Contents

Introduction 3

Lesson №0. Tips and tricks in GMAT 4

Plug-in (Pl) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Geometrical Plug-in (gPl) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Last Digit (LD) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Answers picking (AP) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Odd/even tricks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9
Similar answer (SA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
Special property (SP) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11

Lesson №1. Arithmetics 13

Numbers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Divisibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
Decimals and Fractions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
Digits . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33
Powers and Roots . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Home assignment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 58
Test№1. Number properties, fractions, digits, powers and roots, ratios,
percent, divisibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 59

Lesson №2. Arithmetics 62

Progressions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 62
Statistics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 69
Home Assignment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 79
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 86
Test №2. Progression and statistics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 87

Lesson №3. Arithmetics 91

Factorization . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 91
LCM and GCD . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 95
Division with Remainder . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 100
Home assignment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 105
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 113
Test№3. Prime factorization, LCM, GCD, division with remainder . . . . . 114

Lesson №4. Algebra 117

Functions. Substitution. Symbolism . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 117
Simplifying algebraic expressions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121
Linear equations. Systems of linear equations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124
Absolute Value. Equations and Inequalities with Absolute Value. . . . . . . 129
Quadratic Equations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 133
Exponential equations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 137
 Inequalities. Exponential inequalities . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 140
Home assignment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 145
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 153
Test №4.Algebra . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 154

Lesson №5. Word Problems 158

Word translations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 159
Rate problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 163
Work problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 170
Mixture Problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 173
Percentage and Profit Problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 176
Overlapping Sets Problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 182
Home assignment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 189
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 207
Test №5. Word problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 208

Lesson №6. Geometry 214

Lines and angles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 214
Triangles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 217
Quadrilaterals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 226
Polygons . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 230
Circle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 232
Volume geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 236
Coordinate geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 240
Home assignment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 244
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257
Test №6. Geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 258

Lesson №7. Combinatorics and Probability 265

Combinatorics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 265
Probability . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 279
Home assignment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 288
Test №7. Combinatorics, Probability . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 303

PRACTICE TEST 308

Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 308
Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 319
QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Introduction
The quantitative section of the GMAT contains 37 multiple choice-questions in a 75-
minute period.
The math topics include arithmetic, basic algebra and geometry (no proofs). The
test writers carefully choose questions to eliminate biases toward candidates with specific
majors: all test takers will be on a level playing field. The section is designed to test
your ability to solve problems, rather than your mathematical knowledge. Questions lean
heavily toward word problems and applying mathematical formulas in typical real-world
applications. The handbook covers all themes with formulas, definitions, main types of
questions and algorithms for solving.
The questions include two formats:
a) Problem Solving (standard multiple choice)
b) Data Sufficiency
Instructions for Data Sufficiency Questions:
Directions: Each of the following Data Sufficiency problems contains a question
followed by two statements, numbered (1) and (2). You need not solve the problem;
rather you must decide whether the information given is sufficient to solve the problem.
The correct answer to a question is
(A) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question but statement (2)
alone is not sufficient;
(B) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question but statement (1)
alone is not sufficient;
(C) if the two statements TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question,
but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient;
(D) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question;
(E) if the two statements TAKEN TOGETHER are still NOT sufficient to answer the
question.
Drawings:
The drawings are drawn to scale according to the information given in the question,
but may conflict with the information given in statements (1) and (2).
You can assume that a line that appears straight is straight and that angle measures
cannot be zero.
You can assume that the relative positions of points, angles, and objects are as shown.
All drawings lie in a plane unless stated otherwise.
Abbreviations:
OG – Official Guide MG – Master The GMAT
GC – GMAT Club SC – ScoreTop MathOG - Official Guide
MH – McGraw-Hill MR – Manhattan Review
PR – The Princeton Review GP – GMAT Problems Math Pack

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Lesson №0. Tips and tricks in GMAT

The main goal in GMAT questions is not to solve a problem as such, but to choose the
correct answer. There can be several ways of achieving this goal - one of them is, naturally,
solving the problem fair and square. But such straightforward approach, though reliable,
can sometimes be too complicated and take more time than desired. Time is one of the
main resources on the exam, so in this chapter we want to suggest some technics, which
can allow to save several precious seconds now and then.
The first trick deals with problems we will refer to as algebraic. A question is an
algebraic problem, if it contains variables – even if the question itself is about geometry.
So, we begin with

Plug-in (Pl)
The main idea is to substitute the variable with a nice and suitable number. For example,
let us consider the following frightful-looking question: Example 1. (GC)
If P ] = P/(P − 1), what is the value of P ]]?
(A) P/(P − 1)
(B) 1/P
(C) P
(D) 2 − P
(E) P − 1
The long way is to perform the rather time-consuming algebraic transformations to
simplify P ]] to one of the expressions in (A)–(E). How to make it easier? Let’s consider
P = 3. It is easy to calculate, that
3] = 3/2,
3]] = (3/2)] = (3/2)/(3/2 − 1) = (3/2) : (1/2) = 3.
Let’s now take a look at the answers for P = 3:
(A) P/(P − 1) = 3/2
(B) 1/P = 1/3
(C) P = 3
(D) 2 − P = −1
(E) P − 1 = 2
So, (C) is the correct answer!
Unfortunately, this method is not without drawbacks. In this case we had a lucky
guess with P = 3. But if we had considered P = 2, for example, the value in (A) would
have been equal to the value in (C) - and we should have taken another number to check
which one is correct.
That’s is not much of a problem though - with P = 2 we can still eliminate the
definitely incorrect (B), (D) and (E) and then use P = 3, to choose between (A) and (C).

When choosing the plug-in number, check whether it gives different

Hint! values in all the answers choices first - and only then proceed to the
obviously more complicated calculations.

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Example 2.
If n is a positive number, calculate
1 1 1 1
+ + + ... + =
1·2 2·3 3·4 n(n + 1)

(A) 1
n−1
(B)
n
(n − 1)2
(C)
n
n
(D)
n−1
n
(E) 2
n +1
As in Example 1, let’s try plugging in n = 3. That’s a very lovely number, since all
answer choices have different values:
(A) 1, (B) 2/3, (C) 4/3, (D) 3/4, (E) 3/10.
1 1 1 3
Then the target expression equals + + = , therefore, the correct answer
1·2 2·3 3·4 4
is (D).

This method can really save time. What’s more, it allows to

To sum up: avoid hard algebraic calculations and replace them with simple
arithmetical ones. It’s always faster and easier!
Unfortunately, it’s not always that easy to find a suitable number to plug in. Let’s
consider the following question: Example 3.
If P 2 − QR = 10, Q2 + P R = 10, R2 + P Q = 10 and R 6= Q, what is the value of
P + Q2 + R 2 ?
2

(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
(E) 35
Here we have three variables instead of one. What’s more, they are subject to serious
constrains. So, we can’t just plug in any random numbers - only those, which satisfy all
the conditions. For example, if we try to plug in P = 3, we have a problem. Namely, there
are no such numbers R and Q that QR = 1, Q2 + 3R = 10, R2 + 3Q = 10 (check it!).
What’s more, P = 2 and P = 1 are no good either. So, we have to guess a good number
to plug in.
Here P = 0 works. We get Q2 = R2 = 10 - and arrive to the answer (B).
Let’s now consider a geometrical problem.
Example 4.(DP)
In the square on the right 12w = 3x = 4y.
What fractional part of the square is shaded?
(A) 2/3

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

(B) 14/25
(C) 5/9
(D) 11/25
(E) 3/7
Let us note, that since we need to find the relation of the shaded area to the area of
the square, it does not actually matter what are the precise values of x, y and w - only
their relations matter. So, we can plug in w = 1. Then x = 4, y = 3 and the side of the
square equals 5:

The area of the square above equals 25, and the areas of the triangles in the corners
are 12 · 4 · 1 = 2, 12 · 1 · 2 = 1, 21 · 3 · 4 = 6 and 21 · 4 · 1 = 2, therefore, the area of the shaded
region is 25 − 2 − 1 − 6 − 2 = 14. So, the ratio is 14/25 and (B) is the correct answer.
The «honest» solution is based on the same idea:
S(shaded) = S(square) − S(all triangles) =
= (w + x)2 − wx/2 − w2 − xy/2 − wx/2 = 14w2 ,
while S(square) = (w + x)2 = 25w2 . But this solution is more complicated than the
arithmetic one.

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Geometrical Plug-in (gPl)

Let’s start with the next problem:
Example 5
Point E lies inside the rectangle ABCD. If EA = a , EB = b and EC = c then ED
is equal to

√
(A) √ −a2 + 4b2 − c2
(B) √a2 − b2 + c2
(C) a2 − 2b2 + c2
(D) √a−b+c
(E) 2a2 − b2 + 2c2
Here we need to find the formula, which would describe the length of EC for any
position of E - including E = C. So, let’s solve the problem in this simple case:

√
According to Pythagorean rule, we obtain ED2 = a2 − b2 , so ED = a2 − b2 . On the
other hand, if E = C, than c = 0, so (B) is the only suitable answer.

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Last Digit (LD)

Sometimes even purely arithmetic problems can be rather hard. But in many cases it’s
possible to avoid the tiresome calculations by finding the last digit only.
Example 6
ELECTRICITY USAGE IN A CERTAIN HOUSEHOLD ON MAY 1
ApplianceNumbers of Hours in Use Number of Watts of
Electricity Used per Hour
TV 4 145
Computer 3 155
VCR 2 45
Stereo 2 109

According to the table above, what was the total number of watts of electricity used
for the four appliances in the household on May 1?
(A) 454
(B) 860
(C) 1,100
(D) 1,230
(E) 1,353
We need to calculate 4 · 145 + 3 · 155 + 2 · 45 + 2 · 109. Since 4 · 145 ends with 0, 3 · 155
ends by 5, 2 · 45 ends with 0 and finally 2 · 109 ends with 8, the correct answer ends with
0 + 5 + 0 + 8 = 13, therefore, it is (E).

Answers picking (AP)

Example 7 (GC)
Find the least positive number, which leaves, if divided by 3, 5, and 12, a remainder
of 2.
(A) 62
(B) 42
(C) 12
(D) 2
(E) 122
Let’s look at the answers: numbers in (A), (D) and (E) remainder of 2 when is divided
by 3, 5 or 12. Since (D) is the smallest of three, it is the answer!

When the task is to find the smallest/largest number satisfying

Hint: certain conditions, start with checking the smallest/laggest answer
choice.

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Odd/even tricks
There are 4 operations in elementary arithmetic: +, − , × and ÷. Three of them are
«good» (+, − , ×), for when applied to an integer give an integer, and one, ÷ is «bad»
– for integer divided by integer is not necessarily an integer.
Here are some useful hints:

• When working with odd/even problems and «good» operations:

If we want just to find whether an expression is odd or even, we can replace every
even number in this expression with 0, and every odd number with 1.
This is a totally valid operation, since
Every odd integer = 2 × some integer + 1,
Every even integer = 2 × some integer,
and when we want to know, whether the expression is odd or even, the only thing
that matters is how many «1»-s we have.

Let’s consider the following example:

n is an even number and m is an odd one. Is 3nm2 + (n − m)(n + 2m) odd?

We can consider m = 1, n = 0 then 3nm2 +(n−m)(n+2m) = 3·0·1+(0−1)(0+2) = −2.

Since −2 is even, 3nm2 + (n − m)(n + 2m) is always even.

• If an expression contains nk , where n is an integer and k is a positive integer, and

the question is whether the expression is odd or even, we can ignore the k.
Indeed, an odd number in any positive power is odd, and an even number in any
positive power is even.

For example:

If m3 + n3 = (2m)2 + n, is m even?

Let’s eliminate the powers. We obtain m + n = 2m + n, therefore m = 0. Thus, m is

always even.

Pay attention if k can be equal to 0 in the expression nk , since

Note:
n0 = 1 (if n 6= 0) and is always odd.

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Similar answer (SA)

Every question in GMAT has exactly one correct answer. So, if you find 2 identical
answers you must immediately eliminate them. Of course they are not symbol-by-symbol
equivalent in any problem you choose, but sometimes they are equivalent by the sense of
the question. Let’s see some examples:
Example 8:
(OG) If positive integers x and y are not both odd, which of the following must be
even?
(A) xy
(B) x + y
(C) x − y
(D) x + y + 1
(E) 2(x + y) − 1
Expressions x + y and x − y are either both even, or both odd. There is no difference
in odd/even sense between + or −. So, we can eliminate (B) and (C), since if (B) is a
correct answer then (C) is a correct as well -which is impossible on GMAT. If z = y + 1
then we can eliminate (D) x + z using the same idea. (E) is also odd, so (A) is the right
answer.
Example 9:
(OG) If r and s are integers and rs + r is odd, which of the following must be even?
(A) r
(B) s
(C) r + s
(D) r + s2
(E) r2 + s
As we already know, we can erase all of the powers. After this we obtain:
(A) r
(B) s
(C) r + s
(D) r + s
(E) r + s
(C), (D) and (E) are identical, so we can eliminate them. Then we can replace r with
1 and s with 0, then (A) 1 is the wrong and (B) 0 is the right answer.
Example 10:
If x2 − y 2 < 0, which of the following must be true?
I. x + y < 0
II. x − y < 0
III. x2 − y 3 < 0
(A) None
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) I, and III only
(E) II and III only

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

In this question there is no difference whether y is positive or negative number, since

y = (−y)2 . So, x2 − (−y)2 = x2 − y 2 < 0.
2

It means I and II are identical: x − y = x + (−y).

Therefore, the correct answer must contain either both I and II, or neither. So, the
answer is (A).

Special property (SP)

Sometimes it’s hard to find the right solution because the problem has one special idea
and one special answer differs from the others. Let’s take a look at the example:
Example 11:
If x and y are factors of 165165, where x > y > 0, which of the following cannot be
the value of x − y?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 15
(E) 28
Only one answer is odd ( D. 15) and the others are even. Maybe the main idea is
odd/even property in this problem. 165165 is odd number that has odd factors only. x − y
is even, since x and y are odd. So, x − y 6= 15. (D) is the answer.
Example 12:
(MR) Given that a, b, c, and d are different nonzero digits and that
10d + 11c < 100 − a, which of the following could NOT be a solution to the addition
problem below?
a b d c
+ d b c a

(A) 3689
(B) 6887
(C) 8581
(D) 9459
(E) 16091
Let’s take a look at hundreds digits of the answers. They are all even except (C). In
(C) hundreds digit is 5. May be this is the main idea.
a b d c
+ d b c a
* x * *
Let us denote the hundreds digit of the sum by x. When is x an odd digit? Since
b + b = 2b is even, we should have additional unit when dc and ca are added. Thus,
dc + ca > 100. It implies that 10d + c + 10c + a > 100, therefore, 10d + 11c > 100 − a.
Contradiction. (C) could not be the value of our sum. (C) is the answer.

As you see, some really hard problems could be done by using special tricks in 1-2
steps.

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

In this book we will mark the problems (by Pl, LD, SA, AP, SP) in the answer tables,
so you can resolve such question using testing techniques even if you solved them in a
usual way before.

Good luck!

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Lesson №1. Arithmetics

Numbers
(GoGMAT, Session 1)
Let us begin with giving several classifications of numbers.
Numbers

Negative (less than 0) Zero Positive (greater than 0)

−1, −2, −3... 1, 2, 3...
Not positive does not mean negative! If a number is not positive, it
Important! can also be zero – neither positive, nor negative. This is a common
trap in GMAT Data Sufficiency problems
Practice:

1. (OG) The value of −3 − (−10) is how much greater than the value of −10 − (−3)?
(A) −14
(B) −7
(C) 0
(D) 7
(E) 14

5 × (372 + 128) − 1863

2. =
13
(A) −524
(B) 0
(C) 125/13
(D) 49
(E) 491

Many GMAT questions concern the properties of integer numbers. In this lesson we shall
discuss only some of them.

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Integers

Odd Even
1, 3, 5, −1, −2, −5.. 0, 2, 4, −2, −4...
Zero is even number: 0 = 2 × 0. Actually, 0 is divisible by every
Note:
number but itself

Properties of odd/even integers

Even×Even = Even Even±Even = Even

Even×Odd = Even Odd±Even = Odd
Odd×Odd = Odd Odd±Odd = Even
even
= even or not an integer
odd
even
= even, odd or not an integer
even
odd
= odd or not an integer
odd
odd
= odd or not an integer
odd

Practice:

3. (OG) If n is a member of the set {33, 36, 38, 39, 41, 42}, what is the value of n?
(1) n is even
(2) n is a multiple of 3

4. (OG) If positive integers x and y are not both odd, which of the following must be
even?
(A) xy
(B) x + y
(C) x − y
(D) x + y + 1
(E) 2(x + y) − 1

5. (OG) If n is a positive integer, is n odd?

(1) 3n is odd
(2) n + 3 is even

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Consecutive integers
Integers are called consecutive, if they differ by 1. For example, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2 is a
sequence of consecutive integers.
A sequence of consecutive integers starting with number n can be written as n, n + 1,
n + 2, n + 3, etc.
The numbers 0, 2, 4, 6, 8 are consecutive even integers. A sequence of consecutive
even integers can be written as 2n, 2n + 2, 2n + 4, etc., where n is an integer.
The numbers 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 are consecutive odd integers. A sequence of consecutive
even integers can be written as 2n + 1, 2n + 3, 2n + 5, etc., where n is an integer.
If it is said that integers a, b and c are consecutive, it does not mean
Note:
that a < b < c.
Properties:

• the product of two consecutive integers n × (n + 1) is always even;

• the product of three consecutive integers n × (n + 1) × (n + 2) is divisible by both

2 and 3;

• the product of k consecutive integers is divisible by all numbers from 1 to k.

Practice:

6. (PR) The set consists of five consecutive integers. If the first member of this set is
a, find the sum of all its members in terms of a.
(A) 10
(B) a + 5
(C) a + 10
(D) 5a + 5
(E) 5a + 10

7. (OG) If n is a positive integer, then n(n + 1)(n + 2) is

(A) even only when n is even
(B) even only when n is odd
(C) odd whenever n is odd
(D) divisible by 3 only when n is odd
(E) divisible by 4 whenever n is even

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8. (OG) If a, b, and c are consecutive positive integers and a < b < c, which of the
following must be true?
I. c − a = 2
II. abc is an even integer
III.(a + b + c)/3 is an integer
(A) I only
(В) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

9. (OG) If x, y, and z are three integers, are they consecutive integers?

(1) z − x = 2
(2) x < y < z

Prime numbers
A prime number is a positive integer that has exactly two different positive divisors: 1
and itself.
For example, 2, 3, 5 are prime numbers, but 15 is not, since 15 has four different
positive divisors, 1, 3, 5, and 15.
Note: 1 is NOT a prime number! It has one positive divisor only.

The first prime numbers are: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47...
Number 2 is the smallest prime number. What’s more, 2 is the only even prime
number.
The only way to check if a number is prime is to try dividing it by smaller primes.
Note: If the number less than 100 is not divisible by 2, 3, 5, 7, it is prime.
Practice:
10. The sum of prime numbers that are greater than 60 but less than 70 is
(A) 67
(B) 128
(C) 191
(D) 197
(E) 260

11. (MH) Is the positive integer y a prime number?

(1) 80 < y < 95
(2) y = 3x + 1, where x is a positive integer

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Answers and explanations

1. Since −3 − (−10) = −3 + 10 = 7 and −10 − (−3) = −10 + 3 = −7, the first

expression is greater than the second one by 7 − (−7) = 14. The answer is E.

2. At first, find the value of the expression in brackets: 372+128 = 500. Then, multiply
it by 5: 5 × 500 = 2500. Subtracting 1863 gives us 2500-1863 =637. Then, divide
this result by 13: 637/13 = 49. The answer is D.

3. From statement (1) we know that n belongs to the subset 36, 38, 42. Thus, we
cannot uniquely determine the value of n. Therefore (1) is not sufficient to answer
the stem.
Then, the answer must be B, C, or E. Statement (2) alone is again insufficient since
it states that n belongs to the subset 33, 36, 39, 42. The answer must be C or E.
Statements (1) and (2) together are insufficient since from (1) and (2) we can derive
that n belongs to 36, 42. The answer is E.

4. If integers are not both odd, at least one of them is even. xy must be even since x
and y are not both odd. A is the answer. B, C, D, E are wrong since it is unknown
whether x and y are both even or not.

5. (1) alone is sufficient since the product of integers is odd only when all factors are
odd. Odd = 3 × n = 3× odd. n is odd. (2) is also sufficient, since if n + 3 is even.
The sum of two integers is even if they are both even or both odd. 3 is odd, and n
must be odd. D is the answer.

6. If the first member of a set is a, the second is a + 1, the third is a + 2 and so

on. So, the sum can be found as: a + (a + 1) + (a + 2) + (a + 3) + (a + 4) =
5a + (1 + 2 + 3 + 4) = 5a + 10. The answer is E.

7. n(n + l)(n + 2) is always divisible by 2 and 3, so A, B, C, and D are wrong. E is

the answer. Indeed, if n is even, n(n + 1)(n + 2) contains two even numbers: n and
(n + 2). So, their product is divisible by 4.

8. If a, b, c are consecutive integers, a = a, b = a+1, c = a+2, then c−a = a+2−2 = 2.

Also, abc must be an even integer since there is at least one even integer among a,
b, and c. Moreover, sum a + b + c = a + a + 1 + a + 2 = 3a + 3 = 3(a + 1) is also
divisible by 3. You can also check it by picking the numbers. Thus, E is the answer.

9. From statement (1) we know that z −x = 2. Nothing is said about y, thus, we cannot
make any inference concerning y. (1) is not sufficient to answer the stem. Then, the
answer must be B, C, or E. Statement (2) alone is again insufficient since it states
that x < y < z, but we still don’t know whether z − y = 1 and y − x = 1. Thus,
statement (2) alone is insufficient to answer the stem question. The answer must be
C or E. Statements (1) and (2) together are sufficient since from x < y < z, z −x = 2
we get z − y ≥ 1, y − x ≥ 1, and z − x ≥ 2. Thus, z − y = 1 and y − x = 1. The
answer is C.

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10. Numbers that are greater than 60 and less than 70 are: 61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 67, 68,
69. Note that 62, 64, 66, and 68 are divisible by 2; 63, 66, and 69 are divisible by
3; and 65 is divisible by 5. The only numbers that are left are 61 and 67. They are
not divisible by 2, 3, 5, 7, so 61 and 67 are prime numbers. As 61 + 67 = 128, the
correct answer is B.

11. (1) alone is insufficient because the range mentioned contains both prime numbers
(e.g., 83, 89) and not prime numbers (e.g., 84, 85). (2) alone is insufficient because it
provides both prime (e.g., 7=3×2+1) and not rime (e.g., 16 =3×5+1) values for y. If
the statements are combined, the numbers that meet both criteria are 82, 85, 88, 91,
and 94. None of them is prime: 82=2×41, 85=5×17, 88=2×44, 91=7×13, 94=2×47.
So, the answer on a question is «No». Both statements together are sufficient. The
answer is C.

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Divisibility
(GoGMAT, Session 1)
Let’s begin this paragraph with a small note on vocabulary.
The fact, that the quotient of two numbers, for example, 9 and 3, is an integer, can
be expresses in several ways:

9 is divisible by 3
9 is a multiple of 3
3 is a divisor of 9
3 is a factor of 9.

There exist criterions which allow to check divisibility by some numbers without
actually dividing.

Divisor Criterion Examples

2 The last digit is divisible by 2 198,784 is a multiple of 2 since
4 is a multiple of 2, and 156,333
is NOT a multiple of 2 since 3
is NOT a multiple of 2.
4 Two last digits form the integer 3,124 is a multiple of 4 since
divisible by 4 24 is a multiple of 4, and
1,333,334 is NOT a multiple of
4 since 34 is NOT a multiple of
4
8 Three last digits form the 88,863,024 is a multiple of 8
integer divisible by 8 since 24 is a multiple of 8, and
17,723,001 is NOT a multiple
of 8 since 1 is NOT a multiple
of 8

Practice:

1. Which of the following numbers, if added to 1379, would give the sum that is a
multiple of 4?
(A) 1503
(B) 19784
(C) 123760
(D) 1756323
(E) 189281001

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Divisor Criterion Examples

3 The sum of all digits is 177 is a multiple of 3 since
divisible by 3 1+7+7=15 is a multiple of 3,
and 162,346 is NOT a multiple
of 3 since 1+6+2+3+4+6=22
is NOT a multiple of 3.
9 The sum of all digits a+b+c+d 1,737 is a multiple of 9
is divisible by 9 since 1+7+3+7=18 is a
multiple of 9,and 1,333,334
is NOT a multiple of 9 since
1+3+3+3+3+3+4=20 is
NOT a multiple of 9.

Practice:

2. Which one of the following is divisible by both 2 and 3?

(A) 1005
(B) 1296
(C) 1351
(D) 1406
(E) 1414

Divisor Criterion Examples

5 The last digit is 5 or 0 95 is a multiple of 5 since the
last digit is 5, and 813 is NOT
a multiple of 5 since the last
digit is neither 5 nor 0.
10 The last digit d is 0 7,120 is a multiple of 10
since the last digit is 0, and
1,333,334 is NOT a multiple of
10 since the last digit is NOT
0.

Divisor Criterion Examples

11 The sum of digits on odd 824,472 is a multiple of 11
places minus the sum of digits since (8+4+7)-(2+4+2)=11
on even places is divisible by is a multiple of 11, and
11 17,723,001 is NOT a multiple
of 11 since (1+7+3+0)-
(7+2+0+1)=1 is NOT a
multiple of 11.

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Two more useful facts:

• If a number is not divisible by 5, the remainder when the number is divided by 5 is

the same as the remainder when the last digit is divided by 5.

• If a number is not divisible by 10, the remainder when the number is divided by 10
is the same as the remainder when the last digit is divided by 10.
For example:

 The number 145,632 is not divisible by 5, since its last digit, 2, is neither 5 nor
0. When 145,632 is divided by 5, the remainder is 2, since 2 divided by 5 is 0
with a remainder of 2.
 The number 7,332,899 is not divisible by 10, since its last digit, 9, is not 0.
When 7,332,899 is divided by 10, the remainder is 9, since 9 divided by 10 is 0
with a remainder of 9.

What if we have to check divisibility by a product of the numbers listed above? For
example, we need to check whether 724,560 is divisible by 12. Since 12 is the product of
4 and 3, we have simply to check the corresponding criterions:

• the last two digits of 724,560 form 60 = 4 × 15,

• the sum of the digits is 7 + 2 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 0 = 24 - divisible by 3,

therefore, 724,560 is divisible by 12.

Similarly, 7,145,580 is divisible by 15, since its units digit is 0 and the sum of its digits,
30, is divisible by 3.
Practice:

3. If x is an integer, is x divisible by 15?

(1) x is a multiple of 6.
(2) 35 is a factor of x.

4. Is 9,5a8 divisible by 6, where a is some number from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}?
(1) a is even
(2) a is prime

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Answers and explanations

1. Since criterion of divisibility by 4 is based on analysis of the last two digits, we only
need to sum up 2 last digits of 1379 with the 2 last digits of the answer choices.
79+03 =82, which is not divisible by 4.
79+84 = 163, two last digits of this number form 63, which is not divisible by 4.
79+60 = 139, two last digits of this number form 39, which is not divisible by 4.
79+23 =102, two last digits of this number form 02, which is not divisible by 4.
79+01 =80, which is evenly divisible by 4. The answer is E.

2. Obviously, A and C cannot be correct answers, since they are odd numbers. Among
B, D and E we choose B, because 1+2+9+6=18, which is divisible by 3. Hence,
1296 itself is divisible by 3. The answer is B.

3. To be divisible by 15, x needs to be divisible by its prime factors 3 and 5.

From the first statement, if x is a multiple of 6, it as to be a multiple of both 2
and 3. So, we know that x is divisible by 3. But there is no information about its
divisibility by 5. Insufficient.
From the second statement, x is divisible by 35, so, it is divisible by both 5 and 7.
But we have any information about its divisibility by 3.
When statements are taken together, we get enough info: x is divisible by both 3
and 5, so, it is divisible by 15 as well. The answer is C.

4. Since 6 = 2 × 3, we will use both divisibility tests for 2 and 3. The last digit, 8, is
even, so 9, 5a8 is divisible by 2 for any a. The sum of the digits is 9+5+a+8 = 22+a.
Thus, 9, 5a8 is divisible by 6 if 22 + a is divisible by 3.
Statement 1 does not provide enough information, as since for a = 2, 22 + a = 24 is
divisible by 3, but for a = 4, 22+a = 26 is not. Statement 2 does not provide enough
information as well. If a = 5, 22 + a = 27 is divisible by 3, for a = 3, 22 + a = 25 it
is not.
Two statements taken together tell us that a is even prime number, so, a = 2. Then
22 + a = 24 which is divisible by 3. The answer is C.

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Decimals and Fractions

(GoGMAT, Session 2)
Previously we have discussed integer numbers. Now let us take a look at all the rest,
starting with
Fractions
n
Some of the numbers (called rational) can be written as a fraction , where numerator
d
n is some integer, and denominator d is some positive integer. Integers can also be written
3 15
as fractions, for example, 3 = = .
1 5
Simplifying a fraction
It is easy to see, that multiplying or dividing both the numerator and the denominator
by the same number does not change the value of the fraction. For example:
20 4×5 4
= =
15 3×5 3
Practice:
1. Which of the following is equal to 3/4?
(A) 82/100
(B) 15/18
(C) 40/15
(D) 12/16
(E) 18/27
If integers a and b have no common divisors except 1, fraction a/b is called irreducible
or in lowest term. For example, 2/9 is irreducible (in contrast to 6/9), since no integer
greater than 1 is a factor of both 2 and 9 (but 6/9 = 2/3 , since 3 is a common factor of
6 and 9).
Every fraction can be reduced to lowest terms by dividing the numerator and the
denominator by their greatest common devisor (GCD) (see Lesson 3).
Adding and Subtracting fractions
In order to add or subtract fractions you have to:
• Find the common denominator – the number, divisible by each denominator of given
fractions.
• Change each fraction so, that it is expressed using this common denominator.
• Add or subtract the numerators only.
Example:
3 7
+ =?
8 12
A common denominator is 24. Thus, 3/8=9/24 and 7/12=14/24 and
3 7 9 14 23
+ = + =
8 12 24 24 24

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Practice:

2. (OG) 1 − 3/7 − 1/3 =

(A) 3/5
(B) 6/7
(C) 2/21
(D) 5/21
(E) 16/21

3. (OG) A straight pipe 1 yard in length was marked off in fourths and also in thirds.
If the pipe was then cut into separate pieces at each of these markings, which of the
following gives all the different lengths of the pieces, in fractions of a yard?
(A) 1/6 and 1/4 only
(B) 1/4 and 1/3 only
(C) 1/6, 1/4 and 1/3 only
(D) 1/12, 1/6 and 1/4
(E) 1/12, 1/6 and 1/3

Multiplication of fractions
Multiplying fractions is much simpler that adding them – you simply have to multiply
the numerators and multiply the denominators.
Example:
8 15 8 × 15 4×2×5×3 5
× = = = .
12 32 12 × 32 4 × 3 × 2 × 16 16
Dividing fractions
Dividing by a fraction is equivalent to multiplying by its reciprocal.
The reciprocal to 3/4 is 4/3; the reciprocal to 5 = 5/1 is 1/5.

Note: The product of a number and its reciprocal always equals 1.

Example:
3 7 3 11 3 × 11 33
: = × = = .
4 11 4 7 4×7 28

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Practice:
4. (OG) In which of the following pairs are the two numbers reciprocals to each other?
I. 3 and 1/3
II. 1/17 and -1/17
√ √
III. 3 and − 3
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) I and III
(E) II and III
Ratio and Proportion
The ratio of the number a to the number b (b 6= 0) is a/b A proportion is a statement
that two ratios are equal. For example, 2/3 = 8/12 is a proportion. To find an unknown
from a proportion just cross-multiply, obtaining a new equality.
Example:
12 5
What is the value of x, if = ?
x 3
Solution:
Let’s cross-multiply:
12 5
-
% ,
x 3
36
12 × 3 = 5 × x, therefore, x = .
5
Practice:
5. Find the value of the positive integer n, if the ratio of 2 to 3 has the same value as
the ratio of n to 12.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 12

6. (OG) The ratio of two quantities is 3 to 4. If each of the quantities is increased by

5, what is the ratio of these two new quantities?
(A) 3/4
(B) 8/9
(C) 18/19
(D) 23/24
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

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7. (OG) What is the ratio of 3/4 to the product 4 × (3/4)?

(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 4/9
(D) 9/4
(E) 4

Comparing fractions

• Among the positive fractions with equal denominators the one with the greatest
numerator is the greatest: 5/18 < 11/18

• Among the positive fractions with equal numerator the one with the smallest
denominator is the greatest: 3/7 > 3/9

• If neither the denominators, nor the numerators of two positive fractions are equal,
instead of finding a common denominator we can just cross multiply (see the example
below).

Example
What is greater, 6/7 or 7/8?
Let’s cross-multiply the numerators and denominators, and compare the results written
on the respective sides:
6 7
-
%
7 8
6 × 8 = 48 7 × 7 = 49
6 7
48 < 49 ⇒ < .
7 8
Practice

8. (OG) Which of the following is greater than 2/3?

(A) 33/50
(B) 8/11
(C) 3/5
(D) 13/27
(E) 5/8

Sometimes none of the three methods listed above are helpful and a more creative
approach is required. Try solving the following problem:

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9. (GC) Which one of the five fractions is the largest?

(A) 25038876541/25038876543
(B) 25038876543/25038876545
(C) 25038876545/25038876547
(D) 25038876547/25038876549
(E) 25038876549/25038876551

Decimals
Any number can be expressed as a decimal – terminating or infinite.
On the GMAT it is the decimal point that determines the place
Note:
value of the digit, not a comma.
For example, √
5 = 5.0, 3/5 = 0.6, 1/3 = 0.3333... = 0.(3), 2 = 1.41421356...
Any rational number can be written as either finite (like 3/5) or recurring (like 1/3)
decimal.
Here are some examples of transforming decimals and fractions into each other:
0.321=321/1000;
1.56=156/100 = 39/25;
3/8 = 3 ÷ 8 = 0.375.
Why can some fractions be expressed as a terminating decimal, while others can not?
The explanation is very simple: a terminating decimal is just another way of writing a
fraction with some power of 10 in its denominator, for example 0.327 = 327/1000. Thus,
if a fraction is a terminating decimal, it must be reducible to denominator 10, 100, 1000,
etc., and that is only possible when the denominator of the fraction has no other factors
but 2 and 5. So, we have the following rule:
The fraction can be written as a terminating decimal if and only
if its denominator has the form (2n 5m ), where m and n are some
non-negtive integers.
Practice:

10. (MH) Which of the following is terminating decimal?

(A) 1/120
(B) 1/630
(C) 1/143
(D) 1/250
(E) 1/225

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11. (OG) Any decimal that has only a finite number of non-zero digits is a terminating
decimal. If r and s are positive integers and the ratio r/s is expressed as a decimal,
is r/s a terminating decimal?
(1) 90 < r < 100
(2) s = 4
12. (OG) If each of the following fractions were written as a repeating decimal, which
would have the longest sequence of different digits?
(A) 2/11
(B) 1/3
(C) 41/99
(D) 2/3
(E) 23/37
Addition and subtraction of decimals
To add or subtract two decimal fraction, write them in a column, their decimal points
lined up:
203 . 78 0 . 500
+ 0 . 145 − 0 . 287
203 . 925 − 0 . 213
Practice:
13. (PR) 0.163 + 24.15 − 0.313 =
(A) 2.265
(B) 23.865
(C) 23.99
(D) 24
(E) 25
Multiplying and dividing decimals
To multiply two decimals, follow these simple steps:
• Multiply normally, ignoring the decimal points.
• Then put the decimal point in the answer – it will have as many decimal places as
the two original numbers combined.
Example:
What’s the value of 0.5 × 0.25?
First let us calculate 5 × 25 = 125. The two original numbers together have three
decimal places, therefore, the final answer is 0.125.
To divide a decimal number by a whole number:

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• Start dividing as usual

• Then put the decimal point in the same spot as the dividend (the number being
divided)
12.5 5
12.5 5 12.5 5
−1 0 2.5
−1 0 2 −1 0 2.
−→ −→ 25
2 2
25
0
To divide a decimal number by a decimal:
• Move the decimal point of the dividend and the divisor simultaneously, so that the
divisor becomes an integer
• Divide the resulting decimal by this integer
Example:
1.25 ÷ 0.5 = 12.5 ÷ 5 = 2.5
Practice
14. 0.05/0.001+0.285/0.015 is equal to which of the following?
(A) 3.245
(B) 0.3245
(C) 32.45
(D) 69
(E) 69.54
15. (OG) 3.003/2.002 =
(A) 1.05
(B) 1.50015
(C) 1.501
(D) 1.5015
(E) 1.5

Percent
1
One percent of a number is a one hundredth of this number: 1% of a equals 100
a.
To find n percent of a number, multiply this number by n divided by 100.
Example:
20
20% of 90 = 100
× 90 = 18
75
75% of 200 = 100
× 200 = 3/4 × 200 = 150

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Practice:

16. (OG) What is 45% of 7/12 of 240?

(A) 63
(B) 90
(C) 108
(D) 140
(E) 311

17. (OG) What is 15 percent of x?

(1) 18 is 6
(2) 2/3 of x is 200

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Answers and Explanations

1. Let’s simplify fractions from answer choices, so that they are in their simplest forms
and see which one will turn out to be 3/4.
82 82÷2 41
Choice A: 100 = 100÷2 = 50 . Since 41 and 50 have no common factors (besides 1), this
fraction cannot be further simplified. It does not equal 3/4.
15 15÷3 5 3
Choice B: 18
= 18÷3
= 9
6= 4
40 40÷5 8 3
Choice C: 15
= 15÷5
= 3
6= 4
12 12÷4 3
Choice D: 16
= 16÷4
= 4
This is the correct answer and on the test you do not need to go any further, but
18
just for the sake of completeness let’s check choice E: 27 = 18÷9
27÷9
= 32 6= 34
So, our answer is D.

2. Since 3/7 + 1/3 = (9 + 7)/21 = 16/21, 1 = 21/21, 1 − 3/7 − 1/3 = 21/21 − 16/21 =
(21 − 6)/21 = 5/21.
The answer is D.

3.
1/4 is necessarily one of the answers. Thus, answer choices A, C, and D are under
consideration. Choice C is wrong since no pieces of length 1/3 exist (length of every
piece does not exceed 1/4, the minimal marking). Piece 1/12 = 1/3 - 1/4 necessarily
belongs to the answer choice set. The answer is D.

4. It is evident that 3 × 1/3 = 1, therefore, 3 and 1/3 are reciprocals to each other.
√ ×√(−1/17)
1/17 √ 6= 1,√so, this is not a pair of reciprocals. Neither is the pair
{ 3, − 3} : 3 × (− 3) = −3 6= 1. So, the answer is A.
n
5. The problem can be written down as 23 = 12 . Cross multiplying, we get 2×12 = n×3,
or 24 = 3n. Divide both sides by 3, we get n = 8. The answer is D.

6. Let the quantities be P and Q. From the stem it can be inferred that P/Q = 3/4.
This information is insufficient to determine the value of (P + 5)/(Q + 5). Thus, the
answer is E.
3/4 1
7. = ,
4 × (3/4) 4
which can be found when the numerator and the denominator are both divided by
(3/4). A is the answer.

8. Use cross-multiplying. 33/50 < 2/3 since 99 < 100; 8/11 > 2/3 as 24 > 22; 3/5 <
2/3 as 9 < 10; 13/27 < 2/3 is equivalent to 39 < 54; 5/8 < 2/3 since 15 < 16. B is
the answer.

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9. We can see that in any fraction the difference between denominator and numerator
is 2, so each fraction can be represented as x/(x + 2). Evidently, 1/3 < 2/4 = 1/2.
In general x/(x + 2) < (x + 2)/(x + 4) if x > 0. Thus, A < B < C <D < E. E is
the answer.

10. Let’s look at the denominator of each answer choice in order to determine if it can
be represented as a product of powers of 2 and 5. 120 = 28 × 3 × 5, it contains 3, so
A is not our answer. 630 = 2 × 32 × 5 × 7, it contains 3 and 7, so B is not our answer.
143 = 13 × 11, it contains 13 and 11, so C is not our answer. Since 250 = 53 × 2, so,
it’s a terminating decimal and the correct answer is D. Let’s look at the last answer
choice to be sure: 225 = 32 × 52 .

11. Any fraction r/s, where r and s are mutually prime integers and s = 2k × 5m , can
be expressed as a terminating decimal.
So, if s = 4 = 22 × 50 , our decimal is terminating. Thus, the answer is B.

12. If we divide numerator by denominator in each fraction, will find that 2/11 = 0.(18),
1/3 = 0.(3), 41/99 = 0.(41), 2/3 = 0.(6), 23/37 = 0.(621). Thus, the answer is E.

13. 0.163 + 24.15 = 0.163 + 24.150 = 24.313. Then, 24.313 − 0.313 = 24. The answer is
D.

14. Each space to the right of the decimal point means we need to multiply by an
increased power of 10:
0.05 0.05 1, 000 50
= × = = 50.
0.001 0.001 1, 000 1
Similarly,
0.285 0.285 1, 000 285
= × = = 19.
0.015 0.015 1, 000 15
We can now add 50 + 19 = 69. And the correct answer is D.

15. 3.003/2.002 = (3 × 1.001)/(2 × 1.001) = 3/2 = 1.5. E is the answer.

16. 45%×7/12×240 = 45%×140 = 45/100×140 = 45×7/5 = 9×7 = 63. Thus, the

answer is A.

17. From statement (1) we know that 18 = 6%×x, x = 18 × 100/6 = 300, 15% × x = 45.
Therefore, the answer must be A or D. From statement (2) we can infer that 2/3×x
= 200 and x = 300, and, similarly, 15%×x = 45. The answer is D.

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Digits
GoGMAT, Session 1
A digit is an integer from 0 to 9 inclusive: {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}.

1. (OG) If a and b represent single digits in the correctly worked computation below,
what is the value of a + b?
4a7
b23
+162
1 222
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
(E) cannot be uniquely determined

Every digit in a number has a particular place value depending on its location within
the number.
You should memorize the names of all the places value. Let’s consider all the digits in
the number 91356.2804:

9 is a ten-thousands digit
1 is a thousands digit
3 is a hundreds digit
5 is a tens digit
6 is a units digit
. is a decimal point
2 is a tenths digit
8 is a hundredths digit
0 is a thousandths digit
4 is a ten-thousandths digit

2. Is a 3-digit integer divisible by 3?

(1) The hundreds’ digit of the number is equal to the tens’ digit of the number.
(2) The units’ digit of the number is by 6 greater than the tens’ digit of the number.

The following representation of a number is useful for solving many problems

concerning digits:
1 1
abcd.ef = 1, 000 · a + 100 · b + 10 · c + d + 10 e + 100 f
Example:
Number 527 has digit 7 is in the units place, digit 2 is in the tens place, and digit 5 is
in the hundreds place. The name of each location corresponds to the «value» of the place:
527 = 5 · 100 + 2 · 10 + 7

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Notation «ab» can mean either a product of numbers a and b, or a two-digit

number with tens digit a and units digit b. If it is given that a and b are
Note:
integers, then you deal with a product. If a and b are said to be digits treat
ab as a two-digit number.
Practice:

3. A and B are both two-digit numbers. If A and B contain the same digits, but in
reverse order, and A > B, what integer must be a factor of (A − B)?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11
(E) cannot be determined

4. (OG) If the two-digit integers M and N are positive and have the same digits, but
in reverse order, which of the following CANNOT be the sum of M and N ?
(A) 181
(B) 165
(C) 121
(D) 99
(E) 55

5. (OG) The product of the two-digit numbers below is the three-digit number ada,
where a, b, and d are three different nonzero digits. If a × b < 10, what is the
two-digit number ab?
ab
×ba
a da
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 21
(E) 31

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6. (GC) If 1050 − 74 is written as an integer in decimal notation, what is the sum of

the digits in that integer?
(A) 412
(B) 423
(C) 433
(D) 440
(E) 461

In some GMAT problems it is required to round a number to a specific place value.

Example:
What is 3.194 rounded to the nearest tenths?
We need to look only at the number in the place we are rounding to (in this case it
is 1) and the number that follows it (in this case it is 9).

• If the next digit after the one we are rounding to is 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9, the digit in
question is rounded UP.

• Otherwise, the digit in question remains the same.

So, in our example, 3.192 rounded to the nearest tenth equals 3.2.
Practice:

7. (OG) If d = 2.0453 and d∗ is the decimal obtained by rounding d to the nearest

hundredth, what is the value of d∗ − d?
(A) −0.0053
(B) −0.0003
(C) 0.0007
(D) 0.0047
(E) 0.0153

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Answers and explanations

1. Perform this computation. Since 2 + 6 + 1 + a = 12, a = 3. Since 4 + b + 1 + 1 = 12,

b = 6. Thus, a + b = 9. Therefore, the answer is B.

2. A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. So 3-digit integer

abc will be divisible by 3 if a + b + c is a multiple of 3. From the first statement we
know that a = b, therefore a + b + c = 2b + c, which may or may not be a multiple
of 3. Hence, the first statement is not sufficient.
From the second statement we know, that c = b + 6. Therefore, a + b + c = a + 2b + 6,
which again may or may not be a multiple of 3. Hence, statement 2 is not sufficient.
Finally, having a = b and c = b+6 we obtain a+b+c = b+b+b+6 = 3b+6 = 3(b+2),
which is divisible by 3. The correct answer is C.

3. To solve this problem, assign A = xy and B = yx. Using your knowledge of place
value, you can express A as 10x + y, where x is the digit in the tens place and y
is the digit in the unit place. B, therefore, can be expressed as 10y + x. Hence, the
difference of A and B can be expressed as follows:

A − B = 10x + y − 10y − x = 9x − 9y = 9(x − y)

Clearly, 9 must be a factor of A − B. The answer is C.

4. If M = XY = 10X + Y (where X and Y are digits), then N = Y X = 10Y + X

and M + N = 11(X + Y ). Thus, M + N is divisible by 11. Among answer choices
given, only A does not satisfy this condition. Don’t forget about those divisibility
shortcuts for 2, 3, 5, 9, 10, and 11!

5. Since a × b < 10 and a × b = a, solving last equation gives b = 1 or a = 0. Only

b = 1 remains as a root, because a is not equal to 0. Using this information, ab = 21
or 31, the shortest way to check is to multiply 21 by 12 or 31 by 13: 21 × 12 = 252.
D is the answer.

