the amplification factor of the test equipment due to this change? (Assume dB control is
linear)
A. The amplification ratio increased by a factor 12 to 1
B. The amplification ratio increased by a factor 1 to 4
C. The amplification ratio increased by a factor 4 to 1
D. No change occurred to the amplification factor

277. An echo amplification of 100 times can be written as:

A. + 20dB
B. - 20 dB
C. + 100 dB
D. + 40 dB

278. The height of a signal is 20% FSH (Full Screen Height). After an increase in gain of 2 dB,
the echo height is approximately _____.
A. 22%
B. 25%
C. 28%
D. 32%

279. In Figure 6, the BNC connector is shown by:

A. B
B. A
C. D
D. C

280. In Figure 6, the miniature connector is shown by:

A. B
B. A
C. D
D. C

281. The lack of parallelism between the front and back surfaces of a specimen, ____.
A. makes it difficult to locate discontinuities that lie parallel to the front surface.
B. may result in a CRT display that does not contain back surface indication.
C. usually results in a CRT display having multiple indications of irregular amplitude.
D. will decrease ultrasonic wave penetration.

282. The ideal surface condition for ultrasonic testing is

A. a rough surface
B. a contoured surface
C. an irregular or polished surface
D. a flat smooth surface

283. A properly calibrated digital ultrasonic flaw detector will give information of the following:
A. discontinuity depths
B. discontinuity position
C. actual flaw size
D. all of the above

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284. If the distance traveled by the longitudinal wave in steel is 200 mm, how much travel time
will it take?
A. 35 ps
B. 50 s
C. 33 s
D. 37 ps

285. Calculate the wave length of ultrasonic energy at 2 MHz frequency in lead plate, if velocity
in lead is 2.1 × 105 cm/ s.
A. 0.20 mm
B. 0.105 cm
C. 2.5 cm
D. 1.05 cm

286. The sound wave which can travel through gas is

A. transverse wave
B. shear wave
C. surface wave
D. longitudinal wave

287. Ultrasonic waves that travel around a gradual curve with little or no reflection from the curve
is called
A. longitudinal wave
B. transverse wave
C. surface wave
D. lamb wave

288. ASTM area-amplitude block set is meant for checking:

A. spatial resolution.
B. vertical linearity.
C. sweep linearity.
D. none of the above.

289. What would be the percentage of transmitted energy into steel if oil is introduced between
the probe and steel? (Z steel = 45 × 106 kg/cm2/s, Z oil = 1.50 × 106 kg/cm2/s)
A. 3.6
B. 70
C. 12.5
D. None of the above

290. The technique in which a flowing stream of water is used to couple the transducer to the test
specimen is called
A. water column technique
B. bubbler technique
C. surface technique
D. immersion technique

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291. Dual crystal probe will be useful when

A. test surface is rough
B. the specimen surface is irregular
C. the back surface is not parallel with the front surface
D. all of the above

292. Resonance occurs when the material thickness is

A. the same as wave length
B. half of the wave length
C. twice the wave length
D. none of the above

293. The frequency difference between two adjacent harmonics equals the
A. maximum resonant frequency
B. fundamental resonant frequency
C. residual frequency
D. wave length
294. Distance amplitude blocks are ones in which
A. the flat bottom holes are of different sizes with same metal distances
B. the flat bottom holes are of same sizes with different metal distances
C. both the flat bottom holes sizes and metal distances are same
D. none of the above

295. A reference block used for defect evaluation in wedding:

A. should have the same surface quality as the work piece.
B. should be made up of the same material as the work piece.
C. should have approximately same geometry as that work piece
D. all of the above.

296. In wheel tire, the transducer is mounted inside

A. bubbler chamber
B. liquid filled tire
C. plastic block with holes
D. scanner tube of immersion tank

297. In contact testing, shear waves may be produced in a test specimen by

A. placing an X-cut quartz crystal on the specimen and coupling with couplant.
B. using two transducers, one on each side of the specimen.
C using a shear - cut lens on the transducer.
D. using a long wave transducer on a Lucite wedge.

298. Which of the following wave mode has the approximate velocity of 0.9th of transverse
wave?
A. Longitudinal waves
B. Lamb waves
C. Surface waves
D. Plate waves

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299. As the radius of curvature of a curved lens is increased the focal length of the lens will
A. decrease.
B. increase.
C. no change.
D. depend upon frequency of ultra sound.

