Thermodynamics - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and

Answers for Compitative exams

Labels: Mechanical Engineering

1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.

Ans: d

2. Which qf the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
(a) Boyle's law
(b) Charles'law
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(d) all of the above
(e) Joule's law.

Ans: d

3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Ans: d

4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is

(a) kilogram
(b) gram
(c) tonne
(d) quintal
(e) newton.
Ans: a

5. The unit of time in S.I. units is

(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) year.
Ans: a

6. The unit of length in S.I. units is

(a) meter
(b) centimeter
(c) kilometer
(d) millimeter.
Ans: a

7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

(a) watt
(b) joule
(c) joule/s
(d) joule/m
(e) joule m.
Ans: b

8. According to GayLussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies
directly as
(a) temperature
(b) absolute
(c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e) remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.
Ans: c

9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies

(a) more volume
(b) less volume
(c) same volume
(d) unpredictable behavior
(e) no such correlation.
Ans: a

10. General gas equation is

(a) PV=nRT
(b) PV=mRT
(d) PV = C
(c) PV=KiRT
(e) Cp-Cv = Wj
Ans: b

11. According to Dalton's law, the total pressure of the mixture of gases is equal to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.
Ans: c

12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within
the commonly encountered temperature limits.
(a) 02, N2, steam, C02
(b) Oz, N2, water vapour
(c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
(d) 02, N2, H2, air
(e) steam vapours, H2, C02.
Ans: d

13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is

(a) kg/cm2
(b) mm of water column
(c) pascal
(d) dynes per square cm
(e) bars
Ans: c

14. A closed system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Ans: a

15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to

(a) its heating value
(b) kinetic energy of molecules
(c) repulsion of molecules
(d) attraction of molecules
(e) surface tension of molecules.
Ans: b

16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.
Ans: c
17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic
(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.
Ans: a

18. The pressure a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
(a) E/3
(b) E/2
(c) 3E/4
(d)2E/3
(e) 5E/4.
Ans: d

19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
(a) T
(b) j
(c) J2
(d) Vr
(e) 1/Vr.
Ans: a

20. Superheated vapour behaves

(a) exactly as gas
(b) as steam
(c) as ordinary vapour
(d) approximately as a gas
(e) as average of gas and vapour.
Ans: d

21. Absolute zero pressure will occur

(a) at sea level
(b) at the center of the earth
(c) when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(d) under vacuum conditions
(e) at a temperature of - 273 °K
Ans: c

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at

(a) - 273 °K
(b) vacuum
(c) zero pressure
(d) centre of earth
(e) in space.
Ans: c

23. The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) erg
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: d

24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
(a) a temperature of - 273.16°C
(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can't be attained.
Ans: a

25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value

(a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) remains constant.
Ans: b

26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to

(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.24
(d) 1.0
(e) 1.41
Ans: c

27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to

(a) C/Cv
(b) Cv/Cp
(c) Cp - Cv
(d) Cp + Cv
(e) Cp x Cv
Ans: c

28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by

(a) 1 law
(b) 2 laws
(c) 3 laws
(d) 4 laws
Ans: d

29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to

(a) 0.17
(b) 0.24
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.41
(e) 2.71.
Ans: d

30. Boyle's law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under

(a) all ranges of pressures
(b) only small range of pressures
(c) high range of pressures
(d) steady change of pressures
(e) atmospheric conditions.
Ans: b

31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
(a) Charles' law
(b) Joule's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Boyle's law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: b

32. The same volume of all gases would represent their

(a) densities
(b) specific weights
(c) molecular weights
(d) gas characteristic constants
(e) specific gravities.
Ans: c

33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and
pressures
(a) Charles' Law
(b) Joule's Law
(c) Regnault's Law
(d) Boyle's Law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: c

34. An open system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: c

35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original
volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure remains constant
(a) Joule's law
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Charles' law.
Ans: e

36. Gases have

(a) only one value of specific heat
(b) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.
Ans: b

37. According to Avogadro Hypothesis

(a) the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under same
conditions of pressure and temperature
(b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two
(c) product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant
(d) gases have two values of specific heat
(e) all systems can be regarded as closed systems.
Ans: a

38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value

(a) depends on the mass of the system like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) is always constant.
Ans: a

39. Work done in a free expansion process is

(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.
Ans: c

40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as
(a) Avogadro's hypothesis
(b) Dalton's law
(c) Gas law
(d) Law of thermodynamics
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: a

41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimeter analysis, the relative volume of each
constituent of the flue gases is
(a) divided by its molecular weight
(b) multiplied by its molecular weight
(c) multiplied by its density
(d) multiplied by its specific weight
(e) divided by its specific weight.
Ans: b

42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be
equal to
(a) + v
(b) - ve
(c) zero
(d) pressure x volume
(e) any where between zero and infinity.
Ans: c

43. An isolated system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: b

44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic

coordinates are
(a) path functions
(b) point functions
(c) cyclic functions
(d) real functions
(e) thermodynamic functions.
Ans: b
45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Ans: d

46. According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
(a) occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight
(b) occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
(c) occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
(e) occupies same volume.
Ans: e

47. Mixture of ice and water form a

(a) closed system
(b) open system
(c) isolated system
(d) heterogeneous system
(e) thermodynamic system.
Ans: d

48. Which of the following is the property of a system

(a) pressure and temperature
(b) internal energy
(c) volume and density
(d) enthalpy and entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen

(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 73
(e) 79.
Ans: b

50. Which of the following is not the intensive property

(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.
Ans: d

51. Which of the following items is not a path function

(a) heat
(b) work
(c) kinetic energy
(d) vdp
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: e

52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on
(a) the end states only
(b) particular adiabatic process
(c) the value of index n
(d) the value of heat transferred
(e) mass of the system.
Ans: a

53. Heat and work are

(a) point functions
(b) system properties
(c) path functions
(d) intensive properties
(e) extensive properties.
Ans: c

54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given
temperature and pressure
(a) enthalpy
(b) volume
(c) mass
(d) entropy
(e) specific volume.
Ans: b

55. The value of n = 1 in the poly tropic process indicates it to be

(a) reversible process
(b) isothermal process
(c) adiabatic process
(d) irreversible process
(e) free expansion process.
Ans: b

56. Solids and liquids have

(a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.
Ans: a

57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final
temperature is
(a) 54°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 108°C
(d) 654°C
(e) 600°C
Ans: b

58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion
(a) pV"=C
(b) isothermal
(c) adiabatic
(d) free expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: b

59. If value of n is infinitely large in a poly tropic process pV" = C, then the process is known
as constant
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) temperature
(d) enthalpy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when
(a) flow is uniform and steady
(b) process is isentropic
(c) process is isothermal
(d) process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
(e) process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.
Ans: d

61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at

(a) constant pressure
(b) constant temperature
(c) constant volume
(d) constant entropy
(e) N.T.P. condition.
Ans: a
62. The term N.T.P. stands for
(a) nominal temperature and pressure
(b) natural temperature and pressure
(c) normal temperature and pressure
(d) normal thermodynamic practice
(e) normal thermodynamic pressure.
Ans: c

63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is
known as
(a) heat exchange process
(b) throttling process
(c) is entropic process
(d) adiabatic process
(e) hyperbolic process.
Ans: e

64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas
(e) shows unpredictable behavior.
Ans: c

65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

(a) deals with conversion of mass and energy
(b) deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
(c) states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal
equilibrium with each other
(d) deals with heat engines
(e) does not exist.
Ans: c

66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final
temperature of mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 20°C
(e) 60°C.
Ans: b

67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by

(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermodynamics
(d) third law of thermodynamics
(e) Avogadro's hypothesis.
Ans: a

68. One watt is equal to

(a) 1 Nm/s
(b) 1 N/mt
(c) 1 Nm/hr
(d) 1 kNm/hr
(e) 1 kNm/mt.
Ans: a

69. Work done is zero for the following process

(a) constant volume
(b) free expansion
(c) throttling
(d) all Of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error
(a) dry steam
(b) wet steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam
(e) steam at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: d

71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m
to 2 m3. The work done will be about
(a) 100 xlOO5 joules
(b) lxlO5 joules
(c) 10 xlO5 joules
(d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules
(e) 10xl04ki\ojoules.
Ans: c

72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the
gases in M.K.S. unit is
(a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
(b) 8314kgfm/mol°K
(c) 848kgfm/mol°K
(d) 427kgfm/mol°K
(e) 735 kgfm/mol°K.
Ans: c
73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 77
(e) 79.
Ans: a

74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
(a) specific heat at constant pressure
(b) specific heat at constant volume
(c) ratio of two specific heats
(d) gas constant
(e) unity.
Ans: d

75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the
gases in S.I. units is
(a) 29.27 J/kmol°K
(b) 83.14J/kmol°K
(c) 848J/kmol°K
(d) All J/kmol °K
(e) 735 J/kmol °K.
Ans: b

76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of
temperature only
(a) any gas
(b) saturated steam
(c) water
(d) perfect gas
(e) superheated steam.
Ans: d

77. In a free expansion process

(a) work done is zero
(b) heat transfer is zero
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) work done is zero but heat increases
(e) work done is zero but heat decreases.
Ans: c

78. If a gas vapor is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such a process is
known as
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: e

79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in

(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) both pressure and temperature
(d) variation of its constituents
(e) air flow
Ans: a

80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a
process is called
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: a

81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible

(a) throttling
(b) free expansion
(c) constant volume and constant pressure
(d) hyperbolic and pV = C
(e) isothermal and adiabatic.
Ans: e

82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process

(a) isothermal
(b) adiabatic
(c) throttling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied

(a) free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not be
encountered
(b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working sub¬stance should be
same
(c) when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working sub-stance should be
same
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body
and working substance should be
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(d) maximum
(d) infinity
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a

85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 1.27
(d) 1.35
(e) 2.
Ans: b

86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
(a) 4.17m3/kgmol
(b) 400 m3/kg mol
(c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
(e) 417m3/kgmol.
Ans: a

87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original
volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The
work done on gas in Nm will be
(a) 300 Nm
(b) 300,000 Nm
(c) 30 Nm
(d) 3000 Nm
(e) 30,000 Nm.
Ans: b

88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to

(a) increase higher temperature
(b) decrease higher temperature
(c) increase lower temperature
(d) decrease lower temperature
(e) keep lower temperature constant.
Ans: d
89. Entropy change depends on
(a) heat transfer
(b) mass transfer
(c) change of temperature
(d) thermodynamic state
(e) change of pressure and volume.
Ans: a

90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) unpredictable
(e) negative.
Ans: c

91. Isochoric process is one in which

(a) free expansion takes place
(b) very little mechanical work is done by the system
(c) no mechanical work is done by the system
(d) all parameters remain constant
(e) mass and energy transfer do not take place.
Ans: c

92. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
(b) total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.
Ans: d

93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is
inferred from
(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law to thermodynamics
(d) basic law of thermodynamics
(e) claussius statement.
Ans: b

94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between

(a) heat and work
(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.
Ans: b

95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process
takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: c

97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible
process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: c

98. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.
Ans: c

99. Total heat of a substance is also known as

(a) internal energy
(b) entropy
(c) thermal capacity
(d) enthalpy
(e) thermal conductance.
Ans: d
100. First law of thermodynamics
(a) enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
(b) does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
(c) does not enable to determine change in entropy
(d) provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in

(a) raising its temperature
(b) raising its pressure
(c) raising its volume
(d) raising its temperature and doing external work
(e) doing external work.
Ans: d

102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for

(a) reversible engine
(b) irreversible engine
(c) new engine
(d) petrol engine
(e) diesel engine.
Ans: a

103. Measurement of temperature is based on

(a) thermodynamic properties
(b) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics
(e) joule's law.
Ans: b

104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon

(a) properties of the medium/substance used
(b) condition of engine
(c) working condition
(d) temperature range of operation
(e) effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.
Ans: d

105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when

(a) initial temperature is 0°K
(b) final temperature is 0°K
(c) difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K
(d) final temperature is 0°C
(e) initial temperature is minimum possible.
Ans: b

106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2
and 400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
(a) 650°K
(b) 600°K
(c) 625°K
(d) 700°K
(e) 750°K.
Ans: a

107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the
working substance will change accordingly
(a) temperature
(b) enthalpy
(c) internal energy
(d) entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then
(a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
(b) process is executed in closed system cycle
(c) its entropy will change due to irreversibility
(d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
(e) no work will be done by the system.
Ans: d

109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind
(a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency
(b) a fully reversible engine
(c) transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high tempera¬ture source
(d) a machine that continuously creates its own energy
(e) production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.
Ans:

110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a
proposition is
(a) feasible
(b) impossible
(c) possible
(d) possible, but with lot of sophistication
(e) desirable.
Ans: d

112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving
heat input of 400 kcal/mt

and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
(a) justified
(b) not possible
(c) may be possible with lot of sophistica-tions
(d) cost will be very high
(e) theroretically possible.
Ans: b

113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at

(a) constant pressure
(b) constant volume
(c) constant temperature
(d) constant enthalpy
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: c

114. A diathermy wall is one which

(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) does not exist.
Ans: b

115. An adiabatic wall is one which

(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) dos not exist.
Ans: a

116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
(b) The room will be cooled very slightly.
(c) The room will be gradually warmed up.
(d) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.
(e) any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.
Ans: c

117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football

(a) becomes hotter
(b) becomes cooler1
(c) remains at the same temperature
(d) may become hotter or cooler depending upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air
(e) attains atmospheric temperature.
Ans: b

118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it
(a) at atmospheric pressure
(b) at a pressure below the tropospheric pressure
(c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
(d) any pressure
(e) not possible.
Ans: c

119. During throttling process

(a) heat exchange does not take place
(b) no work is done by expanding steam
(c) there is no change of internal energy of steam
(d) all of the above
(e) entropy decreases.
Ans: d

120. The energy of molecular motion appears as

(a) heat
(b) potential energy
(c) surface tension
(d) friction
(e) increase in pressure.
Ans: a

121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a

sign of approaching
(a) fine weather
(b) rains
(c) storm
(d) cold wave
(e) hot wave.
Ans: c

122. The unit of universal gas constant is

(a) watts/°K
(b) dynes/°C
(c) ergscm/°K
(d) erg/°K
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
123. Calorie is a measure of
(a) specific heat
(b) quantity of heat
(c) thermal capacity
(d)entropy
(e) work.
Ans: b

124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to

(a) 760 mm Hg
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) lOOmmHg.
Ans: c

125. Barometric pressure is equal to

(a) 760 mm Hg
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) 100mm Hg.
Ans: a

126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to

(a) 1 kgf/cnr2
(b) 1.033 kgf/cm2
(c) 0 kgf/cm2
(d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2
(e) 100 kgf/cm2.
Ans: b

127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of

(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of momentum
(d) conservation of heat
(e) conservation of temperature.
Ans: b

128. A perpetual motion machine is

(a) a thermodynamic machine
(b) a non-thermodynamic machine
(c) a hypothetical machine
(d) a hypothetical machine whose operation would violate the laws of thermodynamics
(e) an inefficient machine.
Ans: d

129. Kelvin Planck's law deals with

(a) conservation of heat
(b) conservation of work
(c) conversion of heat into work
(d) conversion fo work into heat
(e) conservation of mass.
Ans: c

130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics

(a) heat can't be transferred from low temperature source to high tempera¬ture source
(b) heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using
refrigeration cycle.
(c) heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process
is more than unity
(d) heat can't be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of
external energy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

131. Thermal power plant works on

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(d) Otto cycle
(e) Brayton cycle.
Ans: c

132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle

(a) carnot
(b) Stirling
(c) ericsson
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on

(a) working substance
(b) design of engine
(c) size of engine
(d) type of fuel fired
(e) temperatures of source and sink.
Ans: e

135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(c) efficiency depends on other factors
(d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equal¬ly efficient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for

(a) gas engine
(b) well lubricated engine
(c) petrol engine
(d) steam engine
(e) reversible engine.
Ans: e

137. Carnot cycle is

(a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
(c) a semi-reversible cycle
(d) a quasi static cycle
(e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle.
Ans: a

138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics, and two constant volumes.
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then
efficiency of Stirling cycle

as compared to Carnot cycle

(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

(a) reversible cycles
(b) irreversible cycles
(c) quasi-static cycles
(d) semi-reversible cycles
(e) adiabatic irreversible cycles.
Ans: a

141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes is known as
(a) Otto cycle
(b) Ericsson cycle
(c) Joule cycle
(d) Stirling cycle
(e) Atkinson cycle.
Ans: c

142. Reversed joule cycle is called

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
(d) Bell Coleman cycle
(e) Dual cycle.
Ans: c

143. Brayton cycle consists of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle

(a) Carnot
(b) Ericsson
(c) Stirling
(d) Joule
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is
known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(e) Stirling cycle.
Ans: c

146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: a

147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency

(a) Rankine
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Brayton
(e) Joule.
Ans: c

148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase in pressure
ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio
will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration

(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Bell-Coleman cycle
(e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.
Ans: e

151. Gas turbine cycle consists of

(a) two isothermal and two isotropic
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam
and the Carnot cycle is that
(a) carnot cycle can't work with saturated steam
(b) heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle
(c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two places
(d) rankine cycle is hypothetical
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Hydraulic and Fluid Machines Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for
freshers

Labels: Mechanical Engineering

8.1. Fluid is a substance that

(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any con-tainer
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
(e) flows.

Ans: d

8.2. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of

(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume
(e) temperature.

Ans: c
8.3. Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.

Ans: d

8.4. In a static fluid

(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.

Ans: d

8.5. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is

(a) incompressible
(b) inviscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) inviscous and compressible
(e) inviscous and incompressible.
Ans: e

8.6. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following

(a) Newton's law of motion
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) Pascal' law
(d) Continuity equation
(e) Boundary layer theory.
Ans: d

8.7. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as

(a) fluid
(b) water
(c) gas
(d) perfect solid
(e) ideal fluid.
Ans: e

8.8. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as

(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c

8.9. Liquids
(a) cannot be compressed
(b) occupy definite volume
(c) are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
(d) are not viscous
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

8.10. Density of water is maximum at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
(e) 20°C.
Ans: c

8.12. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is

(a) 1
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 101.9
(e) 98.1
Ans: d

8.14. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: b

8.15. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c
8.16. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
(a) compressibility
(b) surface tension
(c) cohesion
(d) adhesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c

8.17. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each
other is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: a

8.18. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m"

(a) at norma] pressure of 760 mm
(b) at 4°C temperature
(c) at mean sea level
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.19. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to

(a) 1000 N/m3
(b) 10000 N/m3
(c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
(d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
(e) 9.81 N/m3.
Ans: c

8.20. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is
said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
(e) static.
Ans: d

8.21. Which of the following is demensionless

(a) specific weight
(b) specific volume
(c) specific speed
(d) specific gravity
(e) specific viscosity.
Ans: d

8.22. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
(a) it is incompressible
(b) it has uniform viscosity
(c) it has zero viscosity
(d) it is frictionless
(e) it is at rest.
Ans: e

8.23. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the fluid is
(a) moving
(b) viscous
(c) viscous and static
(d) inviscous and moving
(e) viscous and moving.
Ans: e

8.24. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value of 'g' at this
place is
(a) 10m/sec2
(b) 9.81 m/sec2
(c) 10.2/m sec
(d) 9.75 m/sec2
(e) 9 m/sec .
Ans: a

8.25. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
(a) cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) viscosity
(d) surface tension
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d

8.26. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on size of glass tube
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
8.27. A perfect gas
(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is incompressible
(d) is of theoretical interest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

8.28. For very great pressures, viscosity of most gases and liquids
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) shows erratic behavior
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.33. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain

(a) tensile stress
(b) compressive stress
(c) shear stress
(d) bending stress
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

8.34. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is

(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) higher/lower depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

8.35. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) increases first upto certain limit and then decreases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

8.36. The bulk modulus of elasticity

(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(b) increases with pressure
(c) is large when fluid is more compres¬sible
(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity
(e) is directly proportional to flow.
Ans: b

8.37. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

(a) law of gravitation
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) principle of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) continuity equation.
Ans: d

8.38. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure and
temperature in kg/cm is equal to
(a) 1000
(b) 2100
(c) 2700
(d) 10,000
(e) 21,000.
Ans: e

8.39. The increase of temperature results in

(a) increase in viscosity of gas
(b) increase in viscosity of liquid
(c) decrease in viscosity of gas
(d) decrease in viscosity of liquid
(e) (a) and (d) above.
Ans: d

8.40. Surface tension has the units of

(a) newtons/m
(b) newtons/m
(c) newtons/m
(d) newtons
(e) newton m.
Ans: c

8.41. Surface tension

(a) acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
(b) is also known as capillarity
(c) is a function of the curvature of the interface
(d) decreases with fall in temperature
(e) has no units.
Ans: a

8.42. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is

(a) linear
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) inverse type
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.43. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of
0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk
modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(a) 400 kg/cm2
(b) 4000 kg/cm2
(c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
(d) 40 x 106 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.44. The units of viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre2
(d) newton-sec per metre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.45. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

(a) pressure
(b) distance
(c) level
(d) flow
(e) density.
Ans: e

8.46. Units of surface tension are

(a) energy/unit area
(b) distance
(c) both of the above
(d) it has no units
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.47. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity

(a) Red wood
(b) Say bolt
(c) Engler
(d) Orsat
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
8.48. Choose the correct relationship
(a) specific gravity = gravity x density
(b) dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
(c) gravity = specific gravity x density
(d) kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
(e) hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.
Ans: b

8.49. Dimensions of surface tension are

(a) MlL°T2
(b) MlL°Tx
(c) MlL r2
(d) MlL2T2
(e) MlL°t.
Ans: a

8.50. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having

(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
(e) low density and viscosity.
Ans: a

8.51. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be
following cm of water
(a) 51 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 52 cm
(d) 52.2 cm
(e) 51.7 cm.
Ans: a

8.52. Choose the wrong statement.

Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(a) its vapour pressure is low
(b) it provides suitable meniscus for the in-clined tube
(c) its density is less
(d) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
(e) it provides accurate readings.
Ans: a

53. Increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius R due to rotation at corad/sec, full
of liquid of density p will be
(a) pco2/?2
(b) pco2/?2/2
(c) 2pa2R2
(d) pa2R/2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.54. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
(a) surface tension
(b) adhesion
(c) cohesion
(d) viscosity
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

