BIOL 1010 Section A

Term Test #1 2010 Summer

Part A is Multiple choice (25 questions). Choose the BEST answer of those
provided. Choose only 1 answer per question. Fill in the corresponding letter on
the Scantron sheet (see below). Use a Pencil to completely fill in the box. Also,

 DON’T FORGET to fill in your student # and name on the scantron and
question sheet!

Part B is True or False. If the answer is TRUE fill in “A” on the scantron. If it is
FALSE, fill in “B” on the scantron. This test has 8 pages.

Each question is worth 1 mark.

Calculators, cell phones, mp3 players and other electronic devices are NOT permitted, and must be
put away. Invigilators reserve the right to move students during the test. This may not reflect any
suspicion of you (e.g., someone behind you may be looking at your paper). please note that aiding and
abetting cheating is considered an academic honesty offense in itself.

Good Luck!!!

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Part A: Multiple Choice. Select the BEST answer from those provided and
indicate it on the SCANTRON.
1. Which of the following would be a characteristic of a PROKARYOTIC organism but would not
be found in eukaryotes?
a) RNA is made using only one strand of DNA as a template.
b) They make ATP using sunlight as energy.
c) They are multicellular.
d) They lack ribosomes.
e) They lack organelles.

2. Aspartic acid is a very important molecule in biological functions. With respect to this molecule,
which of the following would be TRUE?
a) Its R group would have a positive charge at physiological pH.
b) As a free amino acid it would have an overall negative charge at physiological pH.
c) In polypeptides destined to go from the golgi to the ER, aspartic acids are often found in a signal
sequence on the N-terminus.
d) The R group would be considered to be quite non-polar.
e) The R-group of aspartic acid would be exist as COOH at physiological pH.

3. If RETROGRADE transport of vesicles was blocked during protein synthesis, which of the
following might you expect to occur as a consequence?
a) mRNA could not leave the nucleus.
b) Cytosolic polypeptides would not be produced.
c) There would be less chaperone proteins in the ER lumen.
d) Vesicles would not be made.
e) There would be less transport of polypeptides to the Golgi from the ER>

4. KDEL proteins

a) Can be found inside the golgi attached to specific membrane receptors.

b) Are usually attached to receptors in the ER lumen.
c) Are directly attached to COPI proteins.
d) Never leave the ER.
e) Are not affected by pH.

5. Which of the following contain HYDROLYTIC enzymes to degrade macromolecules?

a) Endosome b) Golgi c)ER d) lysosome

e) LDL
6 . Receptor-mediated endocytosis
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a) Is required for the synthesis of apolipoprotein B100.
b) Occurs during the secretion of molecules.
c) is a process to used to bring LDL particles into the cell.
d) Would be found in prokaryotes only.
e) Is a process where cholesterol directly binds to cellular receptors.

7. If the PROMOTER of a gen e was removed, which of the following would be the direct
consequence?

a) RNA polymerase would not bind to DNA

b) Transcription factors would not bind to DNA.
c) RNA could not leave the nucleus.
d) DNA polymerase would not be able to replicate DNA.
e) The ribosome will not bind to DNA.

8. A dipole is produced

a) By a transient attraction of nuclei at a specific distance.

b) An equal sharing of electrons between atoms.
c) Only in heterodimers.
d) An unequal distribution of electrons in a molecule or functional group.
e) By hydrogen bonding.

9. Examine thew following energy curve. Which of the following statements is true with respect to
this figure?

a) This is an exergonic reaction.

b) This is an Endergonic reaction.
c) This reaction has a positive ΔG.
d) This reaction DOES NOT require energy input.
e) This reaction would need to be coupled to another reaction to occur.
10. Hydrophobic interactions occur

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a) As a result of attractive forces between hydrophobic molecules in water.
b) As a result of the system trying to obtain the greatest amount of entropy.
c) As a result of the system trying to lessen entropy.
d) As a RESULT of Van der Waals forces.
e) Only if the system lacks water.

11. If a keto group is changed to a an enol

a) It will become a hydrogen donor.

b) It will become a hydrogen acceptor.
c) It will still bond to the same molecules as when it was a keto.
d) It would change a purine to a pyrimidine.
e) All of the above are true.

12. A phosphate group affects macromolecular structure because

a) It is large and uncharged.

b) It is small and uncharged.
c) It is very negative and large.
d) it tends to break bonds and degrade molecules.
e) It makes a molecule more positive.

13. Stereoisomers

a) Rotate light in opposite directions.

b) Contain Chiral carbons.
c) Such as D and L amino acids are found in prokaryotic cell walls.
d) Only one enantiomer of amino acids is used protein synthesis.
e) All of the above are true.

14. In which of the following molecules is Carbon most REDUCED?

15. Which of the following is deoxyadenosine?

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16. The Proton Motive Force

a) Is created by an unequal distribution of protons across a membrane.

b) Requires ATP hydrolysis to create the force.
c) Destroys protein structure.
d) Is created by a chemical gradient and NOT an electrochemical gradient.
e) Only occurs in mitochondria.