300. Which of the following has longest Fresnel zone?

A. 13 mm (0.5 in.) diameter,1 MHz
B. 13 mm (0.5 in.) diameter, 2.25 MHz
C. 28.5 mm (1.125 in.) diameter, 1 MHz
D. 38 mm (1.5 in.) diameter, 2 MHZ

301. According to SNT-TC-1A (2006) of ASNT, the minimum required work experience in
method for direct certification to Level II in UT method is ______ hours.
A. 70
B. 210
C. 630
D. 840

302. Another name for a compressional wave is:

A. shear wave
B. surface wave
C. longitudinal wave
D. transverse wave

303. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies between

A. 0.2 and 25 MHz
B. 1 and 1000 KHz
C. 1 and 250 KHz
D. 25 and 250 MHz

304. Star crack can be found:

A. at the junction of T joint
B. at the stop or start of the weld
C. at the root face
D. at the internal part of a forging

305. A discontinuity that found in bars and forgings, which is caused by rupture of metal forged at
either too low or too high temperature is called:
A. pipe
B. scam
C. cupping
D. internal burst.

306. The portion of base metal that has not been melted but where mechanical properties or
microstructure have been altered by the heat of welding is defined as:
A. fusion zone
B. heat affected zone
C. penetration zone
D. none of the above

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307. Which of the following frequencies will produce the shortest wavelength pulse?
A. 1 MHz
B. 500 kHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 20 MHz

308. Which of the following frequencies will produce the longest wavelength pulse?
A. 200 kHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 20 MHz
D. 25 MHz

309. The boundary between two different materials which are in contact with each other is called:
A. a domain
B. a refractor
C. an interface
D. a unit

310. The angle at which 90° refraction of a longitudinal sound wave is reached is called:
A. the angle of incidence
B. the angle of reflection
C. the first critical angle
D. the second critical angle

311. Which of the following search units would contain the thinnest quartz crystal?
A. A 1 MHz search unit
B. A 2 MHz search unit
C. A 10 MHz search unit
D. A 25 kHz search unit

312. Compensation for the variation in echo height related to variations in discontinuity depth in
the test material is known as:
A. transfer factor
B. distance amplitude correction
C. mass attenuation coefficient
D. none of the above

313. If the velocity of a longitudinal wave of a material is 0.59 cm/ s at surface, what is the
velocity at 25.4 mm (1 in.) below the surface?
A. The same as the velocity at the surface
B. ½ of the velocity at the surface
C. 9 10th of the velocity at the surface
D. None of the above

314. When the diameter of a transducer is decreased for a particular frequency in the same
material, the beam spread would be
A. increased
B. decreased
C. no change
D. either A or B

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315. Typical composite discontinuities would be

A. hot tear, lamination , bonds
B. matrix cracks, lamination, voids
C. delamination, matrix cracks, voids
D. all of the above

316. Liquid steel that splashes on the cool wall of an ingot mold and does not subsequently get
reabsorbed by the main body of the pour, forms
A. scabs
B. laps
C. seams
D. cold shuts

317. Flakes are internal ruptures in steel that are a result of

A. too rapid cooling
B. release of hydrogen gas
C. abrupt thickness changes
D. both A and B

318. An inherent discontinuity in forgings that cannot be detected using visual testing is:
A. bursts.
B. cracks.
C. seams.
D. laps.

319. A condition that is caused by unintentional rapid heating of the base metal or weld metal and
subsequent rapid cooling of the molten material, which results in extremely high heat input and
causes localized hardness and cracking, is called:
A. undercut.
B. arc strike.
C. weld spatter.
D. overlap.

320. Discontinuities associated with the casting process are:

A. inclusions.
B. hot tears.
C. porosity.
D. all of the above.

321. Hot tears, inclusions, porosity and cold shuts are:

A. forging discontinuities.
B. casting discontinuities.
C. welding discontinuities.
D. processing discontinuities.

322. Chevron discontinuity may occur in:

A. plates.
B. weldments.
C. bar stock.
D. valve castings.

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323. Failure to adequately penetrate the weld root of a groove weld is called:
A. lack of fusion
B. excessive penetration
C. incomplete penetration
D. lack of side wall fusion

324. Metals that become weaker due to continuing deformation under steady stress at elevated
temperatures, this type of discontinuity is called as:
A. thermal fatigue
B. stress corrosion cracking
C. corrosion
D. creep

325. An inherent discontinuity associated with the original solidification of metal in the ingot is
called:
A. a seam
B. thermal fatigue
C. a hot tear
D. porosity

326. Lamellar tear is the discontinuity occurring in

A. along the fusion zone
B. center of the weld
C. parent metal
D. none of the above

327. When inspecting coarse-grained material, which of the following frequencies will generate a
sound wave that will be least scattered by the grain structure?
A. 1.5 MHz
B. 2.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 1000 kHz