8.55. Choose the wrong statement

(a) fluids are capable of flowing
(b) fluids conform to the shape of the con-taining vessels
(c) when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sus-tain tangential forces
(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
(e) fluids have some degree of compres-sibility and offer little resistance to form.
Ans: d

8.56. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C (d) 20°C
(e) all temperature.
Ans: c

8.57. If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any point from the surface, then
pressure intensity at that point will be
(a) h
(b) wh
(c) w/h
(d) h/w
(e) h/wh.
Ans: b

8.58. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to a
shearing force
(b) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
(c) Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
(d) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably af-fected by change in pressure
(e) Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds.
Ans: d
8.59. The units of kinematic viscosity are
(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre
(d) newton-sec per metre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

60. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass den-sity is known as

(a) specific viscosity
(b) viscosity index
(c) kinematic viscosity
(d) coefficient of viscosity
(e) coefficient of compressibility.
Ans: c

4-61. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

(a) dynamic viscosity/density
(b) dynamicviscosity x density
(c) density/dynamic viscosity
(d) 1/dynamicviscosity x density
(e) same as dynamic viscosity.
Ans: a

4.62. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity

(a) pascal
(b) poise
(c) stoke
(d) faraday
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

$.63. A one dimensional flow is one which

(a) is uniform flow
(b) is steady uniform flow
(c) takes place in straight lines
(d) involves zero transverse component of flow
(e) takes place in one dimension.
Ans: d

64. Alcohol is used in manometers because

(a) it has low vapour pressure
(b) it is clearly visible
(c) it has low surface tension
(d) it can provide longer column due to low density
(e) is provides suitable meniscus.
Ans: d

8.65. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

(a) 25 kN/m2
(b) 245 kN/m2
(c) 2500 kN/m2
(d) 2.5kN/m2
(e) 12.5 kN/m2.
Ans: b

8.66. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
(a) dissolved air
(b) dissolved salt
(c) suspended matter
(d) all of the above
(e) heavy water.
Ans: d

8.67. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.69. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion
(e) adhesion.
Ans: a

8.70. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water
without touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

8.71. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c

8.72. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces are
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) less at low temperature and more at high temperature
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: b

8.73. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass,
then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.74. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be
taken to act is known as
(a) meta centre
(b) centre of pressure
(c) centre of buoyancy
(d) centre of gravity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.75. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface
being 0.5 m below the water level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
(e) 4000 kg.
Ans: d

8.76. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight of the
fluid displaced by the body. This definition is according to
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes' principle
(d) Bernoulli's theorem
(e) Metacentric principle.
Ans: c

8.77. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) buoyancy
(c) centre of pressure
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of above is correct.
Ans: b

8.78. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
(a) the meta-centre should lie above the centre of gravity
(b) the centre of buoyancy and the centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above is correct.
Ans: d

8.79. Poise is the unit of

(a) surface tension
(b) capillarity
(c) viscosity
(d) shear stress in fluids
(e) buoyancy.
Ans: c

8.80. Metacentric height is given as the distance between

(a) the centre of gravity of the body andthe meta centre
(b) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of buoyancy
(c) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of pressure
(d) centre of buoyancy and metacentre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.81. The buoyancy depends on

(a) mass of liquid displaced
(b) viscosity of the liquid
(c) pressure of the liquid displaced
(d) depth of immersion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.82. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
(a) meta-centre
(b) centre of pressure
(c) centre of buoyancy
(d) centre of gravity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.83. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what
fraction of it volume is under mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be im-mersed with its top surface just at mer-cury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.84. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon

(a) the nature of the liquid and the solid
(b) the material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
(c) both of die above
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of die above.
Ans: c

3.85. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area
due to the
(a) force of adhesion
(b) force of cohesion
(c) force of friction
(d) force of diffusion
(e) none of die above.
Ans: b

8.86. Rain drops are spherical because of

(a) viscosity
(b) air resistance
(c) surface tension forces
(d) atmospheric pressure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

87. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ..

(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) surface tension
(c) force of adhesion
(d) force of cohesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: b

1-88. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is ap-
proximately
(a) 1 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 30 mm.
Ans: e

89. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

90. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

(a) cohesion pressure is negligible
(b) cohesion pressure is decreased
(c) cohesion pressure is increased
(d) there is no cohesion pressure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

91. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such that it is not
more than
(a) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(b) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(c) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(d) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.92. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided

(a) at the inlet
(b) at the outlet
(c) at the summit
(d) ay nay point between inlet and outlet
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.93. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is

(a) less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(b) equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(c) greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(d) zero
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.94. The peoperty by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different
layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c

8.95. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable membrane
is called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
(e) diffusivity.
Ans: b

8.96. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre
(d) newton-sec2 per metre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.98. The continuity equation is connected with

(a) viscous/unviscous fluids
(b) compressibility of fluids
(c) conservation of mass
(d) steady/unsteady flow
(e) open channel/pipe flow.
Ans: c

8.99. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension wim increase in size of tube
will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d

8.100. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
(a) Boyle's law
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) Pascal's law
(d) Newton's formula
(e) Chezy's equation.
Ans: c

8.101. Capillary action is due to the

(a) surface tension
(b) cohesion of the liquid
(c) adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.103. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between

(a) shear stress anctthejiate of angular dis¬tortion
(b) shear stress and viscosity
(c) shear stress, velocity and viscosity
(d) pressure, velocity and viscosity
(e) shear stress, pressure and rate of an-gular distortion.
Ans: a

8.104. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases

(a) linearly
(b) first slowly and then steeply
(c) first steeply and then gradually
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.105. Pressure of the order of 10"' torr can be measured by

(a) Bourdon tube
(b) Pirani Gauge
(c) micro-manometer
(d) ionisastion gauge
(e) McLeod gauge.
Ans: d

8.106. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle
of
(a) gas law
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Charle's law
(d) Pascal's law
(e) McLeod's law.
Ans: b

8.107. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely
submerged in a fluid having
specific gravity of
(a) 1
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.75
(e) 1.25.
Ans: d

8.108. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure

(a) decreases linearly with elevation
(b) remains constant
(c) varies in the same way as the density
(d) increases exponentially with elevation
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

8.109. Mercury is often used in barometer because

(a) it is the best liquid
(b) the height of barometer will be less
(c) its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) it moves easily.
Ans: d

8.110. Barometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) rain level.
Ans: b

8.111. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine
moving in deep sea
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e

8.112. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e

8.113. Piezometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressures
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) flow.
Ans: c

8.114. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of
Bernoulli's theorem
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) nozzle
(d) pitot tube
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

8.116. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its

(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) absolute temperature,
Ans: e

8.119. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(a) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.120. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.121. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a will
(a) sink to bottom
(b) float over fluid
(c) partly immersed
(d) be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.123. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following

(a) inertial force and gravity
(b) viscous force and inertial force
(c) viscous force and buoyancy force
(d) pressure force and inertial force
(e) pressure force and viscous force.
Ans: d

8.128. Manometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) velocity.
Ans: a

.129. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity

(a) U-tube with water
(b) inclined U-tube
(c) U-tube with mercury
(d) micro-manometer with water
(e) displacement type.
Ans: d

8.130. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle
9. Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
(a) sin 9
(b) sin 9
(c) casS
(d) cos 9
(e) tan 9.
Ans: b
8.131. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on
(a) Pascal's law
(b) Dalton's law of partial pressure
(c) Newton's law of viscosity .
(d) Avogadro's hypothesis
(e) Second law of thermodynamic.
Ans: a

8.132. The resultant of all normal pressures acts

(a) at e.g. of body
(b) at centre of pressure
(c) vertically upwards
(d) at metacentre
(e) vertically downwards.
Ans: c

8.133. Centre of pressure compared to e.g. is

(a) above it
(b) below it.
(c) at same point
(d) above or below depending on area of body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.134. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and

(a) water surface
(b) centre of pressure
(c) centre of gravity
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.135.. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to
uplift the sub-merged body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) reaction
(c) buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) centre of pressure.
Ans: c

8.136. The centre of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
(a) on the surface at which resultant pressure acts
(b) on the surface at which gravitational force acis
(c) at which all hydraulic forces meet
(d) similar to metacentre
(e) where pressure equivalent to hydraulic thrust will act.
Ans: a

8.137. Buoyant force is

(a) the resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(c) equal to the volume of liquid dis-placed
(d) the force necessary to maintain equi-librium of a submerged body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.138. The horizontal component of buoyant force is

(a) negligible
(b) same as buoyant force
(c) zero
Ans: c

140. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
(a) centroid of the volume of fluid verti-cally above the body
(b) centre of the volume of floating body
(c) centre of gravity of any submerged body
(d) centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.141. Centre of buoyancy is the

(a) centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
(b) centre of pressure of displaced volume
(c) e.g. of floating 'body
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.142. A body floats in stable equilibrium

(a) when its meatcentric height is zero
(b) when the metancentre is above e.g.
(c) when its e.g. is below it's centre of buoyancy
(d) metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

vl43. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its
specific gravity is
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6
Ans: d

8.151. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of
pressure at the centriod, if
(a) the area is horizontal
(b) the area is vertical
(c) the area is inclined
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.152. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at vater
surface. The hydrostatic force on square surface is
(a) 9,000 kg
(b) 13,500 kg
(c) 18,000 kg
(d) 27,000 kg
(e) 30,000 kg.
Ans: b

8.153. The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high,
when the water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is
(a) 2.4 m
(b) 3.0 m
(c) 4.0 m
(d)"2.5 m
(e) 5.0 m.
Ans: b

8.154. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm", the
pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 metres of water column
(b) 3 metres of water column
(c) 5 metres of water column
(d) 6 metres of water Column
(e) 7 metres of water column.
Ans: d

8.155. Metacenter is the point of intersection of

(a) vertical upward force through e.g. of body and centre line of body
(b) buoyant force and the centre line of body
(c) mid point between e.g. and centre of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.156. Choose the wrong statement

(a) The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any surface is equal to the normal
force on the verti¬cal projection of the surface
(b) The horizontal component acts through the centre of pressure for the vertical projection
(c) The vertical component of the hydros-tatic force on any surface is equal to the weight of the
volume of the liquid above the area
(d) the vertical component passes through the centre of pressure of the volume
(e) Centre of pressure acts at a greater depth than centre of gravity.
Ans: d

8.157. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
(a) bottom surface of the body
(b) e.g. of the body
(c) metacentre
(d) all points on the surface of the body
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

8.158. Choose the wrong statement

(a) any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyant force
(p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(c) The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the centre of buoyancy
(d) Centre of buoyancy is located above the centre of gravity of the displaced liquid v
(e) Relative density of liquids can be determined by means of the depth of flotation of
hydrometer.
Ans: d

8.159. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will
be lifted up by a force equal to
(a) the weight of the body
(b) more than the weight of the body
(c) less than the weight of the body
(d) weight of the fluid displaced by the body
(e) weight of body plus the weight of the fluid displaced hy the body.
Ans: d

8.160. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about

(a) e.g. of body
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) metacenter
(e) liquid surface.
Ans: d
5.161. Buoyant force is
(a) resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) equal to the volume of liquid dis¬placed
(c) force necessary to keep a body in equi¬librium
(d) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.l62. Ratio of inertia force to surface tension is known as

(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold's number
(d) Weber's number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.163. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
(a) 10 m/sec
(b) 25 m/sec
(c) 2 m/sec
(d) 50 m/sec
(e) 250 m/sec.
Ans: c

8.164. A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The model scale is
1: 225. How long should it take to empty the prototype ?
(a) 900 minutes
(b) 4 minutes
(c) 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
(d) 4 (225)1/3 minutes
(e) 4 x V225 minutes.
Ans: e

165. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is
expected to attain a velocity
of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used ?
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 1 : 2.5
(c) 1 :25
(d) 1:V5"
(e) 1 : 53/2
Ans: a

8.166. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as

(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold's number
(d) Weber's number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.167. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be

(a) below the centre of gravity
(b) below the centre of buoyancy
(c) above the centre of buoyancy
(d) between e.g. and centre of pressure
(e) above the centre of gravity.
Ans: e

8.168. For a floating body to be in equilibrium

(a) meta centre should be above e.g.
(b) centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.169. The two important forces for a floating body are

(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
(e) gravity, pressure.
Ans: a

8.170. Choose the wrong statement

(a) The centre of buoyancy is located at the centre of gravity of the displaced liquid
(b) For stability of a submerged body, the centre of gravity of body must lie directly below the
centre of buoyancy
(c) If e.g. and centre of buoyancy coin¬cide, the submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium
for all positions
(d) For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below the centre of
buoyancy
(e) All floating bodies are stable.
Ans: e

8.171. Centre of pressure on an inclined plane is

(a) at the centroid
(b) above the centroid
(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
(e) at centre of pressure.
Ans: c

8.172. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surface will
(a) be horizontal
(b) make an angle in direction of inclina¬tion of inclined plane
(c) make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
(d) any one of above is possible
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.173. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the
(a) submerged body
(b) volume of the floating body
(c) volume of the fluid vertically above the body
(d) displaced volume of the fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.174. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) in between e.g. and centre of pressure.
Ans: b

8.175. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) centroid.
Ans: d

8.176. Differential monometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) velocity in pipes
Ans: d

8.177. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm".
The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 metres of water column
(b) 3 metres of water column
(c) 3.5 metres of water column
(d) 4 m of water column
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.178. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) lower/higher depending on weight of body
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

8.179. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is

(a) at the centre of gravity
(b) above the centre of gravity
(c) below be centre of gravity
(d) could be above or below e.g. depend¬ing on density of body and liquid
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

8.180. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid

(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(e) in case of an ideal fluid.
Ans: c

8.181. Select the correct statement

(a) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only
(b) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a* sea level
(c) Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric pressure
(d) A barometer reads the difference be-tween local and standard atmospheric pressure
(e) Gauge piessure is equal to atmos¬pheric pressure plus instrument read¬ing.
Ans: b

8.184. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, it should be installed in

(a) vertical line
(b) horizontal line
(c) inclined line with flow downward
(d) inclined line with upward flow\
(e) in any direction and in any location.
Ans: e
 8.185. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free
water surface will be
(a) 1000 kg
(b) 4000 kg
(c) 2000 kg
(d) 8000 kg
(e) 16000 kg.
Ans: a

8.186. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in gases
(b) liquid discharge
(c) pressure in liquids
(d) gas velocities
(e) temperature.
Ans: d

8.187. Rotameter is a device used to measure

(a) absolute pressure
(b) velocity of fluid
(c) flow
(d) rotation
(e) velocity of air.
Ans: c

8.188. Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by

(a) orifice plate
(b) venturi
(c) rotameter
(d) pitot tube
(e) nozzle
Ans: d

8.189. True one-dimensional flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of
time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: a

8.190. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy

(a) Pascal law
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) boundary layer theory
(d) continuity equation
(e) Bernoulli's theorem.
Ans: d

8.191. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is
(a) constant
(b) variable
(c) zero
(d) zero under limiting conditions
(e) never zero.
Ans: c

8.193. Non uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of
time
(c) the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: e

8.194. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is

(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) uniform
(d) laminar
(e) free vortex type.
Ans: b

8.195. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the flow is steady
(b) the flow is streamline
(c) size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
(d) size and cross section change uniform¬ly along length
(e) flow occurs at constant fate.
Ans: c

8.196. Gradually varied flow is

(a) steady uniform
(b) non-steady non-uniform
(c) non-steady uniform
(d) steady non-uniform
(e) true one-dimensional.
Ans: d
8.197. Steady flow occurs when
(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of
time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: b

8.198. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as

(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: a

8.199. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross each
other is called
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: e

8.200. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: c

8.201. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every
point, for any given instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: b

8.202. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to
point in magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: d

8.210. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is

(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) laminar
(d) vortex
(e) rotational.
Ans: b

8.211. General energy equation holds for

(a) steady flow
(b) turbulent flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) non-uniform flow
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

8.212. A streamline is defined as the line

(a) parallel to central axis flow
(b) parallel to outer surface of pipe
(c) of equal yelocity in a flow
(d) along which the pressure drop is uniform
(e) which occurs in all flows.
Ans: c

8.213. Two dimensional flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of
time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: d

8.215. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What
fraction of its volume is under mercury ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.515
(d) 0.5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.216. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the
liquid. The specific gravity of wood is
(a) 0.83
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.3
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.218. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water is
proportional to
(a) head of water (h)
(b) h2
(c) V/T
(d) h2
(e) h3/1.
Ans: c

8.219. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero and finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

8.220. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d

8.221. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid body
is known as
(a) wake
(b) drag
(c) lift
(d) boundary layer
(e) aerofoil section.
Ans: a

8.222. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is

(a) unity
(b) greater than unity
(c) greater than 2
(d) greater than 4
(e) greater than 10.
Ans: d

8.223. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is
(a) crest
(b) nappe
(c) sill
(d) weir top
(e) contracta.
Ans: c

8.224. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to
(a) steady flow
(b) unsteady flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) uniform flow
(e) critical flow.
Ans: d

8.226. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid pai-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc¬cessive periods of
time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plsr.e
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: c

8.227. Pitot tube is used for measurement of

(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) velocity
(d) dsscharge
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c

8.228. Hydrometer is used to determine

(a) specific gravity of liquids
(b) specific gravity of solids
(c) specific gravity of gases
(d) relative humidity
(e) density.
Ans: a

8.229. The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompres sible
fluid flowing in continuous sream
(d) keeps on increasing
(b) keeps on decreasing
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

8.230. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow

(a) principle of conservation of mass holds
(b) velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(c) total energy is constant throughout
(d) the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.231. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow

(a) is steady
(b) is one dimensional
(c) velocity is uniform at all the cross sec-tions
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.232. Mach number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity
force, and wave making effects, as with ship's hulls
(d) all of fhe above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.233. Froude number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity
forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c

8.234. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation have dimension of

(a) energy
(b) work
(c) mass
(d) length
(e) time.
Ans: d

8.235. Reynolds number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity
forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

8.236. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
(a) gravity, pressure and viscous
(b) gravity, pressure and turbulent
(c) pressure, viscous and turbulent
(d) gravity, viscous and turbulent
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.237. A large Roynold number is indication of

(a) smooth and streamline flow
(b) laminar flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) highly turbulent flow.
Ans: e

8.239. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is

(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c) more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.240. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure
between these points must be more than
(a) frictional force
(b) viscosity
(c) surface friction
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8.241. At the centre line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the
shear stress will be
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative value
(e) could be any value.
Ans: e

8.242. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will
be equal to
(a) 1 Pa
(b) 98.1Pa
(c) 981 Pa
(d) 9810 Pa
(e) 98,100 Pa.
Ans: d

8.244. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantites are same
(a) friction loss and flow
(b) length and diameter
(c) flow and length
(d) friction factor and diameter
(e) velocity and diameter.
Ans: a

8.245. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is

(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c). more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

8.246. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of

(a) mass
(b) momentum
(c) energy
(d) work
(e) force.
Ans: c

8.247. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift
a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal tc
(a) 10 kg
(b) 100 kg
(c) 1000 kg
(d) 1 kg
(e) 10,000 kg.
Ans: a

8.248. Cavitation is caused by

(a) high velocity
(b) high pressure
(c) weak material
(d) low pressure
(e) low viscosity.
Ans: d

8.249. Cavitation will begin when

(a) the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour
pressure of the liquid
(b) pressure becomes more than critical pressure
(c) flow is increased
(d) pressure is increased
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8.250. Principle of similitude forms the basis of

(a) comparing two identical equipments
(b) designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
(c) comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
(d) hydraulic designs
(e) performing acceptance tests.
Ans: b

8.251. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the
following in both cases should also be equal
(a) ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(b) ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(c) ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(d) all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, sur-face tension, and
elasticity
Ans: d
Machine Design - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers for Compitations exams

Labels: Mechanical Engineering

1. The ultimate strength of steel in tension in comparison to shear is in the ratio of

(a) 1 : l
(b) 2:1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3
(e) 1 : 2

Ans: c

2. The pci Tnissible stress for carbon steel under static loading is generally taken as
(a) 2000-3000 kg/pm2
(b) 3000-4000 kg/cm2
(c) 4000-J500 kg/cm2
(d) 7500-10,000 kg/cm2
(e) 10,000-15,000 kg/cm2.

Ans: c

3. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is
known as
(a) elasticity
(b) endurance
(c) strength
(d) toughness
(e) resilience.

Ans: d

4. A hot short metal is

(a) brittle when cold
(b) brittle when hot
(c) brittle under all conditions
(d) ductile at high temperature
(e) hard when hot.