6. 1050 − 74 = 9999...99926, where the last integer contains 48 9’s. Thus, the sum of
its digits equals to 9 + 2 + 6 = 440. The answer is D.

7. d∗ = 2.05, d∗ − d = 0.0047. Thus, the answer is D.

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Powers and Roots

GoGMAT, Session 3
Integer exponents
An integer exponent, or power, is a short way of writing the value of a number
multiplied several times by itself. For example,

4 · 4 · 4 · 4 · 4 = 45

So, an exponent is the number of times a number (called the base) is used as a factor.
In the number 45 , 4 is the base, and 5 is the exponent.
Here are the rules for working with exponents:
• Multiplying terms with the same base:
When you multiply two terms with the same base, add the exponents:

an × am = an+m

For example: 62 · 63 = 62+3 = 65 .

• Dividing terms with the same base:

When you divide terms with the same base, subtract the divisor’s exponents from
the dividend’s exponent:

an
= an−m
am

For example: 65 ÷ 63 = 65−3 = 62 .

• Raising an exponent to a power:

When you raise an exponent to some power, multiply the exponents:

(an )m = an·m

For example: (62 )3 = 62·3 = 66 .

• Multiplying and dividing terms with the same exponent:

To multiply or divide two terms with the same exponent multiply or divide the
bases:

an · bn = (a · b)
an  a  n
=
bn b

For example: 53 · 63 = (5 · 6)3 = 306 .

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• Negative exponents:
A number with a negative exponent equals its reciprocal with a positive exponent

1
a−n =
an

For example: 2−2 = 1

22
= 41 .

• Power 1:
Any number to the power one equals itself

a1 = a

• Power 0:
Any non-zero number to the power zero equals 1:

a0 = 1, a 6= 0

• Other rules:

1n = 1
n
0 = 0, n > 0
0
0 is not defined

• If you raise a positive fraction that is less than 1 to a positive integer power, the
fraction gets smaller.
 2
1 1 1 1 1
For example: = · = < .
3 3 3 9 3
• If you raise a negative number that is less than −1 to a positive odd power, the
fraction gets smaller.
For example: (−3)3 = −27 < −3.

Practice:

1. (GC) What is the value of 21 + 21 + 22 + 23 + 23 + 24 + 25 + 26 + 27 + 28 ?

(A) 238
(B) 29
(C) 210
(D) 212
(E) 215

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2. (GC) If 2n = 128, then 2n−1 · 5n−1 =

(A) 107
(B) 5 · 106
(C) 2 · 106
(D) 5 · 105
(E) 2 · 105

3. (GC) If x equals 10100 , and xx equals 10k , what is the value of k?

(A) 10100
(B) 10101
(C) 10102
(D) 10200
(E) 100100

Roots and rational exponents

A square root of number n is a number whose square equals n.

• only non-negative numbers have square roots;

• every positive real number has two square roots – one positive and one negative
opposite to it;

• zero has only one square root – itself.

Positive root of a real number a is called an arithmetic square root and is denoted
√
by a. This expression
√ is also called a radical.
For example, 9 = 3 and the two square roots of 9 are 3 and −3.
By definition we have the following two properties of square root:
√ √
( a)2 = a and a2 = |a|
√
The last equality means, that if a a positive√ number, then a2 simply equals a, but
2 2
√ (a is positive anyway), then a = −a, a positive number. For example,
pa is negative
if
2
(−5) = 25 = 5 = −(−5).
Let us remind you of some properties of roots. If x and y are positive numbers, then
√ √ √
x· y = x · y

√
x x
r
√ =
y y

To
√ simplify
√ a radical,
√ try
√ factorizing.
√ For
√ example,
32 = 2 · 16 = 2 · 16 = 2 · 4 = 4 2.

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Practice
p
4. (OG) (16 × 20 + 8 × 32) =
√
(A) 4 20
(B) 24
(C) 25
√ √
(D) 4 20 + 8 2
(E) 32

5. (OG) How many √ bits of computer memory will be required to store the integer x,
where x = − 810, 000, if each digit requires 4 bits of memory and the sign of x
requires 1 bit?
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 17
(D) 13
(E) 12
√
6. (OG) 16 + 16 =
√
(A) 4 2
√
(B) 8 2
√
(C) 16 2
(D) 8
(E) 16

The following problems will give you deeper insight into conditions under which roots
are integers.
√
7. (OG) If d is a positive integer, is d an integer?
(1) d is the square of an integer.
√
(2) d is the square of an integer.

8. (OG) Is the positive square root of x an integer?

(1) x = n4 and n is an integer
(2) x = 16
√
9. (OG) If x is an integer, is x an integer?
√
(1) 4x is an integer
√
(2) 3x is not an integer

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√ Similarly to square root, a cube root of number a is a number whose cube equals a:
( a)3 = a.
3
√
In general: n-th root of a is a number, whose n-th power equals a: ( n a)n = a.
Note, that roots with odd indexes are defined for all numbers, while roots with even
ones – only for non-negative numbers.
You should remember approximations of some roots:
√
√2 ≈ 1.4
√3 ≈ 1.7
5 ≈ 2.2
Practice
10. (OG ) Of the following numbers which one is third greatest?
√
(A) 2 2 − 1
√
(B) 2 + 1
√
(C) 1 − 2
√
(D) 2 − 1
√
(E) 2
√
11. (OG) The value of 3 −89 is between
(A) −9 and −10
(B) −8 and −9
(C) −4 and −5
(D) −3 and −4
(E) Undefined
61.24·0.9982
12. (OG) The expression √
403
is approximately equal to
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) 6
A radical can be rewritten as a fractional exponent and vice versa:
1 √
an = n a
In general case
m √
a n = n am
The problems below are more technically challenging than the ones you are likely to
get on GMAT, yet they will help you to get a better understanding of how to work with
exponents and roots.

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

Simplify:
− 13  − 15 3 4
81− 4 + 27− 3

0.75 1 1
1) 81 + − 4)
125 32 3 · 9−1.5 − 27−1
2 1
!−2 1 1 5
15− 3 · 5− 3 12 2 32 · 73
2) 2 2 5) 2 1 · 1
6− 3 · 2 3 73 · 82 8− 6
  34 ! 34
1
 1 3 1 1
3) 8 : 8 6 · 9 2
2 6) 27 9 ·
9
Write in radicals:
2
!3
23  2 1  56
1) 5 3) 27 5 · 2 5 · 2
46
s√ √
339  2  12 1 4
2) √ 4
4) 72 3 · 36 6 : 2 3
27
The formulas in the frame below will be useful for the next practice problems:

a2 − b2 = (a − b)(a + b)
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
(a − b)2 = a2 − 2ab + b2

Practice
√ √
13. (OG) (1 − 5)(1 + 5) =
(A) −4
(B) 2
(C) 6
√
(D) 2 5
√
(E) −2 5

14. (GC) √3−1 √2 =

√ √
(A) 3 + 2
√ √
(B) 3 − 2
(C) 1
√
(D) 1 − 3
√
(E) 1 − 2
√ √
15. (OG) ( 7 + 7)2 =
(A) 28
(B) 14
(C) 49

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QUANTITATIVE SECTION

(D) 98
(E) 7

More complex problems may appear on the GMAT. Consider following example:
p √
16. 6 + 2 5 =
√
(A) 5
√
(B) 5 − 1
√
(C) 5 + 1
√
(D) 3 − 5
(E) 3

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Answers and explanations

1. Let’s add the numbers step by step:

(21 + 21 ) + 22 + 23 + 24 + 25 + 26 + 27 + 28 =
2 · 21 + 22 + 23 + 24 + 25 + 26 + 27 + 28 =
(22 + 22 ) + 23 + 24 + 25 + 26 + 27 + 28 =
2 · 22 + 23 + 24 + 25 + 26 + 27 + 28 =
(23 + 23 ) + 24 + 25 + 26 + 27 + 28 =
(24 + 24 ) + 25 + 26 + 27 + 28 = ... = 29
The answer is B.
2. Since 2n = 128, n = 7. Then 2n−1 · 5n−2 = 26 · 55 = 2 · 25 · 55 = 2 · (2 · 5)5 = 2 · 105 .
The answer is E.
x
3. Since xx = 10k and x = 10100 , (10100 ) = 10k or 10100x = 10k . Therefore, 100x = k,
or 100·10100 = k. Thus, k = 10102 . The answer is C
√
4. Since 16 · 20 + 8 · 32 = 576 = 242 , 16 · 20 + 8 · 32 = 24. The answer is B. But it
√
is easier to split off expression inside : 16 · 20 + 8 · 32 = 16 · (20 + 16) = 16 · 36 =
2 2 2
4 · 6 = (4 · 6) . The answer is B
√ √
5. 810, 000 = 81 · 10, 000 = 92 · 1002 = 9002 . Therefore, x = − 810, 000 = − 9002 =
−900 and it takes 4 bits for each of the digits and one bit for sign «−»: 3 · 4 + 1 = 13
bits to store the information. Thus, the answer is D.
√ √ √ √
6. 16 + 16 = 16 · 2 = 24 · 2. Therefore, 16 + 16 = 24 · 2 = 22 · 2 = 4 2. A is the
answer.
7. Statement (2) alone is sufficient: the square of an integer is always an integer.
√ (1) is
2
sufficient too, since there exist some positive p such that d = p and d = p. The
answer is D.
√
8. Clearly,
√ (1) alone is sufficient: x = n2 and n2 is an integer. (1) is sufficient too,
since 16 = 4. The answer is D.
√ √
(1) is sufficient to answer the stem question: 4x = 2 x is an integer and thus
9. √
x must be integer. (2) is not sufficient (examples are x = 1 and x = 3). A is the
answer.
√ √ √
10. √
It is evident
√ that 1 < √ 2 < 2. Having this, we can prove that 2 2 − −1√ > 2+1 >
2 > 2 − −1 > 1 − 2. Also we can use here approximation of 2 ≈ 1.4. The
answer is E.
√ √ √
11. Since−4 = 3 −64 > 3 −89 > 3 −125 = −5, C is the answer.
12. When you are asked to find approximate solution it is√easier to round factors than
round the result. We know that 0.998 is close to 1, 403 is close to 20, and the
result is close to 3. The answer is B.
√ √ √ 2
13. If we use first formula of short multiplication then (1 − 5)(1 + 5) = 12 − − 5 =
−4. A is the answer.

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14. Here roots are in the denominator, and if we need rational

√ numbers
√
√ in√denominator


formula of short multiplication will be useful: 3− 2 3+ 2 = 3 −
√ √

2 = 1. Lets multiply numerator and denominator by 3 + 2 : √3−1 √2 =
√ √ √ √ √ √
√ √3+ √2 √ = 3+ 2
= 3 + 2. A is the answer.
( 3− 2)( 3+ 2) 3−2

√ √ √ √ 2 √ √ 2
15. 7 + 7 = 2 7 and (2 7) = 4 · 7 = 28. Or we can use the formula: ( 7 + 7) =
√ 2 √ √ √ 2
7 + 2 7 7 + 7 = 7 + 2 · 7 + 7 = 28. A is the answer.
√ √
16. The key to such problems is to find that 6 + 2 5 = (1 + 5) + 2 × 1 × 5 =
√ √ 2 √ 2
12 + 2 × 1 × 5 + 5 = (1 + 5) . Having this, we can find that C is the answer.

Simplify:

1
1 −3

1
1 −5 3 1 1 3 1 1
1. 810.75 + 125
− 32 = 81 4 +125 3 −32 5 = (34 ) 4 +(53 ) 3 −(25 ) 5 = 33 +5−2 = 30
−2 −2 
2 1 −2

 2 1 2 2 1
15− 3 ·5− 3 3− 3 ·5− 3 ·5− 3 5− 3 − 3 −2
2. 2 2 = 2 = −2+2 = (5−1 ) = 52 = 25
6− 3 ·2 3 2 − 2
3− 3 ·2
3
·2 3 2 3 3

  1 3
1 1 3 (23 ) 2 22 2 2
3. 8 ÷ 8 · 9
2 6 2 = 1 3 = 1 = 33
= 27
(23 ) 6 ·(32 ) 2 2 2 ·33

3
−4 −4
3
81− 4 +27− 3
4
(34 ) +(33 ) 3
3−3 +3−4 3+1 4 2
4. 3·9−1.5 −27−1
= 3·(32 )−1.5 −(33 )−1
= 3−2 −3−3
= 32 −3
= 6
= 3

1 1
1 1
3 2 ·7 3
5
3 2 ·(22 ) 2 1
3 2 ·7 3
5 1
3 2 ·21
1 5
1 1 3 1 5 2
5. 12 2
2 1 · −1
= 2 1 · 1 = 2 3 · 3 2−·713 = 3 2 + 2 · 21− 2 + 2 · 7 3 − 3 = 3 · 1 · 7 = 21
7 3 ·8 2 8 6 7 3 ·(23 ) 2 (23 )− 6 7 3 ·2 2 2 2

 1
43  34 1 4
·3
34 · 34 4 14
6. 27 · 9
1
9
= (33 ) 9 · 1
32
= 3 9 · 3−2 = 3− 9

Write in radicals:
 2 3 2
1. 2 35 = 25 = 245 = 1
8
46 42
q√ √  1 2  12  1 2 3  12  5  12
339 3 2 ·3 3 5
2. √
4
27
= 3 = 32+3−4 = 3 12 = 3 24
34
  65 2 5 1 5
27 5 · 2 5 · 2 = (33 ) 5 6 · 2( 5 +1)· 6 = 3 · 2 = 6
2 1 ·
3.
  12 2 1 2 1
2 1 4 ·2 ·2 1 1 4 1 4 2 1
4. 72 3 · 36 6 ÷ 2 3 = (23 ) 3 · (32 ) 3 · 32· 6 · 22· 6 ÷ 2 3 = 21+ 3 − 3 · 3 3 + 3 = 3

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Home assignment
I. Numbers

1. If a and b are integers such that a + b = 5, which of the following must be true?
I. The product of a and b is odd.
II. If a is odd, b is even.
III. If a is negative, b is positive.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

2. (GC) What is the product of 6 consecutive integers?

(1) The greatest integer is 4
(2) The sequence has both positive and negative integers

3. (OG) If p is an even integer and q is an odd integer, which of the following must be
an odd integer?
(A) p/q
(B) pq
(C) 2p + q
(D) 2(p + q)
(E) 3p/q

4. (OG) Is x an integer?
(1) x/2 is an integer
(2) 2x is an integer

5. (GC) Is a × (a + 5) an even number?

(1) a is positive integer
(2) a is odd

6. If n is an even number, which of the following must be even?

4n+4
I. 4
4n2 +2n
II. 4
4n2 +4n
III. 4
(A) I only

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(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) II and III only
7. If x is an integer, is y an integer?
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) of x, y, and y − 2 is x
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) of x and y is NOT an integer
8. If n is a positive integer, what is the maximum possible number of prime numbers
in the following sequences: n + 1, n + 2, n + 3, n + 4, n + 5, and n + 6?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
9. If the sum of five consecutive positive integers is a, then the sum of the next five
consecutive integers in terms of a is
(A) a + 1
(B) a + 5
(C) a + 25
(D) 2a
(E) 5a
10. (OG) If r and s are integers and rs + r is odd, which of the following must be
even?
(A) r
(B) s
(C) r + s
(D) r + s2
(E) r2 + s
11. (OG) If m is an integer, is m odd?
(1) m/2 is not an even integer
(2) m − 3 is an even integer
12. (GC) Are integers a and b both even?
(1) ab is evenly divisible by 4
(2) ab = 0

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13. If x, y and z are positive integers such that 0 < x < y < z and x is even, y is odd,
and z is prime, which of the following is a possible value of x + y + z ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 11
(D) 15
(E) 18
14. If n is an integer greater than 1, and n is not a prime number, then which of the
following must be true?
(A) n is the sum of three prime numbers
(B) n is the difference between 2 even numbers
(C) n is the difference between one even number and one odd number
(D) n is the product of one even number and one odd number
(E) n is the product of prime numbers
15. If x is a positive integer, is x a prime number?
(1) x + 1 is a prime number.
(2) x − 5 is a prime number

II. Divisibility
1. Which of the following is the smallest number that can be divisible by 6?
(A) 102,000
(B) 101,010
(C) 110,100
(D) 100,010
(E) 110,010
2. If x and y are positive integers, is x − y divisible by 4?
(1) xy is divisible by 16.
(2) x is divisible by 4.
3. (GC) What is the sum of the least and the greatest positive four-digit multiples of
4 that can be written each using the digits 1, 2, 3, and 4 exactly once?
(A) 5555
(B) 5658
(C) 5636
(D) 4312
(E) 1324

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4. & represents the tens digit in integer A=1543&2. What is &?

(1) A is divisible by 9
(2) A is divisible by 4

5. If l×2×3× . . . ×n is divisible by 990, what is the least possible value of n?

(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 18
(E) 22

6. (GC) Let N be the greatest integer with distinct digits and multiple of 8 as well.
What is the remainder when N is divided by 1000?
(A) 120
(B) 12
(C) 320
(D) 240
(E) 210

III. Decimals and fractions

1. (OG) If the numbers 17/24, 1/2, 3/8, 3/4, and 9/16 were ordered from greatest to
least, the middle number of the resulting sequence would be
(A) 17/24
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/8
(D) 3/4
(E) 9/16

2. (OG) 3/100 + 5/1000 + 7/100000 =

(A) 0.357
(B) 0.3507
(C) 0.35007
(D) 0.0357
(E) 0.03507

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3. (OG) Which of the following fractions is equal to 0.0625?

(A) 5/8
(B) 3/8
(C) 1/16
(D) 1/18
(E) 3/80

4. (OG) The number 2 − 0.5 is how many times the number 1 − 0.5?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 1.5
(D) 0.5
(E) 2.5

5. (GC) Find the value of (p − 1)3 if p = 15/18 + 5/16 − 20/24

 3
11
(A)
16
 3
11
(B) −
16
 3
20
(C)
48
 3
20
(D) −
48
 3
7
(E)
24
6. (OG) What number when multiplied by 4/7 yields 6/7 as the result?
(A) 2/7
(B) 2/3
(C) 3/2
(D) 24/7
(E) 7/2

7. (OG) What is the value of (−1.5 × 1.2 − 4.5 × 0.4)/30?

(A) 0
(B) −0.12
(C) 0.12

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(D) 1.2
(E) −0.012

8. (OG) What is the value of (0.3)5 /(0.3)3 ?

(A) 0.03
(B) 0.09
(C) 0.27
(D) 0.003
(E) 0.009

9. (OG) 3 × 0.072/0.54 =
(A) 0.04
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.8
(E) 4

10. (OG) 31/125 =

(A) 0.248
(B) 0.252
(C) 0.284
(D) 0.312
(E) 0.320

11. (OG) What percent of 30 is 12?

(A) 2.5%
(B) 3.6%
(C) 25%
(D) 40%
(E) 250%

12. (OG) If x is equal to one of the numbers 1/4, 3/8, or 2/5, what is the value of x?
(1) 1/4 < x < 1/2
(2) 1/3 < x < 3/5

13. (OG) Which of the following fractions has greatest value?

(A) 6/(22 × 52 )
(B) 1/(23 × 52 )

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(C) 28/(22 × 53 )
(D) 62/(23 × 53 )
(E) 122/(24 × 53 )

14. (OG) If 1 < d < 2, is the tenths’ digit of the decimal representation of d equal to 9?
(1) d + 0.01 < 2
(2) d + 0.05 > 2

15. (OG) What is the decimal equivalent of (1/5)5 ?

(A) 0.00032
(B) 0.0016
(C) 0.00625
(D) 0.008
(E) 0.03125

16. (OG) If 18 is 15% of 30% of a certain number, what is the number?

(A) 9
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 81
(E) 400

17. (OG) If x > 0, x/25 + x/50 is what percent of x?

(A) 6%
(B) 25%
(C) 37.5%
(D) 60%
(E) 75%

18. (OG) If r and s are positive integers, r is what percent of s?

(1) r = 3/4s
(2) r + s = 75/100

19. (OG) The manager of a theatre noted that for every 10 admission tickets sold, the
theater sell 3 bags of popcorn at $2.25 each, 4 sodas at $1.50 each, and 2 candy bars
at $1.00 each. To the nearest cent, what is the average (arithmetic mean) amount
of these snack sales per ticket sold?
(A) $1.48
(B) $1.58

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(C) $1.60
(D) $1.64
(E) $1.70

20. (OG) In the fraction x/y, where x and y are positive integers, what is the value of
y?
(1) The least common denominator of x/y and 1/3 is 6
(2) x = 1

21. (OG) If the successive marks on the line below are equally spaced and if x and y
are the numbers designating the end points of intervals as shown, what is the value
of y?

(1) x = 1/2
(2) y − x = 2/3
a
22. If a and b are integers, is b
a terminate decimal?
(1) a = 5r , where r is an integer.
(2) b = 2s , where s is an integer.

23. (OG) On the number line segment [0, 1] has been divided by tick marks into fifths
and into sevenths What is the least possible distance between any two of the tick
marks?
(A) 1/70
(B) 1/35
(C) 2/35
(D) 1/12
(E) 1/7

IV. Digits

1. (PR) If x is a positive number and x = 0.abc, is the tenths’ digit of the decimal
representation of x equal to 7?
(1) 0.5 + 2x < 1.74
(2) 2x − 0.035 > 0.001

2. (OG) If a and b each represent single digits in the decimal 3.2ab6, what does digit
a represent?
(1) When the decimal is rounded to the nearest tenth, 3.2 is the result
(2) When the decimal is rounded to the nearest hundredth, 3.24 is the result

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3. (OG) What is the value of the two-digit integer x?

(1) The sum of the two digits is 3
(2) x is divisible by 3

4. (GC) The sum of the digits of a standard two-digit numeral is 9. If the digits are
reversed, the numeral represents a number that is 45 less than original number.
What is the original numeral?
(A) 72
(B) 27
(C) 54
(D) 63
(E) 81

5. (GC) M is a positive integer less than 50. The units digit of M is 5. What is the
value of M ?
(1) Thousands digit of M 2 is 1
(2) Hundreds digit of M 2 is 2

6. (OG) If Q is an integer between 10 and 100, what is the value of Q?

(1) One of Q’s digits is 3 more than the other, and the sum of its digits is 9
(2) Q < 50

7. (OG) A cashier mentally reversed the digits of one customer’s correct amount of
change and thus gave the customer an incorrect amount of change. If the cash
register contained 45 cents more than it should have as a result of this error, which
of the following could have been the correct amount of change in cents?
(A) 14
(B) 45
(C) 54
(D) 65
(E) 83

8. (OG) If x = 0.rstu, where r, s, t, and u each represent a nonzero digit of x, what is

the value of x?
(1) r = 3s = 2t = 6u
(2) The product of r and u is equal to the product of s and t

9. (GC) A person travels in a car with uniform speed. He observes a mile-stone, which
has 2 digits. After one hour he observes another mile-stone with same digits reversed.
After another hour he observes another mile-stone with same 2 digits containing a

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0. Find the speed of the car in miles per hour, if mile-stones tell you how far one
has travelled from the starting point.
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 55
(E) 60
10. (GC) S = 0.abc, where a, b, and c are any decimal digits. Is S > 2/3?
(1) a + b > 14
(2) a + c > 15
11. (GC) x, y, z and w are distinct decimal digits. Is 0.xy + 0.zw > 1?
(1) The smallest among the 4 digits is 4
(2) The product of the decimals 0.xy and 0.zw is greater than 1/2
12. (GC) A, B, C are digits where A×B is not zero. If AB, BA are both two-digit
numbers and AAC is a three-digit number, what is the value of B?
(1) AB+BA = AAC
(2) A=1

V. Powers and roots

√ √
1. (GC ) What is the value of x + 24 − x?
√
(1) x is an integer
√
(2) x + 24 is an integer
q
5.98×601.5
2. (OG ) Of the following, the closest approximation to 15.79
is
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
(E) 225
√
3. (OG) 453 is between
(A) 21 and 22
(B) 22 and 23
(C) 23 and 24
(D) 24 and 25
(E) 25 and 26

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4. (OG) What is the value of the positive integer n?

(1) n4 < 25
(2) n 6= n2
√
5. (OG) 2 +22 6 =
√
(A) 6
√
(B) 2 6
√
(C) 1 + 6
√
(D) 1 + 2 6
√
(E) 2 + 6
√ √ √ √
6. (OG) ( 2 + 1)( 2 − 1)( 3 + 1)( 3 − 1) =
(A) 2
(B) 3
√
(C) 2 6
(D) 5
(E) 6
√ √
7. (OG) ( 3 + 2)( 3 − 2) =
√
(A) 3 − 4
√
(B) 6 − 4
(C) −1
(D) 1
(E) 2
q √
8. 3 80 + 9+43√5 =
p √
(A) 3 5
(B) 3
√
(C) 3 3
√
(D) 3 + 2 5
√
(E) 9 + 4 5

9. (GC) If x and y are integers, is k the square of an integer?

(1) k = x2 y 2
√
(2) k = 4

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p√
3
10. (GC 6344) Find the value of 348
(A) 38
(B) 316
(C) 324
(D) 343
(E) 36

11. Which of the following is not equal to the square of integer?

p√
(A) 1
√
(B) 4
(C) 18/2
(D) 41 − 25
(E) 36
√
12. Which of the following ratios is most nearly equal to the ratio 1 + 5 to 2?
(A) 8 to 5
(B) 6 to 5
(C) 5 to 4
(D) 2 to 1
(E) 1 to 1
p √ p √ 2
13. 9 + 80 + 9 − 80 =
(A) 1
√
(B) 9 − 4 5
√
(C) 18 − 4 5
(D) 18
(E) 20

14. If x is a positive number, is x less than 1?

√
(1) x > x
√
(2) − x > −x
√
15. If y is a positive integer is y an integer?
√
(1) 4y is not an integer
√
(2) 5y is an integer

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Answers

Question № Answer Question № Answer

Numbers Decimals & fractions
1. D 16. E
2. D 17. A
3. C 18. A
4. A 19. A
5. B 20. E
6. C 21. D
7. A 22. B
8. C 23. B
9. C Digits
10. B 1. A
11. B 2. E
12. E 3. E
13. E 4. A
14. E 5. A
15. C 6. C
Divisibility 7. E
1. B 8. A
2. E 9. B
3. C 10. D
4. A 11. D
5. B 12. A
6. A Powers and Roots
Decimals & fractions 1. E
1. E 2. B
2. E 3. A
3. C 4. C
4. A 5. C
5. B 6. A
6. C 7. C
7. B 8. C
8. B 9. D
9. C 10. A
10. A 11. B
11. D 12. A
12. E 13. E
13. D 14. D
14. B 15. D
15. A

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Test№1. Number properties, fractions, digits, powers and roots,

ratios, percent, divisibility
1. If N = 1/3 + (1/3)2 + (1/3)3 , then N is between
1
(A) 0 and 9
1 1
(B) 9
and 3
1 8
(C) 3
and 9
8 4
(D) 9
and 3
4
(E) 3
and 2

x
2. When x is which of the following numbers, − 13 has the largest value?
(A) −5
(B) −4
(C) 0
(D) 4
(E) 5

3. What is the sum of digits of number 1028 − 28?

(A) 227
(B) 228
(C) 236
(D) 237
(E) 243

4. If m, n, p, and q are consecutive positive even numbers, m < n < p < q, in terms
of m, what is the sum of four numbers?
(A) 4m + 3
(B) 4m + 6
(C) 4m + 8
(D) 4m + 12
(E) 4m + 16

5. There are 135 employees in Company X. If the number of employees who were born
in June is the greatest, what is the least possible number of the employees in the
company who were born in June?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12

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(D) 13
(E) 14

6. For positive integer x, if x2 has 4 digits, which of the following must be true?
I. x must be a 2-digit integer
II. 2x must be a 3-digit integer
III. 3x must be a 3-digit integer
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only

7. In a certain positive two-digit integer, the ratio of the units digit to the tens digit
is 2 to 3, what is the integer?
(1) The tens digit is 3 more than the units digit.
(2) The product of the two digits is 54.

8. For numbers x, y, z and w, if x is 50

(A) 20 % greater
(B) 20 % less
(C) 25 % greater
(D) 25 % less
(E) 50 % greater

9. If xn = 1, where x and n are both integers, what is the value of the x?

(1) n is a multiple of 5.
(2) n is an odd number.

10. The ratio of number of teachers to number of students in school X is equal to that of
school Y. What is the ratio of number of students in school X to number of students
in school Y?
(1) The number of the students in school X is 2,000 more than the number of the
students in school Y.
(2) The ratio of number of teachers to number of students in school Y is 1:20.

11. If a and b are positive integers, what is the value of ab?

(1) ab is divisible by 6.
(2) a and b are prime numbers.

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12. If a and b are positive integers, is a even?

(1) ab + b is an even number.
(2) ab + a is an even number.

13. Is 49 in the set S?

(1) All numbers in set S are multiple of 7.
(2) All numbers in set S are square numbers.

14. If z and x are integers with absolute values greater than 1, is z x less than 1?
(1) x < 0.
(2) z z < 1.

15. If the product of digits of a 2-digit positive integer n is 20, what is the value of n?
(1) n is greater than 50.
(2) n is an even number.

16. Integer n is greater than 20 and less than 80, is n odd? (1) Both digits of n are
prime numbers.
(2) The sum of n’s two digits is prime number.

17. If m and n are positive integers and m + n is prime, is m odd?

(1) n is an odd number.
(2) n is greater than 2.

18. If x < y < z, is xyz > 0?

(1) xy > 0.
(2) xz > 0.
m
19. If m and n are integers, is n
an infinite decimal?
(1) m is a prime factor of 100.
(2) n is a prime factor of 50.

D 16. E 17. C 18. E 19. B

Answers: 1. C 2. B 3. E 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. E 11. C 12. E 13. E 14. A 15.

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Lesson №2. Arithmetics

Progressions
GoGMAT, Session 7
An arithmetic progression (sequence) is a sequence in which each term after the first
is equal to the sum of the preceding term and some constant called the difference of this
progression.

1. Determine whether the sequence below is an arithmetic progression and find its
difference.
a) −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, ...
b) −7, −4, −1, 2, 5, 8, ...
c) 10, 6, 2, −2, −6, ...
d) 3, 3, 3, 3, 3, 3, ...

On GMAT arithmetic progression can be described in different ways:

• Sequence a1 , a2 , a3 , ... such that an = an−1 + d

• Sequence a1 , a2 , a3 , ... such that an+1 = an + d

• Sequence of equally spaced numbers

an−1 + an+1
• Sequence a1 , a2 , a3 , ... such that an =
2
Key facts about arithmetic progression:
• An arithmetic progression is uniquely defined by its first term and difference.

• The definition of the arithmetic sequence can be expressed as the following recursive
formula:
an = an−1 + d, n = 2, 3, 4...

• Since the first term and the difference of the arithmetic progression are given, any
term with number n can be found using the formula of the n-th term:

an = a1 + d × (n − 1)

Indeed, from the figure below it’s clear, that

to get to the second element you have to make one step from the first term, or
a2 = a1 + d To get to the third element – two steps a2 = a1 + 2d, etc.

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The number of steps is always one less than the number of the element you want
to obtain. That’s why in the formula of the n-th term you have to add d × (n − 1),
not d × n.

To make sure you understand this principle clearly,

2. Answer the following questions:

a) If a rope is cut in 5 places, how many pieces will there be?

b) How many spaces are there in a text consisting of 100 words?
c) How many pieces of cake will we get, if we make 4 cuttings from its center to the
edge?
• Number of elements between the first and the n-th terms inclusive is called the length
of progression. The length of progression can be easily found using the formula:

an − a1
n= + 1.
d
Let’s look at it a little closer:

an − a1
n= +1
d } 
| {z

Number of intervals between Number of intervals + 1 =

a1 and an Number of elements

• The sum of n terms of the arithmetic progression is equal to

a1 + an
Sn = × n,
2
or, applying the formula of the n-th term,
2a1 + d(n − 1)
Sn = × n.
2
Looking closer at the formula of the sum of n terms:

a1 + an
Sn = ×n
2 } 
| {z

Arithmetic average Multiplying the average by the

of n terms number of terms, we get their sum

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Practice:

2. (OG) If p, q, r, s, t is an arithmetic progression, which of the following must be also

arithmetic progression?
I. 2p, 2q, 2r, 2s, 2t
II. p − 3, q − 3, r − 3, s − 3, t − 3
III. p2 , q 2 , r2 , s2 , t2
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II
(E) II and III

3. (OG) How many multiples of 4 are there between 12 and 96, inclusive?
(A) 21
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 24
(E) 25

4. (GC) How many integers between 324700 and 458600 have tens digit 1 and units
digit 3?
(A) 10300
(B) 10030
(C) 1353
(D) 1352
(E) 1339

5. (OG) If x is equal to the sum of the even integers from 40 to 60, inclusive, and y is
the number of even integers from 40 to 60, inclusive, what is the value of x + y?
(A) 550
(B) 551
(C) 560
(D) 561
(E) 572

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6. In the first week of the year, Nancy saved $1, in each of the next 51 weeks, she saved
$1 more than she had saved in the previous week. What was the total amount that
Nancy saved during the 52 weeks?
(A) $ 1,326
(B) $ 1,352
(C) $ 1,378
(D) $ 2,652
(E) $ 27,560

7. (OG) What is the sum of the integers in the table below?

1 2 3 4 5 6 7
−2 −4 −6 −8 −10 −12 −14
3 6 9 12 15 18 21
−4 −8 −12 −16 −20 −24 −28
5 10 15 20 25 30 35
−6 −12 −18 −24 −30 −36 −42
7 14 21 28 35 42 49
(A) 28
(B) 112
(C) 336
(D) 448
(E) 784

8. (OG) If an increasing sequence of 10 consecutive integers, the sum of the first 5

integers is 560. What is the sum of the last 5 integers in the sequence?
(A) 585
(B) 580
(C) 575
(D) 570
(E) 565

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9. (OG) If the sum of n consecutive integers is 0, which of the following must be true?
I. n is an even number
II. n is an odd number
III. The average (arithmetic mean) of the n integers is 0.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III
(E) II and III

Geometric progression is a sequence of numbers where each term after the first is
found by multiplying the previous one by a fixed non-zero number called the common
ratio.
For example, the sequence 2, 6, 18, 54, ... is a geometric progression with common
ratio 3. Similarly 10, 5, 2.5, 1.25, ... is a geometric sequence with common ratio 1/2.
On the GMAT you do not need any formula to solve problems concerning geometric
progression. Consider the following examples:

10. A certain series is defined by the following recursive rule:

Sn = k × Sn−1 ,

where k is a constant. If the first term of the series is 4 and the 5th term is 324,
what is the 7th term?
(A) 312
(B) 488
(C) 976
(D) 2916
(E) 6588

11. A certain culture of bacteria quadruples every hour. If a container with these bacteria
was half full at 10:00 a.m., at what time was it one-eighth full?
(A) 9:00 a.m.
(B) 7:00 a.m.
(C) 6:00 a.m.
(D) 4:00 a.m.
(E) 2:00 a.m.

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Answers and explanations

1. Actually, all of these sequences are arithmetic progressions with respective

differences
a) d = 1 (consecutive integers form an arithmetic progression);
b) d = 3;
c) d = −4 (note the sign of the difference);
d) d = 0.

2. a) 6 pieces
b) 99 spaces
c) 4 pieces.

3. Difference between any two consequent numbers from I is constant. Thus, I is an

example of arithmetic progression. The same is true for II. III is not necessarily true
(it is easy to see given the example: p = 1, t = 5). Thus, D is the answer.

4. It is easy to see that multiples of 4 constitute arithmetic progression with difference

d = 4. Thus, n = (96 − 12)/4 + 1 = 22. B is the answer.

5. For example, consequent members of this progression are 324713 and 324813, and
we can find out that numbers with given tens and units digits constitute arithmetic
progression with difference d = 100. The first member of this progression is 324713,
the last member is 458513. Thus, the progression has (458, 513−324, 713)/100+1 =
4585 − 3247 + 1 = 1339 members.

6. Even integers from 40 to 60, inclusive, constitute arithmetic progression with

difference d = 2. Then y = (60 − 40)/2 + 1 = 11. X = (40 + 60) × 11/2 = 550. Thus,
x + y = 561.

7. Here we deal with the arithmetic progression, for which a1 = 1, d = 1. We are asked
about the sum of 52 terms, but we do not know a52 . That is why we should use the
2nd formula for the sum of n terms of the arithmetic progression:
2 × 1 + 1 × (52 − 1)
S52 = × 52 = 53 × 26.
2
You can easily count the number, but first determine the last digit of this product
– it is 8. The only such answer is C.

8. Integers in each row constitute arithmetic progression. Thus, we can easily find the
sum in first row: S1 = (7 + 1) × 7/2 = 28. If we look at two consecutive rows then
second one is product of first row and integer 2, the third row is a product of first row
and integer 3, etcetera. The sums in rows can be found: S2 = −2 × S1 , S3 = 3 × S1 ,
S4 = −4 × S1 , S5 = 5 × S1 , S6 = −6 × S1 , S7 = 7 × S1 . The sum of all integers in
the table is equal to S1 × (1 − 2 + 3 − 4 + 5 − 6 + 7) = S1 × 4 = 112. The best answer
is B.

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9. Let the first integer be x, then the last integer in the sequence is x + 9. Thus, the
sum of the first 5 integers is equal to (x + x + 4) × 5/2 = 5x + 10. The sum of the
last 5 integers is equal to (x + 5 + x + 9) × 5/2 = 5x + 35. These two sums differ by
25, and the second sum is greater than the first one. Thus, the answer is 565 + 25
= 585. The best choice is A.

10. If the sum of consecutive numbers is 0, then for each positive x in the sequence must
be negative −x. For example, if 2 in sequence then −2 is also there. There are k
positive numbers, k negative numbers, and there should be zero: n = k+k+1 = 2k+1
- odd number. The arithmetic average of some set is equal to the sum of its elements
divided by the number of elements in this set. Therefore we can conclude that the
average is equal to 0 if and only if the sum is equal to 0. Given this, III is also true.
E is the answer.

11. Using recursive rule, S5 = S1 × k 4 , 244 = 4 × k 4 ,we can find value of k: k 4 = 81,
k = 3. To find the 7th term: S7 = S1 × k 6 , S7 = 4 × 36 = 2916. The answer is D.

12. One-eighth is four times less, than one half. But from the problem we know, that
the number of bacteria quadruples every hour. So, if at 10 a.m. the container is half
full, one hour ago it was one-eighth full. The answer is A.

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Statistics
GoGMAT, Session 4
Statistics deals with large sets of numbers. On GMAT you need to know about five
main characteristics of such sets: mean, median, range, mode and standard deviation.
I. Mean or arithmetic average
• Mean (arithmetic average) of a set of n numbers is the sum of those numbers divided
by n:

sum of n objects
mean = .
n
Example: the average of 6, 4, 7, 10, and 4 is
6 + 4 + 7 + 10 + 4 31
= = 6.2.
5 5
• The mean of the arithmetic progression can be found using the following formula:
a1 +an
Sn ×n a1 + an
mean = = 2 =
n n 2
So, to calculate the mean of the arithmetic progression there is no need to add all
the terms, but only the first and the last.
• If you are given the average A of a set of n numbers, multiply A by n to get their
sum:
• If all numbers in a set are equal to the same number a, then that the average is
equal to a.
• If the numbers in the set are not all the same, then the average must be greater
than the smallest number and less than the largest number.
Therefore, if you know, that the average of some set is equal to its smallest number,
you know that all the numbers in the set are equal
• The sum of the differences between the average and the terms above the average
equals the sum of the differences between the average and the terms below the
average.
Example: Consider the set {83, 84, 86, 98, 99}. Its mean equals 90. The differences
between 90 and
 the terms that are below 90 are
90 − 83 = 7 
90 − 84 = 6 The total difference is 7+6+4 = 17
90 − 86 = 4


The differences between 90 and the terms that are above 90 are

98 − 90 = 8
The total difference is 8+9 = 17
99 − 90 = 9
These differences are always equal.

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• If there are two groups of objects:

Group A Group B
m objects n objects
mean equals x mean equals y

The mean of two groups combined

m×x+n×y
m+n

Example: Assume that there are two groups of students: group A consisting of 15
students and group B with 10 students in it. If both groups passed the test and
the average scores are 70 and 80 respectively, what is the average score for the two
groups combined?
To answer the question, use the formula above:
15 × 70 + 10 × 80 1050 + 800
= = 74.
15 + 10 25

• Note, that if there are two sets, A (with average of x) and B (with average of y),
then to find the mean for the combined set, you do not actually need to know exact
numbers of terms in those sets –the ratio of number of terms in A to the
number of terms in B is enough!
Example: Assume again that there are two groups of students A and B with
respective average test scores 70 and 80. If the ratio of number of students in A
to the number of student in B is 3:2, then what is the average for the sets A and B
combined?
To answer the question, use the same formula above, but express the numbers of
students as 3s for A and 2s for B:

3s × 70 + 2s × 80 s(210 + 160) 370

= = = 74.
3s + 2s 5s 5
Thus, we obtained the same result as in the example above, but without actual
values for the numbers of students.

• If there are two groups of objects, A and B with respective averages m and n, then
the average of the two sets combined will be closer to the average of the set with
the greater number of objects.
Hence, if the numbers of objects are equal, then the average of the two sets combined
will be equidistant from the individual averages of the sets A and B.
Example: In the previous we found the average for the two groups with 15 and
10 students respectively, where the individual average scores were given: 70 for A

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and 80 for B. Here group A has more students than group B, and the average 74 is
closer to the average of this group A.
Let’s switch the numbers of students:
Group A has 10 students with the average score 70
Group B has 15 students with the average score 80.
The average for the two groups combined is:
10 × 70 + 15 × 80 700 + 1200
= = 76.
10 + 15 25

76 is closer to 80, the average of the group B with greater number of students.
Now assume there are 10 students in both groups:
10 × 70 + 10 × 80 700 + 800
= = 75.
10 + 10 20

75 is equidistant form 70 and 80.

II. Median
• To calculate the median of n numbers:

 first order the numbers from the least to the greatest.

 If n is odd, the median is defined as the number in the middle
 If n is even, the median is defined as the average of the two middle numbers.

Example: In order to find the median of the set {6, 4, 7, 10, 4}, put them in order
from least to the greatest: {4, 4, 6, 7, 10}, and take the central number: 6. Thus the
median is 6.
For the numbers 4, 6, 6, 8, 9, 12, the median is (6+8)/2=7.
The mean of arithmetic progression is equal to its median.
III. Range
• The range of the set {x1 , x2 , x3 , ..., xn } is equal to the difference between its greatest
and lowest elements.

• The range is always non-negative:

Range ≥ 0.
And it is equal to 0 in two cases:

 all the elements are equal to each other {a, a, a . . . },

 the set consists of only one element {a}.

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• Adding the same number to all the terms of the set does not change the range.

• Multiplying all terms of the set by the same number m changes the range. The new
range will be m times greater than the initial range.

IV. Mode
Mode is a most frequent element in the set.
Examples:
In the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 3, 5, 7, 2, 1, 2} mode is equal to 2.
In the set {1, 2, 3, 2, 3} there are two modes, 2 and 3.
V. Standard deviation

• If x∗ is the mean of some finite set S = {x1 , ..., xn }, then

r
(x1 − x∗ )2 + (x2 − x∗ )2 + ... + (xn − x∗ )2
σ=
n
is called standard deviation of S.

In fact, you do not need this formula on the GMAT. What you do need is the general
intuitive understanding of the standard deviation as the average of deviations of all the
terms from the mean.

High standard deviation Low standard deviation

• The standard deviation is always non-negative:
Standard deviation ≥ 0.
And it is equal to 0 in two cases:

 all the elements are equal to each other {a, a, ...a},

 the set consists of only one element {a}.

• The standard deviation equals zero if and only if range equals zero.

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• If the same constant a is added to each number of the set {x1 , x2 , x3 , ..., xn } with
standard deviation s, the deviation of the new set {x1 + a, x2 + a, . . . , xn + a} will
still be s.
• If each number of the set {x1 , x2 , x3 , ..., xn } with standard deviation s is multiplied
by the same number b, the deviation of the new set {bx1 , bx2 , . . . , bxn } will equal bs.
• The value of standard deviation is independent from other characteristics, such as
mean, median or mode. To obtain the standard deviation we need to know all the
values of set members.
Practice:
1. Last week, two classes took a test. If the average score for all students in two classes
was 82, which class has more students?
(1) The average score for the students in class A is 80.
(2) The average score for the students in class В is 86.
2. In a certain group of people, the average weight of the males is 170 pounds and of
the females, 120 pounds. What is the average weight of the people in the group?
(1) The group contains twice as many females as males.
(2) The group contains 15 more females than males.
3. (OG) If m is the average of the first 10 positive multiples of 5 and if M is the median
of the first 10 positive multiples of 5, what is the value of M − m?
(A) −5
(B) 0
(C) 5
(D) 25
(E) 27.5
4. (OG) For a certain set of n numbers, where n > 1, is the average equal to the
median?
(1) If the n numbers in the set are listed in increasing order, then the difference
between any pair of successive numbers in the set is 2
(2) The range of n numbers in the set is 2 × (n − 1)
5. (OG) If the average of four numbers K, 2K + 3, 3K − 5, and 5K + 1 is 63, what is
the value of K?
(A) 11
(B) 63/4
(C) 22
(D) 23
(E) 253/10

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6. (OG) If S = {0, 4, 5, 2, 11, 8}, how much greater than the median of the numbers in
S is the mean of the numbers in S?
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0
(E) 2.5

7. (OG) If Jill’s average score for three games of bowling was 168, what was her lowest
score?
(1) Jill’s highest score was 204
(2) The sum of two Jill’s highest scores was 364

8. (OG) The average of 6, 8, and 10 equals the average of 7, 9, and

(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 11

9. (OG) If x books cost $5 each and y books cost $8 each, then the average cost, $ per
book, is
(A) (5x + 8y)/(x + y)
(B) (5x + 8y)/(xy)
(C) (5x + 8y)/13
(D) 40xy/(x + y)
(E) 40xy/13

10. (OG) The temperatures in degrees Celsius recorded at 6 in the morning in various
parts of a certain country were 100 , 50 , −20 , −10 , −50 , and 150 . What is the median
of these temperatures?
(A) −20 C
(B) −10 C
(C) 20 C
(D) 30 C
(E) 50 C

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11. (OG) If the median of the numbers in the list {3, 6, 8, 19} equals to the median of
{x, 3, 6, 8, 19}, what is the value of x?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 10

12. (OG) If n is an integer between 1 and 10, inclusive, then the median of the set
{2, 4, 6, 8, n, 3, 5, 7, 9} must be
(A) either 4 or 5
(B) either 5 or 6
(C) either 6 or 7
(D) n
(E) 5.5

13. (OG) Which of the following numbers is greater than three-fourths of the numbers
but less than one-fourth of the numbers from the set {38, 69, 22, 73, 31, 47, 13, 82}?
(A) 56
(B) 68
(C) 69
(D) 71
(E) 73

14. (OG) S is a set containing 9 different numbers, T is a set containing 8 different

numbers, all of which are members of S. Which of the following CANNOT be true?
(A) The mean of S is equal to the mean of T
(B) The median of S is equal to the median of T
(C) The range of S is equal to the range of T
(D) The mean of S is greater than the mean of T
(E) The range of S is less than the range of T

15. (OG) If S is a set of four integers w, x, y, and z, is the range of the numbers in S
greater than 2?
(1) w − z > 2
(2) z is the least number in S

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16. In a certain class, boys’ heights range is 10 inches, and girls’ height range is 8 inches.
What is heights’ range for all of the students?
(1) The shortest boy is 2 inches taller than the tallest girl.
(2) The tallest girl in the class is 72 inches in height.