328. An advantage of using lithium sulfate in search units is that it:

A. is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy
B. can withstand temperatures as high as 1000 °C
C. is insoluble in oil
D. is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy

329. If a shear wave probe having 33.4° angle while testing brass plate (VT, brass = 0.205 cm/ s,
VT, steel = 0.323 cm/ s ), the angle of this probe in steel will be
A. less than 34.3°
B. 34.5°
C. 60°
D. 90°

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330. When the incident angle is chosen to be between the first and second critical angles, the
ultrasonic wave generated within the part will be:
A. longitudinal
B. shear
C. surface
D. plate

331. A forged and drawn bar shows a number of transverse subsurface indications along its
length. This type of indication is most likely
A burst.
B. chevron cracks.
C. inclusions.
D. seam
332. Stringer is the defect associated with:
A. forged product.
B. rolled bar.
C. cast ingot.
D. rolled plate.

333. Porosity, misrun and cold shuts are examples of defects encountered in which of the
following processes?
A. Welding.
B. Forging.
C. Grinding.
D. Casting.

334. Second critical angle for Perspex and steel interface would be (VL, perspex = 0.273 cm/ s and
VT, steel = 0.323 cm/ s)
a. 10°
b. 15°
C. 27.5°
D. 57.6°
E. none of the above

335. If Plate thickness = 25.4 mm, pulse-echo, for back wall echo straight beam measured elapsed
time = 8.6 s, what is the most likely material? (VL, steel = 0.59 cm/ s )
A. Steel
B. Lead
C. Titanium
D. Aluminum
336. First critical angle at water-aluminum interface (VL, perspex = 0.273 cm/ s and VL, steel = 0.590
cm/ s) will be
A. 10°
B. 13.5°
C. 27.5°
D. 57.6°
E. none of the above

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337. Resonant equipment generates

A. shear waves
B. longitudinal waves
C. different types of waves
D. pulsed waves

338. ______ is defined as how well the transducer can signal out two or more discontinuities and
display them as separate signals on the CRT.
A. sensitivity
B. vertical linearity
C. resolution
D. horizontal linearity

339. The formula used to determine the angle of beam divergence of a crystal is (where = beam
divergence half angle, = wave length, D = diameter of probe, f = frequency)
A. sin = D/2
B. sin = f
C. sin = f D
D. sin /2= 1.2 / D

340. For the best reproduction of ultrasonic signal, _______ is used.

A. narrowband transducer
B. wideband transducer
C. wide pulse
D. narrow pulse

341. Lucite probe wedges _________ transducer sensitivity.

A. do not affect
B. increase
C. reduce
D. none of the above

342. Surface waves are reduced to an energy level of approximately l/25th of the original power at
a depth of:
A. 1/2 wavelength
B. 1 wavelength
C. 2 wavelength
D. 4 wavelengths
343. The simple experiment where a stick in a glass of water appears disjointed at the water
surface illustrates the phenomenon of:
A. reflection
B. attenuation
C. refraction
D. diffraction

344. The TOFD image is

A. A-scan
B. B-scan
C. C-scan
D. None of the above
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345. Flaw gates increases test

A. sensitivity
B. reliability
C. speed
D. both B and C

346. A short burst of alternating electrical energy is called:

A. a continuous wave
B. a pulse
C. an ultrasonic wave
D. X-rays
347. In what area TOFD is uncertain?
A. Near surface
B. Far surface
C. Weld area
D. Both A and B

348. What is the decibel difference between two signals on the display with one at 85% full
screen height and the other at 17% full screen height?
A. 7 dB
B. 14 dB
C. 2 dB
D. 15 dB

349. The formula used the fundamental resonant frequency is (where v = velocity of longitudinal
wave, = wave length, T = thickness of test object, f = frequency)
A. f = v T
B. f = v/ T
C. f = T/ v
D. f = v/ 2T
350. A high voltage applied to crystal is normally in the range of
A. 0 10 V
B. 10 100 V
C. 100 2000 V
D. 1000 5000 V
351. Attenuation caused by scattering increases with
A. decreased frequency and grain size
B. increased frequency and grain size
C. decreased frequency and larger grain size
D. decreased frequency and larger diameter of the probe
352. For testing of materials like concrete and rubber etc. for deeper penetration, it is advisable to
use
A. short pulses
B. sinusoidal excitation
C. highly damped probes
D. none of the above

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353. Ultrasonic transducers produce which sound waves in the probe shoe?
A. Surface waves
B. Plate waves
C. Transverse waves
D. All of the above

354. Which of the following modes of vibration has the lowest velocity in a given material?
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Shear wave
C. Surface wave
D. Compression wave