Ans: b
5. Guest's theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
(e) tough.
Ans: b

6. Rankine's theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
(e) tough.
Ans: a

7. If an unsupported uniform cross sectional elastic bar is subjected to a longitudinal impact

from a rigid bob moving with velocity v, then a compressive wave of intensity sc is propagated
through the bar as follows
(a) vpE
(b) vVvF
(c) WpE/2
(d) IvHpE
(e) none of the above, where E = modulus of elasticity and p = mass density.
Ans: a

8. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted from following hardness
test
(a) Brinell
(b) Rockwell
(c) Vicker
(d) Shore's sceleroscope
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

9. Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to

(a) combined loading
(b) fatigue
(c) thermal stresses
(d) wear and tear
(e) shock loading.
Ans: e

10. In the case of an elastic bar fixed at upper end and loaded by a falling weight at lower end,
the shock load produced can be decreased by
(a) decreasing the cross-section area of' bar
(b) increasing the cross-section area of bar
(c) remain unaffected with cross-section area
(d) would depend upon other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

11. .Other method of reducing shock load in the above case can be
(a) to decrease length
(b) to increase length
(c) unaffected by length
(d) other factors would decide same
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

12. If a load W is applied instantaneously on a bar; then the stress induced in bar will
(a) be independent of ratio of mass of load W to mass of bar (y)
(b) increase with increase in y
(c) decrease with decrease in y
(d) depend on other considerations
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

13. Brittle coating technique is used for

(a) determining brittleness
(b) protecting metal against corrosion
(c) protecting metal against wear and tear
(d) experimental stress analysis
(e) non-destructive testing of metals.
Ans: d

14. Stress concentration is caused due to

(a) variation in properties of material from point to point in a member
(b) pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied
(c) abrupt change of section
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

15. The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in comparison to rough surface is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on quantum of load
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

16. Plastic flow in ductile materials

(a) increases the seriousness of static loading stress concentration
(b) lessens the seriousness of static loading stress concentration
(c) has no effect on it
(d) depends on other considerations
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

17. The maximum stress due to stress concentration in a bar having circular transverse hole, as
compared to its static stress without hole will be
(a) same in both cases
(b) 2 times more
(c) 3 times more
(d) 4 times more
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

18. The fatigue life of a part can be improved by

(a) electroplating
(b) polishing
(c) coating
(d) shot peening
(e) heat treating.
Ans: d

19. Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

20. Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

21. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can withstand for an
infinite number of load applications without failure when subjected to
(a) dynamic loading
(b) static loading
(c) combined static and dynamic loading
(d) completely reversed loading
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

22. Pick up wrong statement. Fatigue strength can be increased by

(a) cold working
(b) shot peening
(c) grinding and lapping surface
(d) hot working
(e) using gradual changes of section.
Ans: d

23. Which of the following is not correct procedure to increase the fatigue limit
(a) cold working
(b) shot peening
(c) surface decarburisation
(d) under-stressing
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

24. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing

(a) metal strength by cycling
(b) metal hardness by surface treatment
(c) metal resistance to corrosion by coating
(d) fatigue limit by overstressing the metal by successively increasing loadings
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

25. Which is correct statement ?

Stress concentration in static loading is
(a) very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both types of materials
(d) seriousness would depend on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

26. The notch angle of the Izod impact test specimen is

(a) 10°
(b) 20°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°
(e) 60°.
Ans: d
27. In Vicker's hardness testing, the pyramid indentor apex is
(a) 40°
(b) 122°
(c) 136°
(d) 152°
(e) 161°.
Ans: c

28. Which is correct statement ?

Stress concentration in cyclic loading is
(a) very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both types of materials
(d) seriousness would depend on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

29. In testing a material for endurance strength, it is subjected to

(a) static load
(b) dynamic load
(c) impact load
(d) static as well as dynamic load
(e) completely reversed load.
Ans: e

30. If a material fails below its yield point, failure would be due to
(a) straining
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) sudden loading
(e) impact loading.
Ans: b

31. The fatigue limit of a material

(a) is greatly decreased by poor surface conditions
(b) remains same irrespective of surface conditions
(c) depends mainly on core composition
(d) is dependent upon yield strength of material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

32. Cold working

(a) increases the fatigue strength
(b) decreases the fatigue strength
(c) has no influence on fatigue strength
(d) alone has no influence on fatigue strength
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

33. Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is

(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

34. Residual stress in materials

(a) acts when external load is applied
(b) becomes zero when external load is removed
(c) is independent of external loads
(d) is always harmful
(e) is always beneficial.
Ans: c

35. The building up of worn and uridersized parts, subjected to repeated loads by electroplating
is
(a) best method
(b) extremely hazardous
(c) has no effect as regards fatigue strength
(d) cheapest method
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

36. In nitrided parts, the origins of the fatigue cracks will occur at
(a) surface
(b) just below the surface
(c) within the core
(d) could occur anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

37. Which process will increase the fatigue duration of parts ?

(a) finishing and polishing
(b) shot-peening
(c) decarburisation
(d) electroplating
(e) all of the above".
Ans: b

38. Which is correct statement ?

(a) a member made of steel will generally be more rigid than a member of equal load-carrying
ability made of cast iron
(b) a member made of cast iron will generally be. more rigid than a member of equal load
carrying ability made of steel
(c) both will be equally rigid
(d) which one is rigid will depend on several other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

39. Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

(a) Young's modulus
(b) coefficient of elasticity
(c) elastic limit
(d) ultimate tensile strength
(e) endurance limit.
Ans: e

40. In most machine members, the damping capacity of the material should be
(a) low
(b) zero
(c) high
(d) could be anything
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

41. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.55
(e) 0.6
Ans: d

42. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to ultimate strength in tension is
(a) same
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/4
(e) 2/3
Ans: e

43. The endurance limit in shear of carbon steel can be obtained by multiplying the endurance
limit in flexure by a factor of
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.45
(r) 0.55
(d) 0.65
(e)0.75.
Ans: e

44. At low temperatures (say 75°C) the notched-bar impact value of steel
(a) increases markedly
(b) decreases markedly
(c) remains same
(d) depends on heat treatment carried out
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

45. A bolt
(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) is provided with pointed threads
(e) requires no nut.
Ans: a

46. The crest diameter of a screw thread is same as

(a) major diameter
(b) minor diameter
(c) pitch diameter
(d) core diameter
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

47. If d is the diameter of bolt hole then for a flanged pipe joint to be leak proof, the
circumferential pitch of the bolts should be
(a) lOVZ
(b) 10VZtol5Vd
(c) 15Vdto20VZ
(d) 20Vdto30Vd
(e) 30V5"to40Vd.
Ans: d

48. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) elastic materials
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

49. The following type of nut is used with alien bolt

(a) alien nut
(b) hexagonal nut
(c) slotted nut
(d) castle nut
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: e

50. A stud
(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) has pointed threads
(e) requires locking nuts.
Ans: c

51. Shear stress theory is applicable for

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) elastic materials
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

52. A tap bolt

(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part \o be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) has pointed threads
(e) requires locking devices.
Ans: b

53. For applications involving high stresses in one direction only the following type of thread
would be best suited
(a) ISO metric thread
(b) acme thread
(c) square thread
(d) buttress thread
(e) British Association thread.
Ans: d

54. The included angle in unified of American National threads is

(a) 60°
(b) 55°
(c) 47°
(d) 29°
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

55. The function of a washer is to

(a) provide cushioning effect
(b) provide bearing area
(c) absorb shocks and vibrations
(d) provide smooth surface in place of rough surface
(e) act as a locking device.
Ans: b

56. Cap screws are

(a) similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween parts
(d) provided with detachable caps
(e) similar to stud.
Ans: a

57. An alien bolt is

(a) self locking bolt
(b) same as stud
(c) provided with hexagonal depression in head
(d) used in high speed components
(e) provided with countersunk head.
Ans: c

58. The deflection of a cantilever beam under load W is 8. If its width is halved, then the
deflection under load W will be
(a) 28
(b) 8/2
(c) 48
(d) 8/4
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

59. Ball bearing type screws are found in following application

(a) screw jack
(b) aeroplane engines
(c) crane
(d) steering mechanism
(e) bench vice.
Ans: d

60. Set screws are

(a) similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween parts
(d) similar to stud
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

61. A self locking screw has

(a) fine threads
(b) coarse threads
(c) coefficient of friction > tangent of load angle
(d) hole for inserting split pin
(e) two nuts for locking.
Ans: c

62. The designation M 33 x 2 of a bolt means

(a) metric threads of 33 nos in 2 cm.
(b) metric threads with cross-section of 33 mm
(c) metric threads of 33 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch
(d) bolt of 33 mm nominal diameter having 2 threads per cm
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

63. Machine screws are

(a) similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween two parts
(d) similar to stud
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

64. Rivets are generally specified by

(a) thickness of plates to be riveted
(b) length of rivet
(c) diameter of head
(d) nominal diameter
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

65. The edges of a boiler plate are beveled to an angle of

(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 80°
(e) 85°.
Ans: d

66. Which of the following is a permanent fastening ?

(a) bolts
(b) keys
(c) cotters
(d) rivets
(e) screws.
Ans: d

67. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at edge, the distance from the center line of the rivet
hole to the nearest edge of the plate in terms of dia. of rivet d should be equal to
(a) d
(b) 1.25 d
(c) 1.5 d
(d) 1.75 d
(e) 2 d.
Ans: c

68. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 75%, then the ratio of diameter of rivet to the
pitch is equal to
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.6
(e) 0.75.
Ans: b

69. Transverse fillet welded joints are designed for

(a) tensile strength
(b) compressive strength
(c) shear strength
(d) bending strength
(e) torsional strength.
Ans: a

70. Jam nut is a locking device in which

(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by
loosening, creating friction jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) a hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a cotter-pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt,
and cotter splitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

71. The pitch of threads on a Jock nut in comparison to pitch of nut is

(a) same
(b) coarser
(c) finer
(d) very coarse
(e) very fine.
Ans: a

72.Buttress threads are usually found on

(a) screw cutting lathes
(b) feed mechanisms
(c) spindles of bench vices
(d) screw jack
(e) railway carriage couplings.
Ans: e

73. In order to obtain bolt of uniform strength

(a) increase shank diameter
(b) increase its length
(c) drill an axial hole through head upto threaded portion so that shank area is equal to root
area of thread
(d) tighten die bolt properly
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

74. A key capable of tilting in a recess milled out in a shaft is known as

(a) wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.
Ans: a

75. A key made from a cylindrical disc having segmental cross-section, is known as
(a) wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.
Ans: a

76. A tapered key which fits in a keyway in the hub and is flat on the shaft, is known as
(a) wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.
Ans: c
77. Fibrous fracture occurs in
(a) ductile material
(b) brittle material
(c) elastic material
(d) hard material
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

78. Turn buckle has

(a) right hand threads on both ends
(b) left hand threads on both ends
(c) left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end
(d) no threads
(e) threads in middle portion.
Ans: c

79. Eye bolts are used for

(a) foundation purposes
(b) locking devices
(c) absorbing shock and vibrations
(d) transmission of power
(e) lifting and transportation of machines and cubicles.
Ans: e

80. Elastic nut is a locking device in which

(a) one small nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by
loosening, creating friction jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) har4 fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is srewed
on the bolt causing a tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a cotter-pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt,
and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above,
Ans: c

81. If d is the normal diameter of a bolt in mm, then the initial tension in kg in a bolt used for
making a fluid
tight joint as for steam engine cover joint is calculated by the relation
(a) 102 d
(b) 124 d
(c) 138 d
(d) 151 d
(e) 168 d.
Ans: e
82. If threads on a bolt are left hand, threads on nut will be
(a) right hand with same pitch
(b) left hand with same pitch
(c) could be left or right hand
(d) right hand with fine pitch
(e) left hand with fine pitch.
Ans: b

83. Taper usually provided on cotter is

(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 24
(d) 1 in 40
(e) 1 in 50.
Ans: c

84. Applications in which stresses are encountered in one direction only uses following type of
threads
(a) metric
(b) buttress
(c) acme
(d) square
(e) BSW.
Ans: b

85. The draw of cotter need not exceed

(a) 3 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 25 mm.
Ans: a

86. A bench vice has following type of threads

(a) metric
(b) square
(c) buttress
(d) acme
(e) BSW.
Ans: d

87. The valve rod in a steam engine is connected to an eccentric rod by

(a) cotter joint
(b) bolted joint
(c) kunckle joint
(d) universal coupling
(e) gib and cotter joint.
Ans: c

88. Split nut is a locking device in which

(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by
loosening, creating friction jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening screw
(c) a hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a cotter-pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt,
and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse direction at the other end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

89. Taper on the cotter and slot is provided

(a) on both the sides
(b) on one side only
(c) on none of the sides
(d) may be provided anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

90. The function of cutting oil when threading a pipe is to

(a) provide cooling action
(b) lubricate the dies
(c) help remove chips
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

91. Silver-based solder is used for

(a) flaring
(b) brazing
(c) soft soldering
(d) fusion welding
(e) none of the above.'
Ans: b

92. For tight leakage joints, following type of thread is best suited
(a) metric
(b) buttress
(c) square
(d) acme
(e) NPT (national pipe threads).
Ans: e
93. In order to permit the thermal expansion/contraction of tubing, it should be
(a) crimped
(b) honed
(c) flared
(d) bent
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

94. A tube has the following advantage over pipe

(a) lighter and easier to handle
(b) greater shock absorption
(c) smoother inside walls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

95. The strap end of a connecting rod of steam engine is joined by

(a) big of cotter joint
(b) sleeve and cotter joint
(c) spigot socket cotter joint
(d) knuckle joint
(e) universal coupling.
Ans: a

96. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when making a
(a) butt weld
(b) fillet weld
(c) sleeve weld
(d) socket weld
(e) tube weld.
Ans: a

97. The shear plane in case of bolts should

(a) be across threaded portion of shank
(b) be parallel to axis of bolt
(c) be normal to threaded portion of shank
(d) never be across the threaded portion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

97. Castle nut is a locking device in which

(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by
loosening, creating friction jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly is middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) a hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt,
and cotter pin spitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

98. When a nut is tightened by plapjng a washer below it, the bolt will be subjected to
following type of loads
(a) compression
(b) tension
(c) shear
(d) combined loads
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

99. Gear box is used

(a) to produce torque
(b) for speed reduction
(c) to obtain variable speeds
(d) to increase efficiency of system
(e) to damp out vibrations.
Ans: c

100. The edges of the plates for cylindrical vessels are usually bevelled to an angle of 80° for
(a) reducing stress concentration
(b) ease of manufacture
(c) safety
(d) fullering and caulking
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

101. The piston rod of a steam engine is usually connected to the cross head by means of
(a) bolted joint
(b) knuckle joint
(c) cotter joint
(d) universal joint
(e) universal coupling.
Ans: c

102. Which of the following pipe joints would be suitable for pipes carrying steam
(a) flanged
(b) threaded
(c) bell and spigot
(d) expansion
(e) compression.
Ans: d
103. Spring index is
(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) indication of quality of spring
(e) nothing.
Ans: a

104. The shearing stresses in the inner face as compared to outer face of the wire in a heavy
close coiled spring is
(a) larger
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) larger/smaller depending on diameter of spring coil
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

105. Form coefficient of spring is

(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) concerned With strength of wire of spring
(e) nothing
Ans: c

106. Spring stiffness is

(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) its ability to absorb shocks
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

107. When two springs are in series (having stiffness K), the equivalent stiffness will be
(a) K
(b) K/2
(c) 2K
(d) KIA
(e) UK.
Ans: b

108. When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to
(a) tension
(b) shear
(c) compression
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

109. If a spring is cut down into two springs, the stiffness of cut springs will be
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

110. Belt slip may occur due to

(a) heavy load
(b) loose belt
(c) driving pulley too small
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

111. Aircraft body is usually fabricated by

(a) welding
(b) precasting
(c) rivetting
(d) casting
(e) unconventional methods.
Ans: c

112. If two springs are in parallel then their overall stiffness will be
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

113. In hydrodynamic bearings

(a) the oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of lubricant
(d) grease is used for lubrication
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

114. Antifriction bearings are

(a) sleeve bearings
(b) hydrodynamic bearings
(c) thin lubricated bearings
(d) ball and roller bearings
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

115. If p = bearing pressure on projected bearing area, z = absolute viscosity of lubricant, and
N = speed of journal, then the bearing characteristic number is given by
(a) ZN/p
(b) p/ZN
(c) Z/pN
(d) N/Zp
(e) Zp/N.
Ans: a

116. The usual clearance provided in hydrodynamic bearing per mm of diameter of shaft is
(a) 0.01 micron
(b) 0.1 micron
(c) 1 micron
(d) 10 microns
(e) 25 microns.
Ans: c

117. In hydrostatic bearings

(a) the Oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of lubricant
(d) grease is used for lubrication
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

118. Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is
(a) nil or lightest
(b) maximum
(c) average
(d) any one of the above
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

119. The rated life of a bearing varies

(a) directly as load
(b) inversely as square of load
(c) inversely as cube of load
(d) inversely as fourth power of load
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
120. In oiliness bearings
(a) the oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of lubricant
(d) grease required to be applied after some intervals
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

121. In V-belt drive, belt touches

(a) at bottom
(b) at sides only
(c) both at bottom and sides
(d) could touch anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

122. Three different weights fall from a certain height under vacuum. They will take
(a) same time to reach earth
(b) times proportional to weight to reach earth
(c) times inversely proportional to weight to reach earth
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

123. In cross or regular lay ropes

(a) direction of twist of wires in strands is opposite to the direction of twist of strands
(b) direction of twist of wires and strands are same
(c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction
(d) wires are not twisted
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

124. In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper of outer raceway is
(a) 5°
(b) 8°
(c) 15°
(d) 25°
(e) 40°.
Ans: d

125. In composite or reverse laid ropes

(a) direction of twist of wires in strands is opposite to the direction of twist of strands
(b) direction of twist of wires and strands are same
(c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction
(d) wires are not twisted
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

126. Whether any core is required in wireropes

(a) yes
(b) no
(c) sometimes
(d) rarely
(e) very often.
Ans: a

127. If shearing stress in nut is half the tensile stress in a bolt, then nut length should be equal
to
(a) diameter of bolt
(b) 0.75 x diameter of bolt
(c) 1.25 x diameter of bolt
(d) 1.5 x diameter of bolt
(e) 0.5 x diameter of bolt.
Ans: a

128. Basic shaft is one

(a) whose upper deviation is zero
(b) whose lower deviation is zero
(c) whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

129. Basic hole is one

(a) whose upper deviation is zero
(b) whose lower deviation is zero
(c) whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

130. I.S. specifies following total number of grades of tolerances

(a) 18
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 22
(e) 14.
Ans: a

131. For standard coarse threads of nut, the threads will be as strong in failure by shear as the
bolt in tension, if the height of nut (h) is approximately
(a) 0.4 times
(b) 0.6 times
(c) 0.7 times
(d) 0.8 times
(e) 0.9 times the normal diameter of bolt.
Ans: a

132. Allen bolts are

(a) self locking bolts
(b) designed for shock load
(c) used in aircraft application
(d) provided with hexagonal depression in head
(e) uniform strength bolts.
Ans: d

133. The resultant axial load on a bolt depends on

(a) initial tension
(b) external load applied
(c) relative elastic yielding (springiness) of the bolt and the connected member
(d) (a) and (b) above
(e) (a), (b) and (c) above.
Ans: e

134. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up so that tightening stress
(a) is just sufficient to hold parts together
(b) approaches yield point
(c) is 50% of yield point
(d) is about yield point divided by safety factor
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

135. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up with initial tension greater than the external
load so that
(a) joint may not open up
(b) bolts are weakest elements
(c) the resultant load on the bolt would not be affected by the external cyclic load
(d) bolts will not loosen during service
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

136. If an application calls for stresses on screw threads in one direction only, then the
following type of thread would be best suited
(a) square
(b) acme
(c) buttress
(d) BSW
(e) metric.
Ans: c

137. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be considered
in order to prevent breakage at
(a) shank
(b) head
(c) in the middle
(d) at the thread
(e) anywhere in the bolt.
Ans: d

138. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt can be increased by

(a) tightening it properly
(b) increasing shank diameter
(c) grinding the shank
(d) using washer
(e) making shank diameter equal to core diameter of thread.
Ans: e

Fluid Mechanics Problems Quiz multiple choice questions download free

Labels: Civil Engineering

1. Pascal-second is the unit of

a) pressure
b) kinematic viscosity
c) dynamic viscosity
d) surface tension

Ans: c

2. An ideal fluid is
a) one which obeys Newton's law of viscosity
b) frictionless and incompressible
c) very viscous
d) frictionless and compressible

Ans: b

3. The unit of kinematic viscosity is

a) gm/cm-sec2
b) dyne-sec/cm2
c) gm/cm2-sec
d) cm2/sec
Ans: d

4. If the dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 0.5 poise and specific gravity is 0.5, then the
kinematic viscosity of that fluid in stokes is
a) 0.25
b) 0.50
c) 1.0
d) none of the above

Ans: c

5. The viscosity of a gas

a) decreases with increase in temperature
b) increases with increase in temperature
c) is independent of temperature
d) is independent of pressure for very high pressure intensities

Ans: b

6. Newton's law of viscosity relates

a) intensity of pressure and rate of angular deformation
b) shear stress and rate of angular deformation
c) shear stress, viscosity and temperature
d) viscosity and rate of angular deformation

Ans: b

7. An open tank contains 1 m deep water with 50 cm depth of oil of specific gravity 0.8
above it. The intensity of pressure at the bottom of tank will be
a) 4 kN/m2
b) 10 kN/m2
c) 12 kN/m2
d) 14 kN/m2

Ans: d

8. The position of center of pressure on a plane surface immersed vertically in a static

mass of fluid is
a) at the centroid of the submerged area
b) always above the centroid of the area
c) always below the centroid of the area
d) none of the above

Ans: c
9. The total pressure on a plane surface inclined at an angle 9 with the horizontal is equal
to
a) PA
b) pA sin 9
c) pA cos 9
d) pA tan 9
where p is pressure intensity at centroid of area and A is area of plane surface.

Ans: a

10. A vertical rectangular plane surface is submerged in water such that its top and bottom
surfaces are 1.5 m and 6.0 m res-pectively below the free surface. The position of center of
pressure below the free surface will be at a distance of
a) 3.75 m
b) 4.0 m
c) 4.2m
d) 4.5m

Ans: c

11. Centre of buoyancy always

a) coincides with the centre of gravity
b) coincides with the centroid of the volume of fluid displaced
c) remains above the centre of gravity
d) remains below the centre of gravity

Ans: b

12. If the weight of a body immersed in a fluid exceeds the buoyant force, then the body
will
a) rise until its weight equals the buoyant force
b) tend to move downward and it may finally sink
c) float
d) none of the above

Ans: b

13. Metacentric height for small values of angle of heel is the distance between the
a) centre of gravity and centre of buoy-ancy
b) centre of gravity and metacentre
c) centre of buoyancy and metacentre
d) free surface and centre of buoyancy

Ans: b
14. A floating body is said to be in a state of stable equilibrium
a) when its metacentric height is zero
b) when the metacentre is above the centre of gravity
c) when the metacentre is below the centre of gravity
d) only when its centre of gravity is below its centre of buoyancy

Ans: b

15. The increase in meta centric height

i) increases stability
ii) decreases stability
iii) increases comfort for passengers
iv) decreases comfort for passengers
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: b

16. A rectangular block 2 m long, 1 m wide and 1 m deep floats in water, the depth of
immersion being 0.5 m. If water weighs 10 kN/m3, then the weight of the block is
a) 5kN
b) lOkN
c) 15 kN
d) 20 kN

Ans: b

17. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid
may be taken to act is known as
a) center of gravity
b) center of buoyancy
c) center of pressure
d) metacentre

Ans: c

18. If a vessel containing liquid moves downward with a constant acceleration equal to 'g'
then
a) the pressure throughout the liquid mass is atmospheric
b) there will be vacuum in the liquid
c) the pressure in the liquid mass is greater than hydrostatic pressure
d) none of the above
Ans: a

19. When a liquid rotates at a constant angular velocity about a vertical axis as a rigid
body, the pressure intensity varies
a) linearly with radial distance
b) as the square of the radial distance
c) inversely as the square of the radial distance
d) inversely as the radial distance

Ans: b

20. An open cubical tank of 2 m side is filled with water. If the tank is rotated with an
acceleration such that half of the water spills out, then the acceleration is equal to
a) g/3
b) g/2
c) 2g/3
d) g

Ans: d

21. A right circular cylinder open at the top is filled with liquid and rotated about its
vertical axis at such a speed that half the liquid spills out, then the pressure intensity at the
center of bottom is
a) zero
b) one-fourth its value when cylinder was full
c) one-half its value when cylinder was full
d) cannot be predicted from the given data

Ans: a

22. The horizontal component of force on a curved surface is equal to the

a) product of pressure intensity at its centroid and area
b) force on a vertical projection of the curved surface
c) weight of liquid vertically above the curved surface
d) force on the horizontal projection of the curved surface

Ans: b

23. A closed tank containing water is moving in a horizontal direction along a straight
line at a constant speed. The tank also contains a steel ball and a bubble of air. If the tank
is decelerated horizontally, then
i) the ball will move to the front
ii) the bubble will move to the front
iii) the ball will move to the rear
iv) the bubble will move to the rear Find out which of the above statements are correct ?
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (iii) and (iv)

Ans: b

24. The eddy viscosity for turbulent flow is

a) a function of temperature only
b) a physical property of the fluid.
c) dependent on the flow
d) independent of the flow

Ans: c

25. Flow at constant rate through a tapering pipe is

i) steady flow
ii) uniform flow
iii) unsteady flow
iv) non-uniform flow
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: b

26. In a two dimensional incompressible steady flow around an airfoil, the stream lines are
2 cm apart at a great distance from the airfoil, where the velocity is 30 m/sec. The velocity
near the airfoil, where the stream lines are 1.5 cm apart, is
a) 22.5 m/sec.
b) 33 m/sec.
c) 40 m/sec.
d) 90 m/sec.