17. What is the value of x?

(1) x is a mode of {3, 0, 1, −1, 0, 5, 1}
(2) x is neither positive nor negative

18. (OG)
I = {72, 73, 74, 75, 76}
II = {74, 74, 74, 74, 74}
III = {62, 74, 74, 74, 89}
The data sets I, II, and III are ordered from greatest standard deviation to least
standard deviation in which of the following?
(A) I, II, and III
(B) I, III, and II
(C) II, III, and I
(D) III, I, and II
(E) III, II, and I

19. (GC) Is mean of set A greater than mean of set B?

(1) The median of set A is greater than the median of set B
(2) The standard deviation of set A is greater than the standard deviation of set B
9.4, 9.9, 9.9, 9.9, 10.0, 10.2, 10.2, 10.5
20. The mean and the standard deviation of the 8 numbers shown are 10 and 0.3
respectively. What percent of the 8 numbers are within 1 standard deviation of
the mean?
(A) 90%
(B) 85%
(C) 80%
(D) 75%
(E) 70%

21. Set T consists of a certain number of even integers divisible by 3. Is standard

deviation of T positive?
(1) All elements of set T are positive
(2) The range of set T is positive

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Answers and Explanations

1. From the mean paragraph we know, that there are more objects in a set with a
mean closer to the mean of the combined set.
Statement (1) gives us the average for class A (80). But we do not know, whether
the average of class B is closer to 82 or not. So it is insufficient.
Statement (2) provides us with similar information about class B, so it is insufficient
as well.
From both statements together we understand, that the mean of A (80) is closer to
82, than the mean of B (86). Thus, we conclude, that class A has more students,
than class B. The answer is C.
2. From statement (1) we know the ratio of women to men. Hence, we can determine
the mean of the two groups of people combined (see mean paragraph).
From statement (2) we know the difference, but we have no clue about the ratio.
So, it is insufficient. The answer is A.
3. Multiples of 5 constitute numbers is an arithmetic progression, for which mean and
median are equal. Thus their difference is equal to 0. The answer is B.
4. Statement (1) essentially says that this set of numbers is arithmetic progression
with difference d = 2. For arithmetic progression we have mean equal to median.
Therefore, (1) alone is sufficient and the answer must be A or D. Second statement
gives no clue about question asked in the stem and thus is insufficient. The answer
is A.
5. Since (K + 2K + 3 + 3K − 5 + 5K + 1)/4 = 63, (11K − 1)/4 = 63, 11K = 253,
K = 23. D is the answer.
6. Clearly, mean of S is equal to (4 + 5 + 2 + 11 + 8)/6 = 30/6 = 5. To find the median
we should order the numbers in the set: {0, 2, 4, 5, 8, 11}. Median of S is equal to
(4 + 5)/2 = 4.5. The difference between mean and median is 5 − 0.5 = 0.5. The
answer is A.
7. Statement (1) is insufficient to answer the stem question since the other two scores
are unknown.
(2) is alone sufficient to answer since the lowest score is 3 × 168 − 364 = 504 − 364 =
140. B is the answer.
8. The average of 6, 8, and 10 is 8, and if x is missing number, (7 + 9 + x)/3 = 8 and
x = 8. C is the answer.
9. Total cost of the books is 5 × x + 8 × y, and total number of books is x + y. Thus,
A is the answer.
10. Since the set contains even number of elements, the median is (−1 + 5)/2 = 20C.
The answer is C.
11. It is evident that the median of the first set equals to 7 (since 6+8 2
= 7). Median of
the second set is x, 6, or 8. Thus, x = 7. The answer is B.
12. Note that if n = 5, the median is equal to 5, and if n = 6, the median is equal to 6.
Otherwise n < 5 or n > 6 and the median is anyway in the set {5, 6}. Thus, B is
the answer.
13. The ranking of the numbers is as follows: {13, 22, 31, 38, 47, 69, 73, 82}. Thus, answer
choice should be greater than 6 numbers - three-fourths of set and less than 2
numbers - one-fourth of numbers - strictly between 69 and 73. Of the choices given,
only 71 satisfies these conditions. D is the answer.

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14. A can be true if S = {−4, −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4} and T =

{−4, −3, −2, −1, 1, 2, 3, 4}. The same is true for B and C. D can be true if
S = {−4, −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4} and T = {−4, −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3}. E CANNOT
be true anyway since range can only shrink when some elements are taken out from
the set. Thus, E is the answer.
15. (1) is sufficient to answer the question from the stem, since range is equal to the
maximum difference between any two elements of the set. If there are some members
from the set S that have difference greater than 2, then the range is greater than 2.
(2) alone is not sufficient to answer the stem question since no information about
any other members is given. A is the answer.
16. Let’s make an illustration to this problem. From statement (1) we get the following
picture:

Clearly, the range equals 20.

Statement (2) does not provide any information about how girls’ and boys’ height
relate to each other, therefore it is insufficient. The answer is A.
17. Statement (1) suggests that we should find the mode of the set {3, 0, 1, −1, 0, 5, 1}.
Be attentive here: there are two modes, i.e. 0 and 1. So, the 1st statement is not
sufficient.
Statement (2) alone is sufficient, because the only number, that is neither positive,
nor negative is 0. The answer is B.
18. Standard deviation of the second set is 0. Even from this fact we can infer that the
answer is B or D. Let’s compare standard deviations I and III. It can be assumed
that standard deviation of I is less than standard deviation of III (elements in I
are closer to their mean m = 74, than elements in III). In fact one can calculate
s2 (I) = (−2)2 + (−1)2 + 02 + 12 + 22 = 10, while s2 (III) = (−12.6)2 + (...)2 + (...)2 +
(...)2 + (...)2 > s2 (I). The answer is D.
19. Statements (1) and (2) together are insufficient to answer the stem question: if
A = {4, 7, 10} and B = {3, 5, 7} both (1) and (2) are satisfied and the mean of A is
greater than the mean of B; if A = {1, 7, 7} and B = {6, 6, 6} both (1) and (2) are
again satisfied and the mean of A is less than the mean of B. Thus, E is the answer.
20. The words «within one standard deviation» mean, that you should consider numbers
both, less than the mean and greater than the mean.
One standard deviation below the mean: 10 − 0.3 = 9.7
One standard deviation above the mean: 10 + 0.3 = 10.3
So, the numbers that are within one standard deviation should be between 9.7 and
10.3.
These numbers are: 9.9 three times, 10, 10.2 twice. All in all, there are 6 such
numbers. 6 is 75% of 8. The answer is D.
21. Do not be confused by the question: standard deviation is not always positive, but
can equal zero. Statement (1) does not allow us to understand, whether the numbers
are different, or not, which is crucial. So, the 1st statement is not sufficient.
Statement (2) gives, that the range is not zero, hence, not all of the numbers are the
same, which means, that the standard deviation cannot be zero. So it is positive.
The answer is B.

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Home Assignment
Progressions

1. In an arithmetic sequence, if a5 = 16 and d = an − an−1 , what is the value of d?

(1) a1 = d2 + 4
(2) d > 0.

2. What is the sum of all positive multiples of 6 that are less than or equal to 714?
(A) 3,600
(B) 7,200
(C) 14,000
(D) 28,800
(E) 42,840

3. What is the largest prime factor of the sum of consecutive integers from 1 to 30,
inclusive?
(A) 31
(B) 17
(C) 13
(D) 11
(E) 5

4. (GoGMAT) In a pile of bricks each layer contains one more brick than the layer
on top of it. If there are 38 layers and the top layer has only one brick, how many
bricks are there in the pile?
(A) 147
(B) 471
(C) 526
(D) 652
(E) 741

5. In the arithmetic sequence t1 , t2 , ..., tn , ... the first term is t1 = 23 and tn = tn−1 − 3
for each n > 1. What is the value of n when tn = −4?
(A) −1
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 14
(E) 20

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6. Of the five numbers in a sequence, the first term is 10,000, and each of the following
terms is 20% of the previous term. What is the value range of the five numbers?
(A) 9,375
(B) 9,750
(C) 9,975
(D) 9,984
(E) 10,736

7. (GPrep) a1 , a2 , a3 , ..., a15

In the sequence shown, an = an−1 + k, where 2 ≤ n ≤ 15, and k is a non-zero
constant. How many of the terms of the sequence are greater than 10?
(1) a1 = 24
(2) a8 = 10

8. For any positive integer n, the sum of the first n positive integers equals n(n+1)
2
. If m
and n are positive integers and m > n, what is the sum of all the integers between
m and n, inclusive?
m(m+1)
(A) 2
+ n(n+1)
2
m(m+1) n(n−1)
(B) 2
− 2
m(m+1)
(C) 2
− n(n+1)
2
m(m+1) n(n−1)
(D) 2
+ 2
m(n+1)
(E) 2
− n(m−1)
2

9. How many integers from 1 to 200, inclusive, are divisible by 3 but not divisible by 7?
(A) 38
(B) 57
(C) 58
(D) 60
(E) 66

10. The sum of the fourth and twelfth term of an arithmetic progression is 20. What is
the sum of the first 15 terms of the arithmetic progression?
(A) 300
(B) 120
(C) 150
(D) 170
(E) 270

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11. How many integers between 100 and 150 inclusive can be evenly divided by neither
3 nor 5?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 26
(D) 27
(E) 28

Statistics

1. (OG) What is the value of the sum of a list of n odd integers?

(1) n = 8
(2) The square of the number of integers on the list is 64

2. (OG) A certain bakery has 6 employees. It pays annual salaries of $14,000 to each
of 2 employees, $16,000 to 1 employee, and $17,000 to each of the remaining 3
employees. The average annual salary of these employees is closest to which of the
following?
(A) $15,200
(B) $15,500
(C) $15,800
(D) $16,000
(E) $16,400

3. (OG) If x, y, and z are numbers, is z = 18?

(1) The average of x, y, and z equals to 6
(2) x = −y

4. (OG) Is the average of x and y greater than 20?

(1) The average of 2x and 2y is 48
(2) x = 3y

5. (OG) Will the first 10 volumes of a 20-volume encyclopaedia fit upright in the
bookrack of width x?
(1) x = 50 cm
(2) Twelve of the volumes have an average thickness of 5 cm

6. (GC) What is the average of a, b, and c?

(1) (a + b) + (c + d) = 17
(2) d = 5

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7. (OG) If a basketball team scores an average of x points per game for n games and
then scores y in its next game, what is the team’s average score for the n + 1 games?
(A) (nx + y)/(n + 1)
(B) x + y/(n + 1)
(C) x + y/n
(D) n(x + y)/(n + 1)
(E) (x + ny)/(n + 1)

8. (GC) Are the integers a, b, and c consecutive?

(1) b − a = c − b
(2) The average of a, b, and c equals to b

9. If the mode of 5 numbers is unique, is the mode of the 5 numbers equal to the mean
of the 5 numbers?
(1) The mode is not the largest number in the set.
(2) Three of the numbers in the set are the same.

10. (OG) What is the average of j and k?

(1) The average of j + 2 and k + 4 is 11
(2) The average of j, k, and 14 is 10

11. (GC) What is the median of the set with 9 positive integers?
(1) The mean of 4 smallest ones is 150
(2) The mean of 4 largest ones is 500

12. (OG) On 3 sales John has received commissions of $240, $80, and $110, and he has
one additional sale pending. If John is to receive an average commission of $150 on
the 4 sales, then the fourth commission must be
(A) $164
(B) $170
(C) $175
(D) $182
(E) $185

13. What is the range of 10 numbers 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 9, 10, 12, 20 and x?

(1) The average of the 10 numbers is 8.
(2) x is equal to the median of the 10 numbers.

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14. (GC) A set S has a range 24.7 and following operations are performed on S: 6 is
added to all elements of the set and further all the elements of the set S are divided
by 10. What will be the new range of the set?
(A) 24.7
(B) 2.47
(C) 3.07
(D) 3.47
(E) 30.7

15. (OG) The average of six numbers is 8.5. When one number is discarded, the average
of the remaining numbers becomes 7.2. What is the discarded number?
(A) 7.8
(B) 9.8
(C) 10.0
(D) 12.4
(E) 15.0

16. (GC) A secondary school teacher conducted Math test to 2 groups of students. Is
the range for the first group the same as for the second group?
(1) The average score was 60 for each group
(2) The number of students in each group taking the test was 30, and the lowest
score was 48

17. (OG) If p, q, x, y, and z are different positive integers, which of the five integers is
the median?
(1) p + x < q
(2) y < z

18. (GC ) Two groups in the class have passed the test. If the average grade for the first
group was 68.2, and the average grade for the second group was 73.5, what was the
average grade in two groups?
(1) The first group had 20 more students than the second one
(2) The first group has 3 times more students than the second one

19. (GC) Two numbers are removed from the list {1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19}. What
is the standard deviation of the remaining 8 numbers?
(1) The median of the eight numbers is 10
(2) The mean of the eight numbers is the same as the original mean

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20. (OG) If the average of 4 numbers is 50, how many of the numbers are greater than
50?
(1) None of the four numbers is equal to 50
(2) Two of the numbers are equal to 25
21. What is the standard deviation of given set of numbers with average of 5?
(1) None of the numbers is greater than the average.
(2) If the value of each of the given numbers is increased by 7, the standard deviation
is equal to zero.
22. The mean for four positive distinct integers is 24. If the median of four numbers is
18, what is the largest possible range of the four numbers?
(A) 60
(B) 58
(C) 59
(D) 52
(E) 48
23. Is the range of a non-empty set S greater than its mean?
(1) All members of S are negative
(2) The median of set S is negative
24. (GC) What is the value of k?
(1) The median of the set {n, k, 2, 8, 12} is 7
(2) k > n
25. (OG) Which of the following CANNOT be the median of the three positive integers
x, y, and z?
(A) x
(B) z
(C) x + z
(D) (x + z)/2
(E) (x + z)/3
26. (OG) The average of the set of numbers {3, k, 2, 8, m, 3} is 4. If k and m are integers
and k 6= m, what is the median of the set?
(A) 2.0
(B) 2.5
(C) 3.0
(D) 3.5
(E) 4.0

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27. (GC) Is n > 5?

(1) The median of the set {−2, 1, 5, 8, n} is greater than 1
(2) The median of the set {−2, 1, 5, 8, n} is less than 4

28. 500 records have a distribution that is symmetric about the mean which is 10. If 68
percent of the distribution lie within one standard deviation of the mean, and the
standard deviation is 2, then how many of the records are less than 12?
(A) 160
(B) 320
(C) 340
(D) 420
(E) 460

29. (GC) If the average height of three people is 68 inches, is the shortest person at
least 60 inches tall?
(1) The height of the tallest person is 72
(2) One of the persons is 70 inches tall.

30. (OG) Last year department store X had a sales total for December that was 4 times
the average of the monthly sales totals for January through November. The sales
total for December was what fraction of the sales total for the year?
(A) 1/4
(B) 4/15
(C) 1/3
(D) 4/11
(E) 4/5

31. Which of the following data sets has the third largest standard deviation?
(A) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(B) {2, 3, 3, 3, 4}
(C) {2, 2, 2, 4, 5}
(D) {0, 2, 3, 4, 6}
(E) {−1, 1, 3, 5, 7}

32. (GC) In a certain company, the average wages of employees in Town A is X, the
average wages of employees in Town B is Y . If both types of employees are added
together, is the new average salary smaller than (X + Y )/2?
(1) There are more employees in Town A than in town B
(2) Y − X = 4200

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Answers

Question № Answer Question № Answer

Progressions Statistics
1. C 11. E
2. E 12. B
3. A 13. D
4. E 14. B
5. C 15. E
6. D 16. E
7. B 17. E
8. B 18. B
9. B 19. E
10. C 20. E
11. D 21. D
Statistics 22. B
1. E 23. D
2. C 24. C
3. C 25. C
4. A 26. C
5. E 27. B
6. C 28. D
7. A 29. A
8. E 30. B
9. E 31. A
10. D 32. C

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Test №2. Progression and statistics

1. If sequence x1 , x2 , x3 , ..., xn is such that xn+1 is 5 more than xn for n > 0, does x99
have a unit’s digit of 9?
(1) The 100 term plus 1 is a multiple of 5.
(2) The first term is 4.
2. On a given day, 50 students in a certain class took a math test. Some of the students
took the test on test paper A, and the remaining of the 50 students took the test
on test paper B. What is the average score on the test for the 50 students?
(1) The average score for the students who take the test A was 75.
(2) The average score for the students who take the test В was 77.
3. What is the average of n − x , n − y, n − z, and n − w?
(1) The average of x, y, z and w is 4n.
(2) n = 120.
4. If the range of the six numbers 4, 3, 14, 7, 10, and x is 12, what is the difference
between the greatest possible value of x and least possible value of x?
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 12
(D) 13
(E) 15
5. If the average of positive integers x, y, and z is 10, what is the greatest possible
value of z?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 28
(E) 30
6. (GoGMAT) The sequence of numbers p, ps, ps2 , ps3 , ps4 , ps5 is a geometric
progression. The sum of the first three terms in the series is one-ninth the sum
of the first six terms. What of the ratio of the fifth term to the second term?
(A) 1:1
(B) 2:1
(C) 3:1
(D) 8:1
(E) 9:1

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a
n−2
7. The infinite sequence a1 , a2 , ..., an ,... is such that a1 = 1, a2 = 2, and an = an−1 ,
what is a5 − a4 ?
(A) 4
(B) 12
(C) 28
(D) 60
(E) 124

8. Which of the following is terminating decimal?

5
I.
120
33
II.
625
37
III.
512
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only

9. 233 + 234 − 235 =

(A) −3 × 233
(B) −233
(C) 233
(D) 2 × 233
(E) 3 × 233

10. If 60 students took a test and the median score was 80, which of the following must
be true?
I. At least 29 scores are greater than 80
II. At least 30 scores are equal to or greater than 80
III. At most 30 scores are equal to or less than 80
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only

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11. Is 3 in set M ?
(1) 13 is in the set M .
(2) If x is in the set, then x − 2 is also in the set M .
12. If p and q are prime numbers, where p is no more than q, is sum of p and q a prime
number?
(1) p is not equal to q.
(2) p is greater than 2.
13. If the terms of a arithmetic sequence are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ..., xn , what is the value of
n?
(1) The sum of n terms is 2,550.
(2) The average of the n terms is 51.
14. If x and y are integers and xy 2 is a positive odd integer, which of the following must
be true?
I. xy is positive
II. xy is odd
III. x + y is even
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only
15. Is mx < m + x?
(1) 0 < x < 1.
(2) m is a positive integer.
16. What is the range of numbers in Set S?
(1) The standard deviation of the numbers is 3.5.
(2) The average of all numbers is 7.
17. The average of positive integers x, y, and z is 12. If x < y < z, and the median of
three numbers is 10 greater than the smallest number, what is the greatest possible
value of z?
(A) 11
(B) 15
(C) 22
(D) 24
(E) 33

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m
18. If 8 < m < 120, for how many integers m is 3
a square of an integer?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

19. If the median of five different positive integers is 20, which of the following is the
least possible sum of these five positive integers?
(A) 62
(B) 66
(C) 69
(D) 72
(E) 100

20. Is the standard deviation of the scores of students in class X greater than the
standard deviation of the scores of students in class Y?
(1) The median score of students in class Y is greater than the median score of
students in class X.
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) score of students in class Y is greater than the
average score of students in class X.

C 16. E 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. E

Answers: 1. B 2. E 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. E 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. E 15.

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Lesson №3. Arithmetics

Factorization
GoGMAT, Session 1
Let us first recall a definition from Lesson №1:
A positive integer is called a prime number, if it has exactly two
positive divisors: itself and 1.
Number 1 is not a prime.
Every positive integer greater than 1 can be uniquely factored into product of powers
of primes (if it is a prime number, this factorization is trivial, e.g. 7 = 71 ).
Example 1:
Let’s find all prime factors of 132. Obviously, the least prime it can be 132 2
divided by is 2. We write 2 in the right column and the result of division 66 2
(66) in the left one. As we see, that 66 is also divisible by 2, we repeat 33 3
the previous step. 33 can by evenly divided by 3 with 11 as a result. 11 11 11
is prime itself. 1
2
Thus, 132 = 2 × 3 × 11.
72 2
36 2
Example 2:
18 2
Now let’s similarly factorize of 72:
9 3
72 = 23 × 3 × 3.
3 3
1
In general, in order to find all prime factors of a certain number N, first find out
whether it is divisible by the smallest primes you know, e.g. 2, 3 or 5. If it is not√ divisible
by any of them, try 7, 11 and so on. (Note, that if you try all primes smaller than N , and
find that N is not divisible by any of them, then N is a prime number!) Each time when
you find a prime factor, divide N by it and continue with the newly obtained number
until you get 1.
As a result, the integer N will be expressed as a product of n primes p1 , p2 , ..., p3 , each
in the respective power s1 , s2 , ..., s3 :

N = ps11 · ps22 · ... · psnn

Practice:

1. (OG) If the product of the integers x, y, z and w is 770, and if 1 < w < x < y < z,
what is the value of w + z?
(A) 10
(В) 13
(C) 16
(D) 18
(E) 21

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In more complex problems the task might be to find the total number of factors of a
given integer.
Example: Find the number of factors of 8.
The only prime factor of 8 is 2, but the total number of its positive different factors
is 4: they are 1, 2, 4 and 8.
In most cases such procedure is too complicated and takes a lot of time. There is an
easy way:
for N = ps11 · ps22 · ... · psnn
the total number of positive factors (Q) can be found using the formula
Q = (s1 + 1) · (s2 + 1) · ... · (sn + 1)
Example:
8 = 23 , hence 8 has 3 + 1 = 4 positive factors.
72 = 23 · 32 , and 72 has (3 + 2) · (2 + 1) = 4 · 3 = 12 positive factors.
132 = 22 · 3 · 11, and 132 has (2 + 1) · (1 + 1) · (1 + 1) = 3 · 2 · 2 = 12 positive factors.

2. (OG) How many different positive integers are factors of 441?

(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 4
(D) 12
(E) 8
3. (OG) If n is an integer, then n is divisible by how many positive integers?
(1) n is the product of two different prime numbers
(2) n and 23 are each divisible by the same number of positive integers

Properties
If a positive integer N is expressed as a product of primes
N = ps11 · ps22 · ... · psnn ,
then N 2 is expressed as follows:
N 2 = p2s 2s2
1 · p2 · ... · pn .
1 2sn

In other words, the prime factors of N 2 are the same as those of N , and the powers
of those primes are doubled. Analogically, the powers of primes of any perfect cube are
divisible by 3, and so on.

4. (OG) If n is a positive integer and n2 is divisible by 72, then the largest positive
integer that must divide n is
(A) 6
(В) 12
(C) 24
(D) 36
(E) 48

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5. (OG) If x, y, and z are positive integers such that x is a factor of y, and x is a

multiple of z, which of the following is NOT necessarily an integer?
(A) (x + z)z
(B) (y + z)/x
(C) (x + y)/z
(D) xy/z
(E) yz/x

6. (OG) If r and s are positive integers, is r/s an integer?

(1) Every factor of s is also a factor of r
(2) Every prime factor of s is also a prime factor of r

7. (OG) If the integer n is greater than 1, is n equal to 2?

(1) n has exactly 2 positive factors.
(2) The difference of any two distinct positive factors of n is odd.

8. (OG) If y is an integer, is y 3 divisible by 9?

(1) y is divisible by 4
(2) y is divisible by 6

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Answers and explanations

1. The prime factorization of 770 is 2 × 5 × 7 × 11. Since 1 < w < x < x < y < z, the
values for the variables must be w = 2, x = 5, y = 7, and z = 11, so w + z = 13.
Thus, В is the answer.

2. 441 = 3 × 147 = 3 × 3 × 49 = 3 × 3 × 7 × 7 = 32 × 72. Substituting this into the

formula, we have (2 + 1) × (2 + 1) = 9 factors. Thus, B is the answer

3. Statement (1) is sufficient to answer the stem question: since n = p1 × p2 , it has

(1 + 1) × (1 + 1) = 4 factors.
(2) is also sufficient since the number of integer factors of 23 is (3 + 1) = 4. Thus,
D is the answer.

4. If n2 is divisible by 72 = 23 × 32 , then n2 must be divisible by 24 = 4 and by 32 .

So, n must be divisible by 22 = 4 and by 31 (given the formula from the property).
Thus, n must be divisible by 12. В is the answer.

5. Evidently, x and y are divisible by z and everything that has z as its denominator
is necessarily an integer. Thus, the only answer choices possible are В and E. z/x is
NOT necessarily an integer since from the stem it is only known that x/z is always
an integer. Thus, В is the answer.

6. (1) is sufficient to answer the stem question since s has at least two factors – s itself
and 1. Both s and 1 are factors of r, according to the stem. Thus, r is divisible by
s and r/s is an integer. Thus, the answer must be A or D.
(2) alone is insufficient to answer the stem question since if r = 18 and s = 16r/s is
not an integer, while if r = 18 and s = 2r/s is an integer. Thus, A is the answer.

7. Statement (1) is insufficient to answer the stem question since it actually states that
n is prime. So, n can be 2, or 3, or 5, etc.
Statement (2) says that the difference of any two positive factors of n is odd. Thus,
n does not have odd factors except for 1. Therefore, no prime greater than 2 is a
factor of n. Having this, we can state that n = 2k . Thus, k = 1, because otherwise
(n = 4; 8; 16; ...) the difference between two factors 4 and 2 would be even. So, В is
the answer.

8. (1) is not sufficient.

(2) is sufficient, since y is divisible by 6 and consequently, y is divisible by 3. Thus,
y 3 is divisible by 27 and consequently, y 3 is divisible by 9. В is the answer

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LCM and GCD

GoGMAT, Session 1

• Every pair of integers has one or more common divisors (i.e. numbers, which are
the factors of both). The smallest one is always 1 and the greatest one is called the
GCD (Greatest Common Divisor).
• Numbers a and b are called mutually prime, if 1 is their only common factor:
GCD(a, b) = 1.
Examples:
GCD(3, 6) =3
GCD(5,7) =1 (mutually prime)
GCD(10, 15)=5
GCD(8,9) =1 (mutually prime).
• There is infinite number of common multiples for any given pair of integers (i. e.
numbers, which are divisible by both the integers).
The greatest of them cannot be found and the least of them is called the LCM
(Lowest Common Multiple).
Examples:
LCM(3, 6) =6
LCM(5,7) =35
LCM(10, 15)=30
LCM(8,9) =72.
• In general, to find the GCD and LCM of two numbers
 Find prime factorizations of two numbers;
 Find the overlap of these factorizations;
 Multiply the primes from the overlap to get the GCD. In other words,
GCD(a, b) is a product of the lowest powers of each prime in the factorizations
of a and b.
 The LCM(a, b) will be the product of the highest power of each prime in the
factorizations of a and b together.
Example: Find the value of LCM(48, 180) and GCD(48,180).
First, find the prime factorizations of the two numbers:
48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 24 × 31 × 50
180 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 22 × 32 × 5
What they share in common is two «2»s and a «3»:
GCD(48, 180) =22 × 31 × 50 = 12 (the lowest powers of primes).
LCM(48, 180) = 24 × 32 × 51 = 720 (the highest powers of primes).

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Practice

1. Find the value of the lowest common multiple of 8,9, 21.

(A) 168
(B) 252
(C) 504
(D) 756
(E) 1512

2. The sum of the greatest common divisor of 120 and 50 and the greatest common
factor of 30 and 75 equals to
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 25
(E) 35

Properties of LCM and GCD

• LCM(a, b) and GCD(a, b) are defined for only positive integers a and b.

• GCD of two numbers can not exceed either of them:

GCD(a, b) ≤ a, GCD(a, b) ≤ b
LCM of two numbers can not be smaller than either of them:
LCM(a, b) ≥ a, LCM(a, b) ≥ b
Therefore, if the LCM of two numbers is equal to their GCD, then the numbers are
equal to each other.

• GCD(a, b) · LCM(a, b) = a · b

• If d is a factor of both a and b, then d is a factor of GCD(a, b).

• If m is a multiple of both a and b, then m is a factor of GCD(a, b).

• GCD(a, b, c) = GCD(a, GCD(b, c))

• GCD(n, n + 1) = 1. Any two consecutive integers are mutually prime

In general: GCD(a, a + b) = GCD(a, b).

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Practice
3. (OG) Which of the following CANNOT be the greatest common divisor of two
positive integers x and y?
(A) 1
(B) x
(C) y
(D) x − y
(E) x + y
4. (GC) Is a two-digit number P Q odd?
(1) The lowest common multiple of P and Q is even
(2) P is odd
5. (GC) What is the value of a × b?
(1) a = 4m, b = 4n, and the greatest common divisor of m and n is 1
(2) The lowest common multiple of a and b is 24
6. (OG) If a positive integer n is divisible by both 5 and 7, the n must also be divisible
by which of the following?
I. 12
II. 35
III. 70
(A) None
(В) I only
(C) II only
(D) I and II
(E) II and III
7. (OG) If n is a positive integer less than 200 and 14n/60 is an integer, then n has
how many different positive prime factors?
(A) Two
(В) Three
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) Eight
8. What is the greatest common divisor of the integers z and x?
(1) Greatest common factor of x and y equal to 5.
(2) z = 3x + y

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9. (OG) If k and n are integers, is n divisible by 7?

(1) n − 3 = 2k
(2) 2k − 4 is divisible by 7

10. (OG) Is integer x divisible by 36?

(1) x is divisible by 12
(2) x is divisible by 9

11. (OG) Which of the following is the least positive integer that is divisible by 2, 3, 4,
5, 6, 7, 8, and 9?
(A) 15,120
(B) 3,024
(C) 2,520
(D) 1,890
(E) 1,680

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Answers and explanations

1. First, factor out each number and express it as a product of prime number powers:
8 = 23 · 30 · 70
9 = 20 · 32 · 70
21 = 20 · 31 · 71
Out of the 4 prime factor categories 2, 3, and 7, the highest powers from each are
23, 32, and 71. Thus, LCM(8, 9, 21) = 23 · 32 · 71 = 504. The answer is C.
2. 120 = 23 · 31 · 51 , 50 = 21 · 30 · 52 , finding the minimum powers of primes, we get:
GCD(120, 50) = 21 · 30 · 51 = 10.
30 = 21 ·31 ·51 , 75 = 20 ·31 ·52 , minimum powers give us GCD(30, 75) = 20 ·31 ·51 = 15.
So, GCD(120,50)+GCD(30,75) = 10+ 15 = 25.The answer is D.
3. Evidently, x + y > x and x + y > y, so, x + y > GCD(x, y). Thus, x + y CANNOT
be the greatest common divisor of x and y. E is the answer.
4. Statement (1) actually says that at least one digit (P or Q) is even. (1) itself is
insufficient to answer the stem question. Statement (2) alone is insufficient since no
information about Q is given. Thus, the answer must be C or E. Statements (1) and
(2) together are sufficient since P is odd and Q must be even to satisfy information
from (1). Therefore, Q is even and P Q is even, and C is the answer.
5. Statement (1) actually says that the greatest common divisor of a and b is 4.
Statement (2) states that the lowest common multiple of a and b is 24. As we already
know, LCM(a, b) × GCD(a, b) = a × b. Therefore, C is the answer.
6. If n is divisible by both 5 and 7, then it must be divisible by LCM(5, 7) = 35. Thus,
only II is satisfied and the answer is C.
7. If 14n/60 is an integer, then 7n/30 is also an integer. Thus, n is divisible by 30.
Therefore, n can be {30, 60, 90, 120, 150, 180}. All these numbers have exactly three
prime factors: 2, 3, and 5. В is the answer.
8. (1) alone gives us no information about z. Insufficient.
(2) tells us z = 3x + y, Then GCD(z, x) = GCD(3x + y, x). As we can see from the
properties, GCD(3x + y, x) = GCD(y, x). But we still don’t know x or y.
(1) and (2) combined give us all info we need. Indeed, from (2) GCD(z, x) =
GCD(y, x) and from (1) GCD(x, y) = 5. So, the answer is C.
9. (1) or (2) alone is insufficient to answer the stem question. From (1) and (2) we
have n = 2k + 3 and 2k − 4 = 7m. From the second equation, 2k = 7m + 4, so,
n = 7m + 4 + 3 = 7m + 7. Evidently, n is divisible by 7. C is the answer.
10. (1): x can be 12, 24, 36, 48, etc. Some of these are divisible by 36, others – not.
(2): x can be 9, 18, 27, 36, 45, etc. Some of these are divisible by 36, others – not.
(1) or (2) alone are not sufficient.
Combined together (1) and (2) imply that x is divisible by LCM(9, 12)=36. C is
the answer.
11. The maximum power of 2 that is presented among {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} is 3. The
maximum power of 3 is 2, the maximum power of 5 is 1, the maximum power of 7
is 1. Thus, 23 × 32 × 51 × 71 = 8 × 9 × 5 × 7 = 2, 520. C is the answer.

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Division with Remainder

GoGMAT, Session 1
Let’s imagine, that we have 174 cm of lace, and we want to cut it into into ribbons 15
cm long. How many ribbons can we make?
The obvious solution is to divide 174 by 15. And it’s easy to see, that 174 is not
divisible by 15. Still, we can count how many 15 cm ribbons «fit» into the available
length: 174 = 15 × 11 + 9. So, we have 11 ribbons, and 9 cm of left-over lace:

The process described above is called division with remainder. The general formula
looks like this:

Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder

Example:
1) 28 = 8 × 3 + 4. Here 8 is divisor (we divide 28 by 8), 3 is quotient (8 fits in 28 three
times) and 4 is remainder (the part of 28 that is not divisible by 8).
2) Let’s divide 145 by 6:
Number 6 «fits» into 145 twenty four times and one more unit is left: 145 = 6 × 24 + 1
Here are some useful facts:

• Reminder of division by number d can be equal to 0, 1, 2, ..., d − 1

• The remainder of division by 2k is the same as the remainder of dividend’s last k

digits division by 2k .
Examples:
The number 2,346 is not divisible by 4, since the number formed by its last two
digits, 46, is not divisible by 4. Number 2,346 can be written as 2,300+46. As 2,300
is divisible by 4, the remainder is 2, since when 46 is divided by 4 the remainder
is 2.
The number 172,045 is not divisible by 8, since the number formed by its last three
digits, 45, is not divisible by 8. When 172,045 is divided by 8, the remainder is 5,
since when 45 is divided by 8 the remainder is 5.

• The remainder of division by 3k , k = 1, 2 is the same as the remainder of dividend’s

digits sum division by 3k .
Examples:
The number 3,248 is not divisible by 3, since the sum of its digits, 17, is not divisible
by 3. When 3,248 is divided by 3, the remainder is 2, since when 17 is divided by 3
the remainder is 2.
The number 172,345 is not divisible by 9, since the sum of its digits, 22, is not
divisible by 9. When 172,345 is divided by 9, the remainder is 4, since when 22 is
divided by 9 the remainder is 4.

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How to express the fact that one number leaves certain remainder when divided by
another? For example, how to write in a convenient way the fact that «Positive integer X
leaves remainder 2 when divided by 4»? The following formula describes all such numbers:

X =4×q+2

Choosing different values of q: 0, 1, 2, etc., we can find all possible values of X: 2, 6,

10, etc. It is easy to see, that they form an arithmetic progression with difference 4 - just
like the multiples of 4 do.
Practice

1. (OG) If x is an integer and y = 3x + 2, which of the following CANNOT be a divisor

of y?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8

2. (OG) When N is divided by T , the quotient is S and the remainder is V . Which of

the following expressions is equal to N ?
(A) S × T
(B) S + V
(C) S × T + V
(D) T × (S + V )
(E) T × (S − V )

3. (GC) If 4 students were added to a dance class, would the teacher be able to divide
her students evenly into a dance team (or teams) of 8?
(1) If 12 students were added, the teacher could put everyone in teams of 8 without
any leftovers
(2) The number of students in the class is currently not divisible by 8

Now let’s consider the problem, which, in one way or another, you are very likely to
get on GMAT.
Classical type of GMAT question:

The integer X leaves remainder 2 when divided by 4 and remainder

1 when divided by 3.

1) What is the least possible value of X?

2) What is the general rule for X?
3) What is the number of such integers on the interval 100...150?

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The last question is the most frequently asked one, but to answer it, we need to know
the answers for the first two questions.
So, let’s begin with question 1). We know, that X is some number, that leaves
remainder 2 when divided by 4. This means, that X = 4q + 2 for some positive integer
q. We also know, that X leaves remainder 1 when divided by 3, so X = 3p + 1 for some
positive integer p. Let’s simply write out all the numbers described by these two rules,
until we find the
first common one:
4q + 2: 2, 6, 10, ...


3p + 1: 1, 4, 7, 10,...

So, the answer to question 1) is 10.
Now let’s consider question 2). We already know, that the smallest possible value of
X – the first intersection of the two sequences above – is 10. After what interval will they
«meet» again? This must be the interval, which can be divided into segments of lengths
3 and 4 at the same time. Therefore, the length of this interval is LCM(3, 4) = 12:

So, the general rule, that describes all possible values of X is X = 12n + 10.
Question 3) is now not so difficult to answer - we just need to count, for how many
values of n the following inequality is true:
100 < 12n + 10 < 150
90 < 12n < 140
7 12 < n < 11 23 .
So, n = 8, 9, 10, 11 - four possible values. Thus, the answer is 4.
Practice

4. If x and y are positive integers, what is the remainder when 3y + 4x is divided by

10?
(1) x = 25
(2) y = 1.

5. If number x is positive and x leaves the remainder 1 when divided by 3 and the
remainder 3 when divided by 7, how many such numbers are there between 206 and
258?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) Cannot be determined from the information given.

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6. What is the remainder when positive integer n is divided by 6?

(1) When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3.
(2) When n is divided by 12, the remainder is 3.

7. (OG) What is the units digit of (13)4 (17)2 (29)3 ?

(A) 9
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 3
(E) 1

8. (PR) Find the last digit of the resulting number: 135124 × 237143 × 562287 .
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 7
(E) Cannot be determined

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Answers and explanations

1. Since y = 3x + 2, y is not divisible by 3. Thus, y is not divisible by any multiple of
3, including 6. A is wrong since y = 8 = 3 × 2 + 2 and y is divisible by 4. There are
similar examples for B, D, and E. C is the answer.
2. Using empirical rule N = T × quotient + remainder = T × S + V , one can easily
get the answer, C.
3. Let S be the number of students in the class. Then (1) implies that S + 12 is
divisible by 8. Then S + 12 = 8 × q, where q is an integer. Then S = 8q − 12,
S + 4 = (8q − 12) + 4 = 8q − 8 = 8(q − 1). Thus, S + 4 is divisible by 8 and groups
of 8 students could be formed without any leftovers.
(1) is sufficient to answer the stem. (2) states that S is not a multiple of 8. It is
not sufficient since if S = 4 one group of eight dancers could be formed with new 4
students, while if S = 5 this is impossible. A is the answer.
4. The remainder of division by 10 is the last digit. The last digit of powers of 3 is
repeated every 4 powers. For example, the last digit of 32 is 9 and the last digit of
36 is 9. As a coefficient 4 stands before X, the value of X does not influence the last
digit of the whole expression, but Y does influence. So we need to find out the value
of Y. This information is given in the second statement. B is the answer.
5. We can write x = 3a + 1 and x = 7b + 3, a, b – non-negative integers. At first find
xmin :
3a + 1: 1, 4, 7, 10
7b + 3: 3, 10
So, xmin = 10. Now, write down general rule: x = LCM (3, 7)·c+10 , or x = 21c+10,
where c is non-negative integer. Next step: substitute new rule in the interval:
206 < 21c + 10 < 258
196 < 21c < 248
9.333... < c < 11.8...
As c is an integer, it can have two values: c = 10 or c = 11. Then x can be:
x = 21 × 10 + 10 = 220 or x = 21 × 11 + 10 = 242. The answer is C.
6. (1) We know from (1) that n = 4q + 3, where q is a positive integer. If q = 0, the
remainder when n is divided by 6 equals 3, if q = 1, it is 1. So, (1) is not sufficient.
From (2) n = 12p + 3. Since 12 is divisible by 6, the remainder is 3. Sufficient. B is
the answer.
7. To find the units digit of product we need to know only last digits of factors:
(...3)4 (...7)2 (...9)3 = (...1)(...9)(...9) = ...1. The answer is E.
8. To find the lasts digit of product we need to know only last digits of factors:
(...5)324 (...7)143 (...2)287 . You can notice that we have a product of 2 and 5 in our
expression. It will always give the last digit of 0 (2 × 5 = 10). If we multiply a
number of the form ...0 by any integer, the last digit of the result would be 0. The
answer is A.

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Home assignment
I. Factorization

1. Number x is known to be divisible by the cube of an even prime number. Which of

the following can be the value of x?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 35
(E) 50

2. Which of the following has the greatest number of prime factors?

(A) 75
(B) 120
(C) 144
(D) 210
(E) 750

3. What is the number of distinct positive factors of the product of 484 and 124?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 30

4. If n and p are different positive prime numbers, which of the integers n4 , p3 and np
has (have) exactly 4 positive divisors?
(A) n4 only
(B) p3 only
(C) np only
(D) n4 and np
(E) p3 and np

5. If m = px q y , where p and q are different positive prime numbers, is m a square of

integer?
(1) xy is an odd number
(2) x + y is аn even number.

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6. If 5x2 has two different prime factors, at most how many different prime factors
does x heave?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

7. If m and n are positive integer, and 1800m = n3 , what is the least possible value of
m?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 15
(D) 30
(E) 45

8. If n = 4p, where p is a prime number greater than 2, how many different positive
even divisors does n have, including n?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Six
(E) Eight

9. If x2 is divisible by 576, then the maximum number x must be divisible by is

(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 24
(E) 48

10. What is the largest positive integer n for which 20! is a multiple of 2n ?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 18
(E) 20

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11. How many prime factors does positive integer n have?

n
(1) 5
has only a prime factor.
(2) 3n2 has two different prime factors.

12. If 5400mn = k 4 , where m, n, and k are positive integers, what is the least possible
value of m + n?
(A) 11
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 25
(E) 33

II. LCM, GCD

1. (GC) a and b are positive integers. What is the value of b?

(1) a = 5
(2) The lowest common multiple of a and b is equal to the greatest common divisor
of a and b

2. Comet A is seen near the Earth every 12 years while comet B every 20 years. If
both comets were observed in 1979, for how many years do we have to wait to see
the two comets together again? (Assume now is 2004)
(A) 20
(B) 16
(C) 25
(D) 35
(E) 32

3. Integer m has 4 different prime factors and n has 3 different prime factors. If m and
n has the greatest common factor of 15, how many different prime factors does mn
have?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8

4. If M and N are positive integers, is M divisible by N ?

(1) Greatest common divisor of M and N is 1
(2) Least common multiple of M and N is 210

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5. Deborah and Mike visit the university library at regular intervals every 3 and 4 days
respectively. If both of them were in the library on Monday, what day of the week
will it be when they meet in the library again?
(A) Thursday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Saturday
(D) Friday
(E) Sunday

6. (GC) The GCD of two numbers is 20 and the LCM is 840. One of the numbers is
120. What is the other number?
(A) 140
(B) 120
(C) 40
(D) 20
(E) 10

7. Is x divisible by 48?
(1) x is divisible by 8
(2) x is divisible by 6

8. What is the greatest common divisor of positive integers x and y?

(1) x and y share exactly one common factor
(2) x and y are both prime numbers

9. If x is a multiple of 3, is xy divisible by 48?

(1) x is divisible by 8
(2) y is divisible by 8

10. (PR) If x is a sum of all even integers on the interval 13...65 and y is their number,
what is the greatest common divisor of x and y
(A) 1
(B) 13
(C) 26
(D) 52
(E) 1014

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11. If M = 145 · 213 , and N = 492 · 63 , then what is the number of all distinct positive
factors of the greatest common factor of M and N ?
(A) 70
(B) 80
(C) 90
(D) 3
(E) 55
12. (GC) What is the greatest common divisor of a, b, and 3a + 23b?
(1) a = 4
(2) The greatest common divisor of a, b, and 23a + 3b is 4.
13. (GC) What is the greatest common divisor of a + b and 4?
(1) Greatest common divisor of a and 4 is 2
(2) Greatest common divisor of b and 4 is 2
14. (GC) What is the greatest common divisor of a, b, and c?
(1) greatest common divisor of a and b is 3
(2) greatest common divisor of b and c is 4
15. (OG) If x and y are positive integers such that x = 8y + 12, what is the greatest
common divisor of x and y?
(1) x = 12u, where u is an integer
(2) y = 12z, where z is an integer
16. (GC) What is the greatest possible common divisor of two different positive integers
which are less than 144?
(A) 143
(B) 71
(C) 72
(D) 13
(E) 11
III. Division with remainder
1. If m = 7x + 9, and n = 7y + 8, where x and y are integers, what is the remainder
when mn is divided by 7?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

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2. Is x divisible by y?
(1) x leave the remainder 0 when divided by 6.
(2) y is multiple of 3.
3. When positive integer n is divided by 7, the remainder is 2. What is the value of n?
(1) n is less than 20.
(2) When n is divided by 8, the remainder is 0.
4. What is the remainder when positive integer n is divided by 6?
(1) When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3.
(2) When n is divided by 12, the remainder is 3.
5. When positive integer a is divided by 7, the remainder is 2; when positive integer
b is divided by 7, the remainder is 3; when positive integer c is divided by 7, the
remainder is 4, What is the remainder when a + b + c is divided by 7?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
6. (GC) What is the least positive number which leaves a remainder of 1 when divided
by 3, 2 when divided by 4 and 3 when divided by 5?
(A) 60
(B) 58
(C) 118
(D) 12
(E) 68
7. Is integer x divisible by 3?
(1) When x is divided by 5, the remainder is 1.
(2) When x is divided by 15, the remainder is 1.
8. (OG) If a is a positive integer, and if the units’ digit of a2 is 9, and the units’ digit
of (a + 1)2 is 4, what is the units’ digit of (a + 2)2 ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
(E) 9

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9. (GC) Find the least positive number, which leaves, if divided by 3, 5, and 12, a
remainder of 2.
(A) 62
(B) 42
(C) 12
(D) 2
(E) 122
10. What is the sum of digits of number 1028 − 28?
(A) 227
(B) 228
(C) 236
(D) 237
(E) 243
11. (GC) A certain number when divided by 8 and 11 leaves remainders of 3 and 7
respectively. What will be remainder when the number is divided by the product of
8 and 11?
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 51
(D) 10
(E) 0
12. When n is divided by 13, the remainder is 2 and the quotient is k. When n is divided
by 17, the remainder is 2. What is the remainder when k is divided by 17?
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 13
(E) 15
13. (GC) How many numbers less than 500 exist such that when any of these is divided
by 7 the remainder is 3 and when any of these is divided by 3 the remainder is 1?
(A) 21
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 24
(E) 25

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14. n is an integer between 80 and 200, inclusive. When n is divided by 8, the remainder
is 4. What is the value of n?
(1) n is divisible by 9.
(2) n is divisible by 12.