355. Ultrasonic wave velocity in a given material is

A. constant for a given wave mode
B. equal to frequency × wavelength
C. different for different wave modes
D. all of the above

356. EMAT applied sound waves are generated within the

A. coil
B. material
C. liftoff
D. piezoelectric crystal

357. Rayleigh waves are influenced most by defects located:

A. one wavelength below the surface
B. six wavelengths below the surface
C. three wavelengths below the surface
D. all of the above

358. Sound wave velocity is not dependent on

A. the material under test
B. the mode of vibration
C. the transducer frequency
D. none of the above

359. Acoustic velocities are determined by:

A. density
B. elasticity
C. wave mode
D. all of the above

360. (Sin l) V2 = (Sin 2 ) V1 is a form of

A. Krautkramer's law
B. Snell's law
C. Boyle's law
D. Hooke's law

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361. The frequency of a transducer is primarily a function of:

A. the amplifier characteristics
B. the thickness of the crystal
C. the pulse repetition frequency
D. all of the above

362. The angle of refraction is:

A. determined by Snell's Law
B. dependent on material velocities
C. different for different wave modes
D. all of the above

363. Which of the following material characteristics may affect the acoustic attenuation in the
material?
A. Grain size
B. Couplant
C. Acoustic impedance
D. All of the above

364. Plate waves are

A. faster than shear waves, but slower than compressional waves
B. slower than shear waves
C. as fast as Rayleigh waves
D. none of the above

365. The shape of an ultrasonic beam located in the far zone can be considered as:
A. cylindrical
B. spherical
C. pyramidal
D. none of the above

366. In the formula Sin 1 / V1 = Sin 2 / V2, V is used to represent:

A. angles
B. velocities
C. amount of reflected sound energy
D. acoustic impedances

367. Resonance testing equipment generally utilizes

A. pulsed longitudinal waves
B. continuous longitudinal waves
C. pulsed shear waves
D. continuous shear waves

368. Which of the following are true about beam divergence?

A. It is affected by wavelength
B. It is affected by acoustic impedance
C. It is affected by the coupling
D. All of the above

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369. The ability to resolve two discontinuities at different depths would be improved by:
A. decreasing the frequency
B. shortening the pulse duration
C. increasing the amplitude of the initial pulse
D. none of the above

370. The length of the near zone is dependent upon which of the following?
A. The diameter of the transducer
B. The frequency of the transducer
C. The angle of the transducer
D. All of the above
E. Both A and B

371. A test method in which the ultrasonic sound is emitted by a transmitting search unit,
transmitted through the test part and picked up by a second receiving search unit on the opposite
boundary is called:
A. surface wave testing
B. angle beam testing
C. through-transmission testing
D. all of the above

372. In immersion testing, focusing of the sound beam is accomplished with:

A. an acoustic lens
B. two separate probes
C. a shorter than usual stand-off
D. a higher frequency probe

373. The process of adjusting the settings of an instrument to a reference standard is referred to
as:
A. zeroing
B. metrology
C. distance-amplitude correction
D. calibration

374. In ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the part
surface is necessary:
A. to minimize wear on the probe surface
B. because an air interface would almost completely reflect the acoustic energy
C. because the crystal will not vibrate if in contact with the part surface
D. to complete the electrical circuit between the part and the crystal

375. When a plate contains coarse inclusions, what effect do they have on the A-scan signal?
A. Small defect indications only
B. Some loss of back echo only
C. Small defect indications and some loss of back echo
D. A horizontal shift in the back echo

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376. In immersion testing, the first echo after the initial pulse is:
A. the water / test specimen interface
B. the test specimen backwall echo
C. the water backwall echo
D. the probe / water interface

377. EMAT stands for

A. electromagnetic acoustic testing
B. electromagnetic acoustic transducer
C. electromagnetic amplification transducer
D. electromagnetic acoustic transformer

378. When changing to testing a material of different velocity, correct measurements can be
obtained by:
A. using a measureable section of the test material to recalibrate
B. converting the readings using a formula
C. recalibrating using a block of the same material as the test material
D. all of the above

379. Necessary properties of ultrasonic couplants are:

A. good acoustic Transmission
B. non-corrosive on the test material
C. viscosity to fill the probe to test surface gap
D. all of the above

380. The velocity of sound waves is dependent on:

A. the pulse length
B. the frequency
C. the material in which the sound is being transmitted and the mode of vibration
D. none of the above

381. The angle of reflection is:

A. equal to the angle of incidence
B. dependent on the couplant used
C. equal to the angle of refraction
D. none of the above

382. Apart from transfer loss, other signal losses can be caused by:
A. beam spread
B. attenuation
C. test piece geometry
D. all of the above