Ans: c

27. When the velocity distribution is uniform over the cross-section, the correction factor
for momentum is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 4/3
d) 2

Ans: b
28. Least possible value of correction factor for
i) kinetic energy is zero
ii) kinetic energy is 1
iii) momentum is zero
iv) momentum is 1
The correct statements are
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: d

29. If the velocity is zero over half of the cross-sectional area and is uniform over the
remaining half, then the momentum correction factor is
a) 1
b) 4/3
c) 2
d) 4

Ans: c

30. If velocity is zero over l/3rd of a cross-section and is uniform over remaining 2/3rd of
the cross-section, then the correction factor for kinetic energy is
a) 4/3
b) 3/2
c) 9/4
d) 27/8

Ans: c

31. The continuity equation

pi V,A,= p2V2A2 is based on the following assumption regarding flow of fluid
a) steady flow
b) uniform flow
c) incompressible flow
d) frictionless flow
where pi and p2 are mass densities.

Ans: a

32. Which of the following velocity potentials satisfies continuity equation ?

a) x2y
b) x2-y2
c) cosx
d) x2 + y2
Ans: b

33. The motion of air mass in a tornado is a

a) free vortex motion
b) forced vortex motion
c) free vortex at center and forced vortex outside
d) forced vortex at center and free vortex outside

Ans: d

34. In a forced vortex motion, the velocity of flow is

a) directly proportional to its radial distance from axis of rotation
b) inversely proportional to its radial distance from the axis of rotation
c) inversely proportional to the square of its radial distance from the axis of rotation
d) directly proportional to the square of its radial distance from the axis of rotation

Ans: a

35. Stream lines and path lines always coincide in case of

a) steady flow
b) laminar flow
c) uniform flow
d) turbulent flow

Ans: a

36. Equation of continuity is based on the principle of conservation of

a) mass
b) energy
c) momentum
d) none of the above

Ans: a

37. In steady flow of a fluid, the total accele ration of any fluid particle
a) can be zero
b) is never zero
c) is always zero
d) is independent of coordinates

Ans: a

38. The pitot tube is used to measure

a) velocity at stagnation point
b) stagnation pressure
c) static pressure
d) dynamic pressure

Ans: b

39. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure

a) discharge
b) velocity of gas
c) pressure intensity of gas
d) pressure intensity of liquid

Ans: b

40. The theoretical value of coefficient of contraction of a sharp edged orifice is

a) 0.611
b) 0.85
c) 0.98
d) 1.00

Ans: a

41. Which of the following is used to measure the discharge ?

a) current meter
b) venturimeter
c) pitot tube
d) hotwire anemometer

Ans: b

42. Select the incorrect statement.

a) The pressure intensity at vena contracta is atmospheric.
b) Contraction is least at vena contracta.
c) Stream lines are parallel throughout the jet at vena contracta.
d) Coefficient of contraction is always less than one.

Ans: c

43. Size of a venturimeter is specified by

a) pipe diameter
b) throat diameter
c) angle of diverging section
d) both pipe diameter as well as throat diameter

Ans: a
44. Due to each end contraction, the discharge of rectangular sharp crested weir is
reduced by
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

Ans: a

45. The discharge through a V- notch varies as

a) H1/2
b) H3'2
c) H5/2
d) H5'4 where H is head.

Ans: c

46. Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?

a) Coefficient of contraction of a venturimeter is unity.
b) Flow nozzle is cheaper than venturimeter but has higher energy loss.
c) Discharge is independent of orientation of venturimeter whether it is horizontal, vertical or
inclined.
d) None of the above statement is correct.

Ans: d

47. Coefficient of velocity of venturimeter

a) is independent of Reynolds number
b) decreases with higher Reynolds number
c) is equal to the coefficient of discharge of venturimeter
d) none of the above

Ans: c

48. The pressure at the summit of a syphon is

a) equal to atmospheric
b) less than atmospheric
c) more than atmospheric
d) none of the above

Ans: b

49. Ay between two stream lines represents

a) velocity
b) discharge
c) head
d) pressure

Ans: b

50. Coefficient of velocity for Borda's mouth piece running full is

a) 0.611
b) 0.707
c) 0.855
d) 1.00

Ans: b

51. Coefficient of discharge for a totally submerged orifice as compared to that for an
orifice discharging free is
a) slightly less
b) slightly more
c) nearly half
d) equal

Ans: a

52. The major loss of energy in long pipes is due to

a) sudden enlargement
b) sudden contraction
c) gradual contraction or enlargement
d) friction

Ans: d

53. Coefficient of contraction for an external cylindrical mouthpiece is

a) 1.00
b) 0.855
c) 0.7H
d) 0.611

Ans: a

54. Which of the following has highest coefficient of discharge ?

a) sharp edged orifice
b) venturimeter
c) Borda's mouthpiece running full
d) CipoUetti weir

Ans: b
55. In a Sutro weir, the discharge is proportional to
a) H1/2
b) H3/2
c) H5/2
d) H
where H is head.

Ans: d

56. The discharge over a broad crested weir is maximum when the depth of flow is
a) H/3
b) H/2
c) 2 H/5
d) 2 H/3
where H is the available head.

Ans: d

57. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Lower critical Reynolds number is of no practical significance in pipe flow problems.
b) Upper critical Reynolds number is significant in pipe flow problems.
c) Lower critical Reynolds number has the value 2000 in pipe flow
d) Upper critical Reynolds number is the number at which turbulent flow changes to laminar
flow.

Ans: a

58. For a sphere of radius 15 cm moving with a uniform velocity of 2 m/sec through a liquid
of specific gravity 0.9 and dynamic viscosity 0.8 poise, the Reynolds number will be
a) 300
b) 337.5
c) 600
d) 675

Ans: d

59. The shear stress distribution for a fluid flowing in between the parallel plates, both at
rest, is
a) constant over the cross section
b) parabolic distribution across the section
c) zero at the mid plane and varies linearly with distance from mid plane
d) zero at plates and increases linearly to midpoint

Ans: c
60. If x is the distance from leading edge, then the boundary layer thickness in laminar
flow varies as
a) x
b) x
c) x
d) x/7

Ans: a

61. Stanton diagram is a

a) log-log plot of friction factor against Reynolds number
b) log-log plot of relative roughness against Reynolds number
c) semi-log plot of friction factor against Reynolds number
d) semi-log plot of friction factor against relative roughness

Ans: a

62. The depth 'd' below the free surface at which the point velocity is equal to the average
velocity of flow for a uniform laminar flow with a free surface, will be
a) 0.423 D
b) 0.577 D
c) 0.223 D
d) 0.707 D
where D is the depth of flow.

Ans: b

63. The boundary layer thickness in turbulent flow varies as

a) x"7
b) x,/2
c) x4/5
d) x3/5
where x is the distance from leading edge.

Ans: c

64. The distance y from pipe boundary, at which the point velocity is equal to average
velocity for turbulent flow, is
a) 0.223 R
b) 0.423 R
c) 0.577 R
d) 0.707 R
where R is radius of pipe.

Ans: a
65. If a sphere of diameter 1 cm falls in castor oil of kinematic viscosity 10 stokes, with a
terminal velocity of 1.5 cm/sec, the coefficient of drag on the sphere is
a) less than 1
b) between 1 and 100
c) 160
d) 200

Ans: c

66. In case of an airfoil, the separation of flow occurs

a) at the extreme rear of body
b) at the extreme front of body
c) midway between rear and front of body
d) any where between rear and front of body depending upon Reynolds number

Ans: a

67. When an ideal fluid flows past a sphere,

a) highest intensity of pressure occurs around the circumference at right angles to flow
b) lowest pressure intensity occurs at front stagnation point
c) lowest pressure intensity occurs at rear stagnation point
d) total drag is zero

Ans: d

68. With the same cross-sectional area and immersed in same turbulent flow, the largest
total drag will be on
a) a circular disc of plate held normal to flow
b) a sphere
c) a cylinder
d) a streamlined body

Ans: a

69. In which of the following the friction drag is generally larger than pressure drag?
a) a circular disc or plate held normal to flow
b) a sphere
c) a cylinder
d) an airfoil

Ans: d

70. For hydro-dynamically smooth boundary, the friction coefficient for turbulent flow is
a) constant
b) dependent only on Reynolds number
c) a function of Reynolds number and relative roughness
d) dependent on relative roughness only

Ans: b

71. The value of friction factor 'f' for smooth pipes for Reynolds number 106 is
approximately equal to
a) 0.1
b) 0.01
c) 0.001
d) 0.0001

Ans: b

72. For laminar flow in a pipe of circular cross-section, the Darcy's friction factor f is
a) directly proportional to Reynolds number and independent of pipe wall roughness
b) directly proportional to pipe wall roughness and independent of Reynolds number
c) inversely proportional to Reynolds number and indpendent of pipe wall roughness
d) inversely proportional to Reynolds number and directly proportional to pipe wall roughness

Ans: c

73. Separation of flow occurs when

a) the pressure intensity reaches a minimum
b) the cross-section of a channel is reduced
c) the boundary layer comes to rest
d) all of the above

Ans: c

74. The ratio of average velocity to maximum velocity for steady laminar flow in circular
pipes is
a) 1/2
b) 2/3
c) 3/2
d) 2

Ans: a

75. The distance from pipe boundary, at which the turbulent shear stress is one-third die
wall shear stress, is
a) 1/3 R
b) 1/2 R
c) 2/3 R
d) 3/4R
where R is the radius of pipe.
Ans: a

76. The discharge of a liquid of kinematic viscosity 4 cm2/sec through a 8 cm dia-meter

pipe is 3200n cm7sec. The type of flow expected is
a) laminar flow
b) transition flow
c) turbulent flow
d) not predictable from the given data

Ans: a

77. The Prartdtl mixing length is

a) zero at the pipe wall
b) maximum at the pipe wall
c) independent of shear stress
d) none of the above

Ans: a

78. The velocity distribution for laminar flow through a circular tube
a) is constant over the cross-section
b) varies linearly from zero at walls to maximum at centre
c) varies parabolically with maximum at the centre
d) none of the above

Ans: c

79. A fluid of kinematic viscosity 0.4 cm2/sec flows through a 8 cm diameter pipe. The
maximum velocity for laminar flow will be
a) less than 1 m/sec
b) 1 m/sec
c) 1.5 m/sec
d) 2 m/sec

Ans: b

80. The losses are more in

a) laminar flow
b) transition flow
c) turbulent flow
d) critical flow

Ans: c

81. The wake

a) always occurs before a separation point
b) always occurs after a separation point
c) is a region of high pressure intensity
d) none of the above

Ans: b

82. The maximum thickness of boundary layer in a pipe of radius r is

a) 0
b) r/2
c) r
d) 2r

Ans: c

83. The hydraulic grade line is

a) always above the centre line of pipe
b) never above the energy grade line
c) always sloping downward in the direction of flow
d) all of the above

Ans: b

84. Two pipe systems are said to be equivalent when

a) head loss and discharge are same in two systems
b) length of pipe and discharge are same in two systems
c) friction factor and length are same in two systems
d) length and diameter are same in two systems

Ans: a

85. In series-pipe problems

a) the head loss is same through each pipe
b) the discharge is same through each pipe
c) a trial solution is not necessary
d) the discharge through each pipe is added to obtain total discharge

Ans: b

86. Select the correct statement.

a) The absolute roughness of a pipe de-creases with time.
b) A pipe becomes smooth after using for long time.
c) The friction factor decreases with time.
d) The absolute roughness increases with time.

Ans: d
87. A valve is suddenly closed in a water main in wl.ich the velocity is 1 m/sec and velocity
of pressure wave is 981 m/ sec. The inertia head at the valve will be
a) 1 m
b) 10m
c) 100m
d) none of the above

Ans: c

88. The speed of a pressure wave through a pipe depends upon

a) the length of pipe
b) the viscosity of fluid
c) the bulk modulus for the fluid
d) the original head

Ans: c

89. When time of closure tc = L/v0 (where L is length of pipe and v0 is speed of pressure
wave), the portion of pipe length subjected to maximum head is
a) L/4
b) L/3
c) L/2
d) L

Ans: a

90. If the elevation of hydraulic grade line at the junction of three pipes is above the
elevation of reservoirs B and C and below reservoir A, then the direction of flow will be
a) from reservoir A to reservoirs B and C
b) from reservoir B to reservoirs C and A
c) from reservoir C to reservoirs A and B
d) unpredictable

Ans: c

91. The length of a pipe is 1 km and its diameter is 20 cm. If the diameter of an equivalent
pipe is 40 cm, then its length is
a) 32 km
b) 20 km
c) 8 km
d) 4 km

Ans: a

92. Two pipes of same length and diameters d and 2d respectively are connected in series.
The diameter of an equivalent pipe of same length is
a) less than d
b) between d and 1.5 d
c) between 1.5 d and 2d
d) greater than 2d

Ans: a

93. The horse power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the ratio of loss of
head due to friction and total head supplied is
a) 1/3
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) 2/3

Ans: a

94. The boundary layer thickness at a distance of l m from the leading edge of a flat plate,
kept at zero angle of incidence to the flow direction, is O.l cm. The velocity outside the
boundary layer is 25 ml sec.
The boundary layer thickness at a distance of 4 m is
a) 0.40 cm
b) 0.20 cm
c) 0.10 cm
d) 0.05 cm
Assume that boundary layer is entirely laminar.

Ans: b

95. Drag force is a function of

i) projected area of the body
ii) mass density of the fluid
iii) velocity of the body
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans: d

96. The correct relationship among displacement thickness d, momentum thickness m

and energy thickness e is
a) d > m > e
b) d > e > m
c) e > m > d
d) e > d > m
Ans: d

97. For laminar flow in circular pipes, the Darcy's friction factor f is equal to
a) 16/Re
b) 32/ Re
c) 64/ Re
d) none of the above where R,, is Reynolds number.

Ans: c

98. Surge wave in a rectangular channel is an example of

i) steady flow
ii) unsteady flow
iii) uniform flow
iv) non-uniform flow
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (:v)
d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: d

Engineering Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and

Answers for Competitive exams

Labels: Mechanical Engineering

1. Ductility of a material can be defined as

(a) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
(b) ability to recover its original form
(c) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

2. Malleability of a material can be defined as

(a) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
(b) ability to recover its original form
(c) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

3. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break

(a) by forming a bulge (l>) by shearing along oblique plane
(c) in direction perpend cular to application of load
(d) by crushing into thousands of pieces
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

4. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as

(a) creep
(b) hot tempering
(c) hot hardness
(d) fatigue
(e) super hardening.

Ans: c

5. Mild steel belongs to the following category

(a) low carbon steel
(b) medium carbon steel
(c) high carbon steel
(d) alloy steel
(e) special steel.
Ans: a

6. The ultimate tensile strength of low carbon steel by working at a high strain rate will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
(d) first increase and then decrease
(e) first decrease and then increase.
Ans: b

7. Slow plastic defoliation of metals under a constant stress is known as

(a) creep
(b) fatigue
(c) endurance
(d) plastic deformation
(e) non-plastic deformation.
Ans: a
8. The ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of most of the metals, when temperature falls
from 0 to l00°C will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) first increase and then decrease
(e) show unpredictable behavior.
Ans: a

9. The number of electrons in 1 cm3 of metal would be of the order of

(a) 1010
(b)TO16
(c) 1022
(d) 1040
(e) 1052
Ans: c

10. Stress relaxation is- the phenomenon

(a) in which parts are not loaded
(b) in which stress remains constant on increasing load
(c) in which deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduced
(d) stress reduces on increasing load
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

ll. The elastic stress strain behavior of rubber is

(a) linear
(b) non-linear
(c) plastic
(d) no fixed relationship
(e) unpredictable behavior.
Ans: b

12. Isotropic materials are those which have the same

(a) elastic properties in all directions
(b) stresses induced in all directions
(c) thermal properties in all directions
(d) electric and magnetic properties in all directions
(e) density throughout.
Ans: a

13. Recrystallization temperature is one

(a) at which crystals first start forming from molten metal when it is cooled
(b) at which new spherical crystals first begin to form from the old deformed one when a
strained metal is heated
(c) at which change of allotropic form takes place
(d) at which crystals grow bigger in size
(e) at which crystals are destroyed on heating.
Ans: b

14. Points of arrest for iron correspond to

(a) stages at which allotropic forms change
(b) stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for some time
(c) stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature
(d) there is nothing like points of arrest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

15. Delta iron occurs at temperature of

(a) room temperature
(b) above melting point
(c) between 1400°C and 1539°C
(d) between 910°C and 1400°C
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

16. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it

(a) has a fixed structure under all conditions
(b) exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures
(c) responds to heat treatment
(d) has its atoms distributed in a random pattern
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

17. Super conduction by metals is observed in the temperature range of

(a) below 10°K
(b) above 100°K
(c) around 0°C
(d) around 100°C
(e) above 1000°C.
Ans: a

18. Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong
(a) austenite
(b) pearlite
(c) ferrite
(d) cementlte
(e) bainite.
Ans: c

19. Which of the following represents the allotropic forms of iron

(a) alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron
(b) alpha iron and beta iron
(c) body centered cubic a-iron and face centered cubic a-iron
(d) alpha iron, gamma from and delta iron
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

20. The following types of materials are usually the most ductile
(a) face-centred cubic lattice
(b) body-centred cubic lattice
(c) hexagonal close-packed lattice
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

21. Pure iron is the structure of

(a) ferrite
(b) pearlite
(c) anstenite
(d) ferrite and cementite
(e) ferrite and pearlite.
Ans: a

22. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagnetic alpha iron
is
(a) 770°C
(b) 910°C
(c) 1050°C
(d) below recrystallization temperature
(e) above recrystallization temperature.
Ans: a

23. Gamma iron exits at following temperature

(a) room temperature
(b) near melting point
(c) between 1400°C and 1539°C
(d) between 910°C and 1400°C
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

24. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of

(a) below 723°C
(b) 770 - 910°C
(c) 910-1440°C
(d) 1400-1539°C
(e) above 1539°C.
Ans: a
25. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at
(a) 770°C
(b) 910°C
(c) 1440°C
(d) 1539°C
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

26. A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with corresponding change in the
properties is known as
(a) molecular change
(b) physical change
(c) allotropic change
(d) solidus change
(e) atomic change.
Ans: c

27. The molecules in a solid move

(a) in a random manner
(b) in a haphazard way
(c) in circular motion
(d) back and forth like tiny pendulums
(e) do not move.
Ans: d

28. The crystal structure of gamma iron is

(a) body centred cubic
(b) face centred cubic
(c) hexagonal close packed
(d) cubic structure
(e) orthorhombic crystal.
Ans: b

29. The crystal of alpha iron is

(a) body centred cubic
(b) face centred cubic
(c) hexagonal close packed
(d) cubic structure
(e) orthorhombic crystal.
Ans: a

30. The metallic structure of mild steel is

(a) body centred cubic
(b) face centred cubic
(c) hexagonal close packed
(d) cubic structure
(e) orthorhombic crystal.
Ans: a

31. For the allotropic forms of iron, the points of arrest are
(a) the points where no further change occurs
(b) constant for all metals
(c) the points where there is no further flow of metal
(d) the points of discontinuity
(e) the points where major changes take place.
Ans: d

32. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from

(a) 0.1 to 1.2%
(b) 1.5 to 2.5%
(c) 2.5 to 4%
(d) 4 to 4.5%
(e) 4.5 to 6.3%.
Ans: d

33. The percentage of carbon in grey iron castings usually varies between
(a) 0.5 to 1%
(b) 1 - 2%
(c) 2.5 to 4.5%
(d) 5 - 7%
(e) 7-9%.
Ans: c

34. Pig iron is the name given to

(a) raw material for blast furnace
(b) product of blast furnace made by reduction of iron ore
(c) iron containing huge quantities of carbon
(d) iron in molten form in the ladles
(e) iron scrap.
Ans: b

35. The unique property of cast iron is its high

(a) malleability
(b) ductility
(c) surface finish
(d) damping characteristics
(e) hardness.
Ans: d

36. Cast iron is characterised by minimum of following %age of carbon

(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.8%
(c) 1.3%
(d) 2%
(e) 6.3%.
Ans: d

37. In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of

(a) cementite
(b) free carbon
(c) flakes
(d) spheroids
(e) nodular aggregates of graphite.
Ans: c

38. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of

(a) cementite
(b) free carbon
(C) flakes
(d) spheroids
(e) nodular aggregates of graphite.
Ans: d

39. In malleable iron, carbon is present in the form of

(a) cementite
(b) free carbon
(c) flakes
(d) spheroids
(e) nodular aggregates of graphite.
Ans: e

40. Wrought iron is

(a) hard
(b) high in strength
(c) highly resistant to corrosion
(d) heat treated to change its properties
(e) least resistant to corrosion.
Ans: c