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Answers

Question № Answer Question № Answer

Factorization Division with remainder
1. C 1. B
2. D 2. E
3. A 3. C
4. E 4. B
5. A 5. C
6. B 6. B
7. C 7. B
8. C 8. A
9. D 9. D
10. D 10. E
11. E 11. C
12. D 12. A
LCM and GCD 13. D
1. C 14. D
2. D
3. B
4. E
5. C
6. A
7. E
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. C
15. B
16. B

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Test№3. Prime factorization, LCM, GCD, division with

remainder
1. If n is an integer greater than 10 and less than 40, what is the value of n?
(1) When n is divided by 5, the remainder is 3.
(2) When n is divided by 3, the remainder is 2.

2. If m, n, and k are positive integers, is mnk = 4?

(1) mn = 4.
(2) nk = 4.

3. For positive integers x, y, and z, is y > z?

(1) When x is divided by 4, the remainder is y.
(2) When x is divided by 6, the remainder is z.

4. If the product of the integers from 1 to n is divisible by 490, what is the least possible
value of n?
(A) 7
(B) 14
(C) 21
(D) 28
(E) 35

5. If n = 24 × 3 × 5, how many factors does n have?

(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 9
(D) 6
(E) 4

6. S is the sum of integers from 20 to 40, inclusive. How many different prime factors
does S have?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

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7. When positive integer n is divided by 7, the remainder is 2. What is the value of n?

(1) n is less than 20.
(2) When n is divided by 8, the remainder is 0.

8. If n is an even integer and k is an odd integer, which of the following CANNOT be

an integer?
n
(A) k
n
(B) k+1
n−1
(C) k
k
(D) n
n+2
(E) k−1

9. What is the sum of the remainders when n positive integers were divided by 2?
(1) The sum of n numbers is an even number.
(2) Exactly eight numbers are odd.

10. How many positive integers less than 30 have no common prime factor with 30?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 9

11. Find the greatest common factor of 50 and 370.

(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 185
(D) 1850
(E) 18500

12. The numbers in which of the following pairs do NOT have а pair of distinct prime
divisors in common?
(A) 10 and 20
(B) 12 and 18
(C) 24 and 32
(D) 21 and 63
(E) 22 and 88

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13. The average (arithmetic mean) of five consecutive integers is an odd number. Which
of the following must be true?
I. The largest of the integers is even.
II. The sum of the integers is odd.
III. The difference between the largest and smallest of the integers is an even number.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II
(E) II and III

14. If n is a positive integer between 30 and 60, inclusive, what is the value of n?
(1) When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 1.
(2) When n is divided by 5, the remainder is 2.

15. If x denotes the remainder when 5n2 + 1 is divided by 2, what is the value of x?
(1) n is an even number.
(2) n is divisible by 5.

16. When positive integer n is divided by 7, the remainder is 1. If n is less than 50,
what is the value of n?
(1) When n is divided by 9, the remainder is 7.
(2) When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3.

16. A
Answers: 1. E 2. E 3. E 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. E 14. E 15. A

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Lesson №4. Algebra

Sometimes it is convenient to use letters to denote numbers . This makes algebraic
expressions different from arithmetic ones. For example, we can rewrite the expression
√ 3×2+4 √ a×c+4
3 × 52 − as a × b2 − , where a = 3, b = 5, c = 2, which makes it
5 5
more general. We have learnt a lot about numbers, sets of numbers and their properties in
previous lessons. In this paragraph we are going to deal with algebraic forms and methods
that are applied in algebraic math problems.

Functions. Substitution. Symbolism

GoGMAT, Session 7
Defined functions are common on the GMAT, and most students struggle with them.
Yet once you get used to them, defined functions can be some of the easiest problems
on the test. In these problems, you are given a symbol and a mathematical expression
or description that defines the symbol. For any algebraic equation you can calculate its
value for given variables. This operation is called substitution.
For example, substituting x = 1 and y = 2 into
x2 + 2xy − 3y 3 + 14,
we get
12 + 2 · 1 · 2y − 3 ·3 +14 = 1 + 4 − 24 + 14 = −15,
On GMAT you will see tasks, where a function is denoted by some new symbol. For
example, symbol [ can be defined as x[y = x + 2y, or symbol T – as xT y = x2 − 4xy + 5,
etc.
Practice

1. If ∀ is defined by the expression ∀a = a + 2a2 , what is the value of

a) ∀3
b) ∀x2
c) ∀∀3

2. If ∅ is defined by the expression x∅y = x + x × y, what is the value of

a) 2∅3
b) 1∅(2∅3)
c) (1∅2)∅3
d) ab ∅ ab

Any function is defined for a certain set of numbers, called the domain of the function.
Examples:

• The domain of the function f (x) = 3x + 5 is the set of all real numbers
√
• The domain of the function g(a) = a + 1 is a ≥ −1, since under-root expression
must be non-negative.

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• The domain of any function can be arbitrarily specified, as in the function defined
by «f (x) = 4x − 1 for 0 < x < 3». This function is different from just f (x) = 4x − 1,
which is defined for all real values of x.
To find the domain you need to check the following:
• For a fraction ab , its denominator must be nonzero, b 6= 0.
• For x0 , x must be nonzero, x 6= 0.
√
• For 2nx, x must be nonnegative, x ≥ 0.
• For 0x , x must be positive, x > 0.
Practice
3. Find ♥♥2 if ♥a = 2a2 − 3a + 1.
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 10
(D) ♥2
(E) ♥♥1
4. (MG) The operation ] is defined in the following way for any two numbers:
p]q = (p − q) · (q − p)
If p]q = −1, then which of the following statements are true?
I. p could equal 5 and q could equal 4
II. p could equal 4 and q could equal 5
III. p could equal 1 and q could equal −1
IV. p could equal −1 and q could equal 1
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and IV only
(D) III and IV only
(E) I, II, III, IV
5. (MH, E) What is the value of 3x2 − 1.8x + 0.3 for x = 0.6?
(A) −0.3
(B) 0
(C) 0.3
(D) 1.08
(E) 2.46

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6. (OG, E) The symbol @ represents one of the following operations: addition,

subtraction, multiplication, or division. What is the value of 15@14?
(1) 0@1 =1
(2) 1@0 =1

7. (GC, M) If P ] = P/(P − 1), what is the value of P ]]?

(A) P/(P − 1)
(B) 1/P
(C) P
(D) 2 − P
(E) P − 1

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Answers and explanations

1. If ∀a = a + 2a2 , then
a) ∀3 = 3 + 2 · 32 = 3 + 18 = 21
b) ∀x2 = x2 + 2 · (x2 )2 = x2 + 2x4
c) ∀∀a = ∀(a + 2a2 ) = a + 2a2 + 2(a + 2a2 )2 =
a + 2a2 + 2(a2 + 4a3 + a4 ) = +4a2 + 8a3 + a4
2. If x∅y = x + x × y, then
a) 2∅3 = 2 + 2 × 3 = 8
b) First calculate the expression in the brackets: 2∅3 = 8. Now 1∅(2∅3) = 1∅8 =
1+1×8=9
c) Again, first calculate the expression in the brackets: 1∅2 = 1 + 1 × 2 = 3. Next,
(1∅2)∅3 = 3∅3 = 3 + 3 × 3 = 12.
d) ab ∅ ab = a
b
+ a
b
× a
b
= a
b
+ 1.
3. Let’s find ♥2. The definition ♥a = 2a2 − 3a + 1 gives us ♥2 = 2 × 22 − 3 × 2 + 1 = 3
Now, ♥♥2 = ♥3 = 2 × 32 − 3 × 3 + 1 = 10 The answer is C.
4. The best way to solve this is to plug the values into the equation:
(5 − 4) · (4 − 5) = −1
(4 − 5) · (5 − 4) = −1
(1 − (−1)) · (−1 − 1) = −4
(−1 − 1) · (1 − (−1)) = −4
Statements I and II give the stated value, −1. The correct answer is A.
5. Just substitute x = 0.6 in the equation: 3(0.6·0.6)−1.8·0.6+0.3 = 1.08−1.08+0.3 =
0.3. We get C.
6. Using statement (1) we can see that the only operation giving 1 as result is addition.
So, @=+ and 15+14 can be found. Sufficient.
In statement (2), both 1 + 0 = 1 and 1 − 0 = 1, so, @ can be both division and
addition. Insufficient. The answer is A.
7. At first let’s find P ]. If P ] = P/(P − 1) then let’s take this value and substitute it
instead of P to find out P ]]. Here our function P/(P − 1) becomes an argument.
P/(P − 1) P/(P − 1) P/(P − 1)
We will get = = =
P/(P − 1) − 1 (P − (P − 1))/(P − 1) 1/(P − 1)
P 1 P P −1
÷ = · = P.
(P − 1) (P − 1) (P − 1) 1
The answer is C.
You can also use the Plug-in method (see Lesson №0).

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Simplifying algebraic expressions

GoGMAT, Session 5
Expressions like x3 − 4x + 15 are called polynomials. The degree of polynomial is the
highest power of variable.
Examples:

• x2 +5x−10is called a second degree (or quadratic) polynomial in x since the highest
power of x is 2.

• y − 4 is a first degree (or linear) polynomial in y since the highest power of y is 1.

On the GMAT it is often necessary to factor Factor the following
algebraic expressions. For example, polinomials:
• 7a + 5a = a(7 + 5) = 12a; 1. x2 y − xy 2
2. m3 n2 − n3 m2
• 6xy − 3y = 3y(2x − y); 3. 4 − 36a2
4. (x + 1)2 − 25
• 3xy − y + 3xz − z = 5. 3m2 + 3n2 − 6mn
y(3x − 1) + z(3x − 1) = 6. 3a + 3 − na − n
(3x − 1)(y + z) 7. x(a + b) + y(a + b)
Here are some useful rules for simplifying algebraic expressions:

(x + y)(z + w) = xz + zw + yz + yw
xy y
= , x, z 6= 0
xz z
2 2
a − b = (a − b)(a + b)
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
(a − b)2 = a2 − 2ab + b2

These formulas are useful in some arithmetical as well as algebraic problems.

Examples:

1. Calculate (0.999)2 .
Direct calculations are quite time-consuming and difficult. Let’s notice that 0.999 =
1 − 0.001. Therefore,
(0.999)2 = (1 − 0.001)2 = 1 − 2 · 0.001 + 0.0012 = 1 − 0.002 + 0.000001 = 0.998001.

2. Calculate 1.998 × 2.002.

Let us notice, that the two numbers are equidistant from 2:
1.998 × 2.002 = (2 − 0.002) × (2 + 0.002) = 4 − 0.0022 = 4 − 0.000004 = 3.999998.

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Practice

1. If (a − b)2 = 64 and ab = 3, find a2 + b2

(A) 61
(B) 67
(C) 70
(D) 58
(E) 69
m−n
2. (PR) What is the value of m2 −n2
?
(1) m2 − n2 = 40
(2) m + n = 10

3. (OG) What is the value of a4 − b4 ?

(1) a2 − b2 = 16
(2) a + b = 8

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Answers and explanations

1. (a − b)2 = a2 − 2ab + b2 = 64. Since ab = 3, a2 + b2 = 2ab + 64 = 2 · 3 + 64 = 70.

The answer is C.

2. Here, remembering that the difference of two squares can always be rewritten as the
product of the sum and the difference of the two variables is key:
m2 − n2 = (m − n)(m + n)
Then it is easy to see that the piece of the puzzle you are looking for is the value of
m + n.
Let’s look at the statement (1) first. We need to find the value of m + n, but it does
not give it to us. It’s insufficient. So, the answer will be B, C or E. Statement 2 gives
us the needed value, it’s sufficient, so the correct answer here is B.

3. a4 − b4 = (a2 − b2 )(a2 + b2 ).
Clearly, (1) or (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the stem question, because they
don’t give us the opportunity to find the value of a or b themselves. Therefore, the
answer must be C or E. Given (1) and (2) combined, we have a − b = (a2 − b2 )/(a +
b) = 2. Having this, we can make a system of two linear equations and find both a
and b. Thus, the right answer is C.

Check your factorization of polynomials:

1. x2 y − xy 2 = xy(x − y)

2. m3 n2 − n3 m2 = n2 m2 (m − n)

3. 4 − 36a2 = (2 − 6a)(2 + 6a)

4. (x + 1)2 − 25 = (x + 1 − 5)(x + 1 + 5) = (x − 4)(x + 6)

5. 3m2 + 3n2 − 6mn = 3(m2 − 2mn + n2 ) = 3(m − n)2

6. 3x(a + b) + y(b + a) = (3x + y)(a + b)

7. 3a + 3 − na − n = 3(a + 1) − n(a + 1) = (a + 1)(3 − n)

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Linear equations. Systems of linear equations

GoGMAT, Session 5
In many problems on GMAT you have to solve equations. We shall begin with linear
equations.
A linear equation is an algebraic equation in which each term is either a constant or
the product of a constant and the first power of a variable.
Some examples of such equations are:
• 3x + 5 = 4 − 2x – a linear equation with one unknown
• 2x − y = 3x + 4y − 1 –a linear equation with two unknowns

x + 2y = 1
• – system of linear equations
2x − y = 3
The solutions of an equation with one or more unknowns are those values that make
the equation true, or «satisfy the equation», when they are substituted for the unknowns
of the equation. An equation may have no solution or one or more solutions. If two or
more equations are to be solved together, the solutions must satisfy all of the equations
simultaneously.
To solve a linear equation with one unknown (that is, to find the value of the
unknown that satisfies the equation), the unknown should be isolated on one side of the
equation. This can be done by performing the same mathematical operations on both
sides of the equation. Remember that if the same number is added to or subtracted from
both sides of the equation, this does not change the equality; likewise, multiplying or
dividing both sides by the same nonzero number does not change the equality.
Example
3x + 1
Solve equation: = 5.
2
1. 3x + 1 = 10 – multiply each side by 2
2. 3x = 9 – subtract 1 from each side
3. x = 3 – divide each side by 3. x = 3 is the solution.
One linear equations with two unknowns, in general, has infinite number of solutions.
For example, equation x + y = 2, can be rewritten as x = 2 − y. As y can be any
number, we have infinite number of pairs (x, y) that suit this equation.
If there is additional information about the variables (they are
Important! integers, positive integers, digits, etc.) one equation (not only linear)
with two variables can have a single solution.
Example
• If A and B are positive integers and A(B − 1) = 1 we can find both A and B, for
the only pair of positive integers, whose product equals 1, is (1,1). Therefore, A = 1
and B − 1 = 1, so, B = 2. The answer is A = 1, B = 2.
• There is only one pair of positive integers, satisfying the equation 32x + 15y = 109.
Variable y can be expressed in terms of x as y = (109 − 32x)/15. Since y must be
positive, the only possible values of x are 1, 2 and 3. And only for x = 2 is the value
of y an integer. Therefore, the single solution is x = 2, y = 3.

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Before solving a systems of linear equations with two unknowns, it is good to know
how many solutions does it have. Let’s look at this problem from geometrical point of
view.
There is a good reason, why a linear equation is called linear - a linear equation with
two variables describes a line on a coordinate plane (we shall return to this later, in
Lesson №6). This means, that all the points with coordinates (x, y), which satisfy the
equation, lie on some particular line. So, when we have a system of two equations with
two variables, we actually have two lines. And two lines can either intersect in just one
unique point, or be parallel – and have no points in common – or overlap. Therefore,

A system of linear equation can have

1. one solution;
2. infinitely many solutions;
3. no solutions.

Let’s consider three examples:


x−y =2
•
x+y =3
From the first equation x = 2 + y. Substituting this expression for x into the second
equation, we get
2 + y + y = 3 ⇒ 2y = 1 ⇒ y = 1/2.
Therefore, x = 2 + 1/2 = 5/2. We have found the only solution, x = 1/2, y = 5/2.
x + 23 y = 5

•
6x + 4y = 30
From the first equation x = 5 − 2/3y, so, from the second equation we get
6 · (5 − 2/3y) + 4y = 30 ⇒ 30 − 4y + 4y = 30 ⇒ 30 = 30,
which is true for all values of y and x, Therefore, this system has infinitely many
solutions.
x + 32 y = 7

•
6x + 4y = 30
From the first equation x = 7 − 2/3y, so, from the second equation we get
6 · (7 − 2/3y) + 4y = 30 ⇒ 42 − 4y + 4y = 30 ⇒ 42 = 30,
which is false for all values of y and x, Therefore, this system has no solutions.
The question is: what is the difference between these systems? Let’s look closer at the
second one. We might notice, that if we multiply the first equation by 6, we will get the
second one. So, basically, this system is just one equation written twice! Whereas the first
system consists of two different equations.
As for the third system, if we multiply the first equation by 6, we will get the same
expression, as in the second equation, on the left hand side, but a different number on
the right hand side – an obvious contradiction.

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Here is the general rule.


ax + by = c
If in a system of linear equations ,
dx + ey = f
where x and y are the unknowns, and a, b, c, d, e are some
numbers,
a b
• 6= , the system has one solution;
d d
a b c
• = = , the system has infinitely many solutions;
d d f
a b c
• = 6= , the system has no solutions.
d d f

There are several methods of solving two linear equations with two variables.
The first, universal, method is to

• express one of the unknowns in terms of the other using one of the equations;

• substitute the expression into the remaining equation to obtain an equation with
one variable.

Example 1:

2x − 3y = 3
x+y =4
Let’s express y from the second equation: y − 4 − x
2x − 3(4 − x) = 3 – substitute in the second equation
2x − 12 + 3x = 3 ⇒ 5x = 15 ⇒ x = 3.
Now we can find y:
y =4−3=1
So, the pair (3, 1) is the solution of this system.
The second method is convenient when coefficients at one of the variables in the
equations are opposite to each other. In this case we can substitute one of the equations
with the sum of the two equations.
Example 2:
 
2x − 3y = 1 2x − 3y + 4x + 3y = 1 + 5
⇒ ⇒
4x + 3y = 5 4x + 3y = 5
  
6x = 6 x =1 x =1
⇒ ⇒ .
4x + 3y = 5 4 + 3y = 5 y = 1/3
We’ve got solution: (1, 1/3).

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The third method is actually a modification of the second.

Example 3

2x − 3y = 1
3x − 4y = 5
If we express y in terms of x or the other way around, we would get unwanted fractional
coefficients, and if we try adding the equations, it would have no positive effect - both
variables would still be at large.
To solve this system, we have to

• multiply the first equation by 3, the second by 2


6x − 9y = 3
6x − 8y = 10

• subtract second equation from the first 6x − 9y − (6x − 8y) = 3 − 10 ⇒ −y = −7 ⇒

y = 7.

• If we want to find x as well, we can substitute this value of y in the first or second
equation.

Practice

1. (OG, M) x = 0.rstu, where r, s, t, u are nonzero digits. What is the value of x?

(1) r = 2s = 3t = 6u
(2) ru = st

2. ( MH, E) If x + y = 36, what is the value of xy?

(1) y − x = 14
(2) y = 2x + 3

3. Martha bought several pencils. If each pencil was either a 23-cent pencil or a 21-cent
pencil, how many 23-cent pencils did Martha buy?
(1) Martha bought a total of 6 pencils.
(2) The total value of pencils Martha bought was 130 cent.

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Answers and explanations

1. To find x we need to find all the digits r, s, t, u.

From the first statement we get a system with three equations and four unknowns:

 r = 2s
r = 3t
r = 6u


We have to remember that r, s, t, u are nonzero digits - integers from 1 till 9. Look
at the third equation: r = 6u. If u = 1, r = 6. If u = 2, r = 12, but it cannot be so,
because r is the digit! Clearly, if u = 3, 4, 5, etc., r won’t be a digit as well. So, the
only possible value of u is 1. And we have such solution: r = 6, s = 3, t = 2, u = 1.
So, x = 0.6321. Statement (1) is sufficient.
Statement (2) alone is not sufficient. So, the answer is A.

2. Statement (1) alone is sufficient: add the two equations together and you get 2y = 50,
so y = 25 and x = 11.
(2) alone is sufficient, because if you plug the equation into the question, you get
x + 2x + 3 = 36, or 3x = 33, so x = 11 and y = 25. The answer is D.

3. Statement (1) provides no information about the types of pencils Martha bought.
Statement (2) gives us one equation with two variables:
23x + 21y = 130.
And still it is sufficient. Check, that there is the only solution here: (4, 2). The
answer is B.

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Absolute Value. Equations and Inequalities with Absolute Value.

GoGMAT, Session 5
The absolute value (or modulus) |x| of a real number x is, basically, the distance from
this number to zero on the number axis. This is why absolute value is never negative.
Absolute value only asks «how far?», not «in which direction?». For example, | − 3| = 3,
for −3 is 3 away from 0 to the left:

A positive number is equal to its absolute value: |3| = 3. So,


x, x > 0
|x| =
−x, x < 0
Here are the main properties of absolute value:

• |x| ≥ 0
√
• x2 = |x|

• |0| = 0

• | − x| = |x|

• |x| + |y| ≥ |x + y|

Solving equations with absolute value

Equation
|x| = 2
means, that x is a number, whose distance from 0 equals 2:

There are two such points on the number axis: 2 and −2. So, our equality has two
solutions x = 2 and x = −2.
Let’s consider a more complicated example:

|x − 2| = 6.

The absolute value |x − 2| is the distance between x and 2. So, this equation simply
means, that x is a number 6 away from 2:

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So, x = 8 or x = −4.
The algebraic solution is as follows:
The value of (x − 2) is either 6, or −6, so

x − 2 = 6 or x − 2 = −6,

x = 8 or x = −4.
Solving inequalities with absolute value
Let’s first consider the following two examples:

• |x| < 5.
This inequality means, that x is some number closer to zero than 5. It is easy to
draw the set of such numbers on the axis:

So, |x| < 5 is the same as −5 < x < 5.

• Inequality |x| > 5 means that x is some number further from zero than 5:

And we get that |x| > 5 x < −5 or x > 5.

In general, the solution for inequality

|x − a| < b

is an interval of length 2b (note that this inequality only makes sense for b > 0) with a in
the middle:

and the solution for

|x − a| > b
is everything outside this interval:

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Practice

1. | − 4|(| − 20| − |5|) =

(A) −100
(B) −60
(C) 60
(D) 75
(E) 100

2. What is the value of x

(1) |x + 2| ≤ 4
(2) x2 = 36

3. On the number line, the shaded interval is the graph of which of the following
inequalities?
(A) |x| ≤ 4
(B) |x| ≤ 8
(C) |x − 2| ≤ 4
(D) |x − 2| ≤ 6
(E) |x + 2| ≤ 6

4. (GC) If |2 − x| + |x − 5| = 7, find all the values of x.

(A) {0, 1, 7}
(B) {0, 7}
(C) {1, 7}
(D) {0, 2, 4}
(E) {7}

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Answers and explanations

1. | − 4|(| − 20| − |5|) = 4 · (20 − 5) = 60. The answer is C.

2. From statement (1) we know, that |x + 2| ≤ 4, or −4 ≤ x + 2 ≤ 4, −6 ≤ x ≤ 2.

This information is not sufficient to determine x. Statement (2) provides us with
the information, that x is either 6 or −6, which is still not sufficient. Considering
both statements together we obtain, that x = −6. The answer is C.

3. First find the middle number of the line segment: −8+4

2
= −2. The distance between
−2 and the ends of the segment is 6, which is expressed in the inequality |x−(−2)| ≤
6, or |x + 2| ≤ 6. The answer is E.

4. One of the ways to solve the problem is to consider all the possibilities: when the
expressions (2 − x) and (x − 5) are both positive, both negative or have different
signs. But as you have the answer choices, it will be much easier to plug them in.
If x = 0, then |2 − 0| + |0 − 5| = 7, 7 = 7 – true. The answer is A, B or D.
If x = 7, then |2 − 7| + |7 − 5| = 7, 7 = 7 – also true. The answer is A or B.
If x = 1, then |2 − 1| + |1 − 5| = 7 or |1| + | − 4| =
6 7. The answer is B.

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Quadratic Equations
GoGMAT, Session 6
Examples:
Equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, where
x2 + 6x + 5 = 0
x is the unknown and a 6= 0, b, c is
x2 − 1 = 0
called quadratic.
x2 − 10x = 0
The graph of the quadratic function y = ax2 + bx + c is a parabola.
The simplest parabola has got equation y = x2 :

All the others are modifications of this one. Below you see the six possible positions
of a parabola on the coordinate plane:

In general, the coordinates of the vertex of a parabola given by equation y = ax2 +bx+c
are equal to
b (4ac − b2 )
x0 = − , y 0 =
2a 4a
As you can see from the pictures above, in some cases a parabola can have two, one
or no intersections with x-axis.

• If a > 0, then the branches of a parabola are going upwards, and

 there are two intersections, if the vertex is below the line:

y0 = (4ac − b2 )/4a < 0 ⇔ b2 − 4ac > 0.
 there is one intersection, if the vertex is on the line:
y0 = (4ac − b2 )/4a = 0 ⇔ b2 − 4ac = 0.
 there are no intersections, if the vertex is above the line:
y0 = (4ac − b2 )/4a > 0 ⇔ b2 − 4ac < 0.

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• If a < 0, then the branches of a parabola are going downwards, and

 there are two intersections, if the vertex is above the line:

y0 = (4ac − b2 )/4a > 0 ⇔ b2 − 4ac > 0.
 there is one intersection, if the vertex is on the line:
y0 = (4ac − b2 )/4a = 0 ⇔ b2 − 4ac = 0.
 there are no intersections, if the vertex is bolow the line:
y0 = (4ac − b2 )/4a < 0 ⇔ b2 − 4ac < 0.

Expression D = b2 − 4ac is called the discriminant of the quadratic equation

ax2 − bx + c = 0.
Above we have actually established, how to tell whether a quadratic equation has two,
one, or no roots. To sum up,

A quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has

• two solutions if b2 − 4ac > 0

• one solution if b2 − 4ac = 0

• no solutions if b2 − 4ac < 0

In case the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has got solutions x1 , x2 (the case of one solution
simply means that x1 = x2 ), they are given by the following formulas:
√ √
−b − D −b + D
x1 = , x2 =
2a 2a

Some quadratic equations allow a faster solution.

Let us consider an equation x2 + px + q = 0. If x1 and x2 are the roots of this equation,
then the trinomial in the left-hand side can be factorized as
x2 + px + q = (x − x1 )(x − x2 ).
So, x2 + px + q = x2 − (x1 + x2 )x + x1 x2 , which leads us to the following statement,
known as the Viet theorem:

If x1 and x2 are the roots of the quadratic

equation x2 + px + q, then
x1 + x2 = −p and x1 · x2 = q.

This theorem helps to guess the roots of a quadratic equation without actually
calculating them.
Example
x2 − 5x + 6 = 0
If this equation has got two roots, then the product of these two roots must be 6, and
their sum must be 5. And it’s not hard to guess, that such numbers are 2 and 3.

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Try applying the Viet theorem to the following equations:

1. x2 + 3x + 2 = 0 7. x2 + 8x − 9 = 0
2. x2 − 15x + 14 = 0 8. x2 + 9x + 20 = 0
3. x2 − 19x + 18 = 0
9. x2 − 15x + 36 = 0
4. x2 + 8x + 7 = 0
5. x2 + 3x − 4 = 0 10. x2 + 5x − 14 = 0

6. x2 − 12x − 13 = 0 11. x2 − 7x − 30 = 0
Factorize:
1. x2 − 11x + 24 5. −x2 + 16x − 15 = 0

2. x2 − 8x + 15 6. −x2 − 8x + 9 = 0

3. x2 + 7x + 12 7. −x2 + 5x − 6 = 0

4. x2 + 3x − 10 8. −x2 + 7x − 12 = 0
Practice:

1. In the xy-plane, a parabola intersects with y-axis at point (0, y). Is y < 0?
(1) The vertex of parabola is (2, −5).
(2) The parabola intersects with x-axis at points (−2, 0) and (6, 0).

2. (OG, E) x > 2 and x2 − 4x + 3 = 0. Find x.

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 5

3. (GC, M) What is X?
(1) X 2 + 24 = 8 × (X + 1)
(2) X 2 − 5x + 4 = 0

4. (OG, M) If t − 8 is a factor of t2 − kt − 48, then k =

(A) −6
(B) −2
(C) 2
(D) 6
(E) 14

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Answers and explanations

1. The 1st statement is not sufficient, as the vertex tells us nothing about the
interceptions with y-axis.
The 2nd statement leaves 2 variants:
So it’s not sufficient. Both statements together provide us with the vertex and the
x-intercepts, which uniquely define the parabola. The answer is C.

2. Let’s solve this equation with the discriminant:

D = 4 × 4 − 4 × 3 × 1 = 16 − 12 = 4 > 0, 2 roots.
√ √
4− 4 4+ 4
x1 = = 1, x2 = = 3.
2 2
X has to be greater then 2, so, x = 3. The answer is A.
Alternative solution: Viet theorem.
x1 + x2 = 4;
x1 · x2 = 3.
The roots are 1 and 3, because their sum is 4 and their product is 3. The answer is
A.

3. Statement (1) simplifies to X 2 − 8X + 16 = 0 or (X − 4)2 = 0 from where X = 4.

Sufficient.
Statement (2) gives us X 2 − 5X + 4 = 0 or X = 4, X = 1. We cannot find the only
value of X. Insufficient. The answer is A.

4. If t−8 is a factor of t2 −kt−48, then this polynomial can be expressed as (t−8)·(t−a),

where a is some number. According to Viet theorem, 8 and a will be roots of the
equation t2 − kt − 48 = 0.
Thus, substituting t = 8 in t2 − kt − 48 = 0, we’ll get 0:
64 − 8k − 48 = 0
8k = 16, k = 2.
Answer C.

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Exponential equations
GoGMAT, Session 6

The general form of an exponential equation with equal

bases is:
ax = ay Be careful when seeing a
Consider the following cases: variable in the base of an
exponent in DS problems -
• If a = 1, then x and y can take on any values. there might be a «a = 0» or
«a = 1» trap!
• If a = 0, then x and y are any positive numbers

• If a 6= 1 and a 6= 0 then
ax = ay ⇔ x = y

• Equation ax = by , where a 6= b and a, b, x, y are

integers has

 Single solution x = y = 0 if a and b are not the powers of the same integer.
For example, equation
(−3)2m−1 = 21715x gives us 2m − 1 = 15x = 0, or m = 1/2 and x = 0.
 Infinite number of solution, if a = bn for some integer n.
For example, equation
3y = 1915x gives us y = 30x.

Practice

1. Consider 23m = n + 1 where n is an integer number. What is a value of m?

(1) 35n = 53k , where k is an integer.
(2) n − m ≤ 1

2. (OG, M) If (−2)2m = 29−m , m – integer, then m =

(A)1
(B)2
(C)3
(D)4
(E)6

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3
3. (OG, M) If (7 4 )n = 7, then n =
(A)1/3
(B)2/3
(C)4/3
(D)5/3
(E)6/3

4. If ax = by where a, b are positive integers and x and y are non-negative integers, is

x divisible by y?
(1) a < b
(2) y is an odd number

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Answers and explanations

1. Let’s take Statement (1). The power of number 3 could be equal to the power of
number 5 only in one case: when 5n = 3k = 0. So, 23m = n + 1 = 1, and 3m = 0.
Statement (1) is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (2) is not insufficient because for n = 0 we obtain m = 0, but for n = 1
we get m = 1/3. The answer is A.

2. At first look at (−2)2m . 2m is an even integer, so, (−2)2m = 22m :

22m = 29−m equalizing the powers of left and right sides we get 2m = 9−m, 3m = 9,
m = 3. The answer is C.
3 3n
3. (7 4 )n = 7 4 , so, we get:
3n
7 4 = 72 , 3n/4 = 1, 3n = 4, n = 4/3. The answer is C.

4. Statement (1) leaves two options: either b = an for some positive integer n, in which
case x = ny, or both x = y = 0. In the latter case x is not divisible by y, so,
statement (1) is not sufficient.
Statement (2), when considered together with (1) excludes the possibility of x =
y = 0, therefore x = ny 6= 0 and x is divisible by y The answer is C.

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Inequalities. Exponential inequalities

GoGMAT, Session 7
An inequality is a statement that uses one of the following symbols:

6 not equal to;

=
> greater than;
≥ greater than or equal to;
< less than;
≤ than or equal to.

Some examples of inequalities are:

3x − 4y + 5 < 1 − 7x, y ≥ 3, 4a − b ≤ 0, etc.
Very often in the problem you will need to find not the solution of the inequality, but
the interval that contains this solution.
Example:
If x > 3 , what MUST be true for all values of x?
I. x > 5
x−1
II. >2
2
III. x ≥ 1
If a statement is wrong for some x > 3, it is not the correct answer choice. Let’s take
x = 4. It’s easy to see, that statements I. and II. are false for x = 4, therefore, only III.
can be correct. Indeed, every x > 3 is automatically greater than one.
Solving a linear inequality with one unknown is similar to solving an equation:

• Isolate the unknown to one side of the inequality.

• As in solving an equation, the same number can be added to or subtracted from both
sides of the inequality, or both sides of an inequality can be multiplied or divided
by a positive number without changing the truth of the inequality.

• However, multiplying or dividing an inequality by a negative number reverses the

order of the inequality. For example, 6 > 2, but (−1) × 6 < (−1) × 2.

Here are some useful rules:

1. If a > b, for any c it is true that a + c > b + c.

2. If a > b and c > 0 then ac > bc.

3. If a > b and c < 0 then ac < bc.

4. If a > b and b > c then a > c.

5. If a > b and c > d then a + c > b + d.

6. If a, b, c, d > 0, a > b and c > d then ac > bd.

7. If a > b > 0 then 1/a < 1/b

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Practice

1. If d > a and b < a, which of the following CANNOT be true?

(A) d + b = 14
(B) d − b = 7
(C) d − b = 1
(D) a − d = 9
(E) a + d = 9

2. If 0 < ab < ac, is a negative?

(1) c < 0
(2) b > c

3. Is |x − 1| < 3?
a) (1) |x + 1| > 4 b) (1) |x − 2| < 1.5 c) (1) |x + 1| < 3
(2) |x − 2| > 7 (2) |x − 3| < 4 (2) |x + 2| > 3
Solving an exponential inequality is very similar to solving an exponential equation.
To solve an exponential inequality with the same bases of power:

ax < ay

look at the base a. Note, that if
a is a «small» number, 0 < a < 1, then the greater the
1 3 1 2


power, the smaller the value: 2 < 2 . But if a is a «big» number, a > 1, then the
greater the power, the greater the value: 23 > 22 .

• If 0 < a < 1, write down the same inequality with the powers of left and right sides,
but change the sign: x > y

• If a > 1, just write down the same inequality with the powers of left and right sides:
x < y.

Practice

4. (MG, E) If 4 − x > 5, then

(A) x > 1
(B) x > −1
(C) x < 1
(D) x < −1
(E) x = −1

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5. (GC, M) If x2 − 100 < 300, how many integers x satisfy this condition?
(A) 42
(B) 39
(C) 38
(D) 37
(E) 19

6. (PR, M) Is mn < m/n?

(1) mn is a positive integer.
(2) n is a negative number.

7. (OG, M) What is the smallest integer n for which 25n > 512 ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 10

8. Is x2 > x3 ?
(1) x < 1
(2) x 6= 0

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Answers and explanations

1. If d > a then 0 > a − d. So, D is FALSE.

2. While c < 0 and ac > 0, the only possibility for a is a < 0. Statement (1) is sufficient.
If b > c then b − c > 0. If ac > ab, then ab − ac > 0. So, a(b − c) > 0. While b − c > 0
the only possibility for a is a > 0. The answer is D.

3. The question can be rephrased as «is x between −2 and 4?».

a) Statement (1) gives that x is either greater than 3 or less than −5. Which is not
sufficient, for it allows both situations: when x belongs to the interval in question
(for example, x = 1.5) and when it does not (for example, x = −7)

Statement (2) means that x is either greater than 9 or less than -5.

None of the values from these two regions belong to the interval (−2, 4), therefore,
(2) is sufficient. The answer is B.
b) Statement (1) means that x is between 0.5 and 3.5. Which is sufficient, for any
x from the interval (0.5, 3.5) belongs to the interval (−2, 4).

So, (1) is sufficient.

Statement (2) means that x is between −1 and 7, which is not sufficient to determine
whether x belongs to the interval (−2, 4). So, the answer is A.

c) Statement (1) means that x is between −4 and 2, which is not sufficient to

determine whether x belongs to the interval (−2, 4).

Similarly, statement (2), giving that x is either smaller than -5 or larger than 1, is
not sufficient.

But two statements together give that x is between 1 and 2, thus, the answer is C.

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4. 4 − x > 5
−x > 1
Divide by −1 and change the inequality sign:
x < −1
The correct answer is D.

5. First of all the inequality we have to solve is x2 < 400 or |x| < 20. Then −20 < x <
20. This gives us 19 × 2 + 1 = 39 integers (we have to add 1 for zero). The answer
is B.

6. Statement (1) is not sufficient, because we can take m = −5, n = −6 and we will
get 30 > 5/6, the answer is «no». Or we can take m = −50, n = −0.1 and we will
get 5<500, answer «yes».
Statement (2) does even less, since we do not know anything about m. Together,
the statements still do not tell us what pair to take: m = −5, n = −6 or m = −50,
n = −0.1, so the correct answer is E.

7. 25n = (52 )n = 52n . We get 52n > 512 , so, we can write down the same inequality
with the powers of left and right sides: 2n > 12, n > 6. The smallest integer n that
suits this inequality is n = 7. Correct answer is B.

8. Statement (1) is «nearly sufficient» - for any value of x which is less than 1 and not
zero it is true that x2 > x3 . But for x = 0 it is not, therefore (1) is not sufficient.
Statement (2) excludes the unpleasant exception. The answer is C.

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Home assignment
1. (OG E) If x = −1, then −(x4 + x3 + x2 + x) =
(A) −10
(B) −4
(C) 0
(D) 4
(E) 10
2. (GC M) What is 987 × 987?
(A) 974,169
(B) 974,219
(C) 974,549
(D) 975,019
(E) 975,369
3. (OG E) Which of the following equations is NOT equivalent to 25x2 = y 2 − 4?
(A) 25x2 + 4 = y 2
(B) 75x2 = 3y 2 − 12
(C) 25x2 = (y − 2)(y + 2)
(D) 5x = y − 2
(E) x2 = (y 2 − 4)/25
4. (OG M) If x 6= 0, what is the value of (xp /xq )4 ?
(1) p = q
(2) x = 3
5. (MG M) The square root of 800 is between which of the following integers?
(A) 21 and 25
(B) 24 and 28
(C) 27 and 31
(D) 30 and 34
(E) 33 and 37
6. (MG E) If point X is on line segment AB, all of the following may be true EXCEPT
(A) AX = XB
(B) AX > XB
(C) AX < XB
(D) AB > XB
(E) AX + XB < AB

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7. (OG M) If m/n = 5/3, what is the value of m + n?

(1) m > 0
(2) 2m + n = 26
8. (OG E) If b < 2, and 2x − 3b = 0, which of the following must be true?
(A) x > −3
(B) x > 2
(C) x = 3
(D) x < 3
(E) x > 3
9. (OG E) If 4x + 3y = −2 and 3x + 6 = 0, what is the value of y?
(A) −10/3
(B) −2
(C) −2/3
(D) 2/3
(E) 2
10. (OG E) If x ∗ y = xy − 2(x + y) for all integers x and y, then 2 ∗ (−3) =
(A) −16
(B) −11
(C) −4
(D) 4
(E) 16
11. (OG E) If a, b, and c are nonzero numbers and a + b = c, which of the following is
equal to 1?
(A) (a − b)/c
(B) (a − c)/b
(C) (b − c)/a
(D) (b − a)/c
(E) (c − b)/a
12. (MG M) If x ∗ y = (4x − 3y)(x + y) then 5 ∗ 6 =
(A) 1
(B) 11
(C) 15
(D) 22
(E) 34

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13. (MH) What is the value of the greater of two numbers if one of the numbers is three
times the smaller number?
(1) One of the numbers is 12.
(2) The sum of the two numbers is 16.
√
14. (MH H) Of the following, which is most nearly equal to but not greater than 15?
(A) 3.7
(B) 3.8
(C) 3.9
(D) 4.0
(E) 4.1

15. (OG H) If x increases from 165 to 166, which of the following must increase?
I. 2x − 5
II. 1 − 1/x
III. 1/(x2 − x)
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II
(D) I and III
(E) II and III

16. (GC H) A perfect number is defined as one for which the sum of all the distinct
factors less the number itself equals to the number. For instance, 6 is a perfect
number, because the factors of 6 (apart from 6 itself) are 1, 2 and 3, and 1+2+3 = 6.
Which of the following is a perfect number?
(A) 12
(B) 28
(C) 15
(D) 13
(E) 67

17. (MG H) Every letter in the alphabet has a number value that is equal to its place
in the alphabet; thus, the letter A has a value of 1 and C a value of 3. The number
value of a word is obtained by adding up the value of the letters in the word and
then multiplying that sum by the length of the word. The word «DFGH» would
have a number value of
(A) 22
(B) 44

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(C) 66
(D) 100
(E) 108

18. (MG M) A perfect number is one which is equal to the sum of all its positive factors
that are less than the number itself. Which of the following is a perfect number?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 10

19. (OG E) If x and y are different integers and x2 = xy, which of the following must
be true?
I. x = 0
II. y = 0
III. x = −y
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

20. (GC H) If x is a number such that −2 ≤ x ≤ 2, which of the following has the
greatest possible absolute value?
(A) 3x − 1
(B) x2 + 1
(C) 3 − x
(D) x − 3
(E) x2 − x

21. Is x2 − 5x + 6 = |x − 2| × |x − 3|?
(1) x > 2.
(2) x > 3.

22. (OG M) If ◦ represents one of the operations +, −, and ×, is k ◦ (n + m) = (k ◦ n) +

(k ◦ m) for all numbers k, n and m?
(1) k ◦ n is not equal to n◦ k for some numbers n and k
◦
(2) represents subtraction

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◦
23. (OG M) If the operation is defined for all a and b by the equation a◦ b = a2 b/3,
then 2◦ (3◦ − 1) =
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) −4/3
(D) −2
(E) −4

24. (GC M) Is integer R positive?

(1) R3 = R
(2) |R| = R

25. (OG M) Is x = 0?
(1) x × y = x
(2) x + y = y
√
26. (GC M) If x is a positive integer, is x > 2.5x − 5?
(1) x < 3
(2) x is a prime number

27. (GC H) How many values of x satisfy this equation? A × x + A = B

(1) A does not equal 0
(2) B does not equal 0

28. (GC E) What is X?

(1) X 2 − 1 = X + 1
(2) X + 3 is a prime number

29. (GC M) Is 4t3 − 2t2 − 8t + 16 divisible by t2 ?

(1) t > 1
(2) t is an even prime number
p √
30. (GC E) If 3 + x − 1 = 4, what is the value of x?
(A) 101
(B) 122
(C) 157
(D) 170
(E) 197

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31. (GC M) If a, b, and c are positive and a2 + c2 = 202, what is the value of b − a − c?
(1) b2 + c2 = 225
(2) a2 + b2 = 265
32. (MG M) The trinomial x2 + x − 20 is exactly divisible by
(A) x − 5
(B) x + 4
(C) x − 10
(D) x − 4
(E) x − 2
33. Is ab = 1?
(1) aba = a
(2) bab = b
34. (GC M) What is the value of the following expression: 6x2 + 9y 2 ?
(1) x = 2
(2) 6y 2 + 4x2 = 22
35. (GC M) If x2 − 100 < 300, how many integers x satisfy this condition?
(A) 42
(B) 39
(C) 38
(D) 37
(E) 19
36. (GC M) Is (X 3 ) × (Y 2 ) × (Z 2 ) > 0?
(1) X × Y > 0
(2) X × Z > 0
37. (GC H) X, Y , and Z are positive integers. Is (X − Y ) × (Y − Z) × (X − Z) > 0?
(1) X 2 + Y × Z = X × Y + X × Z
(2) X × Y − Y 2 = X × Z − Y × Z
38. (MG M) If x < y, 2x = A, and 2y = B, then
(A) A = B
(B) A < B
(C) A > B
(D) A < x
(E) B < y

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39. (MG M) If x and y are positive integers such that (x + y) < 10, then which of the
following must be true?
(A) x < 8
(B) x > 3
(C) x > y
(D) x + y = 5
(E) x − y ≤ 7

40. If xy + z = z, is |x − y| > 0?
(1) x 6= 0
(2) y = 0

41. (PR M) If −2 < a < 11 and 3 < b < 12, then which of the following is NOT true?
(A) 1 < a + b < 23
(B) −14 < a − b < 8
(C) −7 < b − a < 14
(D) 1 < b + a < 23
(E) −24 < ab < 132
x
42. (OG H) Is m
× (m2 + n2 + k 2 ) = xm + yn + zk?
z x
(1) k
=m
(2) x
m
= ny

43. Is A positive?
(1) x2 − 2x + A is positive for all x.
(2) Ax2 + 1 is positive for all x.

44. (MH M) Is y between 1 and 2, exclusive?

(1) y 2 is more than y
(2) y 2 is between 1 and 2, exclusive

45. (GC H) Which of the following describes value of x2 − x when x is between 0 and 1?
(A) 1 > x2 − x > 0
(B) 1 > x2 − x ≥ −1/4
(C) 0 > x2 − x ≥ −1/4
(D) 1 > x2 − x > −1
(E) 0 > x2 − x ≥ −1

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p
46. (GC M) Is (x − 5)2 = 5 − x?
(1) −x|x| > 0
(2) 5 − x > 0

47. (GC M) $ Y $ = (Y Y )/(Y × Y × 2). What is the last digit of $($4$)$?