383. Provided that the orientation of the following discontinuity types is at 90 degrees to the
incident ultrasonic beam, and are all of comparable size, which of the following types would be
most easily detected?
A. Planar longitudinal
B. Threadlike
C. Spherical
D. Threadlike longitudinal

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384. Thickness testing is usually accomplished using:

A. pulse echo method
B. tip diffraction method
C. surface waves
D. none of the above

385. Excessive noise and a lack of back wall reflection can be improved by:
A. improving the coupling
B. increasing the test probe frequency
C. normalizing the material
D. none of the above

386. The intended purpose of the adjustable calibrated attenuator of an ultrasonic instrument is to
A. control transducer damping
B. increase the dynamic range of the instrument
C. broaden the frequency range
D. attenuate the voltage applied to the transducer

387. Which of the following might result in increased transmission of ultrasound within a coarse
grained material?
A. Perform the examination with a smaller diameter transducer
B. Perform the examination after a grain refining heat treatment
C. Change from a contact examination to an immersion examination
D. Change from a longitudinal to a transverse wave

388. In a forging flaws associated with nonmetallic inclusions can most accurately be described as
having which of the following orientation?
A. Parallel to the major axis
B. Parallel to the minor axis
C. Aligned with forging flow lines
D. At approximately 45 to the forging direction

389. When maximum sensitivity is required from a transducer,

A. a straight-beam unit should be used
B. large diameter crystals are required
C. the piezoelectric element should be drived at its fundamental resonant frequency
D. the band width of the transducer should be as large as possible

390. Which of the following 1MHz search units should normally have the best time or distance
resolution?
A. Quartz transducer with air backing
B. Quartz transducer with phenolic backing
C. Barium titanate transducer with phenolic backing
D. Lithium sulfate transducer with epoxy backing

391. The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating a
discontinuity is:
A. shear wave
B. longitudinal wave
C. surface wave
D. compression wave
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392. The particle motion for Rayleigh waves is usually described as

A. sinusoidal
B. circular
C. elliptical
D. shear

393. Based upon wave theory and ignoring attenuation losses, the echo amplitude is:
A. directly proportional to the distance to the reflector
B. inversely proportional to the distance to the reflector
C. directly proportional to the square of the distance to the reflector
D. inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the reflector

394. ______ pulse is applied to the electrodes of the ultrasonic search unit.
A. electrical
B. mechanical
C. electro-mechanical
D. piezoelectrical

395. In ultrasonic, knowledge of the velocity of sound in a given material is necessary in

determining
A. the specific acoustic impedance of the material
B. the angle of refraction in the material
C. the depth of an indication in the material
D. all of the above

396. The ability of a test system to separate the front surface echo and the echo from a small
discontinuity just below the surface
A. depends primarily upon the shape of the initial pulse from the transducer
B. is no related to the surface roughness of the part under inspection
C. is primarily related to the thickness of the part under inspection
D. is usually improved by using a larger diameter search unit

397. Search unit sensitivity is most often determined by

A. calculations based on frequency and thickness of piezoelectric element
B. the amplitude of the response from an artificial discontinuity
C. comparing it to a similar search unit made by the same manufacturer
D. determining the ringing time of search unit

398. It is possible for a discontinuity smaller that the transducer to produce indications of
fluctuating amplitude as the search unit is moved laterally if testing is being performed in the:
A. Frauahofer zone
B. near field
C. Snell field
D. shadow zone

399. Notches provide good reference discontinuities when UT examination is conducted to

primarily detect defects such as:
A. porosity in rolled plate
B. inadequate penetration at the root of weld
C. weld porosity
D. internal inclusions
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400. An advantage of using EMAT is:

A. couplant-free operation
B. to operate at elevated temperatures
C. to operate at elevated speeds
D. to operate in remote environments
E. all of the above

401. A disadvantage of using EMAT is:

A. couplant-free operation
B. to operate at elevated temperatures
C. to operate at elevated speeds
D. low efficiency factor
E. all of the above

402. What kind of waves EMAT can generate?

A. Shear waves
B. Lamb waves (guided waves)
C. Longitudinal waves
D. All of the above

403. The specimen is coupled to EMAT by:

A. core coupling
B. impedance ratio
C. magnetic domains
D. electromagnetic field
404. Limb waves can be used to detect:
A. laminar-type defects near the surface of a thin material
B. lack of fusion in the center of a thick weldment
C. internal voids in diffusion bonds
D. thickness changes in heavy plate material

405. What could be a maximum liftoff for EMAT?

A. Up to 1 mm
B. Up to 6 mm
C. Up to 10 mm
D. Up to 12 mm

406. What causes the ultrasound effect using EMAT in electric conductive materials?
A. Lorenz force
B. Magnetostriction
C. Piezoelectric effect
D. All of the above
E. Both A and B