41. Sulfur in pig iron tends to make it

(a) hard'
(b) soft
(c) ductile
(d) tough
(e) malleable.
Ans: a
42. Pick up wrong statement about wrought iron
(a) It contains carbon of the order of 0 to 0.25%
(b) It melts at 1535°C
(c) It is very soft and ductile
(d) It can be easily forge welded
(e) It is made by adding suitable percent¬age of carbon to molten iron and subjecting the product
to repeated hammering and rolling.
Ans: e

43. Iron is
(a) paramagnetic
(b) ferromagnetic
(c) ferroelectric
(d) dielectric
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

44. A reversible change in the atomic structure of the steel with a corresponding change in the
properties is known as
(a) allotropic change
(b) recrystallization
(c) heat treatment
(d) precipitation
(e) austempering.
Ans: a

45. Chilled cast iron has

(a) no graphite
(b) a very high percentage of graphite
(c) a low percentage of graphite
(d) graphite as its basic constituent of composition
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: a

46. Cast iron has

(a) high tensile strength
(b) its elastic limit close to the ultimate breaking strength
(c) high ductility
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

47. White cast iron contains carbon in the form of

(a) free carbon
(b) graphite
(c) cementite
(d) white carbon
(e) ferrite.
Ans: c

48. In mottled cast iron, carbon is available in

(a) free form
(b) combined form
(c) nodular form
(d) flat form
(e) partly in free and partly in combined state.
Ans: e

49. An important property of high silicon (12 - 18%) cast iron is the high
(a) tenacity
(b) brittleness
(c) plasticity
(d) corrosion resistance
(e) hardness.
Ans: e

50. An important property of malleable cast iron in comparison to grey cast iron is the high
(a) compressive strength
(b) ductility
(c) carbon content
(d) hardness
(e) surface finish.
Ans: b

51. Steel contains

(a) 80% or more iron
(b) 50% or more iron
(c) alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper
(d) elements like phosphorus, sulfur and silicon in varying quantities
(e) high quantities of sulfur.
Ans: b

52. Carbon steel is

(a) made by adding carbon in steel
(b) refined from cast iron
(c) an alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus and sulfur
(d) extensively used for making cutting tools
(e) extremely brittle.
Ans: c

53. Annealing of white cast iron results in production of

(a) malleable iron
(b) nodular iron
(c) spheroidal iron
(d) grey iron
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

54. 'Killed steels' are those steels

(a) which are destroyed by burning^
(b) which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh steel
(c) which are deoxidized in the ladle with silicon and aluminum
(d) in which carbon is completely burnt
(e) which have poor properties due to im¬proper manufacturing.
Ans: c

55. Hardness of steel depends on

(a) amount of carbon it contains
(b) the shape and distribution of the car-bides in iron
(c) method of fabrication
(d) contents of alloying elements
(e) the quality of ore from which it is made.
Ans: b

56. Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is

(a) 0.025%
(b) 0.06%
(c) 0.1%
(d) 0.25%
(e) 0.8%.
Ans: a

57. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is

(a) 0.025%
(b) 0.26%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 1.25%
(e) 1.7%.
Ans: e

58. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of

(a) chromium and nickel
(b) sulphur, phosphorus, lead
(c) vanadium, aluminium
(d) tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium
(e) zinc.
Ans: a
59. In which of the following cases, consideration of creep is important
(a) flywheel of steam engine
(b) cast iron pipes"
(c) cycle chains
(d) gas turbine blades
(e) piston I.C. engine.
Ans: d

60. The most effective inhibitor of grain growth, when added in small quantities is
(a) carbon
(b) vanadium
(c) manganese
(d) cobalt
(e) copper.
Ans: b

61. Depth of hardness of steel is increased by addition of

(a) nickel
(b) chromium
(c) tungsten
(d) vanadium
(e) ell of the above.
Ans: b

62. Railway rails are normally made of

(a) mild steel
(b) alloy steel
(c) high carbon
(d) tungsten steel
(e) cast iron steel.
Ans: c

63. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) aluminum in steel results in excessive grain growth
(b) manganese in steel induces hardness
(c) nickel and chromium in steel help in raising the elastic limit and improve the resilience and
ductility
(d) tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and harden ability
(e) sulphur, phosphorous and lead improve machining properties of steel.
Ans: a

64. Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in
(a) providing corrosion resistance
(b) improving machining properties
(c) providing high strength at elevated temperatures
(d) raising the elastic limit
(e) improving the resilience and ductility.
Ans: b

65. Machining properties of steel are improved by adding

(a) sulphur, lead, phosphorous
(b) silicon, aluminium, titanium
(c) vanadium, aluminium
(d) chromium, nickel
(e) lubricants.
Ans: a

66. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon

(a) 0.02%
(b) 0.3%
(c) 0.63%
(d) 0.8%
(e) 1.2%.
Ans: d

67. The basic constituents of Hastelloy are

(a) aluminium, copper etc.
(b) nickel, molybdenum etc.
(c) nickel, copper, etc.
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

68. Basic constituents of Monel metal are

(a) nickel, copper
(b) nickel, molybdenum
(c) zinc, tin, lead
(d) nickel, lead and tin
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

69. German silver is an alloy of

(a) silver and some impurities
(b) refined silver
(c) nickel, copper and zinc
(d) nickel and copper
(e) silver and gold.
Ans: c

70. Surveying tapes are made of a material having low coefficient of expansion and enough
strength. The alloy used is
(a) silver metal
(b) duralumin
(c) Hastelloy
(d) monel metal
(e) invar.
Ans: e

71. A cold chisel is made of

(a) mild steel
(b) cast iron
(c) H.S.S.
(d) high carbon
(e) german silver.
Ans: d

72. An engineer's hammer is made of

(a) cast iron
(b) forged steel
(c) mild steel
(d) high carbon steel
(e) H.S.S.
Ans: d

73. Inconel is an alloy of

(a) nickel, chromium and iron
(b) nickel, copper
(c) nickel, chromium
(d) nickel, zinc
(e) nickel, lead.
Ans: a

74. By severely deforming a metal in a particular direction it becomes

(a) ductile
(b) malleable
(c) homogeneous
(d) isotropic
(e) anisotropic.
Ans: e

75. Solder is an alloy consisting of

(a) tin, antimony, copper
(b) tin and copper
(c) tin and lead
(d) lead and zinc
(e) lead and copper.
Ans: b
76. Cyaniding is the process of
(a) dipping steel in cyanide bath
(b) reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
(c) adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
(d) obtaining cyanide salts
(e) making corrosion resistant steel.
Ans: c

77. Induction hardening is the process of

(a) hardening surface of workpiece to obtain hard and wear resistant surface
(b) heating and cooling rapidly
(c) increasing hardness throughout
(d) inducing hardness by continuous process
(e) hardening core.
Ans: a

78. The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in strength in tension due to
overloading is known as
(a) hysteresis
(b) creep
(c) visco elasticity
(d) Boeschinger effect
(e) inelasticity.
Ans: d

79. Process of austempering results in

(a) formation of bainite structure
(b) carburised structure
(c) martenistic structure
(d) lamellar layers of carbide distributed throughout the structure
(e) relieving of stresses throughout a com-ponent.
Ans: a

80. The surface hardness of the following order is achieved by nit riding operation
(a) 600 VPN
(b) 1500 VPN
(c) 1000 to 1100 VPN
(d) 250 VPN
(e) 2000 VPN.
Ans: c

81. Hardness of martensite is about

(a) RC 65
(b) RC 48
(c) RC 57
(d) RC 80
(e) RC 32.
Ans: a

82. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with

(a) cast iron
(b) mild steel
(c) non-ferrous materials
(d) wrought iron
(e) stainless steel.
Ans: e

83. Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to relieve stresses
(a) hot working
(b) tempering
(c) normalising
(d) annealing
(e) special heat treatment.
Ans: d

84. Hardness of upper bainite (acicular structure) is about

(a) RC 65
(b) RC 48
(c) RC 57
(d) RC 80
(e) RC 32.
Ans: b

85. Carbon in iron is an example of

(a) substitutional solution
(b) interstitial solid solution
(c) intermetallic compounds
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

86. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of

(a) substitutional solid solution
(b) interstitial solid solution
(c) intermetallic compounds
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

87. Which is false statement about annealing.

Annealing is done to
(a) relieve stresses
(b) harden steel slightly
(c) improve machining characteristic
(d) soften material
(e) permit further cold working.
Ans: b

88. Argentite is the principal ore or raw material for

(a) aluminium
(b) tin
(c) zinc
(e) lead
(e) silver.
Ans: e

89. Hardness of lower bainite (tempered martensite) is about

(a) RC 65
(b) RC 48
(c) RC 57
(d) RC 80
(e) RC 32.
Ans: c

90. Which is false statement about normalising. Normalising is done to

(a) refine grain structure
(b) reduce segregation in casting
(c) improve mechanical properties
(d) induce stresses-
(e) relieve internal stresses.
Ans: d

91. Vanadium in high speed steels

(a) promotes decarburisation
(b) provides high hot hardness
(c) forms very hard carbides and thus in-creases wear resistance
(d) promotes retention of austenite
(e) increases toughness.
Ans: c

92. Amorphous material is one

(a) in which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon solidification
(b) in which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in a random pattern just as in
a liquid
(c) which is not attacked by phosphorous
(d) which emits fumes on melting
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
93. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect
(a) point defect
(b) line defect
(c) plane defect
(d) volumetric defect
(e) chemical defect.
Ans: b

94. An example of amorphous material is

(a) zinc
(b) lead
(c) silver
(d) glass
(e) brass.
Ans: d

95. Which is false statement about tempering.

Tempering is done to
(a) improve machinability
(b) improve ductility
(c) improve toughness
(d) release stresses
(e) reduce hardness and brittleness.
Ans: a

96. Which is false statement about case hardening. Case hardening is done by
(a) electroplating
(b) cyaniding
(c) induction hardening
(d) nitriding
(e) flame hardening.
Ans: a

97. Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides

(a) cobalt
(b) nickel
(c) vanadium
(d) iron
(e) carbon.
Ans: a

98. Chromium in steel

(a) improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
(b) refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat
resistant properties
(c) improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
(d) gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties
(e) makes steel hard.
Ans: a

99. Manganese in steel increases its

(a) tensile strength
(b) hardness
(c) ductility
(d) fluidity
(e) malleability.
Ans: a

100. Cemented carbide tools are nqt found to be suitable for cutting
(a) brass
(b) cast iron
(c) aluminium
(d) steel
(e) non-ferrous alloys.
Ans: d

101. Sulphur in steel

(a) acts as deoxidiser
(b) reduces the grain size
(c) decreases tensile strength and hard-ness
(d) lowers the toughness and transverse ductility
(e) increases hardness.
Ans: d

102. Tungsten in steel

(a) improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
(b) refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat
resistant properties
(c) improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
(d) gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties
(e) raises its melting point.
Ans: b

103. Tungsten in high speed steel provides

(a) hot hardness
(b) toughness
(c) wear resistance
(d) sharp cutting edge
(e) cold hardness.
Ans: a
104. Which of the following is not the correct method of increasing fatigue limit
(a) shot peening
(b) nitriding of surface
(c) cold working
(d) surface decarburisation
(e) under-stressing.
Ans: d

105. Connecting rod is usually made of

(a) aluminium
(b) low carbon steel
(c) medium carbon steel
(d) high carbon steel
(e) cast iron.
Ans: c

106. Which of lh6 following pipes is least corrosion resistant

(a) brass
(b) mild steel
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought iron
(e) copper.
Ans: d

107. Tensile strength of steel can be safely in-creased by

(a) adding carbon upto 2.8%
(b) adding carbon upto 6.3%
(c) adding carbon upto 0.83%
(d) adding small quantities of copper
(e) adding copper and carbon.
Ans: c

108. High carbon steel carries carbon %age c

(a) 0.1 to 0.3%
(b) 0.3 to 0.6%
(c) 0.6 to 0.8%
(d) 0.8 to 1.5%
(e) 1.5 to 2.5%.
Ans: d

109. Cobalt in steel

(a) improves wear resistance, cuttin ability and toughness
(b) refines grain size and produces les tendency to caricaturisation, improve corrosion and heat
resistant proper ties
(c) improves cutting ability and reduce harden ability
(d) gives ductility, toughness, tensil strength and anti corrosion properties:
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

110. The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is

(a) 0.05%
(b) 0.15%
(c) 0.3%
(d) 0.5%
(e) 0.7%.
Ans: b

111. The hardness of steel increases if it contains

(a) austenite
(b) martensite
(c) pearlite
(d) cementite
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

112. Grey cast iron

(a) contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast
iron
(b) is also known as chilled cast iron am is obtained by cooling rapidly. It i: almost
unmachinable
(c) is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily machinec metal
(d) is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle Graphite is in nodular
or spheroida form and is well dispersed throughou the material
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: a

113. Nodular iron has

(a) high machineability
(b) low melting point
(c) high tensile strength
(d) good fluidity
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

114. Nickel in steel

(a) improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
(b) refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat
resistant properties
(c) improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
(d) gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
115. Which of the following elements does not impart hardness to steel
(a) copper
(b) chromium
(c) nickel
(d) silicon
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

116. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes

(a) it easily machinable
(b) it brittle
(c) it hard
(d) the casting unsound
(e) increases the fluidity.
Ans: d

117. Melting point of iron is

(a) 1539°C
(b) 1601°C
(c) 1489°C
(d) 1712°C
(e) 1131°C.
Ans: a

118. Compressive strength of grey cast iron in tonnes/cm is of the order of

(a) 3- 5
(b) 5-7
(c) 7-10
(d) 10-15
(e) 15-22.
Ans: b

119. Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore

(a) cast iron
(b) pig iron
(c) wrought iron
(d) malleable iron
(e) white iron.
Ans: b

120. Cupola produces following material

a) cast iron
(b) pig iron
(C) wrought iron
(d) malleable iron
(e) white iron.
Ans: a

121. The machinability of steel is increased by

(a) silicon and sulphur
(b) phosphorous, lead and sulphur
(c) sulphur, graphite and aluminium
(d) phosphorous and aluminium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

122. The following element can't impart high strength at elevated temperature
(a) manganese
(b) magnesium
(c) nickel
(d) silicon
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

123. Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite in C.I.
(a) carbon
(b) sulphur
(c) silicon
(d) manganese
(e) phosphorous.
Ans: c

124. White cast iron

(a) contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast
iron
(b) is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachine
able
(c) is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
(d) is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in
nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

125. Cold rolled steel sheets contain carbon of the following order
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.4%
(d) 0.6%
(e) 0.8%.
Ans: a
126. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of
(a) cold rolled steel
(b) hot rolled steel
(c) forged steel
(d) cast steel
(e) carbon-chrome steel.
Ans: a

127. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon upto
(a) 0.05 to 0.20%
(b) 0.20 to 0.45%
(c) 0.45 to 0.55%
(d) 0.55 to 1.0%
(e) 1.0 to 1.2%.
Ans: c

128. Heavy duty leaf and coil spring* contain carbon of the following order
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 1.0%
(e) 1.5%.
Ans: d

129. Taps, dies and drills contain carbon

(a) below 0.5%
(b) below 1%
(c) above 1%
(d) above 2.2%
(e) nil.
Ans: c

130. Drop forging dies contain carbon of the order of

(a) 0.1 to 0.2%
(b) 0.25 to 0.5%
(c) 0.6 to 0.7%
(d) 0.7 to 0.9%
(e) 1.0 to 1.2%.
Ans: c

131. Which is the false statement about wrought iron. It has

(a) high resistance to rusting and corrosion
(b) high ductility
(c) ability of hold protective coating
(d) easily weld able characteristics
(e) uniform strength in all directions.
Ans: e

132. The tensile strength of wrought iron is maximum

(a) along the lines of slag distribution
(b) perpendicular to lines of slag dis-tribution
(c) uniform in all directions
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

133. Balls for ball bearings are made of

(a) cast iron
(b) mild steel
(c) stainless steel
(d) carbon-chrome steel
(e) high carbon steel.
Ans: d

134. Malleable cast iron

(a) contains lv7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast
iron
(b) is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost
unmachinable
(c) is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily machined metal
(d) is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle. Graphite is in the
nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

135. Preheating is essential in welding

(a) cast iron
(b) high speed steel
(c) all non-ferrous materials
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

136. The hardness of steel primarily depends on

(a) %age of carbon
(b) %age of alloying elements
(c) heat treatment employed
(d) method of manufacture
(e) shape of carbides and their distribution in iron.
Ans: e

137. Steel made from phosphoric iron is

(a) brittle
(b) hard
(c) ductile
(d) tough
(e) malleable.
Ans: a

138. Ductile cast iron

(a) contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast
iron
(b) is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost
unmachinable
(c) is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
(d) is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in
nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

139. Brass contains

(a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(b) 90% copper and 10% tin
(c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(d) 70-75% copper and rest tin
(e) 70% copper and 30% tin.
Ans: a

140. The crystal structure of brass is

(a) F.C.C.
(b) B.C.C.
(c) H.C.P.
(d) Orthorhombic crystalline structure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

141. The composition of silver solder is

(a) silver, copper, zinc
(b) silver, tin, nickel
(c) silver, lead, zinc
(d) silver, copper, aluminium
(e) silver, lead, tin.
Ans: a

142. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than the others?
(a) copper
(b) brass
(c) lead
(d) silver
(e) aluminium.
Ans: b

143. A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope shows

(a) B.C.C. crystalline structure
(b) F.C.C. crystal structure
(c) H.C.P. structure
(d) a complex cubic structure
(e) orthorhombic crystalline structure.
Ans: b

144. The usual composition of a soldering alloy is

(a) tin, lead and small percentage of anti mony
(b) tin and lead
(c) tin, lead and silver
(d) tin and copper
(e) tin, copper and lead.
Ans: a

145. Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper and zinc in the following
ratio
(a) 50 : 50
(b) 30 : 70
(c) 70 : 30
(d) 40 : 60
(e) 60 : 40.
Ans: b

146. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding

(a) chromium and nickel
(b) nickel and molybdenum
(c) aluminium and zinc
(d) tungsten and sulphur
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

147. Corrundum contains more than 95%

(a) steel
(b) A1203
(c) Si02
(d) MgO
(e) german silver.
Ans: b

148. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains iron, nickel, aluminum
and cobalt in the following ratio
(a) 50 : 20 : 20 : 10
(b) 40 : 30 : 20 : 10
(c) 50 : 20 : 10 : 20
(d) 30 : 20 : 30 : 20
(e) 50 : 10 : 20 : 20.
Ans: a

149. If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory is

(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) neutral
(d) brittle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

150. Bell metal contains

(a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(b) 90% copper and 10% tin
(c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(d) 70-75% copper and rest tin
(e) 70-75% copper and rest zinc and tin.
Ans: d

151. Which of the following is used for bearing liner

(a) gun metal
(b) bronze
(c) bell metal
(d) babbit metal
(e) brass.
Ans: d

152. The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is

(a) grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron
(b) low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron
(c) wrought iron,low carbon steel, grey cast iron
(d) wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel
(e) grey cast iron, wrought iron, low carbon steel.
Ans: a

153. Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements

(a) nickel, chromium and manganese
(b) tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous
(c) lead, tin, aluminium
(d) zinc, sulphur, and chromium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

154. Aluminium bronze contains aluminium and copper in the ratio of

(a) 50 : 50
(b) 40 : 60
(c) 60 : 40
(d) 10 : 90
(e) 90 : 10.
Ans: d

155. Bronze contains

(a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(b) 90% copper and 10% tin
(c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(d) 70-75% copper and rest tin
(e) 90% copper and 1C% zinc.
Ans: b

156. Muntz metal contains copper and zinc in the ratio of

(a) 50 : 50
(b) 40 : 60
(c) 60 : 40
(d) 20 : 80
(e) 80 : 20.
Ans: c

157. Gun metal contains

(a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(b) 90% copper and 10% tin
(c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(d) 70-78% copper and rest tin
(e) 85-92% copper and rest zinc.
Ans: c

158. Perminvar alloy having constant permeability is an alloy of

(a) nickel, copper and iron
(b) nickel, copper and zinc
(c) copper, nickel and antimony
(d) iron, zinc and bismuth
(e) antimony, copper and zinc.
Ans: a

159. The alloy used for making electrical resistances and heating elements is
(a) nichrome
(b) invar
(c) magnin
(d) elinvar
(e) peiminvar.
Ans: a

160. Monel metal contains

(a) 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
(b) 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
(c) alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
(d) malleable iron and zinc
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

163. Permalloy is a
(a) kind of stainless steel
(b) none ferrous alloy
(c) polymer
(d) cutting tool material
(e) nickel and iron alloy having high per¬meability.
Ans: e

164. Phosphor bronze contains

(a) 0.5% of phosphorous
(b) 1% phosphorous
(c) 2.5% phosphorous
(d) 5% phosphorous
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

165. Free cutting steels

(a) are used where ease in machining is the criterion
(b) contain carbon in free form
(c) require least cutting force
(d) do not exist
(e) can be cut freely even under adverse conditions.
Ans: a

166. Delta metal is an alloy of

(a) copper, zinc and iron
(b) iron, nickel and copper
(c) iron, lead and tin
(d) iron, aluminium and magnesium
(e) copper, zinc and antimony.
Ans: a

167. Admiralty gun metal contains

(a) 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
(b) 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc
(c) alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
(d) iron scrap and zinc
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

168. Which of the following alloys does not contain tin

(a) white metal
(b) solder admiralty
(c) fusible metal
(d) phosphor bronze
(e) gun metal.
Ans: a

169. Which is false statement about properties of aluminium

(a) modulus of elasticity is fairly low
(b) wear resistance is very good
(c) fatigue strength is not high
(d) creep strength limits its use to fairly low temperatures
(e) corrosion resistance is good.
Ans: b

170. Addition of copper to aluminium results in

(a) improvement of casting characteristics
(b) improvement of corrosion resistance
(c) one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
(d) improving machinability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

171. Addition of manganese to aluminium results in

(a) improvement of casting charac¬teristics
(b) improvement of corrosion resistance
(c) one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
(d) improving machinability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

172. Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for watches, etc. contains the
following element as principal alloying element
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) zinc
(e) nickel.
Ans: e
173. Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the constituents
(a) delta metal
(b) monel metal
(c) constantan
(d) nichrome
(e) silicon bronze.
Ans: d

174. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminium results in

(a) improvement of casting characteristics
(b) improvement of corrosion resistance
(c) one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
(d) improving machinability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

175. Addition of silicon to aluminium results in

(a) improvement of casting characteristics
(b) improvement of corrosion resistance
(c) one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
(d) improving machinability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

176. Constantant an alloy used in thermocouples is an alloy of

(a) copper and tin
(b) copper and zinc
(c) copper and iron
(d) copper and nickel
(e) copper and chromium.
Ans: d

177. White metal contains

(a) 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
(b) 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
(c) alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
(d) silver and chromium
(e) malleable cast iron and silver.
Ans: c

178. German silver contains

(a) 1% silver
(b) 2.5% silver
(c) 5% silver
(d) 10% silver
(e) 100% silver.
Ans: c

179. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials
(a) magnesium alloys
(b) titanium alloys
(c) chromium alloys
(d) magnetic steel alloys
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

180. Dow metal contains

(a) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(b) 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg
(c) J 0% aluminium and 90% copper
(d) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
(e) 90% magnesium and 10% tin.
Ans: d

181. Foundry crucible is made of

(a) mild steel
(b) german silver
(c) lead
(d) cast iron
(e) graphite.
Ans: e

182. Age-hardening is related with

(a) stainless steel
(b) gun metal
(c) german silver
(d) duralumin
(e) cast iron.
Ans: d

183. Aluminium bronze contains

(a) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(b) 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
(c) 10% aluminium and 90% copper
(d) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
(e) 10% aluminium and 90% tin.
Ans: c

184. Babbit metal is a

(a) lead base alloy
(b) tin base alloy
(c) copper base alloy
(d) all of the above
(e) (a) and (c) above.
Ans: e

185. The correct composition of Babbit metal is

(a) 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi
(b) 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg
(c) 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al
(d) 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

186. DuraJomin contains

(a) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(b) 92.5% aluminium, 40% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
(c) 10% aluminium and 90% copper
(d) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
(e) 94% aluminium and 6% tin.
Ans: a

187. Neutral solution is one which has pH value

(a) greater than 7
(b) less than 7
(c) equal to 7
(d) pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

188. Acidic solution is one which has pH value

(a) greater than 7
(b) less than 7
(c) equal to 7
(d) pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

189. Basic solution is one which has pH value

(a) greater than 7
(b) equal to 7
(c) less than 7
(d) pH value has nothing to do with basic solution
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

190. Following elements have face-centred cubic structure

(a) gamma iron (910° to 1400°C), Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Ni, Pb, Pt
(b) Mg, Zn, Ti, Zr, Br, Cd
(c) a iron (below 910°C and between 1400 to 1539°C), W
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

191. Recrystallisation temperature can belowered by

(a) purification of metal
(b) grain refinement
(c) working at lower temperature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

192. Pearlite is a combination of

(a) ferrite and cementite
(b) cementite and gamma iron
(c) ferrite and austenite
(d) ferrite and iron graphite
(e) pearlite and ferrite.
Ans: a

193. Austenite rs a combination of

(a) ferrite and cementite
(b) cementite and gamma iron
(c) ferrite and austenite
(d) ferrite and iron graphite
(e) pearlite and ferrite.
Ans: b

194. The transistor is made of

(a) silver
(b) gold
(c) copper
(d) germanium
(e) german silver.
Ans: d

195. Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may be made of
(a) cast iron
(b) vitrified clay
(c) asbestos cement
(d) concrete
(e) mild steel.
Ans: a
Heat Transfer - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers for competitive exams

Labels: Mechanical Engineering Objective type questions

1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is

(a) kcal/kg m2 °C
(b) kcal-m/hr m2 °C
(c) kcal/hr m2 °C
(d) kcal-m/hr °C
(e) kcal-m/m2 °C.

Ans: b
2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
(a) J/m2 sec
(b) J/m °K sec
(c) W/m °K
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) (b) and (c) above.

Ans: e
3. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: b
4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: b
5. Heat transfer takes place as per -
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamic
(c) second law of the thermodynamics
(d) Kirchhoff law (e) Stefan's law.

Ans: c
6. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated
particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.

Ans: a
7. When heat is transferred form hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the
intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: c

8. Sensible heat is the heat required to

(a) change vapour into liquid
(b) change liquid into vapour
(c) increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
(d) convert water into steam and superheat it
(e) convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: c

9. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would

(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase/decrease depending on temperature and thickness of insulation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

10. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by

(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) scattering
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: b

11. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by

(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: b

12. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation

(a) blast furnace
(b) heating of building
(c) cooling of parts in furnace
(d) heat received by a person from fireplace
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

13. Heat is closely related with

(a) liquids
(b) energy
(c) temperature
(d) entropy
(e) enthalpy.
Ans: c

14. Pick up tne wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to other depends directly on
(a) face area
(b) time
(c) thickness
(d) temperature difference
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: c

15. Metals are good conductors of heat because

(a) their atoms collide frequently
(b) thier atoms-are relatively far apart
(c) they contain free electrons
(d) they have high density
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

16. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer

(a) I.C. engine
(b) air preheaters
(c) heating of building in winter
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

17. Total heat is the heat required to

(a) change vapour into liquid
(b) change liquid into vapour
(c) increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
(d) convert water into steam and superheat it
(e) convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: d

18. Cork is a good insulator because it has

(a) free electrons
(b) atoms colliding frequency
(c) low density
(d) porous body
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

19. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

20. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.42
(d) 0.51
(e) 0.64.
Ans: d
21. Temperature of steam at around 540°C canbe measured by
(a) thermometer
(b) radiatiouv pyrometer
(c) thermistor
(d) thermocouple
(e) thermopile.
Ans: d

22. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C is of the order of

(a) 0.002
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.1
(e) 0.5.
Ans: b

23. The time constant of a thermocouple is

(a) the time taken to attain the final temperature to be measured
(b) the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature difference
(c) the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial temperature difference
(d) determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

24. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

25. Heat flows from one body to other when they have
(a) different heat contents
(b) different specific heat
(c) different atomic structure
(d) different temperatures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

26. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in heat transfer problems of
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all the three combined
(e) conduction and comte_ction.
Ans: e

27. In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by

(a) hr (time)
(b) sqm (area)
(c) °C (temperature)
(d) cm (thickness)
(e) kcal (heat).
Ans: d

28. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is

(a) directly proportional to the surface area of the body
(b) directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two faces of the body
(c) dependent upon the material of the body
(d) inversely proportional to the thickness of the body
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

29. Which of the following has least value of conductivity

(a) glass
(b) water
(c) plastic
(d) rubber
(e) air.
Ans: e

30. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity

(a) steam
(b) solid ice
(c) melting ice
(d) water
(e) boiling water.
Ans: b

31. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies from sample to sample because of variation in
(a) composition
(b) density
(c) porosity
(d) structure
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

32. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the

(a) quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm cube of material when opposite faces ^re
maintained at a temperature difference of 1°C
(b) quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the material of area one cm square,
thickness 1 cm when its faces differ in temperature by 1°C
(c) heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness when a temperature difference
of unity is maintained between opposite faces
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

33. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity

(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
(e) lead.
Ans: a

34. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it is prevented by
(a) high thickness of insulation
(b) high vapour pressure
(c) less thermal conductivity insulator
(d) a vapour seal
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

35. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz, conduction, convection and radiation in
(a) electric heater
(b) steam condenser
(c) melting of ice
(d) refrigerator condenser coils
(e) boiler.
Ans: e

36. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange

(a) it is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to t high temperature source
(b) heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
(c) all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
(d) heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by combination of conduction, convection and
radiation
(e) rate of heat transfer depends on thermal conductivity and temperature difference.
Ans: c

37. The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same thickness having their thermal conductivities
as ATj - 2K2 will be
(a) I
(b) 0.5
(c) 2
(d) 0.25
(e) 4.0
Ans: c

38. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon

(a) its temperature
(b) nature of the body
(c) kind and extent of its surface
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

39. Thermal diffusivity is

(a) a dimensionless parameter
(b) function of temperature
(c) used as mathematical model
(d) a physical property of the material
(e) useful in case of heat transfer by radiation.
Ans: d

40. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .

(a) proportional of thermal conductivity
(b) inversely proportional to k
(c) proportional to (kf
(d) inversely proportional to k2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

41. Unit of thermal diffusivity is

(a) m2/hr
(b) m2/hr°C
(c) kcal/m2 hr
(d) kcal/m.hr°C
(e) kcal/m2 hr°C.
Ans: a

43. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on

(a) moisture
(b) density
(c) temperature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

44. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even though flow may be turbulent,
a laminar flow region (boundary layer of film) exists close to the tube. The heat transfer through this film
takes place by
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) both convection and conduction
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

45. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube

(a) Equivalent thickness of film
(b) Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat x Viscosity
(c) Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermal diffusivity
(d) Film coefficient x Inside diameter Thermal conductivity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

46. Heat conducted through unit area and unit thick face per unit time when temperature difference
between opposite faces is unity,is called
(a) thermal resistance
(b) thermal coefficient
(c) temperature gradient
(d) thermal conductivity
(e) heat-transfer.
Ans: d

49. The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit solid angle, along a normal to the
surface, is known as
(a) emissivity
(b) transmissive
(c) reflectivity
(d) intensity of radiation
(e) absorptivity.
Ans: d

50. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is

(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends upon the shape of body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

51. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

(a) varies with temperature
(b) varies with wavelength of the incident ray
(c) is equal to its emissivity
(d) does not vary with temperature and. wavelength of the incident ray
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

53. Two balls of same material and finish have their diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both are heated
to same temperature and allowed to cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball as compared to
smaller one will be in the ratio of
(a) 1 :1
(b) 2: 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 4 : 1
(e) 1 : 4.
Ans: c

55. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection heat transfer is
(a) Grashoff number
(b) Nusselt number
(c) Weber number
(d) Prandtl number
(e) Reynold number.
Ans: a

56. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared-to parallel flow heat exchanger is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends on the area of heat exchanger
(e) depends on temperature conditions.
Ans: a

57. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between temperatures of
(a) cold water inlet and outlet
(b) hot medium inlet and outlet
(c) hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
(d) hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

58. In counter flow heat exchangers

(a) both the fluids at inlet (of heat exchanger where hot fluid enters) are in their coldest state
(b) both the fluids at inlet are in their hottest state
(c) both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state
(d) one fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state at inlet
(e) any combination is possible depending on design of heat exchanger.
Ans: b

59. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating materials put over each other. For best results
(a) better insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
(b) inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
(c) both may be put in any order
(d) whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one would depend on steam temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

61. Fourier's law of heat conduction is valid for

(a) one dimensional cases only
(b) two dimensional cases only
(c) three dimensional cases only
(d) regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients
(e) irregular surfaces.
Ans: a

62. According of Kirchhoff law,

(a) radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute temperature
(b) emissive power depends on temperature
(c) emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all bodies
(d) ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is maximum for perfectly black body
(e) ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all bodies is same and is equal to the emissive
power of a perfectly black body.
Ans: e

63. All radiations in a black body are

(a) reflected
(b) refracted
(c) transmitted
(d) absorbed
(e) partly reflected and partly absorbed.
Ans: d

64. According to Kirchoff's law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for all bodies is equal to the
emissive power of a
(a) grey body
(b) brilliant white polished body
(c) red hot body
(d) black body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

65. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in case of heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: d

66. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is

(a) kcal/m2
(b) kcal/hr °C
(c) kcal/m2 hr °C
(4) kacl/m hr °C
(e) kcal/m3 hr °C.
Ans: c

68. Joule sec is the unit of

(a) universal gas constant
(b) kinematic viscosity
(c) thermal conductivity
(d) Planck's constant
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

69. The value of Portland number for air is about

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.7
(d) 1.7
(e) 10.5.
Ans: c

70. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by
(a) Wien's law
(b) Planck's law
(c) Stefan's law
(d) Fourier's law
(e) Kirchhoff's law.
Ans: a

72. Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow compared to parallel flow will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

73. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher temperatures is largely in the range of
(a) shorter wavelength
(b) longer wavelength
(c) remains same at all wavelengths
(d) wavelength has nothing to do with it
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

74. Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black body is

(a) same
(b) higher
(c) more or less same
(d) very much lower
(e) very much higher.
Ans: d

75. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit radiant energy at a rate proportional to
(a) absolute temperature
(b) square of temperature
(c) fourth power of absolute temperature
(d) fourth power of temperature
(e) cube of absolute temperature.
Ans: c

76. Which of the following property of air does not increase with rise in temperature
(a) thermal conductivity
(b) thermal diffusivity
(c) density
(d) dynamic viscosity
(e) kuiematic viscosity.
Ans: c

77. The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is

(a) watt/cm2 °K
(b) watt/cm4 °K
(c) watt2/cm °K4
(d) watt/cm2 °K4
(e) watt/cm2 °K2.
Ans: d

78. In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of

(a) Grashoff no. and Reynold no.
(b) Grashoff no. and Prandtl no.
(c) Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
(d) Grashoff no., Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

79. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by

(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and radiation combined
(e) convection and radiation combined.
Ans: c
80. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally
(a) more than those for liquids
(b) less than those for liquids
(c) more than those for solids
(d) dependent on the viscosity
(e) same as for the liquids.
Ans: a

81. The thermal diffusivities for solids are generally

(a) less than those for gases
(b) jess than those for liquids
(c) more than those for liquids and gases
(d) more or less same as for liquids and gases
(e) zerci.
Ans: c

83. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is

(a) directly proportional to thermal conductivity
(b) inversely proportional to density of substance
(c) inversely proportional to specific heat
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

85. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the same and is equal to the
emissive power of a perfectly black body. This statement is known as
(a) Krichoff's law
(b) Stefan's law
(c) Wien' law
(d) Planck's law
(e) Black body law.
Ans: a

86. According to Stefan's law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is
proportional to
(a) absolute temperature
(b) T2
(c) T5
(d) t
(e) l/T.
Ans: d
87. According to Wien's law, the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy is proportion to
(a) absolute temperature (T)
(b) I2
(c) f
(d) t
(e) 1/r.
Ans: a

88. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be white when

(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,T = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x = 0, a + p = 1
(e) a = 0, x + p = 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity
Ans: b

89. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be black when

(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p= l,T = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x = 0, a + p = 0
(e) a = 0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Ans: a

90. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque when

(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,x = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x - 0, a + p = 1
(e) a=0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Ans: d

91. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a black body per
unit
(a) temperature
(b) thickness
(c) area
(d) time
(e) area and time.
Ans: d

92. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is called
(a) absorptive power
(b) emissive power
(c) absorptivity
(d) emissivity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

93. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent body is reflected back. If
the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is
(a) 0.45
(b) 0.55
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
(e) 0.60.
Ans: a

94. The amount of radiation mainly depends on

(a) nature of body
(b) temperature of body
(c) type of surface of body
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

95. The emissive power of a body depends upon its

(a) temperature
(b) wave length
(c) physical nature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

96. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C and 70°C. The heat transfer will take
place mainly by
(a) convection
(b) free convection
(c) forced convection
(d) radiation
(e) radiation and convection.
Ans: d

97. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity

(a) at all temperatures
(b) at one particular temperature
(c) when system is under thermal equiplibrium
(d) at critical temperature
(e) for a polished body.
Ans: c

98. In re generator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by

(a) direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
(b) a complete separation between hot and cold fluids
(c) flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
(d) generation of heat again and again
(e) indirect transfer.
Ans: c

99. A perfect black body is one which

(a) is black in colour
(b) reflects all heat
(c) transmits all heat radiations
(d) abslprbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
(e) fully opaque.
Ans: d

100. Planck's law holds good for

(a) black bodies
(b) polished bodies
(c) all colored bodies
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

101. If the temperature of a solid surface changes form 27°C to 627°C, then its emissive power changes
in the ratio of
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 27
(e) 81.
Ans: e

102. Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent when

(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,x = 0, and a = 0
(c) p = 0, T= l, and a = 0
(d) X = 0, a + p = 1
(e) a = 0,x + p= 1.
Ans: c

103. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

(a) varies with temperature
(b) varies with the wave length of incident ray
(c) varies with both
(d) does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident ray
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: d

1. Work study is concerned with

(a) improving present method and finding standard time
(b) motivation of workers
(c) improving production capability
(d) improving production planning and control
(e) all of the above.

Ans: a
2. Basic tool in work study is
(a) graph paper
(b) process chart
(c) planning chart
(d) stop watch
(e) analytical mind.

Ans: d
3. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) transport
(d) delay/temporary storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
4. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study
(a) inspection
(b) transport
(c) delay/temporary storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c
5. What hoes symbol' V' imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) delay/ temporary Storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d
6. Material handling in automobile industry is done by
(a) overhead crane
(b) trolley
(c) belt conveyor
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a
7. String diagram is used when
(a) team of workers is working at a place
(b) material handling is to be done
(c) idle time is to be reduced
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

8. Work study is most useful

(a) where production activities are involved
(b) in judging the rating of machines
(c) in improving industrial relations
(d) in judging the output of a man and improving it
(e) where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.
Ans: a

9. Micromotion study is
(a) enlarged view of motion study
(b) analysis of one stage of motion study
(c) minute and detailed motion study
(d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
(e) motion study of small components upto microseconds.
Ans: d

10. In micromotion study, therblig is described by

(a) a symbol
(b) an event
(c) an activity
(d) micro motions
(e) standard symbol and colour.
Ans: e

11. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
(a) policy allowance
(b) interference allowance
(c) process allowance
(d) learning allowance
(e) unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a

12. Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions

(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 20
(e) 24
Ans: c

13. The standard time for a job is

(a) total work content
(b) basic time + relaxation time
(c) total work content + basic time
(d) total work content + delay contingency allowance
(e) total work content + relaxation time.
Ans: d

14. Work study is done with the help of

(a) process chart
(b) material handling
(c) stop watch
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

15. Scheduling gives information about

(a) when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period
(b) when work should complete
(c) that how idle time can be minimised
(d) prcper utilisation of machines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

16. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on

(a) operator's activity
(b) flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
(c) minimising the delays
(d) making efficient despatching
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

17. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to

(a) determine overhead expenses
(b) provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
(c) determine standard costs
(d) determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines
(e) compare alternative methods.
Ans: a

18. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the

(a) relative worth of jobs
(b) skills required by a worker
(c) contribution of a worker
(d) contribution of a job
(e) effectiveness of various alternatives.
Ans: a

19. Micro motion study is

(a) analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in the field
of view
(b) motion study* observed on enhanced time intervals
(c) motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
(d) study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
(e) scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method.
Ans: a

20. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by

(a) work sampling
(b) time study
(c) method study
(d) work study
(e) ABC analysis.
Ans: a

21. TMU in method time measurement stands for

(a) time motion unit
(b) time measurement unit
(c) time movement unit
(d) technique measurement unit
(e) time method unit.
Ans: b

22. Time study is

(a) the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort
(b) machine setting time
(c) time taken by workers to do a job
(d) method of fixing time for workers
(e) method of determining the personnel Requirement.
Ans: a

23. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of

(a) detailed calculations
(b) convenience
(c) table of random numbers
(d) past experience
(e) fixed percentage of daily production.
Ans: c

24. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement system equals
(a) 0.0001 minute
(b) 0.0006 minute
(c) 0.006 minute
(d) 0.001 minute
(e) 0.06 minute.
Ans: b
25. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

26. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for

(a) improving a work method
(b) improvising a work method
(c) designing a work method
(d) providing a schematic framework
(e) reducing inventory costs.
Ans: e

27. Gnatt chart provides information about the

(a) material handling
(b) proper utilization of manpower
(c) production schedule
(d) efficient working of machine
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

28. ABC analysis deals with

(a) analysis of process chart
(b) flow of material
(c) ordering schedule of job
(d) controlling inventory costs money
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

29. Process layout is employed for

(a) batch production
(b) continuous type of product
(c) effective utilization of machines
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

30. For a product layout the material handling equipment must

(a) have full flexibility
(b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
(c) be a general purpose type
(d) be designed as special purpose for a particular application
(e) arranging shops according to specialization of duties.
Ans: d

31. Travel charts provide

(a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
(b) a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections
(c) the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment
(d) an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station
(g) solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum^ results.
Ans: b

32. Product layout is employed for

(a) batch production
(b) continuous production1
(c) effective utilisation of machine
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

33. The most important objective behind plant layout is

(a) overall simplification, safety of integration
(b) economy in space
(c) maximum travel time in plant
(d) to provide conveniently located shops
(e) to avoid any bottlenecks.
Ans: a

34. The process layout is best suited where

(a) specialization exists
(b) machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
(c) few number of non-standardised units are to be produced
(d) mass production is envisaged
(e) bought out items are more.
Ans: c

35. A low unit cost can be obtained by following

(a) product layout
(b) functional layout
(c) automatic material handling equipment
(d) specialisation of operation
(e) minimum travel time plan and compact layout.
Ans: a

36. Military organisation is known as

(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

37. The main disadvantage of line organisation is

(a) top level executives have to do excessive work
(b) structure is rigid
(c) communication delays occur
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

38. The main advantage of line organisation is its

(a) effective command and control
(b) defined responsibilities at all levels
(c) rigid discipline in the organisation
(d) ability of quick decision at all levels
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

39. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as

(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

40. The salient feature of functional organization is

(a) strict adherence to specification
(b) separation of planning and design part
(c) each individual maintains functional efficiency
(d) work is properly planned and distributed
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

41. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

42. Templates are used for

(a) a planning layout
(b) flow of material
(c) advancing a programmer in automatic machines
(d) copying complicated profiles
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

43. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
(a) conveyors
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks
(d) locos
(e) none of jhe above.
Ans: d

44. Routing prescribes the

(a) flow oftnaterial in the plant
(b) proper utilization of man power
(c) proper utilization of machines
(d) inspection of final product
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

45. Queuing theory deals with problems of

(a) material handling
(b) reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
(c) better utilization of man services
(d) effective use of machines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
46. Standard time is defined as
(a) normal time + allowances
(b) normal time + idle time + allowances
(c) normal time + idle time
(d) only normal time for an operation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

47. Father of industrial engineering is

(a) Jeck Gilberth
(b) Gnatt
(c) Taylor
(d) Newton
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

48. The grouping of activities into organizational units is called

(a) corporate plans
(b) higher level management
(c) functional authority
(d) departmentalization
(e) company policy.
Ans: d