(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) 1

48. If m, n, p, and q are positive integers, and mp = nq , what is value of pq?

(1) m2 = n
(2) pp = 4.

49. (MH H) If 5a = 9b = 15c, what is the value of a + b + c?

(1) 3c − a = 5c − 3b
(2) 6cb = 10a
p √
50. (GC H) What is (x2 − 6x + 9) + 2 − x + (x − 3) if each term in this expression
is well defined?
p
(A) (2 − x)
√
(B) 2 × x − 6 + 2 − x
√
(C) 2 − x + (x − 3)
√
(D) 2 × x − 6 + x − 2
√
(E) x + x − 2

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Answers

Question № Answer Question № Answer

Algebra Algebra
1. C 22. D
2. A 23. E
3. D 24. E
4. A 25. B
5. C 26. A
6. E 27. A
7. B 28. E
8. D 29. B
9. E 30. D
10. C 31. C
11. E 32. D
12. D 33. E
13. B 34. B
14. B 35. B
15. C 36. E
16. B 37. D
17. D 38. B
18. C 39. E
19. A 40. A
20. A 41. C
21. B 42. C

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Test №4.Algebra
1. If x < y, which of the following must be true?
I. |x| < |y|
II. x − y < 0
III. x2 − y 2 < 0
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only

2. If x and y are integers, what is the value of (x − y)4 ?

(1) The product of x and y is 7.
(2) The sum of x and y is −8.

3. If x2 + 12x + 20 < 0, how many integer values can x be?

(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 10

4. If x2 − y 2 < 0, which of the following must be true?

I. x + y < 0
II. x − y < 0
III. x2 − y 3 < 0
(A) None
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) III only
(E) I and III only

5. If y is a positive integer and x is a negative integer, is y x < 1?

(1) y is greater than 1.
(2) x > −5.

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6. If 0 < n < m < 1, m2 − n2 must be less than which of the following expressions?
(A) m − n
m+n
(B) 2
(C) mn
(D) (m + n)2
(E) (m − n)2
x
7. If x and y are positive, is y
greater than 1?
(1) xy > 1
(2) x − y > 0

8. Is x = y?
(1) x2 + y 2 = 2xy
2 +y 2
(2) 4x =1

9. If the product of x and y is −15, what is the sum of x and y?

(1) xy 2 = −75
(2) x − y = −8

10. How many positive integers, from 2 to 100, inclusive, are not divisible by odd integers
greater than 1?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) 50

11. On four successive days, a farmer picks exactly twice as many apples each day as on
the previous day. If in the course of the four days he picks a total of 12,000 apples,
how many apples does he pick on the second of the four days?
(A) 800
(B) 1,000
(C) 1,600
(D) 2,000
(E) 6,000

12. If N ∗ = 1 − 1
1−N
for any none-zero integer N , then, N ∗ − (N − 1)∗ =
1
(A) (1−N )(N −2)
1
(B) N −2

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1
(C) (N −1)(N −2)
1
(D) N (N −1)
1
(E) N −1

13. If equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has two distinct roots, which of the following must be
true?
I. b > 0
II. ac > 0
III. ac < 0
(A) None
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) III only
(E) I and II only

14. For any integer n function f (n) is defined as the product of all positive even numbers
less than or equal to n, for example, f (10) = 2 × 4 × 6 × 8 × 10. So, what is the
greatest prime factor of f (24)?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 11
(E) 13

15. If 0 < x < 1, which of the following is the greatest?

(A) x1/2
(B) x + 1
(C) 2x
(D) x2
(E) x2 + 1

16. Which of the following CANNOT be the sum of two prime numbers?
(A) 19
(B) 45
(C) 68
(D) 79
(E) 88

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17. Is x divisible by y?
(1) x is multiple of 6.
(2) y is multiple of 3.
x2
18. If x is not equal to 1, is x−1
> x?
(1) x > 0
(2) x < 2

19. If n is an integer, is 30 the factor of n?

n
(1) 45 is a factor of 2
(2) 30 is a factor of n2

20. If x is a positive integer, what is the value of x?

(1) x3 = 4x
(2) x2 − 4x = −4

21. If m and n are integers, is km + n > 0?

(1) k < 0
(2) km − n < 0

22. If xy 2 > 0, which of the following must be true?

I. x > 0
II. y > 0
III. yx2 > 0
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only

23. If x and y are non-negative integer, what is the value of xy?

(1) 7x = 13y
(2) 3x = 9y

B 16. D 17. E 18. E 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. A 23. A

Answers: 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. D 15.

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Lesson №5. Word Problems

Many problems on GMAT contain a lot of text. Such tasks are called Word Problems.
There are several types of them:

Word translations
Percentage Problems
Overlapping Sets problems
Rate Problems
Mixture Problems
Work Problems

Note some general tips for solving word problems on GMAT;

• Identify what kind of word problem you’re up facing.

• Try to translate English into algebra as you read the problem for the first time,
sentence by sentence. Reading the problem twice is time-consuming.

• Use convenient variables, which remind you of what they denote, for example, h for
hardback books, p for paperback.

• Draw a figure or a table. A nice visualization can make the solution much quicker.

• Read the question carefully. The GMAT problems makers love to trick those who
do not pay careful attention to what is being asked, and provide you with all the
answers you can obtain as a result of such carelessness.

On the first steps of your preparation the following common translations may be
helpful:
Verbal expressions Arithmetic symbols
Equals, is, was, will has, be, costs, the same =
amount, adds up to
Times, of, product of, twice as much as, thrice, ×
double, triple, half
Divided by, per, out of, each, ratio of ÷
Plus, added to, sum, combined, and, more than, a +
total of, increased by
Minus, subtracted from, less than, decreased by, −
difference between
What, how much, how many A variable
Now let’s have a close look to each type of Word Problems.

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Word translations
GoGMAT, Session 8
At first we will talk about Word Problems that don’t use special formulae. These
problems can take a big part of your test time, but their solution is usually not so hard. You
just have to write down and to solve the system of linear equations or one linear/quadratic
equation.
Practice

1. (GC) Aunt Marge is giving candy to each of her nephews and nieces. She has 20
candy pieces and she gives candy to children according to her wish. Thus, Robert
gets 2 more candy pieces than Kate. Bill gets 6 less than Mary. Mary, in turn, gets
2 more candy than Robert. Kate gets 2 more candy than Bill. How many candy
pieces does Kate get?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 10

2. (OG) Bill can buy 3 pairs of jeans and 2 shirts for a price of $69 or he can buy 2
pairs of jeans and 3 shirts for the price of $66. How much does one shirt cost?
(A) $10
(B) $12
(C) $13.20
(D) $15
(E) $16.80

3. (OG) Jan lives x floors above the ground floor of a high-rise building. It takes her
30 seconds per floor to walk down and 2 seconds per floor to ride the elevator. If it
takes Jan the same amount of time to walk down the steps to the ground floor as
to wait for the elevator for 7 minutes and ride down, then x equals
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 14
(E) 15

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4. (OG) Salesperson A’s compensation for any week is $360 plus 6 percent of the
portion of A’s total sales above $1000 for that week. Salesperson B’s compensation
for any week is 8 percent of B’s total sales for that week. For what amount of total
weekly sales would both salespeople earn the same compensation?
(A) $21,000
(B) $18,000
(C) $15,000
(D) $4,500
(E) $4,000

5. Company X is scheduled to produce n units of its product in month t of its next

fiscal year. Number n is given by the formula
900
n= ,
1 + c · 2−t
where c is a constant and t is a positive integer between 1 and 6, inclusive. What
is the number of units of its product that Company X is scheduled to produce in
month 6 of its next fiscal year?
(1) Company X is scheduled to produce 180 units of its product in month 1 of its
next fiscal year.
(2) Company X is scheduled to produce 300 units of its product in month 2 of its
next fiscal year.

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Answers and explanations

1. Denote the number of candy given to Robert for r. Similarly pick initial letter of
each name as name of variable (convenience saves time), so other variables are b,
m, and k. Read the problem line by line and write the equations:
r =k+2
b=m−6
m=r+2
k =2+b
Let us find the values of b, m, and k in terms of r:
from equation 1: k = r − 2;
from equation 4: b = k − 2 = (r − 2) − 2 = r − 4;
from equation 3: m = r + 2.
Since the sum of all these r + b + m + k = 20, substituting each value for expression
with r, we obtain r + r − 4 + r + 2 + r − 2 = 20, so, r = 6. Then k = r − 2 = 6 − 2 = 4.
So the answer is B.
2. Let the price of shirt be s and of jeans j, then we can construct system of equations:
3j + 2s = 69;
2j + 3s = 66.
It is wise to subtract the second from the first: j − s = 3 or j = s + 3. Then plug j
in either of the equations and solve for s. s = $12, so the answer is B.
3. If it takes Jan 30 seconds per floor to walk down and she lives x floors above the
ground floor then total time needed to walk down the steps to the ground floor is
30x seconds. As for elevator, it will take 2x seconds to ride down to the ground
floor. If it takes Jan the same amount of time to walk down the steps to the ground
floor as to wait for the elevator for 7 minutes (= 420 seconds) and ride down, we
can write down such an equation:
30x = 2x + 420;
28x = 420;
x = 15. The answer is E.
4. A’s compensation for any week can be written as 360 + 0.06(t − 1000), where t is
amount of total sales. B’s compensation is 0.08t. To find for what amount of total
weekly sales would both salespeople earn the same compensation we have to solve
the equation:
360 + 0.06(t − 1000) = 0.08t;
360 + 0.06t − 60 − 0.08t = 0;
0.02t = 300;
t = 15000. The answer is C.

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900
5. Given the formula, n = 1+c2−t
,
determine the value of n when t = 6.
(1) Given that n = 180 when t = 1, then

900
180 =
1 + c2−1
This equation can be solved for a unique value of c. Then, by substituting this value
for c and 6 for t into
900
n=
1 + c · 2−t
The value of n can be determined – Sufficient.
(2) Given that n = 300 when t = 2, then
900
300 =
1 + c2−2
This equation can be solved for a unique value of c. Then, by substituting this value
for c and 6 for t into
900
n=
1 + c · 2−t
the value of n can be determined – Sufficient.
The answer is D.

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Rate problems
GoGMAT, Session 8
To solve rate problems successfully you need to remember the following rules:

• The distance that an object travels is equal to the product of the average speed at
which it travels and the amount of time it takes to travel that distance:

Rate × Time = Distance

• To determine the average rate (speed) at which an object travels, divide the total
distance traveled by the total amount of traveling time:

Total Distance
Average speed =
Total Time
• Relative speed of oncoming object is sum of both speeds:

Relative speed (oncoming) = Speed(object 1) + Speed(object 2)

Example:

Two cyclists ride towards each other with their constant respective rates Ra and
Rb as shown on the figure above. If they started simultaneously and the distance
between A and B equals D, then how long will it take them to meet?
When the two cyclists ride towards each other, one covers Ra miles in one hour, and
the other – Rb miles, therefore, together they cover Ra + Rb miles in one hour. So,

Rtogether = Ra + Rb .

Now, the time the cyclists need to reach each other is given by the general formula:
D D
t= = .
Rtogether Ra + Rb

• Relative speed of two objects moving in the same direction is the difference between
their individual speeds:

Relative speed (overtaking) = Speed(faster object)−Speed(slower object )

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Example:

Two cyclists ride in the same direction with their constant respective rates Ra and
Rb , where Ra > Rb . If they started simultaneously and the distance between A and
B equals D, then how long will it take the faster cyclist to catch up the slower one?
When the two cyclists ride towards each other, one covers Ra miles in one hour, and
the other – Rb miles in the same direction, therefore, together they cover Ra − Rb
miles in one hour. So,
Rrelative = Ra − Rb ,
and the time the cyclists need to reach each other is given by the general formula:
D D
t= = .
Rrelative Ra − Rb

• Note the following points about the upstream/downstream motion:

Upstream means against the stream
Downstream means in same direction as the stream
Downstream

Boat’s speed = Speed of the boat in the still water + Speed of the stream

Upstream

Boat’s speed = Speed of the boat in the still water − Speed of the stream

It’s therefore easy to deduce, that

1
Speed in the still water = (Speed downstream + Speed upstream)
2

1
Speed of the stream = (Speed downstream − Speed upstream)
2
• Units conversion on GMAT.
The only conversions you need to know are the units of time
1 minute = 60 seconds,
1 hour = 60 minutes,

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1 day = 24 hours
Other units can be used in GMAT problems, but if you need to convert them, all
the necessary information about units relations will be provided in the problem.
Otherwise, it would be unfair to people who are not familiar with some region-
specific units.
Hint: when expressing units, treat them as factors, for example:

1 mile = 1760 yards

1 × mile = 1760 × yards
1 × mile
1 yard =
1760
Examples:
1. Convert 5 km per hour into meters per second

5 km 5 × 1000 m 25
= = m/sec
hour 60 × 60 sec 18
2. Convert 100 meters per minute into km per hour

100
100 m 1000
km 100km × 60
= 1 = = 6km/hour
minute 60
hour 1000hour
Practice:
1. (OG) A hiker walked for 2 days. On the second day the hiker walked 2 hours longer
and at an average speed 1 mile per hour faster than he walked on the first day. If
during the two days he walked a total of 64 miles and spent a total of 18 hours
walking, what was his average speed on the first day?
(A) 2
(В) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
2. (GC) A passenger sitting near the window in a train moving at 40 km/h noticed
that it took 3 seconds for the oncoming train to pass by. What was the speed of the
oncoming train if the length of the oncoming train was 75 meters?
(A) 50 km/h
(B) 52 km/h
(C) 56 km/h
(D) 60 km/h
(E) 70 km/h

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3. (OG) One hour after Yolanda started walking from X to Y, a distance of 45 miles,
Bob started walking along the same road from Y to X. If Yolanda’s walking rate
was 3 miles per hour and Bob’s was 4 miles per hour, how many miles had Bob
walked when they met?
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 21
(E) 19.5

4. (GC) A man can row 4 12 miles per hour in still water and he finds that it takes
him twice as long to row a certain distance upstream as to row the same distance
downstream. What is the rate of the river stream in miles per hour?
(A) 1 12
(B) 2
(C) 2 21
(D) 3
(E) 3 12

5. (GC) A hiker walking at a constant rate of 4 miles per hour is passed by a cyclist
travelling in the same direction along the same path at a constant rate of 20 miles
per hour. The cyclist stops and waits for the hiker 5 min after passing her while the
hiker continues walking at her constant rate. How many minutes must the cyclist
wait until the hiker catches up?
(A) 6 23
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
(E) 26 23

6. If an object travels 100 feet in 2 seconds, what is the object’s approximate speed in
miles per hour? (Note: 1 mile = 5280 feet)
(A) 3.4
(B) 3.8
(C) 34
(D) 38
(E) 340

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7. At a certain instant in time, the number of cars, N , traveling on a portion of a

certain highway can be estimated by the formula
20Ld
N= ,
600 + s2
where L is the number of lanes in the same direction, d is the length of the portion
of the highway, in feet, and s is the average speed of the cars, in miles per hour.
Based on the formula, what is the estimated number of cars traveling on a 21 mile
portion of the highway if the highway has 2 lanes in the same direction and the
average speed of the cars is 40 miles per hour? (5,280 feet = 1 mile)
(A) 155
(B) 96
(C) 80
(D) 48
(E) 24

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Answers and explanations

1. If the time spent walking on the first day is t1 , and the time spent walking on the
second day is t2 then t1 + t2 = 18.
We know that on the second day the hiker walked 2 hours longer, so, t2 = t1 + 2.
Solving the system of these two equations we get that walker spent 8 hours walking
on the first day and 10 hours on the second day.
If his speed on the first day was v1 and the speed on the second day was v2 , the
distance he walked a total is d = t1 v1 + t2 v2 , or 64 = 8v1 + 10v2 and, as on second
day his average speed was 1 mile per hour greater, v1 = v2 − 1.
So, we get 64 = 8(v2 − 1) + 10v2 . Thus, v1 = 3. The answer is B.

2. Here we have 2 objects – train 1 and train 2. Speed of train 1 is 40 km/h. Relative
speed of two trains is equal to 75m/3s=25 m/s. It can be expressed as 90 km/h,
because 1 m/s = 3.6 km/h. Since train 2 is oncoming, its speed is the difference
between relative speed and the speed of the train 1:
Train 2 speed = 90 − 40 = 50km/h.
Here we used formula:
Relative speed (oncoming) = speed (object 1) + speed (object 2)
The answer is A.

3. If t denotes time that Bob spent walking, then (t + 1) is the time that Yolanda
spent walking. Distance which Yolanda covered is 3(t + 1), and distance which Bob
covered is 4t. The total distance then is: 4t + 3(t + 1) = 45. So, t = 6 and Bob
walked 6 × 4 = 24 miles. Therefore, A is the answer.

4. Let’s draw a table. If v is the speed of the stream, then

Rate Distance Time

D
Upstream 4.5 − v D
4.5 − v
D
Downstream 4.5 + v D
4.5 + v

From the problem we know the relationship between the time upstream and the
time downstream:

D 2D
=
4.5 − v 4.5 + v
1 2
=
4.5 − v 4.5 + v
9 − 2v = 4.5 + v
v = 1.5

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The answer is A.

5. As the cyclist and the hiker move in one direction, they move away at a relative
rate of 8.
20m/h − 4m/h = 16m/h.
In 5 minutes or 1/12 hour after they met, the distance between the hiker and the
cyclist will be
16m 1
D= h
× 12
h = 34 m
The time that the hiker takes to cover 4/3 miles is
T = 34 m ÷ 4m
h
= 31 h = 20minutes
The answer is C.

6. The rate of the object in feet per second equals

100ft
2sec
= 50ft/sec
Now convert it to miles per hour:
50ft 50×60×60m 50×60×6m 750m
sec
= 5,280h
= 528h
= 22h
≈ 34m/h
The answer is C.

7. Substitute L = 2, d = 12 (5, 280), and s = 40 into the given formula and calculate
the value for N :

20 · 2 · 21 · 5, 280 20(5, 280) 528

N= 2
= = = 48
600 ÷ 40 2, 200 11
The answer is D.

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Work problems
GoGMAT, Session 8
Work problems on GMAT usually describe a situation when a number of people
(machines, pumps, etc.) work together. These problems are not too different from Rate
problems – only now we have the amount of work done instead of the distance. And the
rate of work is how much work can be done in an hour (minute, second, day, week, etc.).
In most problems the work is done at a uniform rate – meaning that the amount of work
done is some fixed unit of time is constant. So, we have the following formula here:
Total Work Done
Rate =
Total Time
We often need to find the time necessary for the group of workers (machines) to
complete a certain task. It’s easy to see, that if n workers/machines are working together
with respective constant rates Rate1 , Rate2 , ..., Raten , the rate of their collective work
equals:
Ratetogether = Rate1 + Rate2 + ... + Raten
Example:

• Worker A can finish a job in 4 hours. Worker B can finish the job in 6 hours. How
long does it take for Workers A and B to finish the job working together?

We know, that A can do 1/4 of the job in one hour, and worker B can finish 1/6 of
the job in one hour, therefore, if they join their efforts, they will complete 1/4+1/6 =
5/12 of the job in one hour. So, the whole job will be done in 12/5 hours or in 2 hours 24
minutes.
You might also meet a problem with pumps and pipes, filling swimming pools, tanks,
baths, etc.
Example:

• A tank can be filled by pipe in 5 hours. When the tank is full and a drainage hole is
open, the water is drained in 20 hours. If initially the tank was empty and someone
started the pump, but left the drainage hole open, how long does it take for the
tank to be filled?

In this case our two «workers» are the pipe and the drainage hole, but unlike the
previous example, they do not exactly work together – in this case the drainage hole
undoes the work done by the pipe. So, we get the formula

Ratefilling = Ratein − Rateout .

The rate of the pipe is 1/5 tank per hour, and the rate of the drainage hole is 1/20
tank per hour, so Ratefilling = 1/5 − 1/20 = 3/20 tank per hour. Therefore, the tank will
3
be full in 1 ÷ 20 = 20/3 hour, or 6 hours 40 minutes.

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Practice:

1. (OG) It takes one tube 6 hours to fill the dish with water. If it takes 4 hours for
another pipe to do the same job, how much time it would take for both pipes to fill
the same dish?
(A) 1
(B) 4.3
(C) 5/12
(D) 2
(E) 2.4

2. (GC) If Samson is filling a bathtub with COLD water, it will take him 6 minutes
and 40 seconds, and if he fills it with HOT water, it will take him 8 minutes. If
draining the tub takes 13 minutes 20 seconds, how many minutes will it take to fill
up the bath tub with both HOT and COLD water running while the plug is out, so
the water is constantly draining?
(A) 4.75
(B) 5
(C) 8.6
(D) 12
(E) 16

3. Twenty five men can reap a field in 20 days, each working with the same uniform
rate. How many days after all of them start working together should 15 men leave
the field, if the other 10 men finish the remaining part of the work in 37.5 days?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 7.5
(E) 8

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Answers and explanations

1. Using our formula, we get

1/T = 1/4 + 1/6 = (3 + 2)/12 = 5/12,
Therefore, T = 12/5 = 2.4 hours, thus, E is the answer.

2. Let’s count the rate for each variant:

COLD: 400 seconds to fill the whole tub or 1/400 tub a second;
HOT: 480 seconds to fill the whole tub or 1/480 tub a second;
Drain: 800 seconds to drain the whole tub or 1/800 tub a second.
We get water inflow/outflow per second:
1/400 + 1/480 − 1/800 = 12/4800 + 10/4800 − 6/4800 = 16/4800 = 1/300 = 1/T
T = 300.
So, it takes 300 seconds, or 5 minutes. The answer is B.

3. Let’s consider the concept of man-hours (or, to be more exact, man-days) in this
problem.
Twenty five man can do the total work in 20 days, so to reap the whole field we
need
25 men × 20 days = 500 man-days.
Let x denote the number of days they worked together. During these x days they
will complete
25 men × x days = 25x man-days.
After 15 men left, the remaining 10 men finished the work in 37.5 days, resulting in
10 men × 37.5 days = 375 man-days.
As a result, the whole work is completed. So,
500 = 375 + 25x
125 = 25x
x = 5.
The answer is A.

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Mixture Problems
GoGMAT, Session 8
In mixture problems, substances with different characteristics are combined, and it is
necessary to determine the characteristics of the resulting mixture. Concentration of the
substance in some mixture can be determined as:
Volume of the substance
Concentration of the substance =
Total volume of the mixture

If we have two solutions of some substance, and

x1 is the volume of the first solution,
x2 is the volume of the second solution,
c1 is the concentration of the substance in the first solution,
c2 is the concentration of the substance in the second solution,
then concentration C of the substance in the mixture of the two the substance in the first
solutions is given by formula

x 1 × c1 + x 2 × c2
C=
x1 + x2

Note, that mixture formula can be used not only for chemical substances!
Let’s consider some typical situations.
Assume, that we have 200 grams of 20% solution of salt.

50 grams of pure salt 120 grams of pure water 300 grams of 30%
are added to the initial are added to the initial solution of salt are
solution. Find the new solution. Find the new added to the initial
concentration. concentration. solution. Find the new
x1 = 200 x1 = 200 concentration.
x2 = 50 x2 = 120 x1 = 200
c1 = 20% = 0.2 c1 = 20% = 0.2 x2 = 300
c2 = 100% = 1 c2 = 0% = 0 c1 = 20% = 0.2
200×0.2+50×1
= 9/25 =
200×0.2+120×0
= 1/8 = c2 = 30% = 0.3
200+50 200+120
200×0.2+300×0.3
0.125 = 12.5% 200+300
= 13
50
=
0.36 = 36%
0.26 = 26%

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Practice

1. (OG) For an agricultural experiment, 300 seeds were planted in one plot and 200
were planted in a second plot. If exactly 25 percent of the seeds in the first plot
germinated and exactly 35 percent of the seeds in the second plot germinated, what
percent of the total number of seeds germinated?
(A) 12%
(B) 26%
(C) 29%
(D) 30%
(E) 60%

2. (GC) If 12 ounces of strong solution of vinegar is mixed with 50 ounces of water to

form three percent vinegar, what was the original strength of the vinegar solution?
(A) 19.3
(B) 17
(C) 16.67
(D) 15.5
(E) 12.5

3. (OG) A club sold an average of 92 raffle tickets per member. Among the female
members, the average number sold was 84, and among the male members, the
average number sold was 96. What was the ratio of the number of male members
to the number of female members in the club?
(A) 1:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 1:3
(D) 2:1
(E) 3:1

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Answers and explanations

1. If the number of seeds in the first plot is the volume of the first substance: x1 = 300,
the number of seeds in the second plot is the volume of the second substance:
x2 = 200, percent of germinated seeds is the concentration: c1 = 25, c2 = 35, and
the concentration of mixture is the percent of the total number of seeds germinated,
then we can write down the following equation:
300×25+200×35
C= 300+200
100(3×25+2×35) 145
C= 500
= 5
= 29%
So, the answer is C.

2. x1 = 50 ounces of water that have c1 = 0% of vinegar and x2 = 12 ounces of strong

solution have c2 % of vinegar. The resulting mixture has C = 3% of vinegar. Using
our formula we get:
50 × 0 + 12 × c2
=3
50 + 12
Solving this equation we get c2 = 15.5%.
The answer is D.

3. Let the number of female members be f and the number of male members be m.
Then we can write down such equation:
84f + 96m
= 92
f +m

Multiplying both parts by (f + m) we get:

84f + 96m = 92(f + m)

84f + 96m = 92f + 92m
4m = 8f
m = 2f

We need to find the the ratio of the number of male members to the number of
female members in the club, or simply m/f . From the last equation we can find
m : f = 2 : 1. The answer is D.

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Percentage and Profit Problems

GoGMAT, Session 9
We came across percentage problems at the beginning of our course in Arithmetic.
In this chapter we will sum everything up, review the tips helpful for percentage word
problems and define two new terms: simple interest and compound interest.

• Converting percent into decimals:

5% → 0.05
0.25% → 0.0025
p
• If some quantity X is increased by p%, multiply it by (1 + 100
):

p p
X ↑ p% = X + · X = (1 + )X
100 100
p
If some quantity X is decreased by p%, multiply it by (1 − 100
):

p p
X ↓ p% = X − · X = (1 − )X
100 100
For example,

Increased by 10% Decreased by 10%

X −−−−−−−−−→ 1.1X X −−−−−−−−−−→ 0.9X
Increased by 25% Decreased by 25%
X −−−−−−−−−→ 1.25X X −−−−−−−−−−→ 0.75X

This approach is especially convenient to organize multiple percent changes. Assume,

that X is increased by 40%, then increased by 25%, and finally decreased by 60%:
+40% +25% −60%
X −−−→ 1.4X −−−→ 1.4X × 1.25 −−−→ 1.4X × 1.25 × 0.4 = 0.7X.
In other words, this chain of percent changes is equivalent to a 30% decrease.
If some quantity X is increased by, for example, 10%, and then
Note: decreased by 10%, the result is not equal to X:
+10% −10%
X −−−→ 1.1X −−−→ 1.1X × 0.9 = 0.99X.
• To find the percent of increase or decrease of two quantities, first find their difference
and then divide it by the initial quantity (the one you compare with).
Example:
(1) 320 is what percent greater than 250?
(2) 250 is what percent smaller than 320?
It might seem, that the answer to both questions should be the same. But let’s take
a closer look:
70
(1) Percent of increase: 320 − 250 = 70, 250
· 100% = 28%
70
(2) Percent of decrease: 320 − 250 = 70, 320
· 100% = 21.875%

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• There are two types of interests on GMAT: simple and compound.

If the interest is simple, then each period the percent is calculated of the initial sum
invested.
If the interest is compound, then each period the percent is calculated of the previous
period result.
Assume that you have invested $100 at 10% annually. Here is how the amount will
grow depending on the type of interest:

10% simple annual interest 10% compound annual interest

Year 0 $100 Year 0 $100
+10$ ×1.1
Year 1 $110 Year 1 $110
+10$ ×1.1
Year 2 $120 Year 2 $121
Formula: Formula:

R = S(1 + t · i) R = S(1 + i)t

Where Where
R is the resulting sum R is the resulting sum
S is the initial sum S is the initial sum
i is interest as a decimal i is interest as a decimal
t is the number of periods t is the number of periods

Practice:

1. (OG) The price of a certain television set is discounted by 10 percent, and the
reduced price is then discounted by 10 percent. This series of successive discounts
is equivalent to a single discount of
(A) 20%
(B) 19%
(C) 18%
(D) 11%
(E) 10%

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2. A merchant purchased a jacket for $60 and then determined a selling price that
equaled the purchase price of the jacket plus 25 percent of the selling price. During
a sale, the merchant discounted the selling price by 20 percent and sold the jacket.
What was the merchant’s gross profit on this sale?
(A) $0
(B) $3
(C) $4
(D) $12
(E) $15
Problems testing graphics interpretation are quite rare on the quantitative part of
GMAT. Still take 2 minutes to solve the following problem:

3. Of the following, which is closest to the increase from 1975 to 1980 in the amount
received by the processor in producing 6 ounces of frozen orange juice?
(A) $0.03
(B) $0.05
(C) $0.06
(D) $0.08
(E) $0.13

4. On a certain date, Pat invested $10,000 at x percent annual interest, compounded

annually. If the total value of the investment plus interest at the end of 12 years will
be $40,000, in how many years will the total value of the investment plus interest
increase to $80,000?
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
(E) 24

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5. Mike invested a total of $5,000 at 5% simple annual interest rate for n years. Is
n > 4?
(1) At the end of n years, Mike’s investment plus interest was more than $5, 500.
(2) At the end of n years, Mike’s investment plus interest was less than $6,500.

6. Leona bought a 1-year, $10,000 certificate of deposit that paid interest at an annual
rate of 8 percent compounded semiannually. What was the total amount of interest
paid on this certificate at maturity?
(A) $10,464
(B) $864
(C) $816
(D) $800
(E) $480

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Answers and explanations

1. If the price of the television is p, after first reduction it becomes 0.9p and after second
reduction: 0.9p × 0.9p = 0.81p. So, such series of successive discounts is equivalent
to a single discount of p − 0.81p = 0.19p or simply 19%. The answer is B.

2. The selling price is the purchase price $60 plus 25% of the selling price. Let s denote
the selling price, then the equation can be written in the following way:

s = 60 + 0.25s
0.75s = 60
4
s = 60 × 3
s = 80.

After the selling price was reduced by 20%, it became $80×0.8 = $64.
Gross profit is the difference between total income and total cost: 64 − 60 = −4.
The answer is C.

3. The amount received by the processor was

0.317 × 0.3 in 1975
0.18 × 0.7 in 1980.
The increase was: 0.18 × 0.7 − 0.317 × 0.3 = 0.3(0.42 − 0.317) = 0.3 × 0.103 = 0.0309.
The answer is A.

4. According to the formula of compound interest, at the end

of the 12th year the total value of the investment will be:
x 12
40, 000 = 10, 000(1 + 100 )
If t is the number of years necessary for the sum to increase to $80,000, then
x t
80, 000 = 10, 000(1 + 100 )
Now, we have the system of equations. Firstly, simplify them:
x 12
4 = (1 + 100
)
x t
8 = (1 + 100
)
Finding the square root from both parts of the first equation, we get:
x 6
2 = (1 + 100
)
To get 8 in the left part of this equation, we need to cube both its parts:
x 18
8 = (1 + 100
)
So, t = 18. Answer C.

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5. Mike’s total income in n years can be calculated using the formula of simple interest.
From statement 1 we know, that
5, 000(1 + 0.05n) > 5, 500
5, 000 + 250n > 5, 500
n>2
But we do not know, whether n is greater than 4 or not. Not sufficient.
Statement 2 gives us the following inequality:
5, 000(1 + 0.05n) < 6, 500
5, 000 + 250n < 6, 500
n<6
Still we do not know if n is greater than 4. Combining the information from both
statements we obtain, that n is between 2 and 6, but it can be 3, 4, or 5, which
means, that n can be less then, equal to of greater than 4. The answer is E.

6. Using the formula R = S(1 + i)t , where R is the amount of money after t times
the compounding occurs (2 half-year periods), S is the initial amount invested
(10,000$), i is the interest rate per period (0.08/2 = 0.04), the given information
can be expressed as follows and solved for R:
R = 10, 000(1 + 0.04)2
R = 10, 000(1.04)2
R = 10, 816
So, the amount of interest is 10, 816 − 10, 000 = 816.
The answer is C.

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Overlapping Sets Problems

GoGMAT, Session 8
In mathematics a set is a collection of numbers or other objects. The objects are called
the elements of the set.
• If S is a set having a finite number of elements, then the number of elements is
denoted by |S|. Such a set is often defined by listing its elements.
For example, S = {−5, 0, 1} is a set with |S| = 3.
• The order in which the elements are listed in a set does not matter; thus
{−5, 0, 1} = {0, 1, −5}.
• If all the elements of a set S are also elements of a set T , then S is a subset of T .
For example, S = {−5, 0, 1} is a subset of T = {−5, 0, 1, 4, 10}.
• For any two sets A and B, the union of A and B is the set of all elements that are
in A or in B or in both. The intersection of A and B is the set of all elements
that are both in A and in B.
The union is denoted by ∪.
The intersection is denoted by ∩.
For example, if A = {3, 4} and B = {4, 5, 6}, then
A ∪ B = {3, 4, 5, 6}, and A ∩ B = {4}.
• Two sets that have no elements in common are said to be disjoint or mutually
exclusive.
The relationship between sets is often illustrated with a Eulerian circles (or Venn diagram)
in which sets are represented by regions in a plane.
This diagram illustrates a fact about any two finite sets
A and B: the number of elements in their union equals
the sum of their individual numbers of elements minus the
number of elements in their intersection (because the latter
are counted twice in the sum):
|A ∪ B| = |A| + |B| − |A ∩ B|

Practice
1. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, B = {2, 4, 6, 8}, then A ∩ B equals
(A) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
(B) {2, 4}
(C) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10}
(D) {9}
(E) {1, 2, 6, 8}

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2. C = {a, b, c, d}, D = {3, 4, b}, C ∪ D equals

(A) {a, b, c, d, 3, 4}
(B) {b}
(C) {3, 4}
(D) {b, d, 4}
(E) {a, c, 3, 4}
3. A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 3, 4}, C = {3, 4, 5}. (A ∩ B) ∩ C equals
(A) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(B) {1, 3, 5}
(C) {2, 3, 4}
(D) {1}
(E) {3}
Word problems that involve two or more given sets of data that partially intersect
with each other are called Overlapping Sets problems.
In this chapter we consider two approaches to such problems and both of them involve
visualization.
• Eulerian circles – help to solve problems with two or three overlapping sets.
• Tables – are good for dealing with two sets problems.
Let’s now see how they work.
Practice:
4. In a class of 30 students 15 students are taking math class and 25 are taking literature
class. If three students take neither math nor literature class, how many students
are taking both math and literature class?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 13
(E) 15
5. (OG) Of the 65 cars on a car lot, 45 have air-conditioning, 30 have power windows,
and 12 have both air conditioning and power windows. How many of the cars on
the lot have neither air-conditioning nor power windows?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 15
(E) 18

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The formula for three overlapping sets:

Assume that there are three sets of objects: A, B and C.
x, y and z represent the numbers of objects belonging to
exactly two of the sets, w objects belong to exactly three
– A, B and C simultaneously. Then
|A ∪ B ∪ C| = |A| + |B| + |C| − (x + y + z) −2w
| {z }
exactly two

Practice:

1. If the 600 residents of Clermontville, 35% watch the television show Island Survival,
40% watch Lovelost Lawyers and 50% watch Medical Emergency. If all residents
watch at least one of these three shows and 18% watch exactly 2 of these shows,
then how many Clermontville residents watch all of the shows?
(A) 150
(B) 108
(C) 42
(D) 21
(E) 35

2. In a group of 68 students, each student is registered for at least one of three classes
– History, Math and English. Twenty five students are registered for History, twenty
five students are registered for Math, and thirty four students are registered for
English. If only three students are registered for all three classes, how many students
are registered for exactly two classes?
(A) 13
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 7
(E) 5

Tables for two set Overlapping Sets problems

Another approach to more complex Overlapping Sets problems is organizing a table.
It’s extremely useful and time-saving for problems, where one set of objects is divided into
groups by two different properties. But it may take some time to master. Let’s consider
the following example:

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3. Out of a total of 1,000 employees at a certain corporation, 52 percent are female and
40 percent of these females work in research. If 60 percent of the total number of
employees work in research, how many male employees do NOT work in research?
(A) 520
(B) 480
(C) 392
(D) 208
(E) 88

The set of all workers is divided into groups by two characteristics:

1. By gender,
2. By a form of activity.
Let’s start organizing a table. When it is empty, it looks the following way:
Male Female Total
Work in
research
Do not work
in research
Total
Reading sentence by sentence, fill in the information in this order:
Out of a total of 1,000 employees at a certain corporation, 52 percent are female and
40 percent of these females work in research.
So, there are 0.52 · 1, 000 = 520 female employees, and 0.4 · 520 = 208 of them work in
research.
Male Female Total
Work in 208
research
Do not work
in research
Total 520 1,000
If 60 percent of the total number of employees work in research, so, the total number
of people working in research is 0.6 · 1000 = 600:
Male Female Total
Work in 208 600
research
Do not work
in research
Total 520 1,000
Now it’s easy to complete the table:

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Male Female Total

Work in 600 − 208 = 392 208 600
research
Do not work 480 − 392 = 88
in research
Total 1000 − 520 = 480 520 1,000
The correct answer is E.

4. Of a group of people surveyed in a political poll, 60 percent said that they would
vote for candidate R. Of those who said they would vote for R. 90 percent actually
voted for R. And of those who did not say that they would vote for R. 5 percent
actually voted for R. What percent of the group voted for R?
(A) 56%
(B) 59%
(C) 62%
(D) 65%
(E) 74%

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Answers and explanations

1. B

2. A

3. E

4. Step 1. From the problem we understand, that only 30 − 3 = 27 students participate

in at least one of the two classes.
Step 2. On the other hand, we know that 15 take math and 25 take literature.
Summing up the two quantities we get 15 + 25 = 40. Now, why is this sum greater
than the total number of students attending at least one of the two classes, which
is 27? The answer is because some of the students were considered twice while
summing 15 and 25. These are the students participating in both activities.
Step 3. So, to eliminate the desired quantity, we need to subtract 40 − 27 = 13.
Generally, the equation for this problem looks the following way:
30 = 15 + 25 − both + 3
27 = 40 − both
both = 13
The correct answer is D

5. Let’s draw the diagram for this problem.

According to the formula,

65 = 45 + 30 − 12 + neither
65 = 63 + neither
2 = neither
The correct answer is A.

6. According to the formula of the three overlapping sets,

A ∪ B ∪ C = A + B + C − (x + y + z) −2w
| {z }
exactly two

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Let’s first operate with percentages. There are three overlapping sets in this problem:
A ∪ B ∪ C = 100
A = 35%,
B = 40%,
C = 50%,
18% of people watch exactly two shows, so x + y + z = 18.
Substituting the given values, we obtain the following equation:
100 = 35 + 40 + 50 − 18 − 2w
2w = 35 + 40 + 50 − 18 − 100
2w = 7
w = 3.5
So, 3.5% of the residents watch all three shows, which is
3.5 × 600 = 21
The answer is D.

7. In terms of the formula for three overlapping sets, A ∪ B ∪ C = 68, A = 25, B = 25,
C = 34, 3 students are registered for all three classes, so w = 3.
Finally, the equation is
68 = 25 + 25 + 34 − «exactly two» − 6
«exactly two» = 25 + 25 + 34 − 68 − 6
«exactly two» = 10
The answer is B.

8. See explanation in the lesson.

9. Let’s organize a table.

Said they Said they would Total

would vote not vote
Actually 0.9 · 0.6T 0.05 · 0.4T 0.9·0.6T +0.05·0.4T =
voted 0.56T
Did not
vote
Total 0.6T T −0.6T = 0.4T T

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Home assignment
Word translations

1. (OG) Marion rented a car for $18.00 plus $0.10 per mile driven. Craig rented a car
for $25.00 plus $0.05 per mile driven. If each drove d miles and each was charged
the same amount for the rental, then d equals
(A) 100
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 140
(E) 150

2. (PR) A tourist has travelers’ checks in $20 and $100 denominations. How many $20
checks are there?
(1) If half of the $20 checks are spent, the remaining amount is $520.
(2) The total value of the checks is $740

3. (GC) Mary bought some kiwis, bananas, and lemons at the grocery store in
proportion of 1:4:7 accordingly. How many lemons did Mary buy?
(1) The total number of fruits Mary bought is 24.
(2) Mary bought 8 bananas.

4. (OG) In a weight-lifting competition, the total weight of Joe’s two lifts was 750
pounds. If twice the weight of his first lift was 300 pounds more than the weight of
his second lift, what was the weight, in pounds, of his first lift?
(A) 225
(B) 275
(C) 325
(D) 350
(E) 400

5. (OG) Jack is now 14 years older than Bill. If in 10 years Jack will be twice as old
as Bill, how old will Jack be in 5 years?
(A) 9
(B) 19
(C) 21
(D) 23
(E) 33

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6. (OG) A sum of $200,000 from a certain estate was divided among a spouse and
three children. How much of the estate did the youngest child receive?
(1) The spouse received 1/2 of the sum from the estate, and the oldest child received
1/4 of the remainder
(2) Each of the two younger children received $12,500 more than the oldest child
and $62,500 less than the spouse

7. (OG) If the Lincoln Library’s total expenditure for books, periodicals, and
newspapers last year was $35,000, how much of the expenditure was for books?
(1) The expenditure for newspaper was 40 percent greater than the expenditure for
periodicals
(2) The total of the expenditure for periodicals and newspapers was 25 percent less
than the expenditure for books

8. (OG) A certain bakery sells rye bread in 16-ounce loaves and 24-ounce loaves, and
all loaves of the same size sell for the same price per loaf regardless of the number of
loaves purchased. What is the price of a 24-ounce loaf of rye bread in this bakery?
(1) The total price of a 16-ounce loaf and a 24-ounce loaf of this bread is $2.40
(2) The total price of two 16-ounce loaves and one 24-ounce loaf of this bread is
$3.40.

9. (OG) In a certain company the ratio of the number of managers to the number of
production line workers is 5 to 72. If 8 additional production-line workers were to be
hired, the ratio of the number of managers to the number of production-line workers
would be 5 to 74, How many managers does the company have?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
(E) 25

10. (OG) The sum of the ages of Doris and Fred is y years. If Doris is 12 years older
than Fred, how many years will Fred be y years from now, in terms of y?
(A) y − 6
(B) 2y − 6
(C) y/2 − 6
(D) 3y/2 − 6
(E) 5y/2 − 6

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11. (OG) In a certain furniture store, each week Nancy earns a salary of $240 plus a 5
percent of the amount of her total sales that exceeds $800 for the week. If Nancy
earned a total $450 one week, what were her total sales that week?
(A) $2200
(B) $3450
(C) $4200
(D) $4250
(E) $5000

12. (OG) What is the number of female employees in Company X?

(1) If Company X were to hire 14 more workers and all of these workers were females,
the ratio of the number of male employees to the number of female employees would
then be 16 to 9
(2) Company X has 105 more male employees than female employees

13. (OG) A swim club that sold only individual and family memberships charged $300
for an individual membership. If the club’s total revenue from memberships was
$480,000, what was the charge for a family membership?
(1) The revenue from individual memberships was 1/4 of the total revenue from
memberships
(2) The club sold 1.5 times as many family memberships as individual memberships

14. (OG) Currently there are 50 picture books on each shelf in the children’s section of
a library. If these books were to be placed on smaller shelves with 30 picture books
on each shelf, how many of the smaller shelves would be needed to hold all these
books?
(1)The number of smaller shelves needed is 6 more than the current number of
shelves
(2)Currently there are 9 shelves in the children’s section

15. (OG) If Sara’s age is exactly twice Bill’s age, what is Sara’s age?
(1) Four years ago, Sara’s age was exactly 3 times Bill’s age
(2) Eight years from now, Sara’s age will be exactly 1.5 times Bill’s age

16. (OG) If Aaron, Lee, and Tony have a total of $36, how much money does Tony
have?
(1) Tony has twice as much money as Lee and 1/3 as much as Aaron
(2) The sum of the amounts of money that Tony and Lee have is half the amount
that Aaron has

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17. (OG) A bookstore that sells used books sells each of its paperback books for a
certain price and each of its hardcover books for a certain price. If Joe, Marina, and
Paul bought books in this store, how much did Maria pay for 1 paperback book and
1 hardcover book?
(1) Joe bought 2 paperback books and 3 hardcover books for $12.50
(2) Paul bought 4 paperback books and 6 hardcover books for $25.00

18. The temperature of a certain cup of coffee 10 minutes after it was poured was 120
degree Fahrenheit. If the temperature F of the coffee t minutes after it was poured
can be determined by the formula

F = 120(2at ) + 60,

where F is in degrees Fahrenheit and a is a constant, then the temperature of the

coffee 30 minutes after it was poured was how many degrees Fahrenheit?
(A) 65
(B) 75
(C) 80
(D) 85
(E) 90

19. (GC) Aunt Marge is giving candy to each of her nephews and nieces. She has 20
candy pieces and she gives candy to children according to her wish. Thus, Robert
gets 2 more candy pieces than Kate. Bill gets 6 less than Mary. Mary, in turn, gets
2 more candy than Robert. Kate gets 2 more candy than Bill. How many candy
pieces does Kate get?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 10

20. What is sum of cost of one apple, one orange and one pear, in dollars?
(1) The cost of one apple, two oranges, and three pears is 10 dollars.
(2) The cost of one apple, three oranges, and five pears is 14 dollars.