407. The reference holes required to produce a 3 mm FBH for DAC are
A. flat- bottomed holes
B. concave-surface holes
C. convex-surface holes
D. corneal-shaped holes

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408. The length of the near zone is not dependent upon which of the following?
A. The diameter of the transducer
B. The frequency of the transducer
C. The velocity of sound in the test material
D. The relative acoustic impedance of the coupling medium

409. What causes the ultrasound effect using EMAT in ferromagnetic materials?
A. Lorenz force
B. Magnetostriction
C. Piezoelectric effect
D. All of the above
E. Both A and B

410. When the sonic BondMaster has been out of service for an extended period,
A. accomplish all process control checks
B. allow a 30 minute warm-up prior to use
C. send the unit to PMEL for calibration
D. perform a visual and electrical inspection prior to use

411. Two basic types of plate (Lamb) waves exist. These are the
A. symmetrical and dilational
B. symmetrical and asymmetrical
C. asymmetrical and rotational
D. perpendicular and normal

412. The output voltage from a saturated amplifier is

A. 180 out of phase from the input voltage
B. lower than the input voltage
C. nonlinear with respect to the input voltage
D. below saturation

413. When an ultrasound beam travels from a liquid into a metal through a contoured surface, the
ultrasound beam inside the metal will
A. have larger beam diameter
B. have same beam diameter
C. not be affected by the part geometry
D. be convergent if the surface is concave, and convergent if the surface is convex

414. Resonance testing methods are used for

A. determining Poisson's ratio
B. flaw detection
C. thickness testing
D. all of the above

415. The transmitted pulse at the output of the pulser usually has a voltage of 100 to 1000 V,
whereas the voltages of the echo at the input of the amplifier are on the order of
A. 10 V
B. 50 V
C. 0.001 to 1 V
D. 1 to 10 V

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416. As the pulse length of the excitation voltage is shortened the transmitted pulse
A. frequency spectrum broadens
B. frequency spectrum shortens
C. increases energy output
D. increases penetration ability

417. The method whereby sound is transmitted through a plate; from a transmitter on one side to a
receiver on the other:
A. is used to characterize flaws
B. is called a through-transmission method
C. is used to determine flaw depth
D. all of the above

418. Generation of ultrasound waves with EMAT is possible

A. electric conductive materials
B. all types of materials
C. ferromagnetic materials
D. both A and C

419. Shear (Transverse) waves have a velocity of about ______ that of longitudinal
(compressional) wave in the same material.
A. 1/5
B. 1/3
C. 9.10
D. 1/2

420. The key to an effective through transmission inspection is

A. proper frequency selection
B. proper couplant application
C. transducer alignment
D. wave mode selection

421. The half skip distance on a 16 mm thick plate with a 70º probe is
A. 24 mm
B. 33 mm
C. 44 mm
D. 64 mm

422. When testing a part with a rough surface as compared to a similar-part with a smooth
surface, one should generally use
A. a higher frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant
B. a lower frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant
C. a higher frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant
D. a lower frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant

423. When working with flat-bottomed holes for calibration or evaluation purposes what is the
relationship between a # 6 FBH and a # 3 FBH?
A. 5%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%

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424. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006) the near vision acuity examination is to be done for those persons
working with UT
A. once in six months
B. every two years
C. annually
D. none of the above

425. Ultrasonic wave transmitted into and received from the test material in the form of repetitive
bursts of acoustic energy is called:
A. pulse-echo testing
B. continuous ware testing
C. resonance testing
D. none of the above

426. Longitudinal waves do propagate in

A. solids
B. gases
C. liquids
D. all of the above

427. Preventing the decrease of sensitivity close to a wall, which is parallel to the beam direction,
the probe used should be
A. as small as possible
B. of as low frequency
C. both A and B
D. large and with a frequency as high as possible

428. In general when a discontinuity is thin it is a poor reflector. The maximum reflection is
obtained when the thickness of the discontinuity is equal to at least:
A. one-quarter wavelength
B. one-half wavelength
C. one wavelength
D. even multiples of one-half wavelength

429. Color contrast differentiation examination for those persons working with UT should be
conducted
A. annually
B. upon initial certification
C. at 3-year intervals after initial certification
D. at 5-year intervals after initial certification
E. both B and D

430. From the equation for the length of the near field it can be determined that the near field can
be minimized by:
A. decreasing water travel distance
B. increasing transducer diameter
C. decreasing the size of reference targets
D. decreasing test frequency

