Software Engineering II MCQs

1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
Answer is D

2. Which requirements are the foundation from which

quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Answer is B

4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in

manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

5. Which of the following is not included in External failure

costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
Answer is A

6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Answer is C

7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections

have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is C
8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to
find _________ during the process so that they do not
become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned
Answer is A

9. What is not included in prevention costs?

a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Answer is D

10. Which of the following is not a software testing generic

characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different
points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an
independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging
must be accommodated in any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A
11. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group
Answer is D

12. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is

possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the
testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is C

13. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a

successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to
testing
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D

14. Test cases should uncover errors like

a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is A

15. Which of the following errors should not be tested

when error handling is evaluated?
a) Error description is unintelligible
b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error
handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the
location of the cause of the error
Answer is A

16. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the

coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
Answer is B

 17. Which of the following is not regression test case?

a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all
software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are
likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been
changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that
perform a specific software sub-function
Answer is D

18.  Which testing is an integration testing approach that is

commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products
are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
Answer is C

19. Which of the following term describes testing?

a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

20. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer is B
21. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A

22. Maintenance testing is performed using which

methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
Answer is C

23. White Box techniques are also classified as

a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

24. Exhaustive testing is

a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
Answer is C

25. Which of the following is/are White box technique?

a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D

 26. What are the various Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D

27. Boundary value analysis belong to?

a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

28. Alpha testing is done at

a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A

29. The testing in which code is checked

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer is B

30. Testing done without planning and Documentation is

called
a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C

31. Acceptance testing is also known as

a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
Answer is D
32.  Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

 33. Beta testing is done at

a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
c) User’s & Developer’s end
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A

34. SPICE stands for

a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility
Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C

35. Unit testing is done by

a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B
36. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

 37. Which of the following is black box testing

a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

38. Which of the following is not used in measuring the

size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C

39. Standard Enforcer is a

a) Static Testing Tool
b) Dynamic Testing
c) Static & Dynamic Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A

40. Many applications using static analysis find 0.1-0.2%

NCSS. NCSS stands for
a) Non-Code Source Statement
b) Non Comment Source Sentence
c) Non-Comment Source Statement
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is C

41. Which testing tool does a simple job of enforcing

standards in a uniform way of many programs?
a) Static Analyzer
b) Code Inspector
c) Standard Enforcer
d) Both Code Inspector & Standard Enforcer
Answer is D

42. Software Testing with real data in real environment is

known as
a) alpha testing
b) beta testing
c) regression testing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer is B
43. Which of the following testing tools examine program
systematically & automatically?
a) Code Inspector
b) Static Analyzer
c) Standard Enforcer
d) Coverage Analyzer
Answer is B

44. Which testing tool is responsible for documenting

programs ?
a) Test/File Generator
b) Test Harness System
c) Test Archiving Systems
d) Coverage Analyzer
Answer is C

45.  Beta Testing is done by

a) Developers
b) Testers
c) Users
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is C

46. Debugging Program is a program which runs

concurrently with the program under test & provide
commands to
a) examine memory & registers
b) stop execution at a particular point
c) search for references for particular variables, constant and
registers
d) all of the mentioned
Answer is D

47. Execution Verifier is a dynamic tool that is also known

as
a) Test File Generator
b) Coverage Analyzer
c) Output Comparator
d) Test Harness System
Answer is B

48. Quality Management in software engineering is also

known as
a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
Answer is A

49. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user

satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D
 50. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality
Costs?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Answer is D

51. According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be

traced to y% of all causes. What are the values of x and y?
a) 60, 40
b) 70, 30
c) 80, 20
d) No such principle exists
Answer is C

52. What is Six Sigma?

a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality
assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality
assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard
deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality
walkthrough or inspection
Answer is C
53. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
Answer is B

54. Non-conformance to software requirements is known

as
a) Software availability
b) Software reliability
c) Software failure
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C

55. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is

detected in a product prior to shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Answer is B

56. The degree to which the design specifications are

followed during manufacturing is known as
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

57. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes

under which management responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming products
d) Servicing
Answer is A

58. Which of the following is a layer of protection for

Security?
a) Platform-level protection
b) Application-level protection
c) Record-level protection
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D

59. What are security controls?

a) Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are
unsuccessful
b) Controls that are intended to detect and repel attacks
c) Controls that are intended to support recovery from problems
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D
60. Controls that are intended to repel attacks is analogous
to ____________ in dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

61. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are

unsuccessful is analogous to ____________ in
dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) Fault Recovery
Answer is A

62. What is Life cycle risk assessment ?

a) Risk assessment before the system has been deployed
b) Risk assessment while the system is being developed
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C

63. A system resource that has a value and has to be

protected is known as
a) Asset
b) Control
c) Vulnerability
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A

64. The records of each patient that is receiving or has

received treatment resembles which security concept ?
a) Asset
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control
Answer is A

 65. Circumstances that have potential to cause loss or

harm is known as
a) Attack
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control
Answer is B

66. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for

a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer is D
67. Which of the following term is best defined by the
statement: “There will be a change of organizational
management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer is C

68. Which of the following term is best defined by the

statement: “The underlying technology on which the
system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A

69. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation
and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
Answer is A
70. Which of the following risks are derived from the
organizational environment where the software is being
developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer is D

 71. Which of the following risks are derived from the

software or hardware technologies that are used to
develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer is B

72. Which of the following term is best defined by the

statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize
information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C
73. Which of the following strategies means that the impact
of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is B

74. How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements

specification?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
Answer is B

75. Consider a case where the system is unavailable and

cannot deliver its services to users. What type of failure is
being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A

76. Consider a case where the failure of the system causes

damage to the system itself or it data. What type of failure
is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C

 77. POFOD stands for

a) Possibility of failure of data
b) Probability of failure of data
c) Possibility of failure on demand
d) Probability of failure on demand
Answer is D

78. Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of

system failures that are likely to be observed relative to a
certain time period?
a) POFOD
b) ROCOF
c) AVAIL
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

79. Which of the following is not a functional reliability

requirement for a system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements
Answer is D

80. At which stage of risk analysis specification, the

additional security requirements take account of the
technologies used in building the system and system
design and implementation decisions?
a) Preliminary risk analysis
b) Life-cycle risk analysis
c) Operational risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is B

81. Which reliability requirements are concerned with

maintaining copies of the system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements
Answer is C

82. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an

effective standard for software modeling. How many
different notations does it have ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine
Answer is B
83. Which model in system modeling depicts the dynamic
behavior of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model
Answer is B

84. Which model in system modelling depicts the static

nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model
b) Context Model
c) Data Model
d) Structural Model
Answer is D

85. Which perspective in system modelling shows the

system or data architecture?
a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is A

 86. The UML supports event-based modeling using

____________ diagrams.
a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is C

87. Which of the following diagram is not supported by

UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
c) State Chart
d) Component
Answer is B

 88. _________________ allows us to infer that different

members of classes have some common characteristics.
a) Realization
b) Aggregation
c) Generalization
d) dependency
Answer is C

 89. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML

represent Interaction modeling.
a) Use Case, Sequence
b) Class, Object
c) Activity, State Chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is A
90. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD)
models all entities and relationships ?
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4
Answer is B

 91. ___________ classes are used to create the interface

that the user sees and interacts with as the software is
used.
a) Controller
b) Entity
c) Boundary
d) Business
Answer is C

92. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding

the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling?
a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case
diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling
b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given
a subset of the CRC model index cards
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is C
93. Which of the following is not project management
goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer is D

94. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in

project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer is C

95. The process each manager follows during the life of a

project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is C

96.  A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer is D

97. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you

should use when computing the costs of a software
development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and
managers)
d) all of the mentioned
Answer is D

98. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality

plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer is B

99.  Which of the following is incorrect activity for the

configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer is A

100. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer is B

101. Which of the following is an important factor that can

affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty
102. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity
Answer is B

101. A number of independent investigators have

developed a team-oriented approach to requirements
gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a
project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C

102. CLSS stands for

a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification
Answer is A

103. The project planner examines the statement of scope

and extracts all important software functions which is
known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is B

104. The environment that supports the software project is

called
a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE
Answer is B
105. Which of the following is not an option to achieve
reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been
completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and
effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate
project cost and effort estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort,
calendar time, and dollars
Answer is D

106. What can be used to complement decomposition

techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation
approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation
models
Answer is B

 107. Which of the following is not achieved by an

automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands
Answer is D

108. Which of the following are parameters involved in

computing the total cost of a software development
project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D

109. Which of the following costs is not part of the total

effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff
Answer is C

110. What is related to the overall functionality of the

delivered software?
a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is A
111. A _________ is developed using historical cost
information that relates some software metric to the
project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgment
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
Answer is A