21. (GC) One fisherman was telling his friends that he caught a fish that had a 60 foot
long head. It also had a tail that was the size of the fish’s head and a half of its
body, and the body was half the size of the whole fish. What is the length of this
fish?
(A) 120

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(B) 200
(C) 240
(D) 400
(E) 480

Rate problems

1. (OG) How many miles long is the route from Houghton to Callahan?
(1) It will take 1 hour less time to travel the entire route at an average rate of 55
miles per hour than at an average rate of 50 miles per hour
(2) It will take 11 hours to travel the first half of the route at an average rate of 25
miles per hour

2. (OG) If it took Mike 3 hours to ride 162 kilometers, what was his average speed,
meters per second?
(A) 1.5
(B) 5
(C) 5.4
(D) 15
(E) 54

3. Andrew and Stephen drive on the highway in the same direction at respective rates
of 72 and 80 kmh. If Stephen is 4 km behind Andrew, by how much does he have
to increase his speed to catch up with Andrew in 20 minutes?
(A) 1 km/h
(B) 2 km/h
(C) 3 km/h
(D) 4 km/h
(E) 5 km/h

4. (GC) Maureen runs a 26-mile marathon in 5.4 hours. If she runs the first half of the
race in 2.8 hours, what is her average rate, in miles per hour, for the second half of
the race?
(A) 10
(B) 9 72
(C) 7
(D) 6 12
(E) 5

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5. (MH) A hiker walked for 3 days. She walked 18 miles on the first day, walking 3
miles per hour. On the second day she walked for one less hour but she walked one
mile per hour faster than on the first day. On the third day she walked the same
number of hours as on the first day, but at the same speed as on the second day.
How many miles in total did she walk?
(A) 60
(B) 58
(C) 62
(D) 24
(E)44

6. A boy can row a boat at a constant rate of 5 miles per hour in still water. In a
river with the constant current rate, he rows upstream for 15 minutes and then rows
downstream, returning to his starting point in another 12 minutes. What is the rate
of the current, in miles per hour?
(A) 5/9
(B) 5
(C) 9
(D) 25
(E) 45

7. (MH) The time it took car P to travel 600 miles was 2 hours less than the time it
took car R to travel the same distance. If car P’s average speed was 10 miles per
hour greater than that of car R, what was car R’s average speed, in miles per hour?
(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60
(E) 70

8. (GoGMAT) A fly and a train are moving towards each other along a straight rail
track. If the train remained stationary, the fly would reach the train in 4 hours. If
the fly remained stationary, the train would hit it in 3 hours. Both the fly and the
train started moving at the same time towards each other. After one hour and 20
minutes of flight, the fly will stop and remain stationary at its new position. The
train will continue to move towards the fly at its usual speed. How long after the
journey began will the train hit the fly?
(A) 1/9 hour
(B)2/3 hour
(C) 7/9 hour

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(D) 4/3 hour

(E) 2 hours

9. (GC) A cyclist rides his bicycle over a route which is 1/3 uphill, 1/3 level, and 1/3
downhill. If he covers the uphill part of the route at the rate of 16 miles per hour
and the level part at the rate of 24 miles per hour, what rate in miles per hour
would he have to travel the downhill part of the route in order to average 24 miles
per hour for the entire route?
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 44
(E) 48

10. (GP) If a motorist had driven 1 hour longer on a certain day and at an average rate
of 5 miles per hour faster, he would have covered 70 more miles than he actually
did. How many more miles would he have covered than he actually did if he had
driven 2 hours longer and at an average rate of 10 miles per hour faster on that day?
(A) 100
(B) 120
(C) 140
(D) 150
(E) 160

Work Problems

1. (MG) Mr. Bridges can wash his car in 15 minutes, while his son Dave takes twice
as long to do the same job. If they work together, how many minutes will the job
take them?
(A) 5
(B) 7.5
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) 22.5

2. (GC) Bill takes 20 days to empty a 50-liter barrel of beer and, together with Henry,
he can empty it in 14 days, how many days will it take Henry to finish a barrel of
beer by himself?
(A) 17
(B) 33

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(C) 46
(D) 47
(E) 58

3. (OG) Hoses X and Y simultaneously fill an empty swimming pool that has a capacity
of 50,000 liters. If the flow in these hoses is independent, how many hours will it
take to fill the pool?
(1) Hose X alone would take 28 hours to fill the pool.
(2) Hose Y alone would take 36 hours to fill the pool.

4. (MH) If a copier makes 3 copies every 4 seconds, then continues at this rate, how
many minutes will it take to make 9,000 copies?
(A) 3,000
(B) 200
(C) 120
(D) 100
(E) 60

5. Matt and Peter can do together a certain work in 20 days. After they have worked
together for 12 days Matt stops and Peter completes the remaining work in 10 days.
In how many days can Peter complete the work separately?
(A) 26
(B) 27
(C) 23
(D) 25
(E) 24

6. (OG) Three machines, individually, can do a certain job in 4, 5, and 6 hours,

respectively. What is the greatest part of the job that can be done in one hour
by two of the machines working together at their respective rates?
(A) 11/30
(B) 9/20
(C) 3/5
(D) 11/15
(E) 5/6

7. (GC) Water flows into an empty tank of 54 liters via 12 small pipes. The rate of
each pipe is 1 liter per hour. However, water flows out of the tank via several big
pipes at the rate of 1.5 liter per hour. If after 12 hours, the tank is completely full,
how many big pipes are there?

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(A) 2.5
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

8. (MH) An employee at a company was given the task of making a large number of
copies. He spent the first 45 minutes making copies at a constant rate on copier A,
but copier A broke down before the task was completed. He then spent the next
30 minutes finishing the task on copier B, which also produced copies at a constant
rate. How many total minutes would the task have taken had copier A not broken
down?
(1) Copier B produces 10 copies per minute.
(2) Copier A produced twice as many copies in its first 5 minutes of operation as
copier B produced in its first 15 minutes.

9. (GC) In a TV factory 9 persons can assemble 10 tv sets in 20 days of 7 1/2 working

hours. How long will it take 12 persons to assemble 20 tv sets working 6 hours per
day, if 2 persons in the latter case do as much work as 3 men in the former?
(A) 10
(B) 12.5
(C) 20
(D) 25
(E) 50

10. (GC) It takes 6 technicians 10 hours to build and program a new server from Direct
Computer, each working at the same uniform rate. If six technicians start to build
the server at 11:00 AM, and one technician per hour is added beginning at 5:00 PM,
at what time will the server be complete?
(A) 6:40 PM
(B) 7:00 PM
(C) 7:20 PM
(D) 7:40 PM
(E) 8:00 PM

Mixture Problems

1. (OG) If 3 pounds of dried apricots that cost x dollars per pound are mixed with
2 pounds of prunes that cost y dollars per pound, what is the cost, in dollars, per
pound of the mixture?
(A) (3x + 2y)/5

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(B) (3x + 2y)/(x + y)

(C) (3x + 2y)/(xy)
(D) 5(3x + 2y)
(E) 3x + 2y

2. (GC) In what proportion must sugar at $3.1 per pound be mixed with sugar at $3.6
per pound, so that the mixture costs $3.25 per pound?
(A) 1:2
(B) 3:2
(C) 7:3
(D) 3:7
(E) 2:3

3. (OG) A $500 investment and a $1,500 investment have a combined yearly return of
8.5 percent of the total of the two investments. If the $500 investment has a yearly
return of 7 percent, what percent yearly return does the $1,500 investment have?
(A) 9%
(B) 10%
(C) 10.625%
(D) 11%
(E) 12%

4. (GC) Committee X and Committee Y, which have no common members, will

combine to form Committee Z. Does Committee X have more members than
Committee Y?
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) age of the members of Committee X is 25.7 years
and the average age of the members of Committee Y is 29.3 years
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) age of the members of Committee Z will be 26.6
years

5. (OG) During a certain season, a team won 80 percent of its first 100 games and
50 percent of its remaining games. If the team won 70 percent of its games for the
entire season, what was the total number of games the team played?
(A) 180
(B) 170
(C) 156
(D) 150
(E) 105

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6. (OG) A rabbit on a controlled diet is fed daily 300 grams of a mixture of two foods,
food X and food Y. Food X contains 10 percent protein and food Y contains 15
percent protein. If the rabbit’s diet provides exactly 38 grams of protein daily, how
many grams of food X are in the mixture?
(A) 100
(B) 140
(C) 150
(D) 160
(E) 200

7. (OG) On Jane’s credit card account, the average daily balance for a 30-day billing
cycle is the average of the daily balances at the end of each of the 30 days. At the
beginning of a certain 30-day billing cycle, Jane’s credit card account had a balance
of $600. Jane made a payment of $300 on the account during the billing cycle. If
no other amounts were added to or subtracted from the account during the billing
cycle, what was the average daily balance on Jane’s account for the billing cycle?
(1)Jane’s payment was credited on the 21st day of the billing cycle
(2)The average daily balance through the 25th day of the billing cycle was $540

8. (GC) If 200 lbs. of a mixture is 80 percent husk and 20 percent sand. Then how
much husk should be extracted in order to have 75 percent concentration of husk?
(A) 1/4
(B) 20/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 40
(E) 60

9. (MG) How many ounces of pure acid must be added to 20 ounces of a solution that
is 5% acid to strengthen it to a solution that is 24% acid?
(A) 5
(B) 5.5
(C) 6
(D) 7.5
(E) 10

10. (GC) How must a grocer mix 4 types of peanuts worth 54 c, 72 c, $1.2 and $1.44
per pound so as to obtain a mixture at 96 cents per pound?
(A) 8:4:4:7
(B) 24:12:12:50
(C) 4:8:7:4

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(D) 16:42:28:10
(E) Cannot be uniquely determined
Percentage and profit problems
1. (GC) If today the price of an item is $3,600, what was the price of the item exactly
2 years ago?
(1) The price of the item increased by 10 percent per year during this 2-year period
(2) Today the price of the item is 1.21 times its price exactly 2 years ago

2. (OG) Tickets for all but 100 seats in a 10,000-seat stadium were sold. Of the tickets
sold, 20 percent were sold at half of the price and the remaining tickets were sold
at the full price of $2. What was the total revenue from ticket sales?
(A) $15,840
(B) $17,820
(C) $18,000
(D) $19,800
(E) $21,780

3. (OG) Increasing the original price of an article by 15 percent and then increasing
the new price by 15 percent is equivalent to increasing the original price by
(A) 32.25%
(B) 31.00%
(C) 30.25%
(D) 30.00%
(E) 22.50%

4. (OG) A certain manufacturer produces items which the production costs consist of
annual fixed costs totalling $130,000 and variable costs averaging $8 per item. If the
manufacturer’s selling price per item is $15, how many items must the manufacturer
produce and sell to earn an annual profit of $150,000?
(A) 2,858
(B) 18,667
(C) 21,429
(D) 35,000
(E) 40,000

5. (OG) An author received $0.80 in royalties for each of the first 100,000 copies of
her book sold, and $0.60 in royalties for each additional copy sold. If she received a
total of $260,000 in royalties, how many copies of her book were sold?
(A) 130,000

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(B) 300,000
(C) 380,000
(D) 400,000
(E) 420,000

6. The market value of a certain machine decreased by 30 percent of its purchase price
each year. If the machine was purchased in 1982 for its market value of $8,000, what
was its market value two years later?
(A) $8,000
(B) $5,600
(C) $3,200
(D) $2,400
(E) $800

7. On January, 1, 2002, Michael invested a certain amount of money at r percent

interest rate, compounded annually. What is the value of r?
(1) At the end of 2004, the investment plus the total interest was $ 5,955.
(2) At the end of 2006, the investment plus the total interest was $ 6,690.

8. The graph above shows the combined revenue, in billions of dollars, of a chain of
food stores for each year over a four-year period. In 1994 a certain store’s revenue
accounted for 2.0 percent of the combined revenue for that year, and in 1995 the
same store accounted for 2.3 percent of the combined revenue for that year. What
was the approximate percent increase in revenue for this store from 1994 to 1995?
(A) 0.3%
(B) 15.0%
(C) 25.0%
(D) 30.4%
(E) 43.8%

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9. (OG) Henry purchased 3 items during a sale. He received a 20 percent discount off
the regular price of the most expensive item and 10 percent discount off the regular
price of each of the other 2 items. Was the total amount of the 3 discounts greater
than 15 percent of the sum of the regular prices of the 3 items?
(1) The regular price of the most expensive item was $50, and theregular price of
the next most expensive item was $20
(2) The regular price of the least expensive item was $15
10. (GC) $20,000 was deposited into bank, with interest compounded quarterly. What
is compound interest?
(1) The interest in the second quarter is 1.1 times more than the first quarter.
(2) The interest in the second quarter is 200 dollars more than the first quarter.
11. (GC) A filter decreases concentration of harmful substances in the water by 50%.
How many filters are required to clean 200 liters of water containing 0.5 liters
of harmful substances if the water that contains less than 0.1 percent of harmful
substances is considered clean?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 4
(E) 2
12. Alex deposited x dollars into a new account that earned 8 percent annual interest,
compounded annually. One year later Alex deposited an additional x dollars into the
account. If there were no other transactions and if the account contained w dollars
at the end of two years, which of the following expresses x in terms of w?
w
(A) 1+1.08
w
(B) 1.08+1.16
w
(C) 1.16+1.24
w
(D) 1.08+(1.08)2
w
(E) (1.08)2 +(1.08)3

13. (GC) The price of a certain commodity increased at a rate of X% per year between
2000 and 2004. If the price was A dollars in 2001 and B dollars in 2003, what was
the price in 2002 in terms of A and B?
√
(A) A × B
p
(B) B × B/A
√
(C) B × A
√
(D) B × A B
(E) B × A3/2

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14. (GC) If the circus were to sell all of its 220 tickets for this month’s performance at
their usual price, the revenue from sales would be 10% greater than that collected
last month. However, the circus raised the ticket price by 5% and sold only 200
tickets as a result. What percent less was last month’s revenue than that of this
month?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 110/20
(D) 100/21
(E) 8/4
15. One-fifth of the light switches produced by a certain factory are defective. Four-
fifths of the defective switches are rejected and 1/20 of the non-defective switches
are rejected by mistake. If all the switches not rejected are sold, what percent of the
switches sold by the factory are defective?
(A) 4%
(B) 5%
(C) 6.25%
(D) 11%
(E) 16%
16. John deposited $10,000 to open a new savings account that earned 4 percent annual
interest,compounded quarterly. If there were no other transactions in the account,
what was the amount of money in John’s account 6 months after the account was
opened?
(A) $10,100
(B) $10,101
(C) $10,200
(D) $10,201
(E) $10,400
Overlapping Sets Problems
The questions 1 – 2 refer to the following sets:
A = {1, 3, 2, 5}. B = {2, 4, 6}. C = {1, 3, 5}.
1. (A ∪ B) ∩ C equals
(A) {1, 2, 3}
(B) {2, 4, 5}
(C) {1, 2, 5}
(D) {1, 3, 5}
(E) {3, 4, 5}

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2. (A ∩ B) ∪ C equals
(A) {1, 2, 3, 5}
(B) {4}
(C) {2, 4}
(D) {1, 3, 5}
(E) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}

3. A set consists of 12 numbers, all are even or multiple of 5. If 5 numbers are even
and 8 numbers are multiple of 5, how many numbers is multiple of 10?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 5

4. In Company X, 30 percent of the employees live over ten miles from work and 60
percent of the employees who live over ten miles from work are in car pools. If
40 percent of the employees of Company X are in car pools, what percent of the
employees of Company X live ten miles or less from work and are in car pools?
(A) 12%
(B) 20%
(C) 22%
(D) 28%
(E) 32%

5. On a certain road, 10 percent of the motorists exceed the posted speed limit and
receive speeding tickets, but 20 percent of the motorists who exceed the posted
speed limit do not receive speeding tickets. What percent of the motorists on that
road exceed the posted speed limit?
(A) 10.5%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 15%
(D) 22%
(E) 30%

6. One night 18 percent of the female officers on a police force were on duty. If 180
officers were on duty that night and half of these were female officers, how many
female officers were on the police force?
(A) 90

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(B) 180
(C) 270
(D) 500
(E) 1,000

7. Of the high school students who participated in a recent survey, 110 had taken
a course in biology and 230 had taken a course in history. How many students
participated in the survey?
(1) Of the students who participated in the survey, 120 had taken neither a course
in biology nor a course in history.
(2) Of the students who participated in the survey, 60 had taken both a course in
biology and a course in history.

8. Of the n students in a certain class, x took a course in biology and y took a course in
history, and z took neither of the courses. If there were students who took exactly
two courses, in terms of n, x, y, and z, what fraction of the students took both
courses?
x+y+z
(A) 1 − n
x+y+z
(B) n
−1
x+y−z−n
(C) n
n+x+y−z
(D) n
n−x−y+z
(E) n

9. There are twenty four dogs in a kennel. Twelve of the dogs are black, six of the
dogs have short tails, and fifteen of the dogs have long hair. There is only one dog
that is black with a short tail and long hair. Two of the dogs are black with short
tails and do not have long hair. Two of the dogs have short tails and long hair but
are not black. If all of the dogs in the kennel have at least one of the mentioned
characteristics, how many dogs are black with long hair but do not have short tails?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6

10. All trainees in a certain aviator training program must take both a written test and
a flight test. If 70 percent of the trainees passed the written test, and 80 percent of
the trainees passed the flight test, what percent of the trainees passed both tests?
(1) 10 percent of the trainees did not pass either test.
(2) 20 percent of the trainees passed only the flight test.

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11. How many of the boys in a group of 100 children have brown hair?
(1) Of the children in the group, 60 percent have brown hair.
(2) Of the children in the group, 40 are boys.

12. A group of people participate in some curriculums, 20 of them practice Yoga, 10

study cooking, 12 study weaving, 3 of them study cooking only, 4 of them study
cooking and yoga only, 2 of them participate all curriculums. How many people
study cooking and weaving only?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

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Answers

Question № Answer Question № Answer Question № Answer

Word Translations Work Problems Mixtures Problems
1. D 1. D 1. A
2. C 2. D 2. C
3. D 3. C 3. A
4. D 4. B 4. C
5. D 5. D 5. D
6. B 6. B 6. B
7. B 7. C 7. D
8. C 8. B 8. D
9. D 9. D 9. A
10. D 10. E 10. E
11. E Percentage and Profit
12. C 1. D
13. C 2. B
14. D 3. A
15. D 4. E
16. A 5. D
17. E 6. C
18. B 7. C
19. B 8. E
20. C 9. A
21. E 10. D
Rate Problems 11. E
1. D 12. D
2. D 13. A
3. D 14. D
4. E 15. B
5. C 16. D
6. A Overlapping Sets Problems
7. C 1. D
8. E 2. A
9. E 3. B
10. D 4. C
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. E
12. A

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Test №5. Word problems

1. Of the 200 students in a college, 125 learned Spanish and 81 learned French. How
many students learn neither Spanish nor French?
(1) 40 percent of the students who learned Spanish also learned French.
(2) 50 out of the students who learn French did learn Spanish.

2. Train A leaves the station traveling at 30 miles per hour. Two hours later train В
leaves the same station traveling in the same direction at 40 miles per hour. How
far from the station was train A overtaken by train B?
(A) 180
(B) 240
(C) 270
(D) 300
(E) 320

3. Each of six students, four girls and two boys, spent an average of $60 on books. If
the girls spent a total amount of $300, how much did boy X and Y spends on books?
(1) X spent twice as much as Y spent on books.
(2) X spent $20 more than Y on books.

4. Of the students in a certain class, 55% of the female and 35% of the male passed an
exam. Did more than half of the students in the class pass the exam?
(1) More than half of the students in the class are female.
(2) The number of the female students is 20 more than the number of the male
students.

5. Jim traveled from X to Y,and arrived at Z. If the average speed for the whole trip
was 60 miles per hour, what is the average speed for the trip from Y to Z?
(1) The average speed for the trip from X to Y is 55 miles per hour.
(2) It took Jim 0.5 hour from Y to Z.

6. A riverboat leaves Mildura and travels upstream to Renmark at an average speed

of 6 miles per hour. It returns by the same route at an average speed of 9 miles per
hour. What is its average speed for the round trip, in miles per hour?
(A) 7.0
(B) 7.2
(C) 7.5
(D) 7.8
(E) 8.2

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7. There are only three kinds of books on a bookshelf, science book, novel book, and
workbooks, in the ratio of 2 to 5 to 7. What is the total number of the books on the
shelf?
(1) There are less than 5 science books on the shelf.
(2) The total number of novel book and workbook is 24.

8. If 0 < n < m < 1, m2 − n2 must be less than which of the following expressions?
(A) m − n
m+n
(B) 2
(C) mn
(D) (m + n)2
(E) (m − n)2

9. Steve took a math test that consists of basic questions and advanced questions.
A correct answer to the basic question will gain 1 point and a correct answer to
advanced question will gain 2 points. How many questions does the test consist of?
(1) Steve answered 80% of the basic question and 30gained 88 points.
(2) There are twice as many advanced questions as the basic question.

10. A set consists of 12 numbers, all are even or multiples of 5. If 5 numbers are even
and 8 numbers are multiples of 5, how many numbers are multiples of 10?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 5

11. Seven students each bought some books on a book fair. Is the total number of books
they bought greater than 27?
(1) No student bought more than 7 books.
(2) No two students bought same number of books.

12. Of the people stand in a line waiting for service, 20% have waited for more than
5 minutes and 8% have waited for more than 8 minutes. How many people have
waited for more than 5 minutes and no more than 8 minutes?
(1) 20 people waited for no more than 5 minutes.
(2) 2 people have waited for more than 8 minutes.

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13. On a certain date, Jack invested $13,000 at x percent simple annual interest and
a different amount at y percent simple annual interest. If he earned same amount
of interest from two investments, what amount did Jack invest at y percent simple
annual interest?
(1) The amount of interest earned by Jack from the investment that pay x% interest
was $390.
(2) The ratio of x to y is 3 to 2.

14. Maura drives to work in 40 minutes. She takes the same route to return home. If
her average speed on the trip home is half as fast as her average speed on the trip
to work, how much time does she spend driving on the round trip?
(A) 1 hour
(B) 1 hour, 15 minutes
(C) 1 hour, 20 minutes
(D) 1 hour, 40 minutes
(E) 2 hours

15. If m, n, and mn are nonzero integers, which of the following must be true?
I. mn is positive
II. nm is an integer
III. nm is positive
(A) None
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) III only
(E) I and II only

16. What is the remainder when positive integer x is divided by 6?

(1) 15x is divisible by 2.
(2) 15x is divisible by 3.

17. Which of the following must be greater than x?

I. 2x
II. x2
III. x2 + 1
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only

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(D) I and II only

(E) II and III only

18. Working together at their respective rates, machine А, В, and C can finish a certain
work in hours. How many hours will it take A to finish the work independently?
(1) Working together, A and В can finish the work in 4 hours.
(2) Working together, В and C can finish the work in hours.

19. 3/4 of the employees at a global company are female. If all the employees are from
American, Canadian, or Mexican, what percent of the male employees are Canadian?
(1) 4/5 of the female are American or Mexican.
(2) 1/3 of all the employees are Canadian.

20. One inlet pipe fills an empty tank in 5 hours. A second inlet pipe fills the same tank
in 3 hours. If both pipes are used together, how long will it take to fill 2/3 of the
tank?
(A) 8/15
(B) 15/8
(C) 3/4
(D) 5/4
(E) 8/3

21. In a survey of 200 college graduates, 30 percent said they had received student loans
during their college careers, and 40 percent said they had received scholarships.
What percent of those surveyed said that they had received neither student loans
nor scholarships during their college careers?
(1) 25 percent of those surveyed said that they had received scholarships but no
loans.
(2) 50 percent of those surveyed who said that they had received loans also said
that they had received scholarships.

22. Machine A can finish 14 of a work in 4 hours, while В can finish 16 of the work in 2
hours, and C can finish 31 of the work in 8 hours. How many hours will it take for
A, B, and C together to finish the work?
8
(A) 3
14
(B) 3
16
(C) 3
7
(D) 8
7
(E) 3

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23. John always jogs to school at a speed of 6 kilometers per hour, and walks home
along the same route at a speed of 3 kilometers per hour. If he spends exactly one
hour total traveling both ways, how many kilometers is his school from his home?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 9

24. What is the remainder when x is divided by 12?

(1) When x is divided by 4, the remainder is 3.
(2) When x is divided by 36, the remainder is 27.

25. Of the residents in Stamford, 75% have a laptop, 40% have both laptop and desktop,
and 5% have none. What percent of the residents have only desktop?
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
(E) 30%

26. The students in a certain class each joined a club: basketball club, soccer club, or
swimming club. What fraction of the students joined swimming club?
(1) The number of the students who joined the basket club is three times the number
of the students who joined the soccer club.
(2) The number of the students who joined the swimming club is twice the number
of the students who joined soccer club or basketball club.

27. During a certain day, a bookshop sold 100 used books and 50 new books. Is the
revenue on new books sold greater than the revenue on used books sold?
(1) The price for any new book is more than twice the price for the most expensive
used book.
(2) The average price for all of the new books is more than twice the average price
for all of the used books.

28. On January 1, 2003, Jack invested $5,000 at r percent interest rate, compounded
annually. What is the value of r?
(1) The investment plus the total interest at the end of 2004 was $550 more than
the amount at the end of 2003.
(2) The investment plus the total interest at the end of 2004 increased by 21% from
the original investment.

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29. A 50-liter solution of alcohol and water is 5 percent alcohol. If 1 12 liters of alcohol and
8 12 liters of water are added to this solution, what percent of the solution produced
is alcohol?
(A) 5 12 %
(B) 6 %
(C) 6 31 %
(D) 6 23 %
(E) 7 %

30. Working at their respective constant rates, printing machine X, Y, and Z can finish
a certain work in 9, 12, and 18 hours. If three machines work together to finish the
work, what fraction of the work will be finished by the machine Z?
4
(A) 9
1
(B) 3
1
(C) 4
2
(D) 9
1
(E) 9

31. Solution X is 25 percent mercury and solution Y is 10 percent mercury. If 12 ounces

of solution X are added to 13 ounces of solution Y, approximately what percent of
the resulting solution will be mercury?
(A) 12 %
(B) 17 %
(C) 21 %
(D) 23 %
(E) 37 %

32. What is the sum of 5 evenly spaced integers?

(1) The middle integer is zero
(2) Exactly 2 of the integers are negative

30. D 31. B
A 16. E 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. D 29. D
Answers: 1. D 2. B 3. D 4. E 5. E 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. E 15.

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Lesson №6. Geometry

On average, geometry questions account for about 20% of quantitative section in GMAT
test, and they can determine the difference between a good and an excellent score. The
key to cracking tricky Geometry questions is to know the properties of different shapes,
and practice a variety of questions.
We have divided GMAT Geometry into six basic topics:

• Lines and angles

• Triangles

• Quadrilaterals (squares, rectangles, parallelograms, etc.)

• Circles

• Simple Solids (cubes, cylinders, spheres, etc.)

• Coordinate Geometry

Let us consider them one by one.

Lines and angles

GoGMAT, Session 10
In geometry, the word «line» refers to a straight line that extends without end in both
directions.

The line above can be referred to as line P Q, or line l.

The part of the line from point P to point Q is called a linesegment. P and Q are
the endpoints of the segment. The notation P Q is used to denote the segment itself as
well as its length.
Line segments that have equal lengths are called congruent line segments.
The point that divides a line segment into two congruent line segments is called the
midpoint of the line segment.
◦
An angle with a measure of 90 is called a right angle.
◦
An angle with a measure less than 90 is called an acute angle, and an angle with
◦ ◦
measure between 90 and 180 is called an obtuse angle.
◦
An angle with a measure of 180 is called a straight angle.

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When two lines intersect at a point, they form four angles, as shown on the figure
below.
Each angle has a vertex at point O, which is the point of
intersection of the two lines. In the figure, angles ∠ABE
and ∠CBD are called opposite or vertical angles. Angles
∠ABC and ∠EBD are also opposite angles.
Opposite angles have equal measures

Angles ∠ABC and ∠CBD can be called neighboring or adjacent angles. Together
◦
they form a straight angle, so, ∠ABC + ∠CBD = 180 .

If two lines intersect at right angles, the lines are

perpendicular. Lines l1 and l2 on the right are
perpendicular, denoted by l1 ⊥ l2 .

If two lines that are in the same plane do not intersect,

the two lines are parallel.
Lines l1 and l2 on the left are parallel, denoted by
l1 k l2 .
If two parallel lines are intersected by a third line, as
shown on the left, than the angle measures are related
◦
as indicated, where x + y = 180 .
Practice

1. (OG) In the figure below, the value of y is

◦
(A) 6
◦
(B) 12
◦
(C) 24
◦
(D) 36
(E) 42◦

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Answers and explanations

◦ ◦
1. Clearly, 2x and 3x are adjacent angles. Thus, 2x + 3x = 180 . Therefore, 5x = 180
◦ ◦ ◦
and x = 36 . Angles 2x and y + 30 are vertical. Thus, 2x = y + 30 and y =
◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
2x − 30 = 2 · 36 − 30 = 42 . E is the correct answer.

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Triangles
A triangle is a three-sided figure that contains three interior angles.
• The sum of interior angles is 180 degrees.
• The longest side is opposite the largest angle.
• The length of any side of a triangle must be smaller than the
sum of the other two sides:

a+b>c
a+c>b
b+c>a

It is enough to check only one inequality for the largest side. For
Hint: example, to check whether exists triangle with sides 5, 6 and 7, you
need only to check whether 5 + 6 is greater than 7.

Practice
1. (OG) In ∆ABC below, what is x in terms of z?

◦
(A) z + 73
◦
(B) z − 73
◦
(C) 70 − z
◦
(D) z − 70
◦
(E) 73 − z
2. (MH) If 4 and 11 are the lengths of two sides of a triangular region, which of the
following can be the length of the third side?
I. 5
II. 13
III. 15
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

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Elements of a triangle

The altitude (the height) of a triangle is the segment

drawn from a vertex perpendicular to the side opposite
that vertex. Relative to that vertex and altitude, the
opposite side is called the base. Line segment BH on
the left picture is the altitude of the triangle ABC. It’s
perpendicular to AC, so AC is the base. You can draw
three heights in the triangle - perpendicular to each side.

Line segment BM on the left picture is the median. It

means that point M divides AC into two equal parts:
AM = M C.
You can draw three medians in the triangle.

Line segment BD denotes the bisector. It divides the

corresponding angle, ∠ABC, into two equal parts:
∠ABD = ∠DBC.
You can draw three bisectors in the triangle.

Midsegment of a triangle is a line segment joining the

midpoints of two sides of a triangle.
The midsegment is always parallel to the third side of the
triangle.
The midsegment is always half the length of the third side.
On the picture shown on the left the midsegment M N k
AC and M N = 1/2AC.

Area of a triangle
To calculate the area of a triangle use the formulae
altitude × base p
S= or S = p(p − a)(p − b)(p − c),
2
where p = (a + b + c)/2 is the semi-perimeter of the triangle.
Special types of triangles

• A scalene triangle is a triangle with all sides of different lengths.

• An isosceles triangle has at least two sides of the same length.

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 The angles opposite the two equal sides are also

equal.

 Conversely, if two angles of a triangle have the

same measure, then the sides opposite those
angles have the same length.

 In isosceles triangle altitude traced to the base is

also a median and a bisector.

Practice
3. (GC)

In the triangle ABC above, what is the length of side BC?

(1) Line segment AD has length 6.
◦
(2) x = 36

• An equilateral triangle has all sides of equal length.

◦
 All angles of an equilateral triangle equal 60 .

 All altitudes of an equilateral triangle triangle

are medians and bisectors.

 The area of an equilateral triangle is

√
a2 3
S=
4
where a is a side of the triangle.
 The radius of inscribed circle:
√
a 3
r=
6
√
a 3
 The radius of circumscribed circle: R =
3
Note, that R = 2r.

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Practice

4. (GC)

If two triangles shown in the figure above are equilateral and the radius of the outer
circle equals to 3, what is the radius of the smallest circle?
√
(A) 3
(B) 3/2
(C) 3/4
√
(D) 1/ 3
√
(E) 1/2 3

• A right triangle has a right angle (90 degrees).

 The side opposite the right angle is called the
hypotenuse, and the other two sides are the legs.

 Pythagorean Theorem: In a right triangle, the square

of the length of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the
squares of the lengths of the legs:

c 2 = a2 + b 2

where c is the hypotenuse, a and b are the legs.

In general, if a, b and c are the lengths of the sides of a
triangle and

∗ c2 = a2 + b2 , then the triangle is a right triangle.

∗ c2 > a2 + b2 , then the triangle is an obtuse triangle.
∗ c2 < a2 + b2 , then the triangle is an acute triangle.

 The area of a right triangle can be calculated as follows

leg × leg altitude × hypothenuse
S= or S = .
2 2
 Any triangle whose sides are in the ratio 3:4:5 is a right triangle. Such triangles
that have their sides in the ratio of whole numbers are called Pythagorean
Triples.
 There are two special types of right triangle. They come up so often that they’re
worth memorizing:

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◦ ◦ ◦
∗ A right isosceles triangle, whose angles are 45 , 45 , 90 .

√
The sides of such triangle are always in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2.
◦ ◦ ◦
∗ A right triangle, whose angles are 30 , 60 , 90 .

√
The sides of such triangle are always in the ratio 1 : 3 : 2.

• The center of the circle circumscribed around a right triangle is the midpoint of this
triangle’s hypothenuse, so the hypothenuse of the triangle is the diameter of the
circle:

Conversely, if a triangle is inscribed in a circle so that one of its sides is a diameter

of the circle, then the triangle is a right triangle.

Practice

5. (OG)

If arc P QR above is a semicircle, what is the length of diameter P R?

(1) a = 4
(2) b = 1

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6. (OG)
In the figure above, segments RS and T U represent two positions of the same ladder
leaning against the side SV of a wall. The length of T V is how much greater than
the length of RV ?
(1) The length of T U is 10 meters
(2) The length of RV is 5 meters
Hint: If you know two angles of a triangle, it is sufficient to determine the shape
of the triangle. If you know two angles and a side, it is sufficient to determine the
triangle (you can find two other sides).
Congruent and similar triangles
• Triangles are called congruent (equal) if all their respective sides are equal and all
their respective angles are equal.

• Triangles that have the same shape but the different sizes are called similar
triangles.
For example, any two equilateral triangles of different sizes are similar.
We say that two triangles ABC and A1 B1 C1 are similar if either of the following
conditions holds:

 Corresponding sides have lengths in the same ratio:

AB BC AC
= =
A1 B1 B1 C1 A 1 C1
.
 Corresponding angles are equal:
∠BAC = ∠EDF , ∠ABC = ∠DEF , and ∠ACB = ∠DF E.

When two triangles ABC and A1 B1 C1 are similar, we write ∆ABC ∼ ∆A1 B1 C1 .
Here are three criterions for similarity:

I. (AAA) If in two triangles, the corresponding angles are equal

the triangles are similar.
II. (SSS) If the corresponding sides of two triangles are
proportional the triangles are similar.
III. (SAS) If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of
the other triangle and the sides containing these angles are
proportional, the triangles are similar.

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• The ratio of the areas of similar triangles is equal to the ratio of their corresponding
sides squared. In other words,
 2
SABC AB
If ∆ABC ∼ ∆A1 B1 C1 , then =
SDEF A1 B1

Practice

7. What is the value of the height, h meters, in the following diagram, if the tennis
ball must just pass over the net and land 6 meters away from the base of the net?

(A) 1.8
(B) 2.2
(C) 2.7
(D) 2.4
(E) 3.6

8. (OG) In triangle ABC, point X is the midpoint of side AC and point Y is the
midpoint of side BC. If point R is the midpoint of line segment XC and if point S
is the midpoint of line segment Y C, what is the area of triangular region RCS?
(1) The area of triangular region ABX is 32.
(2)The length of one of the altitudes of triangle ABC is 8.

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Answers and explanations

◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
1. Since the sum of the interior angles is 180 , x + (z + 37 ) + 70 = 180 , x + z =
◦ ◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
180 − 70 − 37 = 73 . Therefore, x = 73 − z. E is the answer.

2. Let for the triangle a = 4 and b = 11 and we are looking for c. Since the length of
any side of a triangle must be smaller than the sum of the other two sides, 4+11 > c
and 4 + c > 11. Hence, the third side should be less than 15 and more than 7. 13 is
the only one length of side which is possible. B is the answer.

3. (A) Triangle BCD is isosceles (since 2 of its angles are equal). Thus, BC = BD.
Angle ADB is equal to 180 − 2x since it is adjacent to the angle BDC. The sum
of all angles of triangle ABD is equal to 180: 180 = ABD + 180 − 2x + x, so, angle
ABD is equal to x. This implies that triangle ABD is isosceles with angle BAD
equal to angle ABD. Having this, we can find that AD = BD = BC. Statement
(1) is sufficient to answer the stem question since BC = AD = 6. Thus, the answer
must be A or D. Statement (2) is insufficient to determine any length since only
angles are given. Thus, A is the answer.
√
4. (C) For an equilateral triangle√radius of inscribed circle is r = a/(2 3) and of
circumscribed circle is R = a/ 3, so, r = R/2. Let R be the radius of the outer
circle, r – the radius of the middle circle and r∗ – the radius of the smallest circle.
We have r = R/2, r∗ = r/2 = R/4 = 3/4. Thus, the answer is C.

5. (D) Since angle P QR is inscribed in a semicircle, it is a right angle, and ∆P QR is

a right triangle. ∆P QR is divided into two right triangles by the vertical line from
Q to side P R. Let x = P Q and y = QR. The larger right triangle has hypotenuse
x, so x2 = 4 + a2 ; the smaller right triangle has hypotenuse y, so y 2 = 4 + b2 . From
∆P QR, (a + b)2 = x2 + y 2 , so by substitution, (a + b)2 = 4 + a2 + 4 + b2 , and by
simplification, a2 + 2ab + b2 = 8 + a2 + b2 or 2ab = 8 or ab = 4.
(1) If a = 4 is substituted in ab = 4,then b must be 1 and diameter P R is 5;
SUFFICIENT.
(2) If b = 1 is substituted in ab = 4, then a must be 4 and diameter P R is 5;
SUFFICIENT. D is the answer.

6. (D) Since we know all angles of T U V : 45, 45, 90 and SRV : 30, 60, 90 and also that
SR = T U (as the same ladder), we need to know the length of any side of these
two triangles. If we have such information we can determine the lengths of the √ other
sides,
√ because for these two triangles we have ratios of the sides: 1 : 1 : 2 and
1 : 3 : 2 respectively. So, having T U we can find T V . And as SR = T U we can
find RV . Similarly, having the length of RV , we can determine all lengths in this
triangle. And SR = T U will give us information about T V . Thus, each statement
is sufficient to answer the stem question. Therefore, D is the best answer.

7. (C) We draw and label diagram as shown.

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Let’s consider , ∆ADE and ∆ABC. Since ∠ADE = ∠ABC as right angles, and
∠A is common, ∠ADE and ∠ABC are similar. Therefore DE/BC = AD/AB, and
h/0.9 = 18/6, and h = 2.7. So, the height at which the ball should be hit is 2.7
meters. C is an answer.

8. (A)

As shown in the figure above, X and Y are the midpoints of AC and BC,
respectively, of ∆ABC, and R and S are the midpoints of XC and Y C, respectively.
XY and RS are midsegments of triangles ABC and XY C respectively. Thus,
RS k XY k AB and RS = 21 XY = 14 AB. Also, ∆ABC and ∆RSC are similar
triangles, since their corresponding interior angles have the same measure (AAA
criterion). Thus, SRCS /SACB = (RS/AB)2 = 1/16, and the area of ∆RSC can be
determined exactly when the value of the area of ∆ACB can be determined.
(1) Given that the area of ∆ABX, which is 21 AX · 12 altitude of ACB = 12 SACB , is
32. It is sufficient to answer the question.
(2) Without knowing the length of the side to which the altitude is drawn, the area
of ∆ACB, cannot be determined; NOT sufficient.
The correct answer is A.

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Quadrilaterals
GoGMAT, Session 11
A polygon with four sides is a quadrilateral.

• Sum of interior angles of any quadrilateral is 360 degrees.

• Parallelogram is a quadrilateral with opposite
sides parallel and congruent.
Properties of a parallelogram:

 Opposite sides are equal in length.

 Opposite angles are equal in measure.
 The diagonals bisect each other.
The area of a parallelogram is
S = altitude × height

Practice

1. (GC) The area of a parallelogram is 100. What is the perimeter of the parallelogram?
(1) The base of the parallelogram is 10.
(2) One of the angles of the parallelogram is 45 degrees
• Rhombus is a parallelogram, in which all sides are
equal. A rhombus has all of the properties of a
parallelogram.
Properties of a rhombus:

 All sides are equal in length.

 Opposite angles are equal in measure.
◦
 The diagonals bisect each other at 90 .

There are two ways to find the area of a rhombus:

diagonal1 × diagonal2
S = altitude × base or S =
2
Practice

2. (GC) Is quadrilateral ABCD a rhombus?

(1) AC is perpendicular to BD.
(2) AB + CD = BC + AD.

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• Rectangle is a parallelogram with four right angles.

A rectangle therefore has all of the properties of a
parallelogram.
Properties of a rectangle:

 Opposite sides are parallel and congruent.

 The diagonals bisect each other.
 The diagonals are congruent.

The area of a rectangle is S = length × width .

Practice

3. (MH) The diagonal of the rectangle is 13. What is the area of the rectangle?
(1) The length of the rectangle is 12
(2) The width of the rectangle is 5
• A square is a rectangle with all sides of equal
length, or a rhombus with right angles.
A square therefore has all of the properties of a
parallelogram, rhombus and rectangle.
Properties of a square:

 Each diagonal of a square is the

perpendicular bisector of the other.
a
 Radius of inscribed circle is r = 2
 Radius of circumscribed circle is R = √a
2

The area of a square is or where a is side and d

is diagonal of a square. S = length × width .
Practice

4. (GC) If the area of square A is three times the area of square B, what is the ratio
of the diagonal of square B to that of square A?

1
(A) 13 2

1
(B) 31 3
1
(C) 3 3
1
(D) 3 2
(E) 3

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• Trapezoid is a quadrilateral which has one pair of

parallel sides. The parallel sides are called the bases
of the trapezoid and the other two sides are called
the legs.
The usual way to calculate the area of a trapezoid is the average base length times
altitude:
S = h × a+b2
Practice

5. (MR)

What is the area of the trapezoid pictured above?

◦
(1) A = 120
(2) The perimeter of trapezoid ABCD is 36.

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Answers and explanations

1. (C) From Statement (1) we know the base and the height of the parallelogram.
This height can equal the side of the parallelogram (in
case of a rectangle) but it can also exceed it. Thus,
Statement (1) is not sufficient.
From Statement (2) nothing can be established about
the length of the base of the parallelogram. In fact, the
base can be arbitrarily long.
Statement (1) and Statement (2) completely define the parallelogram:
DC = AB = BD = 10, the length of the sides BC and AD can be found by
Pythagorean theorem.
So, the right answer is C.
2. (E) ABCD can be a rhombus but it can also be a kite-shaped figure. The diagonals of
this figure form a cross and Statement (2) holds because of the symmetry (AB = BC
and CD = AD). The answer is E.
3. (D) Statement (1): knowing the diagonal and the length we can find the width. So,
Statement (1) is sufficient. Statement (2): knowing the diagonal and the width we
can find the length. So,
Statement (2) is sufficient. The answer is D.
4. (A) The ratio of the diagonals is the same as the ratio of the sides. If the side of B
√ √ √
1
is b, then the side of A must be 3b. The required ratio is b : 3b = 1 : 3 = 13 2 .
The answer is A.
5. (D) At first let’s draw a picture:

To calculate the area of this trapezoid we need CD, AB and AH. AB = 6 by

definition, so, the question is to find CD and AH. Here ABM H is a rectangle,
so HM = AB = 6. From statement 1 we can get that angle C equals 60 degrees.
Then we can find CH and AH from the √ triangle ACH (as its angles are 30, 60,
and 90 its sides are always in the ratio 1 : 3 : 2. CH = M D, so, we’ll find CD as
CH +HM +M D = 2CH +6. We can answer the question. Statement 1 is sufficient.
From statement 2 we can get CD = 36 − 8 − 8 − 6 = 14. HM = AB = 6, so,
CH + M D = 14 − 6 = 8. These line segments are equal: CH = M D = 4. Using
Pythagorean theorem for the triangle ACH we’ll find AH. Statement 2 also is
sufficient. The answer is D.

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Polygons
GoGMAT, Session 11
A polygon is a closed plane figure with three or more sides that are all straight lines.
Polygons are named according to the number of sides. The names of the most common
polygons are given below:

Sum of interior angles = 180 × (n − 2)

180×(n−2)
Each angle (of regular polygon) = n

where n is the number of sides.

For example, for a regular heptagon the sum of interior angles is 180(7-2)=900 degrees
and each angle of it is 900
7
= 128 74 degrees.
Practice
(OG) In the figure shown, what is the value of v + x + y + z + w?

(A) 45
(B) 90
(C) 180
(D) 270
(E) 360

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Explanations
(C) In the figure, the center section of the star is a pentagon. The sum of the interior
angles of any polygon is 180(n−2), where n is the number of sides. Thus, a+b+c+d+e =
180(5 − 2) = 180(3) = 540, where a, b, c, d, e are interior angles of the pentagon. Each of
the interior angles of the pentagon defines a triangle with two of the angles at the points
of the star. This gives the following five equations:
a + x + z = 180, b + v + y = 180, c + x + w = 180, d + v + z = 180, e + y + w = 180.
Summing these 5 equations gives:
a + b + c + d + e + 2v + 2x + 2y + 2z + 2w = 900
Substituting 540 for a + b + c + d + e gives:
540 + 2v + 2x + 2y + 2z + 2w = 900
From this: v + x + y + z + w = 180

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Circle
GoGMAT, Session 11
A circle is a set of all the points equidistant from the fixed point called the center of
the circle.
Main terms and facts
• The number of degrees of arc in a circle (or the
number of degrees in a complete revolution) is 360
degrees.

• A chord of a circle is a line segment that has its

endpoints on the circle. On the diagram at the right
CD and AB are chords.

• A chord that passes through the center of the circle

is a diameter of the circle. On the right diagram
AB is a diameter
• A radius of a circle is a segment from the center of the circle to a point on the
circle. On the diagram AO and OB are radii.
The words «diameter» and «radius» are also used to refer to the lengths of these
segments.

• The circumference of a circle is the distance around the circle.

• Number π:
The ratio of the circumference to the diameter is the same for every circle. This
ratio is denoted by Greek letter π:
circumference
=π
diameter

This number is irrational, so it can not be expressed as a fraction, but it is often

approximated by 3.14 or 22/7:
22
π ≈ 3.14 or π≈ 7

In most problems, where π emerges, you will not have to use these values – the
answers will contain the symbol π.

• As follows from the definition of π, if r is the radius of the circle, then the
circumference C is equal to
C = 2πr

• The area of a circle is equal to S = πr2

You are expected to know these two formulas.

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Angles, arcs and segments

• An inscribed angle is an angle ABC formed by points A, B, and C on a circle.
• A central angle is an angle AOB with endpoints A and B located on a circle and
vertex O located at the circle’s center.

∠BAC is an inscribed angle ∠AOB is a central angle

• The Central Angle Theorem:

The measure of an inscribed angle is always

half the measure of the corresponding central
angle:

• A central angle in a circle determines an arc AB.