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431. What water path is needed when using a straight beam transducer with 101 mm focal length
(4 in.) to place the focal spot at a bond line 17 mm deep in copper? (VT, copper = 0.466 cm/ s,
VL,water = 0.148 cm/ s )
A. 40 mm
B. 47.5 mm
C. 84 mm
D. 101 mm

432. The length of the near filed of a transducer is calculated by using the formula
A. N = D f / (4 v)
B. N = D2 f / (4 v)
C. N = D2 f / v
D. N = D2 f / (2 v)

433. When contact testing, an increase in tightness of a shrink fit to a hollow shaft will cause the
ratio of the back reflection to the metal-to-metal interface reflection to:
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unchanged
D. cannot be predicted as the response is material-dependent

434. The thickness range of UT resonance thickness is

A. using large transducers
B. operating at the fundamental frequency
C. operating at a harmonic frequency
D. increasing the voltage

435. The length of the near field for a 2.5 cm diameter, 5MHz transducer placed in oil (v = 1.4 ×
105 cm/s) is approximately
A. 0.28 cm
B. 6.25 cm
C. 55.8 cm
D. 22.3 cm

436. Which of the following is an advantage of contact ultrasonic testing?

A. Portable
B. The depth of defect could be measured
C. Both surface and sub-surface flaw detection
D. All of the above

437. The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small defects is a definition for:
A. resolution
B. sensitivity
C. definition
D. gain

438. The skip distance on a 10 mm thick plate with a 45º probe is

A. 8.5 mm
B. 13 mm
C. 17.1 mm
D. 20 mm

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439. What would be the wavelength of the energy in lead (v = 2.1 × 105 cm/sec) if it is tested with
a 25 MHz transducer?
A. 119 cm
B. 0.525 cm
C. 0.0119 cm
D. 0.0084 cm

440. An amplifier in which received echo pulses must exceed a certain threshold voltage before
they can be indicated might be used to:
A. suppress amplifier noise unimportant scatter echoes or small flaw echoes which are of no
consequence
B. provide a screen display with nearly ideal vertical linearity characteristics
C. compensate for the unavoidable effects of material attenuation losses
D. provide distance amplitude correction automatically

441. The wavelength of an ultrasonic wave is:

A. directly proportional to velocity and frequency
B. directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional to frequency
C. inversely proportional to velocity and directly proportional to frequency
D. none of the above

442. A typical application of shear waves in ultrasonic testing is the:

A. welds
B. plate
C. pipe and tubing
D. all of the above

443. Beam divergence is a function of the dimensions of the crystal and the wavelength of the
beam transmitted through the medium, and it
A. increases if the frequency or crystal diameter is decreased
B. decreases if the frequency or crystal diameter is decreased
C. increases if the frequency is increased and crystal diameter decreased
D. decreases if the frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased

444. Which of the following is a disadvantage of contact ultrasonic testing?

A. Couplant may contaminate the test part
B. Good surface finish of the test part required
C. Specific nature of defect identification
D. All of the above

445. In an ultrasonic test system where signal amplitudes are displayed on a CRT, an advantage of
a frequency independent attenuator over a continuously variable gain control is that:
A. the pulse shape distortion is less
B. the signal amplitude measured using the attenuator is independent of frequency
C. the dynamic range of the system is decreased
D. the effect of amplification threshold is avoided

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446. The rate generator is B-scan equipment will invariably be directly connected to the
A. CRT intensity circuit
B. pulser circuit
C. RF amplifier circuit
D. horizontal sweep circuit

447. Snell's law is given by a form of

A. (Sin l) V1 = (Sin 2 ) V2
B. (Sin l) V2 = (Sin 2 ) V1
C. V2 = (Sin 2 ) V1
D. none of the above

448. The principal attributes that determine the differences in ultrasonic velocities among
materials are:
A. frequency and wavelength
B. thickness and travel time
C. elasticity and density
D. chemistry and permeability

449. The difference between a compression and shear wave is

A. quantitative measure
B. particle direction
C. qualitative measure
D. amplitude

450. The concentration of energy in the far field of a transducer beam:

A. is greatest at the outer edges of the beam
B. is greatest at the center of the beam
C. is the same at the outer edges as in the center of the beam
D. is directly proportional to beam width

451. The term that is used to determine the relative transmittance and reflectance of ultrasonic
energy at an interface is called:
A. acoustic attenuation
B. interface refraction
C. acoustic impedance ratio
D. acoustic frequency