112. Which technique is applicable when other projects in

the same analogy application domain have been
completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgment
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
Answer is C

113. Which model assumes that systems are created from

reusable components, scripting or database
programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer is A
114. Which of the following states that work expands to fill
the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgment
Answer is C

 115. Which model is used during early stages of the

system design after the requirements have been
established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design mode
Answer is D

 116. Which model is used to compute the effort required

to integrate reusable components or program code that is
automatically generated by design or program translation
tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer is C
117. Which of the following is the reason that software is
delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in
schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in
advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in
advance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D

118. Which of the following is an activity that distributes

estimated effort across the planned project duration by
allocating the effort to specific software engineering
tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B

119. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a

specific team member is termed as
a) Compartmentalization
b) Defined milestones
c) Defined responsibilities
d) Defined outcomes
Answer is C
120. What is a collection of software engineering work
tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be
accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is A

121. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of

people are allocated at any given time in Software
Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
c) Defined Milestone
d) Effort Distribution
Answer is B

122. What is used to determine the recommended degree

of rigor with which the software process should be applied
on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria
c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria
Answer is B
123. What evaluates the risk associated with the
technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
d) Customer reaction to the concept
Answer is B

124. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for

software projects?
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints
c) Project staff
d) Mission criticality
Answer is B

 125. Which of the following is a project scheduling method

that can be applied to software development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM
Answer is D

126. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of

progress is known as
a) BCWS
b) EVA
c) BAC
d) CBSE
Answer is B

127. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a

project?
a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20
Answer is A

128. The two dimensions of spiral model are

a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
Answer is C

 129. The Incremental Model is combination of elements of

a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
Answer is C

130. Model preferred to create client/server applications is

a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model
Answer is B

131. Identify the correct statement with respect to

Evolutionary development:
a) Evolutionary development usually has two flavors;
exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary
development based approach
c) It facilitates easy project management, through the high
volume of documentation it generates
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not
followed by a re- implementation of the software system using a
more structured approach
Answer is A
 132. Software evolution does not comprises:
a) Development activities
b) Negotiating with client
c) Maintenance activities
d) Re-engineering activities
Answer is B

133. Processes for evolving a software product depend on:

a) Type of software to be maintained
b) Development processes used
c) Skills and experience of the people involved
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D

 134. Which technique is applied to ensure the continued

evolution of legacy systems ?
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Answer is D

135. Software Maintenance includes

a) Error corrections
b) Enhancements of capabilities
c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d) All of the mentioned
Answer is D

136. Maintenance is classified into how many categories?

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer is C
137. The modification of the software to match changes in
the ever changing environment, falls under which category
of software maintenance?
a) Corrective
b) Adaptive
c) Perfective
d) Preventive
Answer is B

138.  How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance

Model?
a) six
b) seven
c) eight
d) nine
Answer is C

139. What type of software testing is generally used in

Software Maintenance?
a) Regression Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) Unit Testing
Answer is A

 140. Selective retest techniques may be more economical

than the “retest-all”technique.How many selective retest
techniques are there?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer is B

141. Which selective retest technique selects every test

case that causes a modified program to produce a different
output than its original version?
a) Coverage
b) Minimization
c) Safe
d) Maximization
Answer is C

142. ______________ measures the ability of a regression

test selection technique to handle realistic applications
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness
Answer is C

 143. Which regression test selection technique exposes

faults caused by modifications?
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness
Answer is D

144. The process of generating analysis and design

documents is known as
a) Software engineering
b) Software re-engineering
c) Reverse engineering
d) Re-engineering
Answer is C

145. What is a software patch?

a) Required or Critical Fix
b) Emergency Fix
c) Daily or routine Fix
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is B
146. Which one of the following is not a maintenance
model?
a) Waterfall model
b) Reuse-oriented model
c) Iterative enhancement model
d) Quick fix model
Answer is A
 147. What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for
software maintenance?
a) Actual change track
b) Annual change track
c) Annual change traffic
d) Actual change traffic
Answer is C

148. Choose the suitable options with respect to

regression testing.
a) It helps in development of software
b) It helps in maintenance of software
c) It helps in development & maintenance of software
d) none of the mentioned
Answer is C

149. What are legacy systems?

a) new systems
b) old systems
c) under-developed systems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer is B

150. Which of the following manuals is a user

documentation?
a) SRS -Software Requirement Specification
b) SDD -Software Design Document
c) System Overview
d) None of the mentioned
Answer is C