An arc length is

α
l = 2πr 360

where α is the central angle of the arc.

• A circle sector is the portion of a circle enclosed by
two radii and an arc.
Area of a sector is
α
S = πr2 360 where α is the central angle of the arc.

• A line that has exactly one point in common with a circle is said
to be tangent to the circle, and that common point is called the
point of tangency.
A radius or diameter with an endpoint at the point of tangency
is perpendicular to the tangent line, and, conversely, a line that is
perpendicular to a diameter at one of its endpoints is tangent to
the circle at that endpoint.
The line l on the left is tangent to the circle and radius OT is
perpendicular to l.

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Practice

1. (OG)
The figure above represents a circular flower bed, with its center O, surrounded by
a circular path that is 3 feet wide. What is the area of the path, in square feet?
(A) 25π
(B) 38π
(C) 55π
(D) 57π
(E) 64π

2. (OG)
If O is the center of the circle above, what fraction of the circular region is shaded?
1
(A) 12
1
(B) 9
1
(C) 6
1
(D) 4
1
(E) 3

3. The circle above circumscribes square ABCD. What is the value of w + x + y + z?

(A) 180◦
(B) 135◦
(C) 120◦
(D) 100◦
(E) 90◦

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Answers and explanations

1. (D) Clearly, total area of the shaded region is the difference between areas of two
circles. The area of the outer is 112 π and the area of the inner is 82 π. So, the area
of the path is π × (112 − 82 ) = 57π. Thus, D is the answer.

2. (C) Each of the vertical angles is equal to 30 degrees. Thus, two angles have a share
of 60 : 360 = 1 : 6 of the entire circle. The right answer is C.

3. (E) The Central Angle Theorem states that the measure of inscribed angle is always
half the measure of the central angle. So the central angle which subtends the minor
arc BC equals to twice the angle x + z (as inscribed angle x plus inscribed angle z
subtend the same minor arc BC). Now, minor arc BC is 1/4 of the circumference
hence the central angle which subtends it equals to 360/4 = 90, so 90 = 2(x + z),
and x + z = 45. Similarly 90 = 2(w + y) (for minor arc AD) and w + y = 45;
x + z + w + y = 90. The answer is E.

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Volume geometry
GoGMAT, Session 11
Rectangular solid is a three-dimensional figure
formed by 6 rectangular surfaces, as shown on the
left.

• Each rectangular surface is called a face.

• Each solid or dotted line segment is an edge, and

each point at which the edges meet is a vertex.

• A rectangular solid has 6 faces, 12 edges, and

8 vertices. Opposite faces are parallel rectangles
that have the same dimensions.
• Volume of a rectangular solid is
V =a·b·c
where a, b and c are the width, length and height of rectangular solid, respectively.

• Surface area of a rectangular solid is

S = 2(ab + bc + ac)

• Volume diagonal is the line that goes from a vertex of the rectangular solid through
the center of rectangular solid to the opposite vertex.
The length of the volume diagonal is
√
d = a2 + b 2 + c 2

Cube is the rectangular solid with equal edges.

• Volume of a cube with edge a is

V = a3

• Surface area of rectangular solid is

S = 2a2

• The length of the volume diagonal of a cube is

√
d=a 3

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Practice
1. (GC) What is the maximum straight line distance between any two points of the
box 10 × 8 × 6?
(A) 10
√
(B) 2 41
√
(C) 2 34
(D) 8
√
(E) 10 2

A sphere is a body consisting of those points in a three-

dimensional space which are equidistant from the given
point called the center.

• Volume of a sphere is
4π 3
V = 3
R
where R is the radius of the sphere.
• Surface area of a sphere is
S = 4πR2

Practice
2. (PR) Find the volume of the sphere inscribed in the cube with edge 6.
(A) 12π
(B) 16π
(C) 24π
(D) 36π
(E) 42π
A cylinder is a body whose surface is formed by all the points located at a fixed
distance from the given straight line, called the axis of the cylinder. The two bases are
circles of the same size and the axis is perpendicular to the bases.
• Volume of a cylinder is
V = πr2 · h
where r is the radius of the base and h is the altitude
of the cylinder.

• Surface area of a cylinder is

S = 2πr(h + r)

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Practice

3. (PR) Cylindrical tank with height 4 and radius of the base 3 is half full of water.
Find the volume of this water.
(A) 6π
(B) 12π
(C) 18π
(D) 24π
(E) 36π

A right circular cone is a cone whose axis is a line segment joining the vertex to the
midpoint of the circular base.

• Volume of a cone is
V = 13 πr2 · h
where r is the radius of the base and h is the altitude
of the cone.

Practice

4. A right circular cone is inscribed in a hemisphere so that the base of the cone
coincides with the base of the hemisphere. What is the ratio of the height of the
cone to the radius of the hemisphere?
√
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1:1
1
(C) :1 2
√
(D) 2 : 1
(E) 2:1

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Answers and explanations

1. (E) The maximum possible straight line distance √ between any two
√ points of the
2 2 2 2 2 2
√solid is its volume diagonal. So, d = a + b + c = 10 + 8 + 6 =
rectangular
√
200 = 10 2. So, the answer is E.

2. (D) For the cube with the side a radius of inscribed sphere equals a/2. So, for our
cube radius of inscribed sphere is 3. The volume of the sphere can be found as
V = 4/3πR3 = 4/3π · 33 = 36π. The answer is D.

3. (C) As the tank is half full of water, we need to find the volume of the cylinder with
height 2 and radius of the base 3. V = πr2 h = π · 32 2 = 18π. The answer is C.

4. (B)As the diagram below shows, the height of the cone will be the radius of the
hemisphere, so the ratio is 1:1. The answer is B.

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Coordinate geometry
GoGMAT, Session 12
Coordinate Plane
The figure on the left shows the (rectangular) coordinate
plane.

• The horizontal line is called the x-axis and the

perpendicular vertical line is called the y-axis.

• The point at which these two axes intersect,

designated O, is called the origin.

• The axes divide the plane into four quadrants, I, II,

III, and IV, as shown.

• Each point in the plane has an x-coordinate and a y-coordinate. A point is identified
by an ordered pair (x, y) of numbers in which the x-coordinate is the first number
and the y-coordinate is the second number.

• To find the distance between two points we can use the Pythagorean theorem:

Given coordinates of two points (x1 , y1 ) and (x2 , y2 ), distance d between two points
is given by:
p
d = (x1 − x2 )2 + (y1 − y2 )2

• The coordinates of the midpoint (x0 , y0 ) of a line segment with endpoints (x1 , y1 )
and (x2 , y2 ) are the average of the coordinates of its endpoints:
x1 +x2 y1 +y2
x0 = 2
, y0 = 2

Practice

1. (MH) Bob lives in the town A that has point coordinates (1, 5). His friend Paul lives
in the city B that has point coordinates (−5, −3). Find the straight line distance
between two friends.
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) 14

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Straight Line
• Any straight line on this plane can be described by the equation
y = kx + b
where b is the y-intercept (the point at which the line crosses the y-axis) and k is
the slope of the line.
The x-intercept is the x-coordinate of the point at which the line intersects the
x-axis. The x-intercept can be found by setting y = 0 and solving for x.
• Given two points (x1 , y1 ) and (x2 , y2 ) on a line, the slope k of the line is:

y1 −y2
slope = k = x1 −x2

• Given any two points (x1 , y1 ) and (x2 , y2 ) with x1 6= x2 , the equation of the line
passing through these points can be found by formula:

x−x1 y−y1
x2 −x1
= y2 −y1

• Geometrical sense of k:

 If the slope of a line is negative, k < 0, the line slants downward from left to
right
 If the slope is positive, the line slants upward.
 If the slope is 0, the line is horizontal; the equation of such a line is of the form
y = b, since k = 0.
 For a vertical line, slope is not defined, and the equation is of the form x = a,
where a is the x-intercept.

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• Suppose we have two lines that are defined by equations y = k1 x+b1 and y = k2 x+b2 .

 If two lines are parallel then their slopes are equal: k1 = k2 and b1 6= b2 .
 If two lines are coincident they are not parallel: k1 = k2 and b1 = b2 .
 If two lines are perpendicular then product of their slopes is −1: k1 × k2 = −1

Practice

2. (GC) In the Cartesian coordinate system, Point A has coordinates (6, −7) and Point
B has coordinates (4, 5). If a line is drawn to connect Point A and Point B, does
point C lie on line AB?
(1) Coordinates of Point C are (5, −1)
(2) Point C is equidistant from Points A and B.

Circle on a plane
In the Cartesian coordinate system, the circle with center (a, b) and
radius r is the set of all points (x, y) such that:

(x − a)2 + (y − b)2 = r2

Practice

3. (GC) If a circle is defined by an equation (x − 3)2 + (y − 3)2 = 6 on the coordinate

plane, and there is a square inscribed into the circle cutting it into 5 regions, what
is the area of one of the smallest?
(A) π
√
(B) 6π − 12
√
(C) 6π − 2 6
(D) 3( π2 − 1)
3π 3
(E) 4
− 2

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Answers and explanations

1. (C) We have to find the distance between two points A and B. Using formulae:
p p √ √
AB = (1 − (−5))2 + (5 − (−3))2 = (1 + 5)2 + (5 + 3)2 = 36 + 64 = 100 =
10.

2. (A) The fastest way is to see that we have all the info we need to set up the equation
of the line and we can easily check whether C lies on it because Statement 1 gives
us that information. We don’t need to spend time on calculations.
(1) is thus sufficient.
Here is the detailed explanation:
y1 −y2 5+7
slope = x1 −x2
= 4−6
= −6.
Equation of the line:
y − y1 = m(x − x1 )
y − 5 = −6(x − 4)
y = −6x + 29
Now, we know that coordinates of C are (5, −1). For C to lie on AB, (5, −1) should
be one of the solutions for the equation. lets plug in x = 5, we get, y = −6(5) + 29 =
−1 So, (1) is sufficient. From Statement 2, we can’t say whether the point C is on
Line A. There are many possibilities. So, (2) is insufficient. The answer is A.

3. (D) To find the answer, we need to know the areas of the square and the circle. From
the equation we find that r2 = 6. We √ will get 6π as the area of the circle and 12 as
the area of the square (diagonal
√ is 2 6 and by squaring it and dividing by 2, we
will get values of the sides: 12). However, CD is one of the four outside segments,
so the answer will be (6π − 12)/4 or 3/2π − 3 or 3(π/2 − 1). The answer is D.

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Home assignment
Lines and angles

1. (MG E) If point X is on line segment AB, all of the following may be true EXCEPT
(A) AX = XB
(B) AX > XB
(C) AX < XB
(D) AB > XB
(E) AX + XB < AB

Triangles

1. (OG E)

In the triangle above, does a2 + b2 = c2 ?

(1) x + y = 90
(2) x = y

2. (OG H)

The shaded portion of the rectangular lot shown above represents a flower bed. If
the area of the bed is 24 square yards and x = y + 2, then z equals
√
(A) 13
√
(B) 2 13
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 10

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3. (OG M) Starting from Town S, Fred rode his bicycle 8 miles due east, 3 miles due
south, 2 miles due west, and 11 miles due north, finally, stopping at Town T. If the
entire region is flat, what is the straight-line distance between Towns S and T?
(A) 10
√
(B) 8 2
√
(C) 157
(D) 14
(E) 24

4. (OG M)

In the figure above, V represents an observation point at one end of a pool. From
V, an object that is actually located on the bottom of the pool at point R appears
to be at point S. If VR=10 feet, what is the distance RS, in feet, between the actual
position and the perceived position of the object?
√
(A) 10 − 5 3
√
(B) 10 − 5 2
(C) 2
(D) 5/2
(E) 4

5. (MG M) Peter lives 12 miles west of school and Bill lives north of the school. Peter
finds that the direct distance from his house to Bill’s is 6 miles shorter than the
distance by way of school. How many miles north of the school does Bill live?
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these

6. (GC M) Right triangle ABC has a height BD (C 6= D 6= A). What is the value of
AB times BC?
(1) AB is equal to 6
(2) The product of the non-hypotenuse sides is equal to 24

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7. (MH E) Is the triangle with angles a, b, c isosceles?

(1) 180 = (a + c) + 60
(2) a < 2b

8. (MG M) If a triangle of base 6 has the same area as a circle of radius 6, what is the
altitude of the triangle?
(A) 6π
(B) 8π
(C) 10π
(D) 12π
(E) 14π

9. (MG E) The vertex angle of an isosceles triangle is p degrees. How many degrees
are there in one of the base angles?
(A) 180 − p
(B) 90 − p
(C) 180 − 2p
(D) 180 − p/2
(E) 90 − p/2

10. (MG E) In isosceles triangle ABC, what is the value of ∠C?

(1) The measure of ∠B is 42 degrees
(2) The measure of ∠A is 96 degrees

11.
In the figure above, triangle ABC is right. Angle A is 30 degrees and BC = 1. What
is the radius of the circle?
(A) 1
√
2
(B) 2
√
3
(C) 2
√
(D) 2
√
(E) 3

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12. In the figure to the right, equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in the circle. If the
radius of the circle is 1, what is the approximate the area of the triangle?
(A) 1.2
(B) 1.3
(C) 1.4
(D) 1.5
(E) 1.6

Quadrilaterals

1. (MH M) A rectangle is equal in area to a square with sides of length 12. Is the
diagonal of the rectangle greater in length than 20?
(1) The rectangle has a length of 16.
(2) The rectangle has a width of 9.

2. (GC M) A circle of radius r is inscribed into a square with side K. If the ratio of
area of the square to the area of the circle is P, and the ratio of perimeter of the
square to that of the circle is Q, which of the following must be true?
(A) P/Q > 1
(B) P/Q = 1
(C) 1/2 < P/Q < 1
(D) P/Q = 1/2
(E) P/Q > 1/2

3. (PR M) If rectangle A has width w and length n, and w < n , what is the value of
w?
(1) The area of rectangle A is equal to 24.
(2) The perimeter of rectangle A is equal to 20.

4. (MG M) A spotlight on the ceiling is 5 feet from one wall of a room and 10 feet
from the wall at right angles to it. How many feet is it from the intersection of the
two walls?
(A) 15
√
(B) 5 2
√
(C) 5 5
√
(D) 10 2
√
(E) 10 5

5. (MH E) What is the area of square floor X?

(1) The perimeter of the floor is a whole-number multiple of 10.
√
(2) The diagonal of the floor measures 5 2.

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6. (GC M )To build a rectangular chicken pen, Mike has 40 meters of net. If Mike
wants to maximize the area of the pan, what will be the most favorable dimensions?
(A) 12 × 8
(B) 15 × 8
(C) 10 × 10
(D) 15 × 15
(E) 15 × 5

Circles

1. (GC E) In the figure below, if the right isosceles triangle P QR has an area of 4 and
P is the centre of the circle, what is the area of the shaded portion of the figure?

(A) π
(B) 2π
√
(C) 2 π
(D) 4π
(E) 8π

2. (GC M) In a circle with centre X, XB is the radius. There is a chord AC which

intersects XB. D is the point of intersection between XB and AC. BD = 2, AC =
12, XDA = 90◦ . What is the circle’s area?
(A) 10π
(B) 20π
(C) 50π
(D) 80π
(E) 100π

3. (OG M) What is the number of 360-degree rotations that a bicycle wheel made
while rolling 100 meters in a straight line without slipping?
(1) The diameter of the bicycle wheel, including the tire, was 0.5 meter
(2) The wheel made twenty 360-degree rotations per minute

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4. (OG M)

What is the radius of the circle above with center O?

(1) The ratio of OP to P Q is 1 to 2
(2) P is the midpoint of chord AB

5. (OG M)

What is the circumference of the circle above with center O?

√
(1) The perimeter of OXZ is 20 + 10 2
(2) The length of arc XY Z is 5π

6. (OG M) If the circle below has center O and circumference 18π, then the perimeter
of sector RST O is
(A) 3π + 9
(B) 3π + 18
(C) 6π + 9
(D) 6π + 18
(E) 6π + 24

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7. (OG E) The annual budget of a certain college is to be shown on a circle graph.

If the size of each sector of the graph is to be proportional to the amount of the
budget it represents, how many degrees of the circle should be used to represent an
item that is 15 percent of the budget?
(A) 15
(B) 36
(C) 54
(D) 90
(E) 150

8. (MG E) A square is inscribed into a circle of area 18π. Find the side of the square.
(A) 3
(B) 6
√
(C) 3 2
√
(D) 6 2
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

9. (MG M) In the circle with center O, the measure of arc RS = 132 degrees. How
many degrees are there in angle RSO?
(A) 66
(B) 20
(C) 22
(D) 24
(E) 48

10. (GC M) Assuming the Earth’s orbit around the Sun is a circle, by how much will the
length of the Earth’s orbit increase if the radius of this orbit grows by π/2 meters?
(A) 1 meter
(B) 2 meters
(C) π meters
(D) 2 × π meters
(E) π 2 meters

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11. (GC M) A circle is inscribed in a square. If a diagonal running through the center
of the circle is 4 cm long, what is approximate value of the area of the square that
is not occupied by the circle?
(A) 1.7
(B) 2.7
(C) 12
(D) 24
(E) 25

12. (GC E) The radius of the front wheels of the cart is half that of the rear wheels. If
the circumference of the front wheels is 1 meter and the cart went 1 kilometer, how
many revolutions did the rear wheels make?
250
(A) π
500
(B) π
(C) 250
(D) 500
(E) 750

13. In the figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle, and DAB is a right triangle. What is
the area of the circumscribed circle?

(1) DA = 4
(2) Angle ABD is 30 degrees

14. (MG E) If the radius of a circle is decreased by 10%, by what percent is its area
decreased?
(A) 10
(B) 19
(C) 21
(D) 79
(E) 81

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15. (MG M) A circle graph shows how the MegaTech corporation allocates its Research
and Development budget: 14% microphotonics; 24% home electronics; 15% food
additives; 29% genetically modified microorganisms; 8% industrial lubricants; and
the remainder for basic astrophysics. If the arc of each sector of the graph is
proportional to the percentage of the budget it represents, how many degrees of
the circle are used to represent basic astrophysics research?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 18
(D) 36
(E) 52

16. In the figure below, triangle ABC is right. Angle A is 30 degrees and BC = 1. What
is the radius of the circle?

(A) 1√
(B) √22
(C) 23
√
(D) √ 2
(E) 3

Volume Geometry

1. (MH M) If a cube has a total surface area of 96, what is its volume?
(A) 16
(B) 36
(C) 64
(D) 81
(E) 96

2. (PR M) A certain cube floating in a bucket of water has between 80 and 85 percent
of its volume below the surface of the water. If between 12 and 16 cubic centimeters
of the cube’s volume is above the surface of the water, then the length of a side of
the cube is approximately
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 9

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3. (PR E) If a cube has a volume of 125, what is the surface area of one side?
(A) 5
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 150
(E) 625

4. (PR H) A sphere with a radius of 5 is hollowed out at the center. The part removed
from the sphere has the same center, and a radius of 3. What fractional part of the
original sphere remained? (The formula for the volume of a sphere is 34 πR3 )
(A) 2/5
(B) 16/25
(C) 27/125
(D) 98/125
(E) 3/5

5. (MH M) A hat company ships its hats, individually wrapped, in 8-inch by 10-inch
by 12-inch boxes. Each hat is valued at $7.50. If the company’s latest order required
a truck with at least 288,000 cubic inches of storage space in which to ship the hats
in their boxes, what was the minimum value of the order?
(A) $960
(B) $1,350
(C) $1,725
(D) $2,050
(E) $2,250

6. (MH M) A truck driver wants to load as many identical cylindrical canisters of olive
oil as can fit into the 3-meter×4-meter×9-meter storage space of his truck. What is
the maximum number of canisters can he load into the truck?
(1) Each canister has a volume of 62, 500 cubic centimeters.
(2) The height of each canister is four times the radius.

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7. (MH M) When Greenville State University decided to move its fine arts collection
to a new library, it had to package the collection in 20-inch by 20-inch by 15-inch
boxes. If the university pays $0.50 for every box, and if the university needs 3.06
million cubic inches to package the collection, what is the minimum amount the
university must spend on boxes?
(A) $255
(B) $275
(C) $510
(D) $1,250
(E) $2,550
8. (GC) A cylindrical tank, with radius and height both of 10 feet, is to be redesigned
as a cone, capable of holding twice the volume of the cylindrical tank. There are
two proposed scenarios for the new cone: in scenario (1) the radius will remain the
same as that of the original cylindrical tank, in scenario (2) the height will remain
the same as that of the original cylindrical tank. What is the approximate difference
in feet between the new height of the cone in scenario (1) and the new radius of the
cone in scenario (2)?
(A) 13
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
(E) 40
Coordinate Geometry
1. In the coordinate plane, a circle has center (2, −3) and passes through the point
(5, 0). What is the area of the circle?
(A) 3π
√
(B) 3 2π
√
(C) 3 3
(D) 9π
(E) 18π
2. (GC E) Line y = kx + b intersects X-axis at (2, 0) and Y -axis at (0, 5). What is
k/b?
(A) −5/2
(B) −5/4
(C) −1/2
(D) 2/5
(E) 4/5

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3. (GC M) The vertices of a triangle have coordinates (x, 1), (5, 1), and (5, y) where
x < 5 and y > 1. What is the area of the triangle?
(1) x = y
(2) Angle at the vertex (x, 1) = angle at the vertex (5, y)

4. (GC H) What is the area of a triangle with the following vertices: L(1, 3), M (5, 1),
and N (3, 5)?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

5. (GC M) At what angle do the lines y = Kx + L and x = y + KL intersect?

(1) K = 2
(2) K = L

6. (GC E) Which of the following points is not on the line y = 5x + 3?

(A) ( 21 , 11
2
)
(B) ( 13 , 14
3
)
√ √
(C) ( 8, 3 + 10 2)
√
(D) ( 4, 13)
√
(E) ( 2, 31 3
)

7. (GC M) Which of the following lines is parallel to line x = 2.66 − 2y?

(A) y = 2x + 25
(B) y = 2.66x − 2
(C) x + 3y = 0
(D) y = −1/2x − 32
(E) y = 1/2x + 3

8. (GC M) Line L passes through points ( a2 , b) and (a, −2b), where a 6= b. Which of
the following represents the slope of line L?
a
(A) − 6b
(B) − ab
(C) − 6b
a
3a
(D) 2b
a
(E) b

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9. (PR M) In the rectangle coordinate system, triangle ABC has a vertex at point
(0,56). If point B is at the origin, then how many points on line AC have integer
values for both their x and y values?
(1) The third vertex of triangle ABC lies on the x-axis, and the triangle has an area
of 196
(2) Point A has a positive x coordinate and a y coordinate of zero

10. (OG H) In the xy-plane, if line k has negative slope and passes through the point
(−5, r), is the x-intercept of the line k positive?
(1) The slope of line k is −5.
(2) r > 0

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Answers

Question № Answer Question № Answer Question № Answer

Lines and Angles Circles Volume geometry
1. E 1. B 1. C
Triangles 2. E 2. A
1. A 3. A 3. B
2. E 4. E 4. D
3. A 5. D 5. E
4. A 6. B 6. C
5. B 7. C 7. A
6. B 8. B 8. D
7. E 9. D Coordinate geometry
8. D 10. E 1. E
9. E 11. A 2. C
10. B 12. D 3. C
11. A 13. A 4. D
12. B 14. B 5. A
Quadrilaterals 15. D 6. E
1. D 16. A 7. D
2. B 8. C
3. C 9. A
4. C 10. E
5. B
6. C

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Test №6. Geometry

1. In the figure shown above, a pentagon is composed with three right triangles. What
is the perimeter of the pentagon?

√
(A) 8 + 2√ 3
(B) 8 + 2√6
(C) 8 + 2 5
(D) 12
(E) 15

If a triangle has sides a, b, and c, the area of the triangle can yield with the formula:
2. p
s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c), where s is half of the perimeter. If the sides of a triangle
are 4, 5, and 7, what is the area of the triangle?
√
(A) 2 6
√
(B) 6 3
√
(C) 4 6
√
(D) 6 2
√
(E) 8 3

3. From left to right, points А, В, C, D and E lie on the number line. Is the distance
between A and В less than the distance between C and D?
(1) The distance between A and C is less than the distance between В and D.
(2) The distance between A and D is less than the distance between В and E.

4. If the curve represented by y = x2 − 5x + t intersects with the x-axis at two points

and one of the points is (−1, 0), what is the other point?
(A) (1, 0)
(B) (−2, 0)
(C) (5, 0)
(D) (6, 0)
(E) (3, 0)

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5. The figure shows the position on a radar screen of a sweeping beam that is rotating
at a constant rate in a clockwise direction. In which of the four quadrants will the
beam lie 30 seconds from now?

(1) In each 30-second period, the beam sweeps through

270◦ .
(2) r = 30.

6. Is quadrilateral ABCD a square?

(1) AB = ВC = CD = DA.
(2) Two diagonals have the same length.

7. If x and y are integer, is x − y even?

(1) x = 3y
(2) x − 3y is even

8. p and q are integers. If p is divisible by 10q and cannot be divisible by 10q+1 , what
is the value of q?
(1) p is divisible by 25 , but is not divisible by 26 .
(2) p is divisible by 56 , but is not divisible by 57 .

9. Is mx < m + x?
(1) 0 < x < 1
(2) m is a positive integer.

10. A newly released book includes hardback and paperback. If the sales price for the
hardback is $20, and the sales price for the paperback is $15, what is the average
price for all of the books sold during a certain day?
(1) The ratio of the number of the hardback sold to the number of paperback sold
is 5 to 3.
(2) A total of 160 books were sold during the day.

11. Line m and n are perpendicular to each other. If m intersects with y-axis at point
(0, −2), at which point does line n intersect with x-axis?
(1) Line m intersects with x-axis at (−2, 0).
(2) Line n passes through point (0, 10).

12. What is the area of a rectangle?

(1) The perimeter of the rectangle is 24.
(2) The square of the length of the diagonal is 100.

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13. As the figure shown above, the taller tree is 30 feet high and has a 40 feet shadow.
What is the height of the shorter tree?
(1) The shorter tree has a 22 feet shadow.
(2) The distance between two trees is 18 feet.

14. As the figure above shows, two identical circles are inscribed in a square. If the
radius of the circle is r, what is the length of the diagonal of the square?
√
(A) r(4 + 2)
√
(B) r(2 + 2)
√
(C) 2r(1 + 2)
√
(D) 4r 2
(E) 5r

15. In the figure above, if DE is parallel to ВC, what is the sum of the degree of angle
ADE and angle ACB?
(1) AB = BC.
(2) Angle A is 70 degree.

16. Do integers p and t have the same number of different prime factors?
(1) p = 57 t
(2) pt = 35

17. If n is an integer, what is the value of n?

(1) n is positive.
(2) n2 = 2n

18. About 300 employees in Company X usually use a laptop. What percent of the male
employees usually use a laptop?
(1) 200 female employees usually use a laptop.
(2) 60% of the female employees usually use a laptop.

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19. Is quadrilateral ABCD a parallelogram?

(1) Two of the sides have length of 7.
(2) Two of the opposite sides have length of 9.

20. A square and an equilateral triangle have the same perimeter. What is the ratio of
the area of the triangle to the area of the square?
√
9 3
(A) 4
√
2 3
(B) 3
√
4 3
(C) 9
√
2 3
(D) 9
√
3
(E) 2

21. On the figure shown above, four identical circles are tangent to each other and the
4 centers of the circles are the vertices of a square. If the diameter of the circles is
2, what is the area of the shaded region?
(A) 16 − 4π
(B) 16 − 2π
(C) 8 − 2π
(D) 4 − π
(E) 2π − 4

22. Square R is inscribed in circle C and C is inscribed in square T. Is the circumference

of C greater than 10?
(1) The side length of R is greater than 2.
(2) The side length of T is greater than 4.

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23. If one of the sides of a right triangle has length of 10, which of the following could
be the length of other two sides of the triangle?
I. 6 and 8
15
II. 2
and 25
2
III. 3 and 50
40
3
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III
24. If 3x + 5y < 15 and 5x + 3y > 15, which of the following must be true?
I. x > y
II. x < y
III. x > 3
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only
25. Of the students in a certain class, 40 learn Spanish, 30 learn French, and 20 learn
Italian. If each of her students learn at least one of the languages, how many students
learn exactly two of the languages?
(1) There are 60 students in the class.
(2) 10 of the students learn all of the three languages.
26. The side surface of a cylinder is rolled with a rectangular plate. If the height of a
cylinder tank is 12 feet and the perimeter of the circular base Is 9 feet, what is the
diagonal of the rectangular plate?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 20
(E) 21
27. What is the volume of a rectangular solid?
(1) Length of one of sides of the solid is 8.
(2) One of the faces has area of 30 and perimeter of 22.

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28. If the hypotenuse of the right triangle is 10, what is the perimeter of the triangle?
(1)The area of the triangle is 25.
(2) The triangle is an isosceles triangle.
29. In the figure, ADE is an isosceles right triangle above on the square ABCD. If the
side length of the square is 10, what is the area of the whole region?
(A) 110
(B) 115
(C) 120
(D) 125
(E) 133
30. In the figure below, ABCD is a rectangle and DA and CB are radii of the circles
shown. If AB = 4, what is the perimeter of the shaded region?

(A) 2π + 4
(B) 4π + 4
(C) 4π + 8
(D) 8π + 8
(E) 8π + 16
31. Triangle A’s base is 10% greater than the base of triangle B, and A’s height is 10%
less than the height of triangle B. The area of triangle A is what percent less or
more than the area of triangle B?
(A) 9% less
(B) 1% less
(C) Equal to each other
(D) 1% more
(E) 9% more
32. Farmer Brown drives his tractor 40 kilometers. If he travels at r kilometers per hour
for one-third of the distance and 2r kilometers per hour for the remainder, how
many hours does the entire trip take, in terms of r?
24
(A) r
36
(B) r
80
(C) 3r
(D) 20r
r
(E) 36

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33. A sphere is inscribed in a cube with an edge of 10. What is the shortest possible
distance from one of the vertices of the cube to the surface of the sphere?
√
(A) 10( 3 − 1)
(B) 5
√
(C) 10( 2 − 1)
√
(D) 5( 3 − 1)
√
(E) 5( 2 − 1)

34. How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, can be evenly divided by
neither 3, nor 5?
(A) 35
(B) 27
(C) 25
(D) 26
(E) 28

30. A 31. B 32. C 33. D 34. B

B 16. C 17. E 18. E 19. C 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. E 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. D
Answers: 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. C 15.

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Lesson №7. Combinatorics and Probability

Combinatorics
GoGMAT, Session 13
Combinatorics is a branch of mathematics that helps to give the answer on the question
«In how many ways an event can happen?». In this part you’ll see word problems again.
Two main rules of Combinatorics are Addition and Multiplication rules.
Addition rule
If event A can happen in (A) ways and event B can happen in (B) ways, then event
A or B can happen in (A)+(B) ways:
Occuring of A or B = Occuring of A + Occuring of B
So, the word «or» indicates addition.
Practice

1. The box contains 5 red balls, 4 blue, 6 green and 3 yellow. In how many ways can
Bob take from the box one red or one yellow ball?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) 18

Multiplication Rule
If you know the number of outcomes in each of the events A, B, C etc, the number of
possibilities for both of them occurring together (event A and event B) is the product of
individual numbers of outcomes:
Number of (A and B) = Number of A × Number of B
The word «and» is the key word that indicates multiplication.
Practice

2. Tony has 3 apples, 5 pears and 7 plums in his basket. The boy is choosing 2 fruits at
random. Find the number of outcomes in which Tony chooses an apple and a plum.
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 21
(E) 30

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Factorial. Arrangements of n different objects.

The factorial «!» of a positive integer n is the product of all positive integers no greater
than n:
n! = n · (n − 1) · (n − 2) · ... · 2 · 1
For example:
5! = 5 · 4 · 3 · 2 · 1 = 120
The factorial of zero is set to be 1:
0! = 1! = 1.
Note, that 0! and 1! are the only odd factorials because all other factorials have 2 as
a factor.
Practice
8!
3. What is value of ?
5!
(A) 336
(B) 40
(C) 120
(D) 360
(E) 1680

The number of arrangements of n different objects in a row is a typical problem that

can be solved this way:
1. How many objects we can put at 1-st place? Answer: n.
2. How many objects we can put at 2-nd place? Answer: n − 1.
(For we can’t put the object that already placed at 1st place.)
...
n. How many objects we can put at n-th place? Answer: 1.
(For only one object remains.)
Therefore, the total number of arrangements of n different objects in a row is
N = n · (n − 1) · (n − 2) · ... · 2 · 1 = n!
Practice

4. In how many ways can you arrange the letters in the word MICRO?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 120
(D) 20
(E) 60

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Circular arrangements
Let’s say we have 6 distinct objects. How many relatively different arrangements do
we have, if these objects should be placed in a circle?

The difference between placement in a row and that in a circle is following: if we shift
all object by one position, we will get different arrangement in a row but the same relative
arrangement in a circle. It means number arrangement in a row is n times the number
of the relative arrangement in a circle. So, for the number of circular arrangements of n
objects we have:
n!
R= = (n − 1)!
n
Or we can say that it does not matter where the first item is placed, since only the
order around that item is important. And total possible arrangements of remaining n − 1
items are (n − 1)!
Generally, n different items in a circle can be arranged in (n − 1)! ways.
Practice

5. Seven family members are seated around their circular dinner table. If the only
arrangements that are considered distinct are those where family members are seated
in different locations relative to each other, then how many distinct arrangements
around the table are possible?
(A) 7
(B) 42
(C) 5040
(D) 524
(E) 720

Permutation with repetition

If the only concern we have in a question is how some subsets of identical objects can
be rearranged, we can use the special formula:

(total number of objects)!

(number in subset 1)! · (number in subset 2)! · (number in subset 3)!...
Practice

6. There are three men and four women standing in a line from left to right. If the
only concern is gender of each individual, how many different ways can we arrange
the people in a line by gender?

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(A) 8,640
(B) 2,160
(C) 720
(D) 84
(E) 35

7. In how many ways can you place 3 roses, 4 lilies and 2 daisies in a row in the flower
bed?
(A) 720
(B) 1260
(C) 5040
(D) 40320
(E) 362880

Always together
Frequently, certain items must always be kept together. To do these questions, you
must treat the joined items as they were only one object.
Practice

8. In how many ways can you sit 8 people on a bench if 3 of them must sit together?
(A) 720
(B) 2,160
(C) 2,400
(D) 4,320
(E) 40,320

9. The choir consists of 5 boys and 6 girls. In how many ways can the singers be
arranged in a row, so that all the boys are together? (Assume the only concern is
gender).
(A) 120
(B) 30
(C) 24
(D) 11
(E) 7

Permutation
A permutation is an ordered collection of k objects taken from a set of n distinct
objects. The number of ways how we can choose and arrange k objects out of n distinct
objects is denoted as: Pnk .

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Knowing how to find the number of arrangements of n distinct objects we can easily
find formula for permutations:
1. The total number of arrangements of n distinct objects is n!
2. Now we have to exclude all arrangements of remaining (n − k) objects ((n − k)!) as
the order of remained (n − k) objects doesn’t matter.
So, we get
n!
Pnk =
(n − k)!
Remember, n is the total number of items, k is the number you want to order and n
is always more than or equal to k.
Practice

10. There are five girls, Amy, Barbara, Candice, Diane, and Elain, playing in the park.
If three of these girls will be chosen to be a princess, queen and sorceress, how many
different groups of girls can be chosen to play?
(A) 120
(B) 90
(C) 60
(D) 40
(E) 10

11. How many four-digit numbers can you form using ten numbers (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
7, 8, 9) if the numbers can be used only once?
(A) 5040
(B) 3556
(C) 4536
(D) 10000
(E) 24

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Combination
In the previous examples, when using the
permutations, the order of items to be arranged Colors, names,
mattered. If all you want to do is select items, and numbers, letters,
do not care what order they are in, you should use positions are the
the formula for the number of combinations. keys that indicate
A combination is an unordered collection of k objects permutation. When
taken from a set of n distinct objects. item has some
The number of ways how we can choose k objects out identification, like
of n distinct objects is denoted by Cnk color or letter, an
order of its item is
n! important – this is
Cnk = the difference between
k!(n − k)!
permutation and
Pay your attention that we always choose k objects
combination.
out of n, and n is greater or equal to k.
Practice

12. From a group of 8 secretaries, select 3 persons for promotion. How many distinct
selections are there?
(A) 24
(B) 56
(C) 336
(D) 8
(E) 3

13. A pizza can have 3 toppings out of a possible 7 toppings. How many different pizzas
can be made?
(A) 35
(B) 21
(C) 3
(D) 12
(E) 7

At least / at most
These questions will require you to add all the possible cases together but in these
problems it will take a lot of time. Know and use whenever you see at least or at most
the shortcuts:

at least/at most = total cases − unwanted cases

Practice

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14. A committee of 3 people is to be formed from a group of 5 men and 5 women. How
many possible committees can be formed if at least one woman is in the committee?
(A) 120
(B) 110
(C) 100
(D) 90
(E) 80

15. A three-person committee must be chosen from a group of 7 professors and 10

graduate students. If at least one of the people on the committee must be a professor,
how many different groups of people could be chosen for the committee?
(A) 70
(B) 560
(C) 630
(D) 1,260
(E) 1,980

Combinations from multiple selection pools

This type of problems combines multiplication rule with permutations and
combinations.

Practice

16. A committee of 3 boys and 5 girls is to be formed from a group of 5 boys and 7
girls. How many committees are possible?
(A) 420
(B) 210
(C) 105
(D) 35
(E) 15

Arrangements allowing the use of place more than once

Sometimes we are interested in arrangements allowing the use of place more than once.
Usually it means that objects are independent. Then to calculate number of arrangements
we use formula nk , where k is the number of objects and n is the number of options for
each object.
Practice

17. There are three lamps in the hall. Each lamp can be switched on and off
independently. In how many ways can the hall be illuminated? (The hall is
illuminated when at least one of the lamps in on)

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(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 6
(E) 5

18. 7 different objects must be divided among 3 people. In how many ways can this be
done if one or two of them can get no objects?
(A) 15,1200
(B) 2,187
(C) 3,003
(D) 792
(E) 344

Assurance of occurrence
There are some problems which ask you to find minimum number of attempts to ensure
some outcome. There are no formulas, just count the worst scenario.
Practice

19. Of the science books in a certain supply room, 50 are on botany, 65 are on zoology,
90 are on physics, 50 are on geology, and 110 are on chemistry. If science books are
removed randomly from the supply room, how many must be removed to ensure
that 80 of the books removed are on the same science?
(A) 81
(B) 159
(C) 166
(D) 285
(E) 324

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The order matters (Permutations)

Typical problem Formula Solution
In how many ways can 5
n! 5! = 5 · 4 · 3 · 2 · 1 = 120
boys be arranged in a row?

In how many ways can a

n=8
first, second and third prize
n! k = 3,
be awarded in a class of 8 Pnk = 8!
(n − k)! P83 = = 336
students, if no student can
(8 − 3)!
get more than 1 prize?

Number of all letters: 10

How many arrangements Number of «R»: 2
of the letters in the n! Number of «A»: 4
word PARRAMATTA are x! · y! · z! · ... Number of «T»: 2
possible? 10!
= 37, 800
4! · 2! · 2!

In how many ways can 4

people be arranged in a (n − 1)! (4 − 1)! = 3! = 6
circle?

Treat the joined

In how many ways can
objects as one We
four girls and three boys
have 5 objects here:
be arranged in a row so 5! × 3! = 120 × 6 = 720
4 girls and a group
that the boys are always
of 3 boys, treated as
together?
one.

How many 4-digit integers

can be formed using the nk n = 3, k = 4, nk = 34 = 81
digits {1, 3, 5}?

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The order does NOT matter (Combinations)

Typical problem Formula Solution
In how many ways can the n = 8, k = 3
n! 8!
set of 3 books be selected Cnk = C83 = = 56
k!(n − k)! 3!(8 − 3)!
from 8 different books?

A committee of 3 people is 3
All committees: C10
to be formed from a group
at least/at most = Unwanted (male)
of 5 men and 5 women. How
total cases − committees: C53
many possible committees 3
unwanted cases C10 − C53 =
can be formed if at least one
120 − 10 = 110
woman is in the committee?

A committee of 3 boys and 5 Number of male

The word «and»
girls is to be formed from a committees: C53
is the key word
group of 5 boys and 7 girls. Number of female
that indicates
How many committees are committees: C75
multiplication.
possible? C53 × C75 = 10 × 21 = 210

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Answers and explanations

1. We need to find out, in how many ways Bob can take 1 red or one yellow ball from
the box. The word «or» indicates addition, so, just add 5 variants for red and 3 –
for yellow: 5+3 =8, the answer is C.

2. Here we have the classic multiplication problem: the boy has to choose an apple
and a plum. The word «and» is an indicator of multiplication. Thus, let’s multiply
number of ways to choose an apple (3) by the number of ways to choose a plum (7).
3 · 7 = 21, the answer is D.

3. To calculate 8!/5! we won’t compute 8! and then divide it by 5! That would take
8·7·6·5·4·3·2·1 8 · 7 · 6 · 5!
too long. If we write out the problem, we get = .
5·4·3·2·1 5!
And 5! cancels, leaving us with 8 · 7 · 6 = 336. The answer is A.

4. The basic idea is we have 5 objects, and 5 possible positions they can occupy.
For the first place, there are five letters to pick from.
For the second - we’ve used up one letter, only 4 variants are left.
Third – 3 unused letters remaining.
Fourth – 2 letters remaining.
We multiply all numbers 5 · 4 · 3 · 2 · 1 = 120. The answer is C.

5. If all the orderings mattered, the answer would be 7 · 6 · 5 · 4 · 3 · 2 · 1 = 5040. But they
don’t all matter, so clearly the answer is not C. Which ones don’t matter? Well,
imagine you have seven people seated around a table, and they all get up and move
one seat to the right. Their relative positions haven’t changed, so according to the
rules of the question, this shouldn’t really count as a new ordering. How many times
can we shift people around the table before they arrive back at their original seats?
We can shift them six times, resulting in seven identical arrangements, counting the
initial arrangement. So you have to divide by 7, it will give you 720. The answer is
E.

6. There are two subsets of men and women. We see difference in gender. But in each
subsets there are uniform people (we don’t know their names or positions). And
we have just to rearrange people, so, we can use the formula. The question tells
us that we have three men and four women. So the total number of people we are
7! 4! · 5 · 6 · 7
‘rearranging’ is seven. Substituting into the formula we get: = =
3! · 4! 1 · 2 · 3 · 4!
35. The answer is E.

7. We have three subsets of flowers. Each subset contains identical flowers. And the
only concern is to rearrange flowers, so, we can use the formula. The total number of
9!
flowers we need to put in a row is 9. Substituting into the formula we get: =
3! · 4! · 2!
5·7·8·9
4! · 5 · 6 · 7 · 8 · 91 · 2 · 3 · 4! · 1 · 2 = = 1260. The answer is B.
1·2

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8. Let’s look at our 8 people in such a way: | | | | | | | |.

Treat the three that sit together as one person for the time being: | | (| | |)| | |.
Now, you have only 6 people (5 and the three that act as one) on 6 places: 6! = 720.
You have to remember that the three that sit together can also change places among
themselves: 3! = 6. So, the total number of possibilities is 6! · 3! = 4320. The answer
is D.
9. Look at the five boys as at one person. Now there are only 7 people and 6 of them
are uniform. To seat the boy (five boys act as one) on seven places there are 7
options. And then 6 remaining girls seat on remaining 6 places the only way. The
total number of ways is 7 × 1 = 7. The answer is E.
10. This question is permutation since there are roles of girls – their identifications,
that means that order is important. There are three girls being chosen to play in
the game.
For the princess we have 5 options. No girls have been chosen yet and all are still
available.
For the queen we now have 4 options. One girl has already been chosen and only
four are still available.
For the sorceress we now have 3 options. Two girls have been chosen and that leaves
only three girls available.
We now multiply to find the answer: 5 × 4 × 3 = 60.
Also we could find the answer just using the formula for permutation:
5! 5! 2! · 3 · 4 · 5
P53 = = = = 60. The answer is C.
(5 − 3)! 2! 2!
11. It seems to be easy, we take 10 · 9 · 8 · 7 since we have 4 positions, and get 5040, but
there is a trick to this problem because 5040 will include numbers that start with a
0, and in reality we don’t have those. So, we need to subtract the number of the fake
4-digit numbers. Use a Permutation formula: P93 = 9 · 8 · 7 = 504. 5040 − 504 = 4536.
Or we can use the multiplication rule again:
For the thousands digit we can use all digits except for zero: 9 options.
For the hundreds digit we can use all remaining 9 digits: one digit has already been
chosen and only nine are still available: 9 options
For the tens digit there are 8 options.
For the units digit there are 7 options.
To find the answer we will just multiply 9 · 9 · 8 · 7 = 4536. The answer is C.
12. This question is combination since order is not important.
8! 8! 5! · 6 · 7 · 8 6·7·8
C83 = = = = = 56
3!(8 − 3)! 3!5! 3!5! 1·2·3
The answer is B.

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13. There are 7 toppings in total, and by selecting 3, we will make different types of
pizza. This question is a combination since having a different order of toppings will
not make a different pizza.
7! 7! 4! · 5 · 6 · 7 5·6·7
C73 = = = = = 35
3!(7 − 3)! 3!4! 3!4! 1·2·3
The answer is A.

14. If at least one woman is on the committee, that means we can have a committee
with 3 women, 2 women, or 1 woman. And we can find the combinations for each
case separately, then add them all together. But it is too long. We can use shortcut
instead.
The total possible cases would be the number of committees of any 3 people out of
3
10: C10 .
The unwanted cases would be the number of committees of 3 men without women:
C53 .
3 10! 5!
C10 − C53 = − = 120 − 10 = 110
3!7! 2!3!
The second way is easier because it needs two calculations instead of five in the first
way. The answer is B.

15. In the task we see «at least» and it is the key to solution: to find a total without
a limit and then subtract the number of situations when there are no professors on
the team.
3 17! 15 · 16 · 17
We get C17 = = = 680 total possible committees.
3!14! 1·2·3
3
Now, the number of teams with students only is, using the same formula: C10 =
10! 8 · 9 · 10
= = 120
3!7! 1·2·2
Now, 680 − 120 = 560 – the number of groups which could be chosen to the
committee, where at least one person is a professor. The answer is B.

16. Out of 5 boys, we must choose 3: C53 = 10. Out of 7 girls, we must choose 5: C75 = 21.
All together: C53 × C75 = 10 × 21 = 210. The answer is B.