17. Phototaxis

a) Is one of the steps in Photosynthesis.

b) Occurs on thylakoids.
c) Is the process where plants change structure and in response to light.
d) is created by rhodopsin.
e) Is the movement of a cells in response to light.

18. With respect to the Spectrum of light, which of the following is true?

a) Ultraviolet light has lower energy than infra-red.

b) The colour of an object is the wavelength of light absorbed by that object. (ie – a green object
would absorb green light wavelength).
c) Light waves are made of electrons.
d) Photons can cause electrons to jump an energy shell ONLY if the energy of the photon
matches the energy difference between the shells.
e) A Blue solution would absorb light near the 400nm region.

19. Retinal is a very important molecule. Which of the following is true with respect to retinal?

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 a) It is only found in plants and bacteria.
b) It is always the Trans form that absorbs a photon.
c) It is a light absorbing protein.
d) The trans form absorbs light in bacteria but it is the cis form that absorbs light in eyes.
e) It will absorb light to protect the surrounding proteins from damage.

20. Examine the following graph that was produced by exposing whole plants to various light
wavelengths and then assessing the rate of oxygen released. Based on the information on the
graph, which of the following could be a legitimate conclusion?

a) There is no photosynthesis occurring at position Z on the graph.

b) The maximum rate of photosynthesis is occurring at position Z on the graph.
c) Photosynthesis does not occur in the visible light range in the plants tested.
d) Pigments other than chlorophyll contribute to a minor amount of photosynthesis but
chlorophyll is the main photosynthetic pigment in these plants.
e) The plants tested do not use chlorophyll for photosynthesis.

21. The evolutionary advantage of the eyecup is

a) to let the organism detect light.

b) to provide a direct link to the pineal gland.
c) block out damaging UV light.
d) to allow Photomorphogenesis.
e) to increase the ability to detect the direction of a light source.

22. In animals, when the retina is receiving light

a) a nerve signal is sent DIRECTLY to the Pineal gland to stimulate production of Melatonin.
b) a nerve signal is sent to the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus that then send cytokine signals to inhibit
Melatonin production.
c) signals are sent to allow adenosine to bind to A1 receptors.
d) the effectiveness of Blood Pressure medications should decrease.
e) melatonin will bind to the SCN to inhibit Rhodopsin.

23. A scientist examined a solution containing DNA using Spectroscopy. He determined the
absorbance of the solution using 260 nm and 280 nm light. The results are below:

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 280 nm = 0.57 AU
260 nm = 0.59 AU
Using this information you can say that

a) the ratio is near 1 so this solution is pure DNA.

b) this solution is an impure DNA sample.
c) this solution does not absorb Ultra Violet light.
d) this solution lacks thymine dimers.
e) this solution contains mostly RNA.

24. Dr. Bubbles used Diphenylamine (DPA) to determine the amount of DNA in a DNA sample. He
used deoxyadenosine to make the standard curve below. The absorbance of the unknown DNA
solution was 0.2 AU (indicated on the curve).

Based on this information

a) the amount of DNA would be between 5 to 6 micrograms.

b) the amount of DNA would be equal to approximately 2.8 micrograms.
c) the amount of DNA in the sample would be equal to 0.2 micrograms.
d) the amount of DNA would be about 0.4 micrograms
e) the amount of DNA cannot be determined.

25. Which of the following would be TRUE?

a) The best method to quantitate DNA in an impure solution would be to use DPA and not UV.
b) The best method to quantitate DNA in an impure solution would be to use UV and not DPA.
c) Protein and DNA both absorb light optimally (best) at the same wavelength because histidines
and adenine both contain imidazole groups.
d) Diphenylamine is the best method to quantitate DNA in pure solution.
e) All of the above are true.

26. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Caffeine?

a) Caffeine is a pyrimidine and so binds to adenosine.

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 b) Caffeine binds to the Pineal gland in the Brain to keep us awake.
c) Caffeine is a natural neurotransmitter.
d) Adenosine and caffeine compete for binding to A1 receptors.
e) All of the above are True.

Part B: True/False. If the answer is TRUE fill in “A” on the scantron. If it is FALSE, fill in “B” on
the scantron.

27. Ions can diffuse easily through membranes.

28. Light can be used in cells to cause the rotation of flagella.

29. A hydride is the ionic form of water.

30. An excess of Melatonin can cause breast enlargement in males.

31. GFP is often used to identify cells containing genetically engineered DNA.

32. A KDEL receptor would lack transmembrane domains.

33. Dr. Frink found the following base pair in a DNA fragment:

. The presence of uracil here is most likely due to a deamination.

34. In the DNA figure in question 33, there is an X indicated. The X would indicate the 3’ end of this
DNA strand.

35. The reaction that make deoxynucleotides would be considered to be an oxidation.

36. A protein that can make disulphide bonds as part of its Tertiary structure would need to have at
least one cysteine.