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ASNT NDT LEVEL III

ULTRASONIC TESTING
Answers for Model Question Bank

1 D 31 B 61 B 91 B 121 B 151 A 181 B 211 A 241 C 271 B

2 B 32 A 62 C 92 C 122 A 152 D 182 A 212 D 242 B 272 D
3 D 33 C 63 D 93 A 123 B 153 E 183 C 213 E 243 D 273 B
4 A 34 D 64 C 94 A 124 C 154 A 184 A 214 B 244 C 274 B
5 C 35 C 65 B 95 A 125 C 155 C 185 C 215 B 245 C 275 D
6 A 36 A 66 A 96 C 126 B 156 A 186 A 216 D 246 D 276 B
7 C 37 A 67 C 97 C 127 C 157 D 187 D 217 B 247 A 277 D
8 B 38 C 68 A 98 C 128 A 158 C 188 C 218 D 248 C 278 B
9 C 39 A 69 C 99 A 129 C 159 B 189 B 219 C 249 D 279 B
10 D 40 B 70 D 100 B 130 C 160 C 190 C 220 D 250 B 280 C
11 A 41 B 71 B 101 A 131 C 161 A 191 A 221 C 251 B 281 B
12 C 42 A 72 C 102 C 132 D 162 B 192 C 222 D 252 C 282 D
13 C 43 A 73 A 103 C 133 A 163 A 193 B 223 D 253 A 283 D
14 A 44 C 74 A 104 A 134 A 164 A 194 D 224 C 254 B 284 C
15 D 45 C 75 C 105 D 135 A 165 C 195 B 225 D 255 A 285 B
16 B 46 A 76 C 106 B 136 B 166 D 196 B 226 D 256 A 286 D
17 C 47 D 77 B 107 A 137 A 167 C 197 D 227 D 257 A 287 C
18 D 48 B 78 D 108 C 138 B 168 C 198 A 228 A 258 B 288 B
19 C 49 A 79 C 109 D 139 D 169 D 199 D 229 D 259 B 289 C
20 D 50 A 80 B 110 D 140 C 170 D 200 D 230 C 260 C 290 B
21 C 51 A 81 B 111 B 141 A 171 C 201 C 231 C 261 B 291 D
22 D 52 C 82 C 112 C 142 B 172 B 202 C 232 B 262 A 292 B
23 B 53 A 83 A 113 B 143 C 173 B 203 A 233 C 263 C 293 B
24 B 54 C 84 B 114 A 144 B 174 A 204 B 234 B 264 B 294 B
25 A 55 A 85 D 115 C 145 A 175 C 205 B 235 A 265 A 295 D
26 C 56 A 86 B 116 B 146 B 176 D 206 A 236 D 266 C 296 B
27 A 57 C 87 B 117 B 147 A 177 D 207 C 237 C 267 C 297 D
28 C 58 A 88 A 118 B 148 D 178 A 208 C 238 A 268 A 298 C
29 C 59 D 89 B 119 B 149 B 179 A 209 A 239 C 269 B 299 B
30 C 60 A 90 C 120 C 150 B 180 C 210 C 240 B 270 D 300 D

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301 D 321 B 341 C 361 B 381 A 401 D 421 C 441 B

302 C 322 C 342 B 362 D 382 B 402 D 422 B 442 D
303 A 323 C 343 D 363 A 383 A 403 D 423 B 443 A
304 B 324 B 344 B 364 B 384 A 404 A 424 C 444 D
305 D 325 C 345 D 365 B 385 A 405 A 425 A 445 B
306 B 326 C 346 B 366 B 386 B 406 A 426 D 446 B
307 D 327 D 347 D 367 B 387 B 407 A 427 D 447 B
308 A 328 D 348 B 368 A 388 C 408 D 428 B 448 C
309 C 329 C 349 D 369 B 389 C 409 E 429 E 449 B
310 C 330 B 350 C 370 E 390 C 410 A 430 D 450 B
311 C 331 B 351 B 371 C 391 C 411 B 431 B 451 C
312 B 332 D 352 B 372 A 392 C 412 A 432 B
313 A 333 D 353 D 373 D 393 D 413 D 433 A
314 A 334 D 354 C 374 B 394 A 414 C 434 C
315 C 335 A 355 D 375 C 395 D 415 C 435 C
316 A 336 B 356 B 376 A 396 A 416 A 436 D
317 D 337 B 357 A 377 B 397 A 417 B 437 B
318 A 338 C 358 C 378 D 398 B 418 D 438 C
319 B 339 D 359 D 379 D 399 B 419 C 439 D
320 D 340 B 360 B 380 C 400 E 420 C 440 A

Prepared by:

PRAVEEN INSTITUTE OF RADIATION TECHNOLOGY

(NDT TRAINING DIVISION)
CHENNAI- 600 063
INDIA

www.pirtchennai.com
Email: [email protected]
13.1

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