49. Which of the following organization is preferred in automobile industry

(a) functional organization
(b) line organization
(c) staff organization
(d) line and staff organizations
(e) scalar organization.
Ans: d

50. Which of the following organizations is best suited for steel plants
(a) functional organization
(b) line organization
(c) staff organization
(d) line, staff and functional organizations
(e) scalar organization.
Ans: d

51. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the
evaluation of the material issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a

52. Which of the following is independent of sales forecast

(a) productivity
(b) inventory control
(c) production planning
(d) production control
(e) capital budgeting.
Ans: a

53. Gnatt charts are used for

(a) forecasting sales
(b) production schedule
(c) scheduling and routing
(d) linear programming
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

54. Inventory management consists of

(a) effective running of stores
(b) state of merchandise methods of stroing and maintenance etc.
(c) stock control system
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

55. Gnatt charts provide information about

(a) break even point analysis
(b) production schedule
(c) material handling layout
(d) determining selling price
(e) value analysis.
Ans: b

56. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at

(a) achieving optimization
(b) ensuring against market fluctuations
(c) acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory
(d) discounts allowed in bulk purchase
(e) regulate supply and demand.
Ans: c

57. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the

(a) optimum lot size
(b) highest level of inventory
(c) lot corresponding to break-even point
(d) capability of a plant to produce
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

58. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of

(a) quality
(b) statistics
(c) probability
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

59. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is

(a) management
(b) labour court
(c) high court/supreme court
(d) board of directors
(e) president.
Ans: c

60. Under the Apprenticeship Act

(a) all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
(b) industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement
(c) all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices
(d) only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices
(e) all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.
Ans: d

61. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to

(a) all industries
(b) all process industries and thermal power plants
(c) only major industries
(d) only key industries
(e) all industries employing more than 100 workers.
Ans: e

62. Acceptance sampling is widely used in

(a) bacth production
(b) job production
(c) mass production
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

63. The technique of value analysis can be applied to

(a) complicated items only
(b) simple items only
(c) crash-programme items only
(d) cost consciousness items only
(e) any item.
Ans: e

64. The term 'value' in value engineering refers to

(a) total cost of the product
(b) selling price of the product
(c) utility of the product
(d) manufactured cost of the product
(e) depreciation value.
Ans: c

65. Value engineering aims at finding out the

(a) depreciation value of a product
(b) resale value of a product
(c) major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in quality
(d) break even point when machine re-quires change
(e) selling price of an item.
Ans: c

66. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) alarming value
(e) original value.
Ans: a

67. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
(a) CAM < DAM
(b) CAM > DAM
(c) CAM = DAM
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum)
Ans: a

68. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of

(a) a job
(b) an individual employee
(c) a particular division in workshop
(d) machine
(e) overall quality.
Ans: b

69. Material handling and plant location is analyzed by

(a) Gnatt chart
(b) bin chart
(c) Emerson chart
(d) travel chart
(e) activity chart.
Ans: d

70. Works cost implies

(a) primary cost
(b) factory cost
(c) factory expenses
(d) primary cost + factory expenses
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

71. Motion study involves analysis of

(a) actions of operator
(b) layout of work place
(c) tooling and equipment
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
72. Standard time as compared to normal time is
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) there is no such correlation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

73. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling

(a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
(b) simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer
(c) calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming
(d) no time measuring devices are generally needed
(e) as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are less.
Ans: a

74. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b

75. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production

(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b

76. Which of the following layouts is suited to job production

(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: a

77. The employees provident fund act is applicable to

(a) all industries
(b) all industries other than small and medium industries
(c) volunteers
(d) the industries notified by Government
(e) all major industries.
Ans: d

78. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is
(a) credited into reserves of company
(b) deposited in nationalized bank
(c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e

79. The deductions for, employees provident fund start

(a) immediately on joining the service
(b) after 60 days of joining the service
(c) after 100 days of joining the service
(d) after 240 days of joining the service
(e) after one year of joining the service.
Ans: d

80. Father of time study was

(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) H.L. Gantt
(c) F.B. Gilberfh
(d) R.M. Barnes
(e) H.B. Maynord.
Ans: a

81. Tick the odd man out

(a) Taylor
(b) Drucker
(c) McGregor
(d) Galileo
(e) Parkinson.
Ans: d

82. Current assets include

(a) manufacturing plant
(b) manufacturing plant and equipment
(c) inventories
(d) common stock held by the firm
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

83. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
(a) fast worker
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker
(d) new entrant
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b

84. Job enrichment technique is applied to

(a) reduce labour monotony
(b) overcome boring and demotivating work
(c) make people happy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

85. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: c

86. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established

(a) by time study
(b) from previous production records
(c) from one's judgement
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

87. Routing is essential in the following type of industry

(a) assembly industry
(b) process industry
(c) job order industry
(d) mass production industry
(e) steel industry.
Ans: a

88. An optimum project schedule implies

(a) optimum utilization of men, machines and materials
(b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
(c) timely execution of project
(d) to produce best results under given constraints
(e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits.
Ans: b

89. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
(ay break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(c) linear programming
(d) queuing theory
(e) material handling.
Ans: c

90. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?

(a) Scanlon Plan
(b) Rowan Plan
(c) Bedaux Plan
(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(e) Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a

91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

92. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is

(a) paid as per efficiency
(b) ensured of minimum wages
(c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency
(d) never a loser
(e) induced to do more work.
Ans: b
93. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
(a) purchase value
(b) saleable value
(c) depreciated value
(d) present worth
(e) function/cost.
Ans: e

94. Break-even analysis can be used for

(a) short run analysis
(b) long run analysis
(c) average of above two run analysis
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

95. CPM has following time estimate

(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: a

96. PERT has following time estimate

(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: c

97. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee
receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
(c) a job evaluation system
(d) his individual performance
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
98. Which of the following incentive pleasures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the
employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(e) Gilberth plan.
Ans: c

99. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan

(a) differential piece rate system
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Emerson plan
(d) Taylor plan
(e) Halsey plan.
Ans: d

100. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by
workers
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan
(d) Emerson's plan
(e) Taylor's plan.
Ans: c

101. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every
hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d) Halsey Premium plan
(e) Day work plan.
Ans: d

102. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that

(a) a differential piece rate system should exist
(b) minimum wages should be guaranteed
(c) provide incentive to group efficiency performance
(d) all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
(e) all standards should be based on time studies.
Ans: e
103. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his
efficiency reaches
(a) 50%
(b) 661%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: b

104. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will
be
(a) HA
(b) HA + (S~A) HA
(c) HA + ^^-H
(d) HA + ^^-H
(e) HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b

105. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings
can be
(a) 2 HA
(b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA
(d) 1.15 HA
(e) 2.5 HA.
Ans: a

106. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to

(a) those items which consume money
(b) those items which are not readily available
(c) those items which are in more demand
(d) those items which consume more money
(e) proper quality assurance program-mes.
Ans: d

107. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?

(a) Halsey Premium Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Lincoln Plan
(d) Rowan Plan
(e) Taylor Plan.
Ans: c
108. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner
is known as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b

109. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results

(a) relations between factors must be linear (positive)
(b) relations between factors must be linear (negative)
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

110. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

111. The simplex method is the basic method for

(a) value analysis
(b) operation research
(c) linear programming
(d) model analysis
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

112. The two-bin system is concerned with

(a) ordering procedure
(b) forecasting sales
(c) production planning
(d) despatching and expediting
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
113. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the
exact % of time
saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e

114. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:

(a) annual cost method
(b) rate of return method
(c) total life average method
(d) present worth method
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: e

115. String diagram is used

(a) for checking the relative values of various layouts
(b) when a group of workers are working at a place
(c) where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

116. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of
machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
(e) diminishing balance method.
Ans: d

117. Bin card is used in

(a) administrative wing
(b) workshop
(c) foundry shop
(d) stores
(e) assembly shop.
Ans: d
118. Slack represents the difference between the
(a) latest allowable time and the normal expected time
(b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
(c) proposed allowable time and the earliest expected time
(d) normal allowable time and the latest expected time
(e) project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Ans: b

119. PERT and CPM are

(a) techniques to determine project status
(b) decision making techniques
(c) charts which increase aesthetic appearance of rooms
(d) aids to determine cost implications of project
(e) aids to the decision maker.
Ans: e

120. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
(a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b) early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked
(c) activity times are clear
(d) critical path can be easily determined
(e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
Ans: e

121. CPM is the

(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: c

122. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include

(a) MTM (method time measurement)
(b) WFS (work factor systems)
(c) BNTS (basic motion time study)
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: d

123. Work study comprises following main techniques

(a) method study and work measurement
(b) method study and time study
(c) time study and work measurement
(d) method study and job evaluation
(e) value analysis and work measurement.
Ans: a

124. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others

(a) organization performance x motivation = profits
(b) knowledge x skill = ability
(c) ability x motivation = performance
(d) attitude x situation = motivation
(e) performance x resources
Ans: a

125. PERT is the

(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: b

126. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that

(a) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
(b) critical path is determined in PERT only
(c) costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
(d) guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
(e) PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Ans: d

127. PERT stands for k (fit) project evaluation and review technique
(b) project examination and review technique
(c) project evaluation and reporting technique
(d) process execution and reporting technology
(e) project execution and results technique.
Ans: a

128. Queing theory is used for

(a) inventory problems
(b) traffic congestion studies
(c) job-shop scheduling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

129. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analyzed
mathematically if
(a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are known
(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model
(c) all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are taken into
source are known
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

130. Queing theory is associated with

(a) sales
(b) inspection time
(c) waiting time
(d) production time
(e) inventory.
Ans: c

131. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that
(a) the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

132. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems
(a) that can't be analyzed mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

133. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its

(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) middle value
(e) alarming value.
Ans: a

134. A milestone chart

(a) shows the interdependences of various jobs
(b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(c) points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

135. Bar charts are suitable for

(a) minor works
(b) major works
(c) large projects
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

136. The first method invented for planning projects was

(a) bar chart method
(b) milestone chart
(c) critical path method (CPM)
(d) programmer evaluation and review technique (PERT)
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

137. Pick up the correct statement from the following

(a) programmer evaluation and review technique is event oriented
(b) programmer evaluation and review technique is not event oriented
(c) critical path method is event oriented
(d) critical.path method is not activity oriented
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

138. Pick up the correct statement from the following

(a) critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method
(b) critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems
(c) critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar chart
(d) critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of Remington
U.S.A in 1957
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

139. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(a) a project is divided into various activities
(b) required time for each activity is established
(c) sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
(d) network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

140. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the critical
activity meeting at the final iodide
(a) early finish
(b) early start
(c) late start
(d) late finish
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

141. The disadvantage of product layout is

(a) high initial investment for the specialized facilities
(b) skilled labour to operate machines
(c) production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory
(d) high cost of inspection
(e) costly and complex production control.
Ans: a

142. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in

(a) job production
(b) automatic production
(c) continuous production
(d) intermittent production
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

143. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance

(a) the flow of material in the plant
(b) the methods of proper utilization of manpower
(c) the methods of proper utilization of machines
(d) the layout of factory facilities
(e) normal route of workers through the plant.
Ans: c

144. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as

(a) dummy
(b) event
(c) activity
(d) contract
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

145. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following

(a) an activity of the project is denoted by an harrow on the net work
(b) the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
(c) the head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity

(d) the arrows are drawn (to scale from; left to right)
(e) each activity consumes a given time.-
Ans: d

146. The artificial activity; which indicates that an activity following it cannot be started unless, the
preceding activity is complete, is known as
(a) event
(b) free float
(c) artificial
(d) constraint
(e) dummy.
Ans: e

147. A dummy activity

(a) is artificially introduced
(b) is represented by a dotted line
(c) does not require any time
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

148. If E is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest start and finish times, LS and LF are latest start and
finish times, then the following relation holds good
(a) EF=ES+D
(b) LS=LF-D
(c) LF = LS + D
(d) D = EF-ES
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

149. The difference between the time available to do the job and the time required to do the job, is
known as
(a) event
(b) float
(c) duration
(d) constraint
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

150. The probability distribution of activity times in PERT follows following distribution
(a) normal
(b) binomial
(c) beta
(d) exponential
(e) Gaussian.
Ans: c

151. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows following distribution
(a) normal
(b) binominal
(c) beta
(d) exponential
(e) Gaussian.
Ans: e

152. If TL is the largest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack (s) is equal to
(a) latest start time - earliest start time
(b) latest finish time - earliest finish time (EFT)
(c) TLEFT
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

153. The critical activity has

(a) maximum float
(p) minimum float
(c) zero float,
(d) average float
(e) none of these.
Ans: c

154. The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of
succeeding activities, is Known as
(a) duration
(b) total float
(c) free float
(d) interfering float
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

155. The critical path of a network represents

(a) the minimum time required for completion of project
(b) the maximum time required for completion of project
(c) maximum cost required for completion of project
(d) minimum cost required for completion of project
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

156. Pick up the correct statement from the following

(a) the float may be positive, zero or negative
(b) if the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the completion
of project in not delayed
(c) if the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the completion of
project
(d) if the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the
whole project
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

157. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of
(a) positive value
(b) negative value
(c) zero value
(d) same value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

158. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer

(a) to concentrate his attention on critical activities
(b) to divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activities
(c) to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole project
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

159. Pick up the correct statement about relationship between various floats
(a) free float = total float
(b) independent float = total float
(c) independent float > free float
(d) free float > total float
(e) independent float < free float.
Ans: e

160. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is known as
(a) normal time
(b) slow time
(c) crash time
(d) standard time
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

161. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of any project is
known as
(a) event flow scheduling technique
(b) critical ratio scheduling
(c) slotting technique for scheduling
(d) short interval scheduling
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

162. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. A critical ratio scheduling
(a) establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis
(b) determines the status of each activity
(c) adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
(d) is a dynamic system
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

163. PERT is
(a) an analytic tool in concept
(b) limit up of event oriented diagrams
(c) used for research and development projects
(d) based on three time estimates for activities linking up two events
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

164. CPMis
(a) synthesizing in concepts
(b) is built of activities oriented program-mes
(c) is, based on one time estimate
(d) is used for repetitive works
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

165. A CPM family includes

(a) CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
(b) CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
(c) MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
(d) CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

166. PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for following applications

(a) once through project
(b) maintenance jobs
(c) research and development
(d) all non-technical jobs
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

167. PERT analysis is based on

(a) optimistic time
(b) pessimistic time
(c) most likely time
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

168. Discrepancies of bar chart techniques are

(a) consequential effects of lack in one activity on omer
(b) consequential effects of lack in one activity on the finish date
(c) free time available for an activity can't be predicted
(d) effective monitoring/controlling can't be done
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
169. O on a PERT/CPM chart represents
(a) an ordinary event
(b) a significant event representing some mile-stone
(c) an event to be transferred to other network chart
(d) dangling event
(e) dummy event.
Ans: a

170. Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM chart means, it
(a) consumes time, but no resources
(b) consumes resources but no time
(c) consumes neither time nor resources
(d) is a dangling event
(e) consumes both resources and time.
Ans: c

171. Criticalpath on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by joining the events having

(a) maximum slack
(b) minimum slack
(c) average slack
(d) no slack
(e) judgement and experience.
Ans: b

172. Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT/CPM chart

(a) increases continuously
(b) decreases continuously
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on various factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

173. The assumption in PERT is

(a) a project will always be behind schedule, if left uncorrected
(b) cost of project will always be more than the estimated cost, if no timely corrections are taken
(c) a project can be subdivided into a set of predictable, independent activities
(d) activities are fixed and can't be changed ,
(e) commissioning time can be changed, if activities are behind schedule.
Ans: c

174. Activity s,lack or float of any event on a PERT/CPM chart is represented by

(a) latest start time of succeeding event -earliest finish time of preceding event activity time
(b) latest start time of the event - earliest start time of the event
(c) latest finish time of event - earliest finish time of the event
(d) anyone of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

175. The important iule in making a PERT is

(a) an event can't be accomplished until activities leading to it are completed
(b) no activity from any event can be started from preceding event till it is completed
(c) length of arrow has nothing to do with time
(d) every activity must be completed before end point is reached
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

176. An event is indicated on the network by

(a) a straight line
(b) a number enclosed in a circle or a square
(c) a straight line with circles at the ends
(d) a dotted line
(e) an arrow.
Ans: b

177. In a PERT chart

(a) all activities should be numbered
(b) only important activities should be numbered
(c) only critical activities are numbered
(d) only selected activities are numbered
(e) no activity is numbered.
Ans: a

178. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is

(a) ahead of schedule
(b) beyond schedule
(c) as per schedule
(d) on critical path
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

179. Pessimistic time is

(a) the maximum time which an activity might require
(b) the average time required for a job
(c) the most probable time considering all conditions
(d) the minimum time in which an ac¬tivity can possibly be accomplished
(e) the earliest finish.
Ans: a

180. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having

(a) +ve slack
(b) -ve slack
(c) zero slack
(d) dummy activities
(e) critical activities.
Ans: c

Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and

Answers for competitive exams

Labels: Mechanical Engineering Objective questions and Answers

1. Strain is defined as the ratio of

(a) change in volume to original volume
(b) change in length to original length
(c) change in cross-sectional area to original cross-sectional area
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d
2. Hooke's law holds good upto
(a) yield point
(b) limit of proportionality
(c) breaking point
(d) elastic limit
(e) plastic limit.

Ans: b
3. Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of
(a) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(b) lateral stress and lateral strain
(c) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(d) shear stress to shear strain
(e) longitudinal stress and lateral strain.
Ans: c
4. The unit of Young's modulus is
(a) mm/mm
(b) kg/cm
(c) kg
(d) kg/cm2
(e) kg cm2.

Ans: d
5. Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as
(a) strain
(b) lateral strain
(c) linear strain
(d) linear stress
(e) unit strain.

Ans: c
6. It equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it, the stress so produced is called
(a) internal resistance
(b) tensile stress
(c) transverse stress
(d) compressive stress
(e) working stress.

Ans: b
7. The materials having same elastic properties in all directions are called
(a) ideal materials
(b) uniform materials
(c) isotropic materials
(d) practical materials
(e) elastic materials.
Ans: c

8. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal increments till it breaks. The extensions
noted with increasing loads will behave as under
(a) uniform throughout
(b) increase uniformly
(c) first increase and then decrease
(d) increase uniformly first and then in-crease rapidly
(e) increase rapidly first and then uniformly.
Ans: d

9. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

(a) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(b) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(c) lateral stress and lateral strain
(d) shear stress and shear strain
(e) linear stress and lateral strain.
Ans: d

10. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its Young's modulus will be
(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) become four times
(d) become one-fourth
(e) remain unaffected.
Ans: e

11. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive stress is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

12. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the maximum load during the test by the
(a) area at the time of fracture
(b) original cross-sectional area
(c) average of (a) and (b)
(d) minimum area after fracture
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

13. The impact strength of a material is an index of its

(a) toughness
(b) tensile strength
(c) capability of being cold worked
(d) hardness
(e) fatigue strength.
Ans: a

14. The Young's modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will increase the length of wire
compared to its original length
(a) half
(b) same amount
(c) double
(d) one-fourth
(e) four times.
Ans: b

15. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 0%
(d) 15%
(e) 60%.
Ans: c

16. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called

(a) unit stress
(b) bulk modulus
(c) modulus of rigidity
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) principal stress.
Ans: d

17. True stress-strain curve for materials is plotted between

(a) load/original cross-sectional area and change in length/original length
(b) load/instantaneous cross-sectional area original area and log.
(c) load/instantaneous cross-sectional area and change in length/original length
(d) load/instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original area
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

18. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section, maximum load observed was 8 tonnes and
area of cross-section at neck was 0.5 cm2. Ultimate tensile strength of specimen is
(a) 4 tonnes/cm2
(b) 8 tonnes/cm2
(c) 16 tonnes/cm2
(d) 22 tonnes/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension is nearly
(a) same
(b) half
(c) one-third
(d) two-third
(e) one-fourth.
Ans: b

20. Which of the following has no unit

(a) kinematic viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) bulk modulus
(d) strain
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d

21. Which is the false statement about true stress-strain method

(a) It does not exist
(b) It is more sensitive to changes in both metallurgical and mechanical conditions
(c) It gives, a more accurate picture of the ductility
(d) It can be correlated with stress-strain values in other tests like torsion, impact, combined stress
tests etc.
(e) It can be used for compression tests as well.
Ans: a

22. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking stress as compared to ultimate tensile stress
is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on composition
(e) may have any value.
Ans: b

23. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop

(a) principal stress
(b) tensile stress
(c) compressive stress
(d) shear stress
(e) no stress.
Ans: c

24. Which of the following materials is most elastic

(a) rubber
(b) plastic
(c) brass
(d) steel
(e) glass.
Ans: d

25. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the order of
(a) 2.1xl05 kg/cm2
(b) 2.1 X 106 kg/cm2
(c) 2.1 x 107 kg/cm2
(d) 0.1 xlO6 kg/cm2 (<?) 3.8 x 106 kg/cm2.
Ans: b

26. The value of Poisson's ratio for steel is between

(a) 0.01 to 0.1
(b) 0.23 to 0.27
(c) 0.25 to 0.33
(d) 0.4 to 0.6
(e) 3 to 4.
Ans: c

27. The buckling load for a given material depends on

(a) slenderness ratio and area of cross-section
(b) Poisson's ratio and modulus of elasticity
(c) slenderness ratio and modulus of elasticity
(d) slenderness ratio, area of cross-section and modulus of elasticity
(e) Poisson's ratio and slenderness ratio.
Ans: d

28. The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section hanging vertically downwards due to its
own weight is equal to that produced by a weight
(a) of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower end
(b) half the weight of bar applied at lower end
(c) half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end
(d) one-fourth of weight of bar applied at lower end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

29. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original, shape after removal of
the load is called
(a) plasticity
(b) elasticity
(c) ductility
(d) malleability
(e) resilience.
Ans: b

30. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are called
(a) homogeneous
(b) inelastic
(c) isotropic
(d) isotropic
(e) relativistic.
Ans: c

31. The value of Poisson's ratio for cast iron is

(a) 0.1 to 0.2
(b) 0.23 to 0.27
(c) 0.25 to 0.33
(d) 0.4 to 0.6
(e) 3 to 4.
Ans: b

32. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called
(a) plasticity
(b) ductility
(c) elasticity
(d) malleability
(e) durability.
Ans: b

33. Poisson's ratio is defined as the ratio of

(a) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(b) longitudinal stress and lateral stress
(c) lateral stress and longitudinal stress
(d) lateral stress and lateral strain
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

34. For which material the Poisson's ratio is more than unity
(a) steel
(b) copper
(c) aluminum
(d) cast iron
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

35. The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is called
(a) malleability
(b) ductility
(c) plasticity
(d) elasticity
(e) reliability.
Ans: a

36. The change in the unit volume of a material under tension with increase in its Poisson's ratio will ,
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase initially and then decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

37. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen during tensile test would be of the order
of
(a) more than 50%
(b) 25—50%
(c) 10—25%
(d) 5—10%
(e) negligible.
Ans: e

38. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop

(a) thermal stresses
(b) tensile stress
(c) bending
(d) compressive stress
(e) no stress.
Ans: e

39. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the

(a) tensile strain increases more quickly
(b) tensile strain decreases more quickly
(c) tensile strain increases in proportion to the stress
(d) tensile strain decreases in proportion to the stress
(e) tensile strain remains constant.
Ans: a
40. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is
(a) considerably greater than that necessary to continue it
(b) considerably lesser than that necessary to continue it
(c) greater than that necessary to stop it
(d) lesser than that necessary to stop it
(e) equal to that necessary to stop it.
Ans: a

41. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow extension of the material, i. e. stress increasing with
the time at a constant load is called
(a) creeping
(b) yielding
(c) breaking
(d) plasticity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

42. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension is called

(a) breaking stress
(b) fracture stress
(c) yield point stress
(d) ultimate tensile stress
(e) proof stress.
Ans: a

43. Rupture stress is

(a) breaking stress
(b) maximum load/original cross-section¬al area 04)
(c) load at breaking point/A
(d) load at breaking point/neck area
(e) maximum stress.
Ans: d

44. The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its

(a) ultimate tensile stress
(b) proof stress
(c) stress at yield point
(d) stress at elastic limit
(e) tensile stress.
Ans: d
45. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is known as
(a) Young's modulus
(b) bulk modulus
(c) modulus of rigidity
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) Poisson's ratio.
Ans: e

46. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a body subjected to three mutually
perpendicular stresses of equal intensity, is equal to
(a) Young's modulus
(b) bulk modulus
(c) modulus of rigidity
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) Poisson's ratio.
Ans: b

47. The stress at which extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase
in load is called
(a) elastic point of the material
(b) plastic point of the material
(c) breaking point of the material
(d) yielding point of the material
(e) ultimate point of the material.
Ans: d

48. In question 56, the internal reaction in bottom 80 cm length will be

(a) same in both cases
(b) zero in first case
(c) different in both cases
(d) data are not sufficient to determine same
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

49. Flow stress corresponds to

(a) fluids in motion
(b) breaking point
(c) plastic deformation of solids
(d) rupture stress
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
50. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that when force is applied, it will
(a) not deform
(b) be safest
(c) stretch
(d) not stretch
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

51. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is known as
(a) strain energy
(b) resilience
(c) proof resilience
(d) modulus of resilience
(e) toughness..
Ans: a

52. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to

(a) frequent heat treatment
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) shock loading
(e) resonant condition.
Ans: d

53. The maximum strain energy that can be stored in a body is known as
(a) impact energy
(b) resilience
(c) proof resilience
(d) modulus of resilience
(e) toughness.
Ans: c

54. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

(a) resilience
(b) proof resilience
(c) modulus of resilience
(d) toughness
(e) impact energy.
Ans: a

55. Proof resilience per material is known as

(a) resilience
(b) proof resilience
(c) modulus of resilience
(d) toughness
(e) impact energy.
Ans: c

56. The stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied gradually
is
(a) same
(b) half
(c) two times
(d) four times
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

57. The strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied
gradually is
(a) same
(b) twice
(c) four times
(d) eight times
(e) half.
Ans: c

58. A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as
(a) ductility
(b) toughness
(c) resilience
(d) shock proof
(e) plasticity.
Ans: b

59. Coaxing is the method of increasing

(a) strength by reversible cycling
(b) corrosion resistance by spraying
(c) hardness by surface treatment
(d) fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal by successively increasing loadings
(e) creep by head treatment.
Ans:

60. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is increased, the failure will occur
(a) in the middle
(b) at the tip below the load
(c) at the support
(d) anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

61. A non-yielding support implies that the

(a) support is frictionless
(b) support can take any amount of reaction
(c) support holds member firmly
(d) slope of the beam at the support is zero
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

62. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own weight (W) as compared to another similar
bar carrying an additional weight (W) will be
(a) 1:2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2.5
(e) 1 : 2.25.
Ans: b

63. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that they deform equally under axial stress,
the unit stresses in two materials are
(a) equal
(b) proportional to their respective moduli of elasticity
(c) inversely proportional to their moduli of elasticity
(d) average of the sum of moduli of elasticity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

64. In riveted boiler joints, all stresses, shearing, bearing and tensile are based on the
(a) size of rivet
(b) size of the drilled or reamed hole
(c) average of size of rivet and hole
(d) smaller of the two
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b

65. The distance between the centers of the rivets in adjacent rows of zig-zag riveted joint is known as
(a) pitch
(b) back pitch
(c) diagonal pitch
(d) diametral pitch
(e) lap.
Ans: c

66. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength (max. load it can resist without failure) to the
strength of the unpunished plate in
(a) tension
(b) compression
(c) bearing
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

67. When two plates are butt together and riveted with cover plates with two rows of rivets, the joint
is known as
(a) lap point
(b) butt joint
(c) single riveted single cover butt joint
(d) double riveted double cover butt joint
(e) single riveted double cover butt joint.
Ans: d

68. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a row is opposite to other rivet of the outer row, is known as
(a) chain riveted joint
(b) diamond riveted joint
(c) cross-cross riveted joint
(d) zig-zag riveted joint
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

69. A riveted joint in which the number of rivets decrease from innermost to outer most row is called
(a) chain riveted joint
(b) diamond riveted joint
(c) cross-cross riveted joint
(d) zig-zag riveted joint
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

70. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the outermost row has only one rivet, the
arrangement of the rivets is called
(a) chain riveting
(b) zig zag riveting
(c) diamond riveting
(d) cross-cross riveting
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

71. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in the case of following type of joint
(a) butt joint
(b) lap joint
(c) double riveted lap joints
(d) all types of joints
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

72. Rivets are made of following type of material

(a) tough
(b) hard
(c) resilient
(d) ductile
(e) malleable.
Ans: d

73. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section which passes through
(a) the first row
(b) the second row
(c) the central row
(d) one rivet hole of the end row
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

74. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared to the deformation of same body
subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one-fourth.
Ans: c

75. The force acting along the circumference will cause stress in the walls in a direction normal to the
longitudinal axis of cylinder; this stress is called
(a) longitudinal stress
(b) hoop stress
(c) yeiled stress
(d) ultimate stress
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

76. A boiler shell 200 cm diameter and plate thickness 1.5 cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5
MN/m , then the hoop stress will be
(a) 30 MN/m2
(b) 50 MN/m2
(c) 100 MN/m2
(d) 200 MN/m2
(e) 300 MN/m2.
Ans: c

77. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as

(a) joint less section
(b) homogeneous section
(c) perfect section
(d) manufactured section
(e) seamless section.
Ans: e

78. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is

(a) equal to the hoop stress
(b) twice the hoop stress
(c) half of the hoop stress
(d) one-fourth of hoop stress
(e) four times the hoop stress.
Ans: c

79. The safe twisting moment for a compound shaft is equal to the
(a) maximum calculated value
(b) minimum calculated value
(c) mean value
(d) extreme value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

80. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the

(a) maximum torque it can transmit
(b) number of cycles it undergoes before failure
(c) elastic limit upto which it resists torsion, shear and bending stresses
(d) torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit length of shaft
(e) maximum power it can transmit at highest possible-speed.
Ans: d

81. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due to the applied couple varies
(a) from maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
(b) from zero at the centre to maximum at the circumference
(c) from maximum at the centre to mini-mum at the cricumference
(d) from minimum at the centre to maxi-mum at the circumference
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

82. A key is subjected to side pressure as well at shearing forces. These pressures are called
(a) bearing stresses
(b) fatigue stresses
(c) crushing stresses
(d) resultant stresses
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

83. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt tension and pulley width remaining same.
The changes required in key will be
(a) increase key length
(b) increase key depth
(c) increase key width
(d) double all the dimensions
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

84. Shear stress induced in a shaft subjected to tension will be

(a) maximum at periphery and zero at center
(b) maximum at center
(c) uniform throughout
(d) average value in center
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

Prdaction engneeneing

1. Segmental chips are formed during machining

 A.mild steel
B. cast iron
C. high speed steel
D.high carbon steel
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2. Cemented carbide tool tips are produced by powder metallurgy.

A.True B.False
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3. If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable variation, then for locating in jigs and
fixtures, the pressure type of locator used is
A.conical locator
B. cylindrical locator
C. diamond pin locator
D.vee locator
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4. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle

A.by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
B. by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right angles to
C.
the centre line of the point of the tool
between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from the
D.
point perpendicular to the base
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5Internal gears can be made by

.A
hobbing
.
B
shaping with pinion cutter
.
C
shaping with rack cutter
.
D
milling
.
1Segmental chips are formed during machining
.A
mild steel
.
B
cast iron
.
C
high speed steel
.
D
high carbon steel
.
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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2. Cemented carbide tool tips are produced by powder metallurgy.

A.True B.False
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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3. If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable variation, then for locating in jigs and
fixtures, the pressure type of locator used is
A.conical locator
B. cylindrical locator
C. diamond pin locator
D.vee locator
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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4. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle

A.by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
B. by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right angles to
C.
the centre line of the point of the tool
between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from the
D.
point perpendicular to the base
Answer & Explanation
 Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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5. Internal gears can be made by

A.hobbing
B. shaping with pinion cutter
C. shaping with rack cutter
D.milling
1. The example of snag grinding is
A.trimming the surface left by sprues and risers on castings
B. grinding the parting line left on castings
C. removing flash on forgings
D.all of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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2. The angle between the shear plane and __________ is called shear angle.
A.work surface
B. tool face
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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3. In machining soft materials, a tool with negative relief angle is used.

A.Correct B.Incorrect
Answer & Explanation
 Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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4. Which of the following parameters influence the axial feed rate in centreless grinding?
A.Regulating wheel diameter
B. Speed of the regulating wheel
C. Angle between the axes of grinding and regulating wheels
D.all of the above
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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5. The lathe spindles are usually made hollow and provided with
A.internal taper
B. external taper
C. internal and external taper
D.no taper
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
1. In centreless grinders, the maximum angular adjustment of the regulating wheel is
A.5° B. 10°
C. 15° D.20°
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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2. The type of reamer used for reaming operation in a blind hole, is

 A.straight fluted reamer
B. left hand spiral fluted reamer
C. right hand spiral fluted reamer
D.any one of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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3. In a single point tool, the angle between the surface of the flank immediately below the point
and a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base, is known as
A.side relief angle
B. end relief angle
C. back rake angle
D.side rake angle
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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4. A set of eight form relieved milling cutters for each module is provided to enable cutting of
gears of different
A.materials
B. types of gears
C. number of teeth
D.width of gears
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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5. Crater wear is usually found while machining brittle materials.
A.Correct B.Incorrect
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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1. Dielectric is used in
A.electro-chemical machining
B. ultra-sonic machining
C. electro-discharge machining
D.laser machining
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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2. The type of reamer used for reaming soft aluminium or copper, is

A.straight fluted reamer
B. left hand spiral fluted reamer
C. right hand spiral fluted reamer
D.any one of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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3. The tool material, for faster machining, should have

A.wear resistance
B. red hardness
C. toughness
D.all of these
Answer & Explanation
 Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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4. The helix angle of a drill is more than 30° for drilling aluminium.
A.Agree B.Disagree
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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5. In a single point turning operation with a cemented carbide and steel combination having a
Taylor exponent of 0.25, if the cutting speed is halved, then tool life will become
A.half
B. two times
C. eight times
D.sixteen times
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D
1. A broach has
A.roughing teeth
B. semi-finishing teeth
C. finishing teeth
D.all of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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2. A round nose tool has no back rake and side rake.

 A.Correct B.Incorrect
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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3. In electro-discharge machining, tool is made of

A.brass
B. copper
C. copper tungsten alloy
D.all of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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4. The cutting speed is maximum while machining __________ with a high speed steel tool.
A.cast iron
B. mild steel
C. brass
D.aluminium
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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5. The obtuse angle, included between the chisel edge and the lip as viewed from the end of a
drill, is called
A.helix or rake angle
B. point angle
C. chisel edge angle
 D.lip clearance angle
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
1. Up milling is also called conventional milling.
A.Agree B.Disagree
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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2. Fixtures are used

A.for holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping operations
B. for holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning operations
C. to check the accuracy of workpiece
D.none of the above
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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3. In ultra-sonic machining, tool is made of

A.tungsten carbide
B. brass or copper
C. diamond
D.stainless steel
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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4. Ceramic tools has greater tool life than carbide tools.
A.True B.False
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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5. The rake angle of a single point cutting tool corresponds to __________ of a twist drill.
A.lip clearance angle
B. helix angle
C. point angle
D.chisel edge angle
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:
1. Up milling is also called conventional milling.
A.Agree B.Disagree
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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2. Fixtures are used

A.for holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping operations
B. for holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning operations
C. to check the accuracy of workpiece
D.none of the above
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:
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3. In ultra-sonic machining, tool is made of

A.tungsten carbide
B. brass or copper
C. diamond
D.stainless steel
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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4. Ceramic tools has greater tool life than carbide tools.

A.True B.False
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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5. The rake angle of a single point cutting tool corresponds to __________ of a twist drill.
A.lip clearance angle
B. helix angle
C. point angle
D.chisel edge angle
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Machine design III

1. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a

A.dun cylinder
B. thick cylinder
C. solid shaft
 D.hollow shaft
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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2. A sliding bearing in which the working surfaces are completely separated from each other by
lubricant is called zero film bearing.
A.True B.False
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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3. Screws used for power transmission should have

A.Sow efficiency
B. high efficiency
C. very fine threads
D.strong teeth
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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4. The number of rivets in shear shall be equal to the number of rivets in crushing.
A.Correct B.Incorrect
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
 Explanation:

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5. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater than a right
angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90°, then they are known as
A.angular bevel gears
B. crown bevel gears
C. internal bevel gears
D.mitre gears
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
1. The rolling contact bearings are known as
A.thick lubricated bearings
B. plastic bearings
C. thin lubricated bearings
D.antifriction bearings
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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2. The backlash for spur gears depends upon

A.module
B. pitch line velocity
C. tooth profile
D.both (a) and (b)
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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3. The size of a gear is usually specified by

 A.pressure angle
B. pitch circle diameter
C. circular pitch
D.diametral pitch
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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4. The circumferential and longitudinal strains in a cylindrical boiler under internal steam
pressure are εc and εl respectively. The change in volume of the boiler cylinder per unit
volume will be
A.εc + 2εl
B. 2εc + εl
C. εc + εl2
D.εc2 + εl
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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5. The bearings of heavy series have capacity __________ over the medium series.
A.10 to 20%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 30 to 40%
D.40 to 50%
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:
1. If a bearing is designated by the number 305, it means that the bearing is of
A.light series whose bore is 5 mm
B. light series whose bore is 25 mm
C. medium series whose bore is 5 mm
D.medium series whose bore is 25 mm
 Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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2. Tapered roller bearings can take

A.radial load only
B. axial load only
C. both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being less than unity
D.both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being greater than unity
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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3. In order to remove internal stresses produced by hardening the steel, the process usually
adopted is
A.tempering B. annealing
C. normalising D.spheroidising
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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4. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell, if the ratio of wall thickness to its diameter is equal
to 1/10.
A.Yes B.No
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
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5. A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by

A.keeping the core diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded portion of the bolt
B. keeping the core diameter smaller than the diameter of the unthreaded portion
keeping the nominal diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded portion of the
C.
bolt
D.none of the above
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:
1. The major diameter of a screw thread is also known as core or root diameter.
A.Yes B.No
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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2. The initial tension (in newtons) in a bolt used for making a fluid tight joint like steam engine
cover joints, is calculated by the relation (where d = Nominal diameter of bolt in mm)
A.1420 d
B. 1680 d
C. 2080 d
D.2840 d
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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3. The property of a material which enables it to be drawn into wires with the application of a
 tensile force, is called
A.plasticity B. elasticity
C. ductility D.malleability
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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4. The helix angle for single helical gears ranges from

A.10° to 15°
B. 15° to 20°
C. 20° to 35°
D.35° to 50°
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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5. In order to withstand resistance to wear, the best profile of gear is

A.
full depth involute tooth
B. 20° full depth involute tooth
C. 20° involute stub tooth
D.
stub tooth
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
1. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?
A.Strength B. Stiffness
C. Brittleness D.Toughness
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D
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2. In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width to wheel diameter is taken between
A.0.1 and 0.25
B. 0.25 and 0.50
C. 0.50 and 0.75
D.0.75 and 1
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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3. Oldham coupling is used to transmit power between two parallel shafts which are slightly
offset.
A.True B.False
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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4. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal torque (T) and bending moment
(M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue factor for
bending is 1.5 and combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the equivalent
twisting moment for the shaft is
A.2000 N-m
B. 2050 N-m
C. 2100 N-m
D.2136 N-m
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D
 Explanation:

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5. When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the
member is
A.zero at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member
B. maximum at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member
C. zero at the centroidal axis and maximum at the outer surface of the member
D.maximum at the centroidal axis and zero at the outer surface of the member
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
1. Two rigid plates are clamped by means of bolt and nut with an initial force F. After tightening,
a separating force P (P < F) is applied to the lower plate, which in turn acts on the nut. The
tension in the both after this is
A.F + P
B. F - P
C. P
D.F
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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2. The bearings of medium series have capacity __________ over the light series.
A.10 to 20%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 30 to 40%
D.40 to 50%
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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3. The antifriction bearings
A.have low starting and low running friction at moderate speeds
B. have high initial cost
C. can carry both radial and thrust loads
D.all of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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4. In a partial journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing with the journal is
A.120° B. 180°
C. 270° D.360°
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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5. A shaft coupling should

A.be easy to connect or disconnect
B. transmit full power of the shaft
C. hold the shafts in perfect alignment
D.all of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:
1. When a circular beam of diameter d is subjected to a shear force F, the maximum shear stress
induced will be
A.

B.
 C.

D.
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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2. In a belt drive, if the pulley diameter is doubled keeping the tension and belt width constant,
then it will be necessary to
A.increase the key length
B. increase the key depth
C. increase the key width
D.decrease the key length
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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3. Which of the following statement is wrong ?

The solid length of a spring is the product of total number of coils and the diameter of the
A.
wire
B. The spring index is the ratio of mean diameter of the coil to the diameter of the wire
C. The spring stiffness is the load required per unit deflection of the spring
D.The pitch of the coil is the axial distance between adjacent coils in the compressed state
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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4. The draw of cotter should not be more than
A.3 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 8 mm
D.12 mm
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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5. The bolts of smaller diameter than M16 are not permitted in making fluid tight joints.
A.Correct B.Incorrect
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
1. Which of the following statement is wrong for a connecting rod ?
A.The connecting rod will be equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, if Ixx = 4 Iyy
B. If Ixx > 4Iyy., the buckling will occur about Y-axis
C. If Ixx < 4Iyy., the buckling will occur about X-axis
D.The most suitable section for the connecting rod is T-section
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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2. Which of the following statement is correct ?

A.The cold rolled shafting is stronger than hot rolled shafting
B. The hot rolled shafting is stronger than cold rolled shafting
C. The cold rolled and hot rolled shafting are equally strong
D.The shafts are not made by rolling process
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:
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3. The most important dimension in the design of a nut is

A.pitch diameter
B. inside diameter
C. outside diameter
D.height
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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4. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of

A.elastic limit to the working stress
B. elastic limit to the yield point
C. endurance limit to the working stress
D.Young's modulus to the ultimate tensile strength
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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5. The shafts of larger diameter are usually forged and turned to size in a lathe.
A.Yes B.No
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
1. The springs mostly used in machinery have spring index less than 3.
A.Correct B.Incorrect
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
 Explanation:

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2. According to I.B.R., the distance between the rows of rivets, for equal number of rivets in
more than one row for lap joint or butt joint (chain riveting) shall not be less than
A.d
B. 1.5 d
C. 2 d
D.2.5 d
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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3. The interference may only be avoided if the addendum circles of the two mating gears cut the
common tangent to the base circles between the points of tangency.
A.True B.False
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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4. The spigot and socket joint is mostly used for pipes which are burried in the earth.
A.Agree B.Disagree
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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5. The permissible stress in the fillet weld is 100 N/mm2. The fillet weld has equal leg lengths of
15 mm each. The allowable shearing load on the weldment per cm length of the weld is
A.7.5 kN
B. 10.6 kN
C. 15 kN
D.22.5 kN
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
1. Which of the following statement is correct?
The distance from a point on one thread to the corresponding point on the next thread is
A.
called pitch
B. The distance which a screw thread advances axially in one rotation of the nut is called lead
C. In single start threads, lead is equal to pitch
D.all of the above
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

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2. The taper on cotter and slot is made on both the sides.

A.Agree B.Disagree
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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3. Teflon is used for bearings because of

A.low coefficient of friction
B. better heat dissipation
C. smaller space consideration
D.all of these
Answer & Explanation
 Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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4. In designing a flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as (where d =
Diameter of the shaft)
A.2 d
B. 3 d
C. 4 d
D.5 d
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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5. The acme threads are usually found on

A.spindles of bench vices
B. railway carriage couplings
C. feed mechanism of machine tools
D.screw cutting lathes
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D
1. A key is normally made from a cold rolled mild steel bars.
A.Correct B.Incorrect
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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2. Which of following statement is correct, for the two shafts connected in parallel?
 A.Torque in each shaft is the same
B. Shear stress in each shaft is the same
C. Angle of twist of each shaft is the same
D.Torsional stiffness of each shaft is the same
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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3. Lewis form factor for the 20° full depth involute system is equal to 0.154 - 0.841/T.
A.Correct B.Incorrect
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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4. The railway carriage couplings have

A.square threads
B. acme threads
C. knuckle threads
D.buttress threads
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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5. A shaft is subjected to
A.bending stresses
B. shear stresses
C. combined bending and shear stresses
D.all of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D