17. Each switch has two possible positions, on and off. Placing a 2 in each of the 3
positions, we have 23 . But among that 8 cases there is one, when all lamps are
switched off, and we must subtract this case because we are interested when the
hall is illuminated: 23 − 1 = 8 − 1 = 7. The answer is C.

18. Each of 7 objects can go to 3 different people and by the rule of multiplication we
get 3 × 3 × ... × 3 = 37 ways. The answer is B.

19. Such problems invite us to provide a foolproof solution that would work in 100%
of the cases. Thus, this means we will need to find a solution for the worst case.
So after we will have removed all of the botany and geology books as well as 65 on

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zoology, 50 on botany, and 50 on geology, but we still don’t have 80 of the same
kind. So, after another 79 on chemistry and 79 on physics still not enough. Now we
will have a total of 50+65+50+79+79=323 books removed. Now, however, we need
to remove only one book because we will know that we have only two kinds of books
left (either chemistry or physics) and any of them will give us a set of 80. Of course
in reality it would not be that bad, but we have to take the worst situation to be
sure.

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Probability
GoGMAT, Session 13
An event is as any outcome that can occur.
Probability of an event is the chance that this event will happen. The definition of
probability is
Number of favorable events
Probability =
Number of total events
The favorable events are the events of interest. They are the events that the question is
addressing. The total events are all possible events that can occur relevant to the question
asked.
Examples:
• Coin:

There are two equally possible outcomes when we toss a coin: a head (H) or tail
(T). Therefore, the probability of getting head is 50% or 1/2 and the probability of
getting tail is 50% or 1/2
• Dice:

There are 6 equally possible outcomes when we roll a dice (another word is die. The
probability of getting any number out of 1–6 is 1/6.
• Marbles, Balls, Cards, etc.
Practice:
1. We have a jar with 20 green and 80 white marbles. If we randomly choose a marble,
what is the probability of getting a green marble?
(A) 1/5
(B) 1/10
(C) 1/20
(D) 1/90
(E) 1/100

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Multiplication Rule
Two events are independent if occurrence of one event does not influence occurrence
of other events. If two (or more) independent events are occurring, and you know the
probability of each, the probability of BOTH (or ALL) of them occurring together (event
A and event B and event C, etc.) is a multiplication of their probabilities.

Probability of A and B = P (A and B) = P (A) · P (B)

Probability of A1 and A2 and ...An =

P (A1 and A2 and ...An ) = P (A1 ) · P (A2 ) · ... · P (An )

The multiplication theorem is used to answer the following questions:

What is the probability of two or more events occurring either

simultaneously or in succession?
For two events A and B: What is the probability that both events
A and event B occur?
The word «and» is the key word that indicates multiplication of the individual
probabilities.
Practice:

2. If there is a 20% chance of rain, what is the probability that it will rain on the first
day but not on the second?
(A) 0.04
(B) 0.16
(C) 0.2
(D) 0.4
(E) 0.8

3. There are two sets of integers: {1, 3, 6, 7, 8} and {3, 5, 2}. If Robert chooses randomly
one integer from the first set and one integer from the second set, what is the
probability of getting two odd integers?
(A) 2/5
(B) 3/5
(C) 2/3
(D) 5/8
(E) 1/5

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4. Given that there are 5 married couples. If we select only 3 people out of the 10,
what is the probability that none of them are married to each other?
(A) 7/9
(B) 3/10
(C) 3/5
(D) 2/3
(E) 1/3

5. There are 8 employees including Bob and Rachel. If 2 employees are to be randomly
chosen to form a committee, what is the probability that the committee includes
both Bob and Rachel?
(A) 1/14
(B) 1/28
(C) 2/8
(D) 1/56
(E) 1/64

Addition rule

• The probability that event «A or B» occurs is

P (A or B) = P (A) + P (B) − P (A and B)

(remember the formula for the union of sets |A ∪ B| = |A| + |B| − |A ∩ B|).

• If events A and B are independent, then we can rewrite the addition rule as
follows:

P (A or B) = P (A) + P (B) − P (A) · P (B)

• If the event «A and B» is impossible (that is, A ∩ B has no outcomes), then A

and B are said to be mutually exclusive events, and P (A and B) = 0. Then the
general addition rule is reduced to

P (A or B) = P (A) + P (B)

This is the special addition rule for the probability of two mutually exclusive events.

The addition theorem is used to answer the following questions:

What is the probability of one event or another event or both events

occurring?
What is the probability of event A or event B occurring?

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The word «or» indicates addition of the individual probabilities.

Practice:

1. If Jessica rolls a die, what is the probability of getting at least a «3»?

(A) 2/3
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/6
(D) 1/3
(E) 5/6

2. What is the probability that a fair die rolled once will land on either 4 or 5?
(A) 1/6
(B) 2/6
(C) 3/6
(D) 4/6
(E) 5/6

3. A certain club has 10 members, including Harry. One of the 10 members is to be

chosen at random to be the president, one of the remaining 9 members is to be
chosen at random to be the secretary, and one of the remaining 8 members is to
be chosen at random to be the treasurer. What is the probability that Harry will
be either the member chosen to be the secretary or the member chosen to be the
treasurer?
(A) 1/720
(B) 1/80
(C) 1/10
(D) 1/9
(E) 1/5

Probability that a specific event will not occur

The maximum probability for any event is 1. A probability of 1 means that the event
will certainly occur.
If you know that the probability of an event (or one of the outcomes) is p, the
probability of this event NOT happening (or the probability of it NOT having this given
outcome) is (1 − p).
When you see the words «at least» in a probability question, chances are it is easier
to find the probability of the opposite happening and then subtract from 1. The word «at
least» indicates problems to solve which one use the formula

P (A) = 1 − P (not A)

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Practice:

4. What is the probability that, on three rolls of a single fair die, at least one of the
rolls will be a six?
(A) 125/216
(B) 91/216
(C) 191/216
(D) 1/6
(E) 5/6
(F) 1/2

5. There are 3 black balls and 7 white balls in a box. If two balls are chosen randomly,
what is the probability that at least one will be black?
(A)1/15
(B) 7/15
(C) 8/15
(D) 7/30
(E)23/30

6. A new Machine is bought by a factory to produce 2 parts, A and B. A and B when

assembled produce C. During the testing stages of the machine, 1 out of 10 in A
is defective and 2 out of 10 in B are defective. What is the probability of C being
defective?
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.28
(D) 0.32
(E) 0.72

Binomial distribution
Sometimes we’ll need to find out the answer for the following question:

If the probability that an object has a certain property is p, what is

the probability that exactly k of n objects have this property, given
that these objects are independent?

1) As we know, there are Cnk ways to choose k objects out of n.

2) The event that only the k chosen objects have a certain property can be described
the following way:
these k objects have this property AND the rest (n − k) objects do not
| {z } | {z }
event A event B

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These two events are independent, therefore,

P (A and B) = P (A) · P (B)
Let’s calculate the probability of events A and B:
P (A) = p · p · ... · p = pk ,
| {z }
k
P (A) = (1 − p) · (1 − p) · ... · (1 − p) = (1 − p)n−k
| {z }
(n−k)
So, from 1)-2), the answer can be calculated using the formula:

P (exactly k objets haves some property) = Cnk × pk × (1 − p)(n−k)

Practice:

7. The probability that a visitor at the mall buys a pack of candy is 30%. If three
visitors come to the mall today, what is the probability that exactly two will buy a
pack of candy?
(A) 0.343
(B) 0.027
(C) 0.063
(D) 0.189
(E) 0.147

8. In Paris, the probability of rain in April is 40% for every day. Ann and Ben decided
to visit Paris on April 4th–7th. To the nearest hundredths, what is the probability
that it was raining on exactly 3 days of their visit?
(A) 0.04
(B) 0.06
(C) 0.08
(D) 0.15
(E) 0.24

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Answers and explanations

1. The number of all marbles: N = 20 + 80 = 100

The number of green marbles: n = 20
n 20 1
Probability of getting a green marble: p = = = . So, the answer is A.
N 100 5
2. The probability of rain is 0.2; therefore probability of not raining is 1 − 0.2 = 0.8.
This yields that the probability of rain on the first day and sunshine on the second
day is:
P = 0.2 · 0.8 = 0.16. Best answer is B.

3. There is a total of 5 integers in the first set and 3 of them are odd: {1, 3, 7}. Therefore,
the probability of getting odd integer out of first set is 3/5. There are 3 integers in
the second set and 2 of them are odd: {3, 5}. Therefore, the probability of getting
an odd integer out of second set is 2/3. Finally, the probability of getting two odd
integers is: P = 35 · 23 = 52 . The answer is A.

4. 1-st person: 10/10=1 – we choose any person out of 10.

2-nd person: 8/9 – we choose any person out of 8 = 10 − 2 (one couple from previous
choice)
3-rd person: 6/8 – we choose any person out of 6 = 10−4 (two couples from previous
choices).
p = 1 · 8/9 · 6/8 = 2/3. The answer is D.

5. Probability approach: The probability of choosing Bob or Rachel as a first person in

committee is 2/8. The probability of choosing Rachel or Bob as a second person when
first person is already chosen is 1/7. The probability that the committee includes
both Bob and Rachel is: P = 2/8 · 1/7 = 2/56 = 1/28
Combinatorial approach: The total number of possible committees is N = C82 = 28.
The number of possible committees that includes both Bob and Rachel is n = 1.
Then:
n 1 1
P = = 2 = .
N C8 28
So, the answer is B.

6. There are 4 outcomes that satisfy our condition (at least 3): {3, 4, 5, 6}. The
probability of each outcome is 1/6. The probability of getting at least a «3» is:
P = 1/6 + 1/6 + 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/3. The answer is A.

7. This is an «or» problem, because it is asking for the probability that the die will land
on either 4 or 5. The probability that the die will land on 4 is 1/6. The probability
that the die lands on 5 is 1/6. Therefore, the probability that the die will land on
either 4 or 5 is 1/6+1/6=1/3. The answer is B.

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8. Two probabilities must be calculated here: (1) the probability of Harry’s being
chosen for secretary and (2) the probability of Harry’s being chosen for treasurer.
(1) If Harry is to be secretary, he first CANNOT have been chosen for president,
and then he must be chosen for secretary. The probability that he will be chosen for
president is 1/10, so the probability of his NOT being chosen for president is 9/10.
Then, the probability of his being chosen for secretary is 1/9. Thus, the probability
9
that Harry will be chosen for secretary is 10 · 19 = 10
1
.
(2) If Harry is to be treasurer, he needs to be NOT chosen for president, then NOT
chosen for secretary, and then finally chosen for treasurer. The probability that he
will NOT be chosen for president is again 9/10. The probability of his NOT being
chosen for secretary is 8/9. The probability of his being chosen for treasurer is 1/8,
9
so the probability that Harry will be chosen for treasurer is 10 · 89 · 18 = 10
1
.
(3) So, finally, the probability of Harry’s being chosen as either secretary or treasurer
1 1
is thus 10 + 10 = 51 .
The answer is E.

9. We could list all the possible outcomes of three rolls of a die ((1, −1, −1), (1, −1, −2),
(1, −1, −3), etc.) and then determine how many of them have at least one six, but
this would be very time-consuming. Instead, it is easier to think of this problem in
reverse before solving:
What is the probability that not one of the rolls will yield a 6? On each roll, there
is a 5/6 probability that the die will not yield a 6.
Thus, the probability that on all 3 rolls the die will not yield a 6 is 56 · 56 · 65 = 125
216
. Now
we return to answer the question by subtracting our result from 1. The probability
that at least one of the rolls will be a 6 includes every outcome, except when three
consecutive non-sixes are rolled.
1 − 125
216
= 91
216
is the probability that at least one six will be rolled. The answer is B.

10. We see the words «at least» in a probability question, so it is easier to find the
probability of the opposite happening and then subtract from 1. The opposite of at
least one ball being black is both balls being white. We can find the probability of
drawing two white balls in two ways.
7 6 7
First, using probability approach: 10
· 9
= 15
.
2
Secondly, with the help of Combinatorics: there are C10 = 45 total ways to take out
2 balls from the box of 10. We can choose 2 white balls in C72 = 21 ways. So, the
probability of drawing two white balls is 21/45 = 7/15. Don’t forget to subtract
that from 1: 1 − 7/15 = 8/15. So the correct answer is C.

11. P (A is defective) = 1/10, so P (A is not defective) = 9/10; P (B is defective) =

2/10, so P (B is not defective) = 8/10. C is defective if A is defective, while
B is not; or if B is defective and A is not; or if both of them are defective.
Counting the probability of each of these events can be time consuming. The only
situation that does not suits the question is when A and B are both not defective.

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Then P (C is not defective) = P (A and B are not defective) = P (A is not) ×

9 8 72
P (B is not) = 10 × 10 = 100 = 0.72. Thus, P (C is defective) = 1 − 0.72 = 0.28.
The answer is C.

12. Here, a certain characteristic is buying candies, so, p = 0.3. We have 3 visitors in
total: n = 3, and have to choose 2 out of them: k = 2. Substituting numbers in the
formula gives us:
3!
P = C32 · (0.3)2 · (0.7)(3−2) = · 0.09 · 0.7 = 3 · 0.063 = 0.189. The answer is D.
(2! · 1!)
13. Now, the option we are interested in is rain, so, p = 0.4. We have 4 days in total:
n = 4, and have to choose 3 out of them: k = 3. Substituting numbers in the formula
4!
gives us: P = C43 · 0.43 · 0.6(4−3) = · 0.064 · 0.6 = 4 · 0.0384 = 0.1536 ≈ 0.15.
(3! · 1!)
The answer is D.

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Home assignment
Combinatorics

1. 15 chess players take part in a tournament. Every player plays twice with each of
his opponents. How many games are to be played?
(A) 190
(B) 200
(C) 210
(D) 220
(E) 225

2. How many even numbers of 3 digits can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
and 6?
(A) 168
(B) 162
(C) 120
(D) 105
(E) 100

3. There are 4 contestants in the competition for 6 different prizes. A contestant can
win only one prize. How many different outcomes are possible at the competition
for the four contestants?
(A) 360
(B) 720
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 1

4. In how many ways can the letters of the word «COMPUTER» be arranged so that
all the vowels are together?
(A) 3!5!
(B) 8!
(C) 7!
(D) 3!6!
(E) 8! − 3!6!

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5. How many 4 digit numbers begin with a digit that is prime and end with a digit
that is prime?
(A) 1600
(B) 800
(C) 80
(D) 1440
(E) 16

6. The box contains 5 green candies, 7 red, 15 blue, and 20 yellow. Allan is taking
candies from the box at random. What is the least number of candies he has to take
to ensure that at least two of them will be yellow?
(A) 2
(B) 12
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) 47

7. The president of a country and 4 other dignitaries are scheduled to sit in a row on
the 5 chairs. If the president must sit in the center chair, how many different seating
arrangements are possible for the 5 people?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 20
(D) 24
(E) 120

8. Given a selected committee of 8, in how many ways can the members of the
committee divide the responsibilities of a president, vice president, and secretary?
(A) 72
(B) 672
(C) 336
(D) 56
(E) 112

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9. The president of a company wants to fire 3 persons from the Sales department.
How many distinct selections can he make if the Sales department gathers 8 sales
managers?
(A) 366
(B) 3
(C) 8
(D)112
(E) 56

10. Ten friends meet in the park. If each person shakes hands with his each of friends
once, how many handshakes take place?
(A) 141
(B) 131
(C) 115
(D) 90
(E) 45

11. How many different words with up to 4 letters can be made with the letters A
and B?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 16
(D) 30
(E) 32

12. Chef Gundy is making a new «style» of salad, which will contain two kinds of lettuce,
one kind of tomato, one kind of pepper and two kinds of squash. If Chef Gundy has
8 kinds of lettuce, 4 kinds of tomatoes, 5 types of peppers, and 4 kinds of squash
from which to choose, then how many different “styles” of salad can he make?
(A) 640
(B) 1120
(C) 2240
(D) 3360
(E) 13440

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13. Alan has a flock of sheep from which he will choose 4 to take with him to the
livestock show in Houston. If Alan has 15 distinct possible groups of sheep he could
take to the show then which of the following is the number of sheep in his flock?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 15
(D) 30
(E) 5

14. Four women and six men work in the accounting department. In how many ways
can a committee of 3 be formed if it has to include at least one woman?
(A) 36
(B) 60
(C) 72
(D) 100
(E) 110

15. There are 3 yellow chips and 2 green chips. When arranged in a row, they form a
certain color pattern, for example RBRRB. How many color patterns are possible?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 60
(E) 100

16. There are ten lamps in the hall. Each lamp can be switched on and off independently.
In how many ways can the hall be illuminated? (The hall is illuminated when at
least one of the lamps is on)
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 128
(D) 1023
(E) 1024

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17. (SC) A 6-people committee in a film festival will be selected from 8 directory and
6 film critics. If the committee consists of 4 directors and 2 critics, how many such
committees are possible?
(A) 2,100
(B) 1,400
(C) 1,050
(D) 840
(E) 700

18. (SC) In how many arrangements can a photographer seat 3 girls and 3 boys in a
row of 6 seats if the boys are to have the first, third, and fifth seats?
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 36
(E) 720

19. If a customer has to make exactly 1 selection from each of the 5 categories listed
below, what is the number of different ice-cream sundaes that a customer can create?
12 ice cream flavors;
10 kinds of candy;
8 liquid toppings;
5 kinds of nuts;
With or without whip cream.
(A) 9600
(B) 4800
(C) 2400
(D) 800
(E) 400

20. How many four-digit numbers can you form using ten digits (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8,
9) if the digits can be used only once?
(A) 9000
(B) 5852
(C) 4940
(D) 4536
(E) 10000

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21. A tennis command contains three persons. Such command must be chosen from a
group of 7 juniors and 10 graduates. If at least one of the people on the committee
must be a junior, how many different tennis commands could be made?
(A) 70
(B) 560
(C) 630
(D) 1,260
(E) 1,980

22. There are 9 books on a shelf, 7 hard cover and 2 soft cover. How many different
combinations exist in which you choose 4 books from the 9 and have at least one of
them be a soft cover book?
(A) 184
(B) 126
(C) 91
(D) 36
(E) 21

23. How many different signals can be transmitted by hoisting 3 red, 4 yellow and 2
blue flags on a pole, assuming that in transmitting a signal all nine flags are to be
used?
(A)2520
(B) 1260
(C) 4!3!2!
(D) 9!
(E) 24

24. If Bob and Jen are two of 5 participants in a race, how many different ways can the
race finish where Jen always finishes in front of Bob?
(A) 120
(B) 60
(C) 30
(D) 15
(E) 5

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25. Olivier is an abstract painter who is working on a series of paintings. If each of these
paintings has three identical blue vertical stripes, two identical red vertical stripes
and two identical black vertical stripes spaced evenly across a square canvass, how
many distinct paintings could Olivier’s series include?
(A) 5040
(B) 720
(C) 210
(D) 96
(E) 6

26. Carly has 3 movies that she can watch during the weekend: 1 Action movies, 1
Comedy, and 1 Drama. However, she needs to watch the Drama 3 times. Assuming
Carly has time for 5 movies and intends to watch all of them, in how many ways
can she do so?
(A) 6
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 60
(E) 120

27. There are 11 top managers that need to form a decision group. How many ways are
there to form a group of 5 if the President and Vice President are not to serve on
the same team?
(A) 232
(B) 84
(C) 378
(D) 162
(E)196

28. There are 5 married couples and a group of three is to be formed out of them; how
many arrangements are there if a husband and wife may not be in the same group?
(A) 680
(B) 480
(C) 80
(D) 70
(E) 60

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29. How many numbers between 0 and 1670 have a prime tens digit and a prime units
digit?
(A) 268
(B) 272
(C) 202
(D) 112
(E) 262

30. On a ship, a signal can be made by putting from 1 to 6 different colored flags one
above the other on a pole. How many different signals can be made, if the ship has
exactly 6 different colored flags?
(A) 6!
(B) 6!/5! + 6!/4! + 6!/3! + 6!/2! + 6!/1! + 6!/0!
(C) 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1
(D) C66
(E) P66

31. John has 12 clients and he wants to use color coding to identify each client. If either
a single color or a pair of two different colors can represent a client code, what is
the minimum number of colors needed for the coding? (the order of a pair of colors
does not matter)
(A) 24
(B) 12
(C) 7
(D) 5
(E) 4

32. Each of the integers from 0 to 9, inclusive, is written on a separate slip of blank
paper and the ten slips are dropped into a hat. If the slips are then drawn one at
a time without replacement, how many must be drawn to ensure that the numbers
on two of the slips drawn will have a sum of 10?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

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33. Seven men and seven women have to sit around a circular table so that no 2 women
are together. In how many different ways can this be done?
(A) 6!7!
(B) 7!7!
(C) 6!6!
(D) 14!
(E) 7!2

34. Find the number of odd 3 digit integers that can be formed from the digits 0,1,2,3,4,5
if no digit can be repeated.
(A) 48
(B) 72
(C) 216
(D) 192
(E) 243

35. Aunt Anny has 5 nephews. She bought 10 chocolates and wants to give them all to
the children. In how many ways this can be done if it could happen that one, two,
three or four children get no chocolate?
(A) 5!
(B) 55
(C) 10!
(D) 510
(E) 105
Probability
1. (OG) A committee is composed of w women and m men. If 3 women and 2 men are
added to the committee, and if one person is selected at random from the enlarged
committee, then the probability that a women is selected can be represented by
(A) w/m
(B) w/(w + m)
(C) (w + 3)/(m + 2)
(D) (w + 3)/(w + m + 3)
(E) (w + 3)/(w + m + 5)

2. The probability of Sam passing the exam is 1/4. The probability of Sam passing
the exam and Michael passing the driving test is 1/6. What is the probability of
Michael passing his driving test?
(A) 1/24.

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(B) 1/2.
(C) 1/3.
(D) 2/3.
(E) 2/5

3. Xavier, Yvonne, and Zelda each try independently to solve a problem. If their
individual probabilities for success are 1/4, 1/2 and 5/(8) respectively, what is the
probability that Xavier and Yvonne, but not Zelda, will solve the problem?
11
(A)
8
7
(B)
8
9
(C)
64
5
(D)
64
3
(E)
64
4. Sixty percent of the members of a study group are women, and 45 percent of those
women are lawyers. If one member of the study group is to be selected at random,
what is the probability that the member selected is a woman lawyer?
(A) 0.10
(B) 0.15
(C) 0.27
(D) 0.33
(E) 0.45

5. There is a total of 120 marbles in a box, each of which is red, green, blue, or white.
If one marble is drawn from the box at random, the probability that it will be white
is 1/4, and the probability that it will be green is 1/3. What is the probability that
the marble will be either red or blue?
1
(A)
6
1
(B)
4
2
(C)
7
1
(D)
3
5
(E)
12

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6. Each of the eggs in a bowl is dyed red, or green, or blue. If one egg is to be removed
at random, what is the probability that the egg will be green?
(1) There are 5 red eggs in the bowl.
1
(2) The probability that the egg will be blue is
3
7. A box contains 100 balls, numbered from 1 to 100. If three balls are selected at
random and with replacement from the box, what is the probability that the sum
of the three numbers on the balls selected from the box will be odd?
1
(A)
4
3
(B)
8
1
(C)
2
5
(D)
8
3
(E)
4
8. Each of the 350 students either is graduate or postgraduate, what is the probability
that one student selected at random is a female postgraduate?
(1) The number of postgraduates is 187.
(2) The number of the female students is 247.

9. (OG) If x is to be chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4} and y is to be chosen

at random from the set {5, 6, 7}, what is the probability that x × y will be even?
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 2/3
(E) 5/6

10. Out of a box that contains 4 black and 6 white mice, three are randomly chosen.
What is the probability that all three will be black?
(A) 8/125
(B) 1/30
(C) 2/5
(D) 1/720
(E) 3/10

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11. (GC) A new Machine is bought by a factory to produce 2 parts, A and B. A and B
when assembled produce C. During the testing stages of the machine, 1 out of 10 in
A is defective and 2 out of 10 in B are defective. What is the probability of C being
defective?
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.28
(D) 0.32
(E) 0.72
12. There are 8 books lying on a table: 4 are hardback books and the other 4 are
paperback books. If 3 books are to be selected at random from the 8 books, what
is the probability that at least one of the paperback books will be selected?
1
(A)
2
2
(B)
3
11
(C)
12
13
(D)
14
32
(E)
35
13. There are 20 books in a bookcase. If one book is selected at random, what is the
probability that the book is either a hardback or a novel?
(1) 8 books in the bookcase are novel books and 10 books are hardbacks.
(2) 3 books in the bookcase are hardback novels.
14. A jar contains only x black balls and y white balls. One ball is drawn randomly
from the jar and is not replaced. A second ball is then drawn randomly from the
jar. What is the probability that the first ball drawn is black and the second ball
drawn is white?
  
x y
(A)
x+y x+y
  
x x−1
(B)
x+y x+y−1
xy
(C)
x+y
  
x−1 y−1
(D)
x+y x+y
  
x y
(E)
x+y x+y−1

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15. A machine is made up of two components, A and B. Each component either works
or fails. The failure or non-failure of one component is independent of the failure
or non-failure of the other component. The machine works if at least one of the
components works. If the individual probability that each component works is 2/3,
what is the probability that the machine works?
1
(A)
9
4
(B)
9
1
(C)
2
2
(D)
3
8
(E)
9
16. There are 18 balls in a jar. You take out 3 blue balls without putting them back
inside, and now the probability of pulling out a blue ball is 1/5. How many blue
balls were there in the beginning?
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 12
(E) 6

17. In a jar there are 3 red balls and 2 blue balls. What is the probability of drawing at
least one red ball when drawing two consecutive balls randomly?
(A) 9/10
(B) 16/20
(C) 2/5
(D) 3/5
(E) 1/2

18. If a bottle is to be selected at random from a certain collection of bottles, what is

the probability that the bottle will be defective?
(1) The ratio of the number of bottles in the collection that are defective to the
number that are not defective is 3:500.
(2) The collection contains 3,521 bottles.

19. The probability that the typist will make a mistake on a page is 1/100. What is the
probability that the typist will type 100 pages without making a single mistake?
(A)1

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(B) 1/10
(C) 99/100
(D) (99/100)100
(E) (1/100)100

20. Chef Gundy is creating a new dessert that will be made from 3 ingredients. If he
has 8 cookies and one flavor of sorbet to choose from, what fraction of the possible
arrangements will contain the sorbet?
(A) 2/3
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/56
(D) 1/9
(E) 1/84

21. Of the 10 employees in a department, 4 have a master’s degree. If an action group

with three members is to be selected at random, what is the probability that the
group will include at least one employee who has a master’s degree?
2
(A)
3
3
(B)
5
1
(C)
3
1
(D)
6
5
(E)
6
22. When a coin is tossed for 6 times, what is the probability that after the first tossing
every outcome will be different from the previous one?
1
(A)
16
1
(B)
24
1
(C)
32
1
(D)
48
1
(E)
64

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23. The probability that it would be sunny at any day of the next week is 20%. Find
the probability that it would be sunny at exactly 6 days of the next week.
(A) 0.0000512
(B) 0.000064
(C) 0.000128
(D) 0.0003584
(E) 0.0064

24. If four whole numbers taken at random are multiplied together, what is the
probability that the last digit in the product is 1, 3, 7 or 9?
(A) 0.4
(B) (0.4)4
(C) 0.5
(D) (0.5)4
(E) 0.6

25. If n is an integer from 1 to 96, what is the probability for n × (n + 1) × (n + 2) being

divisible by 8?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 62.5%
(D) 72.5%
(E) 75%

26. If the probability of rain on any given day in city x is 50% what is the probability
it with rain on exactly 3 days in a five day period?
(A) 8/125
(B) 2/25
(C) 5/16
(D) 8/25
(E) 3/4

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Test №7. Combinatorics, Probability

1. If w < x < y < z, is the product of four numbers negative?
(1) z > 0
(2) wx < 0

2. If m and n are positive integers, and 80 = 22m + n, what is the value of n?

(1) n < 22
(2) m = 3

3. What is the remainder when positive integer n is divided by 3?

(1) When n − 1 is divided by 3, the remainder is 2.
(2) When n + 1 is divided by 3, the remainder is 1.

4. If m and n are positive integers, what is the value of mn?

m 7
(1) =
n 15
(2) The largest common factor of m and n is 3.

5. What is the value of m2 − n2 ?

(1) m + n = 4
(2) (m − n)2 = 16
x3 y 5
6. If x and y are none zero, is 2 3 > 0?
xy
(1) x > 0
(2) y > 0

7. There are 33 students in a certain class, 18 are girls. If 23 of the students joined a
math club, how many boys did not join the club?
(1) 11 girls joined the club.
(2) There are fewer girls than boys in the club.

8. Last year in sales of single-home houses, 60% of already-existing houses was sold
while 76% of new-established houses sold. If there are three times as many new-
established houses as already-existing houses, what percent of single-home houses
has been sold in last year?
(A) 60 %
(B) 64 %
(C) 72 %
(D) 78 %
(E) 80 %

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9. In a certain company 75% of the employees usually use a laptop, what percent of
the employees usually use a PDA (Personal Digital Assistant)?
(1) 60% of the employees who usually use a laptop also use a PDA.
(2) 90% of the employees who usually use a PDA also use a laptop.
10. During a certain trading day, the opening price for stock X is $40 and the opening
price for stock Y is $25; the closing price for Stock X is $41, and the closing price
for stock Y is $28.5. The percentage increase of stock Y is how much greater than
the percentage increase of stock X?
(A) 115
(B) 11.5
(C) 12
(D) 12.5
(E) 125
11. If the units’ digit of integer x is greater than 1, what is the units’ digit?
(1) The units’ digit of x3 and the units’ digit of x are the same.
(2) The units’ digit of x2 is 6.
12. If point P is inside a circle with center at origin and radius of 2, is point К inside
the same circle?
(1) OP = 1
(2) PK = 3.5

13. As the figure above shows, four identical circles

√ are inscribed in a square. If the
distance between centers of circle A and В is 4 2, what is the area of the shaded
region?
(A) 256 − 72π
(B) 256 − 64π
(C) 256 − 32π
(D) 128 − 32π
(E) 64 − 16π
14. Each of the 350 students is either graduate or postgraduate, what is the probability
that one student selected at random is a female postgraduate?
(1) The number of postgraduates is 187.
(2) The number of the female students is 247.

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15. An analyst will recommend a combination of 3 industrial stocks, 2 transportation

stocks, and 2 utility stocks. If the analyst can choose from 5 industrial stocks, 4
transportation stocks, and 3 utility stocks, how many different combinations of 7
stocks are possible?
(A) 12
(B) 19
(C) 60
(D) 180
(E) 720

16. A club with a total membership of 30 has formed 3 committees: M, S, and R, which
have 8, 12, and 5 members, respectively. If no member of committee M is on either
of the other 2 committees, what is the greatest possible number of members in the
club who are on none of the committees?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) 12

17. There are two kinds of books on the bookshelf: Spanish and English. If two books
are randomly chosen from the bookshelf without replacement, what is the possibility
that at least one of the books chosen is English book?
(1) The ratio of Spanish books to English book is 3:1.
(2) There are less than 20 books on the shelf.

18. When a coin is tossed for 6 times, what is the probability that after the first tossing,
every outcome will be different from the previous one?
1
(A)
16
1
(B)
24
1
(C)
32
1
(D)
48
1
(E)
64

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19. There are 4 red marbles and 2 blue marbles in jar A, and there are 3 red marbles
and 2 blue marbles in jar B. If one marble is to be selected at random from each
jar, what is the probability that exactly one red marble and one blue marble will be
selected?
1
(A)
5
4
(B)
15
1
(C)
3
7
(D)
15
7
(E)
11
20. In how many ways can a photographer seat 3 girls and 3 boys in a row of 6 seats if
the boys are to have the first, third, and fifth seats?
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 36
(E) 720

21. A machine is made up of two components, A and B. Each component either works
or fails. The failure or non-failure of one component is independent of the failure
or non-failure of the other component. The machine works if at least one of the
components works. If the probability that each component works is 23 , what is the
probability that the machine works?
1
(A)
9
4
(B)
9
1
(C)
2
2
(D)
3
8
(E)
9

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22. Twelve jurors must be picked from a pool of n potential jurors. If m of the potential
jurors are rejected by the defense counsel and the prosecuting attorney, how many
different possible juries could be picked from the remaining potential jurors?
(1) If one less potential juror had been rejected, it would have been possible to
create 13 different juries.
(2) n = m + 12

23. What is the value of x?

√
(1) x4 = 9
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) of x2 , 6x, and 3 is −2.

24. The sum of the fourth and twelfth terms of an arithmetic progression is 20. What
is the sum of the first 15 terms of the arithmetic progression?
(A) 300
(B) 120
(C) 150
(D) 170
(E) 270

D 16. D 17. E 18. C 19. D 20. D 21. E 22. D 23. B 24. C

Answers: 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. E 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. B 11. E 12. C 13. E 14. E 15.

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PRACTICE TEST
Test
1. (Medium) The price of a certain commodity increased at a rate of X% per year
between 2000 and 2004. If the price was M dollars in 2001 and N dollars in 2003,
what was the price in 2002 in terms of M and N?
p
(A) (M × N )
p
(B) N × (N/M )
√
(C) N × M
√
(D) N × M/ N
(E) N × M 3/2

2. (Medium) It took the bus three hours to get from town A to town B. What was the
average speed of the bus for the entire trip?
(1) After one hour the bus finished 1/3 of the distance going at 60 km/h
(2) During the second hour the average speed of the bus was 120 km/h, twice its
speed during the third hour

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

3. (Easy) Driving 1.5 times slower, Bill was late for school today. What is the usual
time it takes Bill to drive to school? (Assume that each day Bill takes the same
route).
(1) It took Bill 15 more minutes to drive to school today than usually
(2) The distance between home and school is 15 miles

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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4. (Medium) Is integer N even?

(1) N × N = N
(2) N = N 3

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

5. (Hard) Two sets are defined as follows:

A = {2, 3, 4, 4, 4}
B = {0, 1, 2}
If a number is taken from set A at random and another number is taken from set
B at random, what is the probability that the sum of these numbers is a prime
integer?
(A) 1/15
(B) 2/15
(C) 5/15
(D) 7/15
(E) 9/15

6. (Medium) Is integer R even?

(1) R3 + R2 is even
(2) 3 × R is divisible by 6

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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7. (Hard) Among 200 people 56% like strawberry jam, 44% like apple jam, and 40%
like raspberry jam. If 30% of people like both strawberry and apple jam, what is
the largest possible number of people who like raspberry jam but do not like either
strawberry or apple jam?
(A) 20
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 86
(E) 92

8. (Easy) The sequence is defined as follows:

A(1) = 1, A(2) = −1,
A(n + 1) = A(n) + 2 × A(n − 1), n ≥ 2
What is the sum A(1) + A(2) + ... + A(1001)?
(A) −2
(B) −1
(C) 0
(D) 1
(E) 2

9. (Easy) Set T consists of odd integers divisible by 5. Is standard deviation of T

positive?
(1) All members of T are positive
(2) T consists of only one member

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

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10. (Hard) If quadrilateral ABCD is inscribed into a circumference. What is the value
of angle A?
(1) AC = CD
(2) Measure of angle D is 70 degrees

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

11. (Hard) Is |x − 1| < 1?

(1) (x − 1)2 ≤ 1
(2) x2 − 1 > 0

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

12. (Medium) What is the value of X?

(1) X! is odd
(2) X is even

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

13. (Hard) If the farmer sells 75 of his chickens, his stock of feed will last for 20 more
days than planned, but if he buys 100 more chickens, he will run out of feed 15 days
earlier than planned. If no chickens are sold or bought, the farmer will be exactly
on schedule. How many chickens does the farmer have?

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(A) 60
(B) 120
(C) 240
(D) 275
(E) 300

14. (Medium) The 19th of September 1987 was Saturday. What day was the 21st of
September 1990 if 1988 was a leap year?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Friday

15. (Medium) What is the value of integer J?

(1) |J| = J −1
(2) J J = 1

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

16. (Medium) If n = p/q (p and q are nonzero integers) is n an integer?

(1) n2 is an integer
(2) (2n + 4)/2 is an integer

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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17. (Medium) Two payment schemes are available for customers in the N&K store. The
first scheme implies a down payment of 20% of the purchase price and 10 monthly
payments of 10% each. The second implies a down payment of 10% and 20 monthly
payments of 8
(A) 14%
(B) 27%
(C) 30%
(D) 34%
(E) 35%
18. (Medium) A man cycling along the road noticed that every 12 minutes a bus
overtakes him while every 4 minutes he meets an oncoming bus. If all buses and
the cyclist move at constant speed, what is the time interval between consecutive
buses?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 6 minutes
(C) 8 minutes
(D) 9 minutes
(E) 10 minutes
19. (Easy) What is the hundreds digit of 210 + 25 + 1?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) 8
20. (Medium) Richard is 3 years younger than his sister. How old will Richard be in 5
years?
(1) Two years ago Richard was twice as young as his sister
(2) If Richard’s sister were born 2 years earlier, she would now be twice as old as
Richard

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

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21. (Hard) Mary and Joe are to throw three dice each. The score is the sum of points
on all three dice. If Mary scores 10 in her attempt what is the probability that Joe
will outscore Mary in his?
(A) 24/64
(B) 32/64
(C) 36/64
(D) 40/64
(E) 42/64

22. (Medium) M, N, and O are midpoints of sides AB, BC, and AC of triangle ABC.
What is the area of triangle MON?
√
(1) The area of ABC is 3/4
√
(2) ABC is an equilateral triangle with height 3/2

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

23. (Medium) Is the mean of a non-empty set S bigger than its median?
(1) All members of S are consecutive multiples of 3
(2) The sum of all members of S equals 75

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

24. (Easy) If X is an odd integer, which of the following numbers must be even?
(A) X 3 /3
(B) (X 2 − 1)/2
(C) X × p + 1 where p is a prime number
(D) (X + 7) × (X − 2)/2
(E) X X − 1

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25. (Hard) The diameter of each of the car’s wheels is 20 inches. What was the average
speed of the car in km/h if after the two-hour journey each wheel made 75,000
revolutions? (1 inch = 0.0252 meter)
(A) 32
(B) 41
(C) 59
(D) 74
(E) 88

26. (Medium) 6 students in the group study different languages as specified:

Russian 4
Ukrainian 3
Hebrew 2
Each student studies at least 1 language. It is also known that exactly 3 students
learn exactly 2 languages. How many students are studying all languages?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4

27. (Hard) What is the last digit of the following number 222 × 315 × 516 × 71?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) 0

28. (Hard) A soccer coach riding his bike at 24 km/h reaches his office 5 minutes late.
Had he traveled 25% faster, he would have reached the office 4 minutes earlier than
the scheduled time. How far is his office from his house?
(A) 18 km
(B) 24 km
(C) 36 km
(D) 40 km
(E) 72 km

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29. (Medium) 20% of employees are women with fair hair. 40% of fair-haired employees
are women. What percent of employees have fair hair?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 45
(D) 50
(E) 60

30. (Hard) Among 5 children there are 2 siblings. In how many ways can the children
be seated in a row so that the siblings do not sit together?
(A) 38
(B) 46
(C) 72
(D) 86
(E) 102

31. (Medium) A, B, and C are points on the plane. Is AB > 15?

(1) BC + AC > 14
(2) Area of triangle ABC < 1

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

32. (Easy) What is (1/16)−1/4 ?

(A) −1/2
(B) 2
(C) 2562
(D) 1/2
(E) 4

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33. (Medium) In what proportion should the 30% solution and the 3% solution be mixed
to obtain 12% solution?
(A) 1:3
(B) 1:2
(C) 2:3
(D) 3:4
(E) 4:5

34. (Medium) A plane takes off from the hill at 750 meters above the sea level and lands
some time later in a town located at 50 meters below the sea level. During the first
part of its flight the plane gained height at a rate of 50 meters per minute but then
it started to descend at a rate of 20 meters per minute. The duration of the first
part of the flight was what percent of the total flight time?
(1) The duration of the descent is known
(2) The total flight time is known

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

35. (Medium) If operation $ is defined as

$X = X + 2 if X is even,
$X = X − 1 if X is odd,
What is $(...$($($(15)))...) 99 times?
(A) 120
(B) 180
(C) 210
(D) 225
(E) 250

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36. (Easy) What is X?

(1) X 2 − 1 = X + 1
(2) X + 3 is a prime number

(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

37. (Medium) 160 kg of dry wood pulp is needed to produce 50 sheets of paper. How
much raw pulp will be needed to produce 200 sheets of paper if raw pulp loses 20
percent of its weight during desiccation?
(A) 400
(B) 600
(C) 640
(D) 800
(E) 850

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Answers and Explanations

(A) Price in 2003 was M × (1 + X/100)2 = N . From this equation (1 + X/100) =
1. p
(N/M ).
p p
Price in 2002 was M × (1 + X/100) = M × (N/M ) = (N × M ).
Let’s check the answer:
price in 2003 = (price in 2002) × (1 + X/100) =
p p
= (N × M ) × (N/M ) = N as in the stem.

2. (A) From Statement (1) it follows that 1/3 of the distance amounts to 60 km.
Therefore, the entire distance is 180 km and the average speed for the entire trip is
180 km / 3 h = 60 km/h.
Statement (2) gives no information about the first hour. The bus could be nearly
flying during the first hour (and then its average speed for the entire trip would be
high) or it could be crawling (and then its average speed for the entire trip would
be low).

3. (A) Statement (1) tells us that on average Bill drives for 15 minutes less. Since he
drove 1.5 times slower, the 15 minutes account for the difference. Therefore, it is
possible to find the difference.
Statement (2) does not tell us much; we don’t really need to know the distance and
by itself it is insufficient.

4. (E) Statement (1) says that N can be 0 or 1. Not enough.

Statement (2) says that N can be 0, 1, or −1. Not enough again.
Combine: N can be 0 (even) or 1 (odd). So the answer is E.

5. (D) There is no way how we can obtain a prime bigger than 5. In all, there are three
possibilities for the sum to be a prime number (P denotes probability function):
P (the sum is 2) = P (2 from A, 0 from B) = 1/5 × 1/3 = 1/15
P (the sum is 3) = P (2 from A, 1 from B) + P (3 from A, 0 from B) = 1/5 × 1/3 +
1/5 × 1/3 = 2/15
P (the sum is 5) = P (3 from A, 2 from B) + P (4 from A, 1 from B) = 1/5 × 1/3 +
3/5 × 1/3 = 4/15.
Summing up: P (the sum is prime) = P (the sum is 2) + P (the sum is 3) +
P (the sum is 5) = 7/15.

6. (B) Statement (1) is not sufficient, because for R = 2 or 3, R3 + R2 is even; 12 and

36. Statement (2) is sufficient because to be divisible by 6, 3R needs to contain a 2,
and thus be even. So the answer is B.

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7. (B) The general equation is S + A + R − SA − SR − AR + SAR + N = 100% where

N denotes the number of people who like none of the three jams (draw the Venn
diagram). To maximize the number of people who like raspberry but not strawberry
or apple jam N has to be 0. The new equation can be rewritten as follows:
R −AR −SR +SAR = 100%+SA−A−S. The left side of this equation is precisely
what the question asks for the number of people who like raspberry jam but do not
like strawberry or apple jam (Venn diagram will help to understand why it is so).
Plucking the numbers: R − AR − SR + SAR = 100% + 30% − 44% − 56% = 30%.
Finally, 30% of 200 is 60.

8. (D) Let’s write out some more terms of this sequence: A(3) = 1 ; A(4) = −1;
A(5) = 1. It is clear that even terms equal −1 and odd terms equal 1. Therefore,
the sum A(1) + A(2) + ... + A(1001) = 1.

9. (B) This question tests the basics. Standard deviation of a set is always non-negative
and equals 0 only if all members of the set are the same. Statement (1) doesn’t help
to answer the question. Statement (2) says that there is only one number in T and
therefore standard deviation of T is 0 (not positive).

10. (E) Statement (1) gives us nothing useful for solving the problem, only that angle A
is bigger than angle D. Statement (2) tells us that angle B = 110 degrees from the
equation: angle A + angle C = angle B + angle D = 180 for inscribed quadrilaterals.
So neither statement is sufficient. The answer is E.

11. (E) Statement (1) is equivalent to |x − 1| ≤ 1. If x = 0 or x = 2, statement (1)

holds but the principal statement is not true. Statement (2) is not sufficient either. If
x = 1.5, the principal statement holds but if x is big, say 5, the principal statement
is not true. Although Statement (2) means that x cannot be 0 it does not exclude
the possibility of x being 2. Thus, Statement (1) and Statement (2) combined are
not sufficient to answer the question.

12. (C) From statement (1) X! is odd, so X can be either 1 or 0 as 0! = 1. Insufficient.

The statement (2) gives that X is even. Not sufficient at all.
Combining two statements, we have to choose even number out of 1 and 0. Only 0
is even, so the answer is C.

13. (E) Let V denote the volume of feed one chicken consumes per day. Then the total
volume of feed in stock will be V × D × C where D is the number of days the feed
will last if the number of chickens does not change and C is the current number of
chickens. From the stem it follows that V × (D + 20) × (C − 75) = V × D × C;
V × (D − 15) × (C + 100) = V × D × C.
The first equation simplifies to 20 × C − 75 × D = 1500. The second equation
simplifies to (−15) × C + 100 × D = 1500. After dividing everything by 5 we get
the linear system:
4 × C − 15 × D = 300

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(−3) × C + 20 × D = 300.
After solving it we get C = 300, D = 60.

14. (E) If it were not for the leap - year the 19th of September in 1988 would be Sunday,
in 1989 it would be Monday, and in 1990 it would be Tuesday (because there are
365 days in a year and 365 = 52 × 7 + 1). Allowing for the leap - year the 19th
of September in 1990 should be Wednesday. Therefore, the 21st of September 1990
should be Friday.

15. (D) From the first statement we have that J can be 1 (it cannot equal to 0 or −1).
Thus (1) is sufficient. From statement (2), we learn that J can be 1 only.

16. (D) Statement (1) states that p2 /q 2 is an integer and as both are integers p/q must
also be an integer. Sufficient.
Statement (2) is the same as n + 2 which is an integer. Therefore, n also must be
an integer.

17. (C) Please note that the price of $216 is irrelevant to this question and is only cited
to trap you into lengthy calculations.
For any price X the customer would pay:

• By the first scheme: 0.2 · X + 10 · 0.1 · X = 1.2 · X

• By the second scheme: 0.1 · X + 20 · 0.08 · X = 1.7 · X.

The percentage difference = 100% · (1.7 · X − 1.2 · X)/(1.7 · X) = 100% · 0.5/1.7 ≈

100% · 0.51/1.7 = 30%.

18. (B) Let Vb denote the speed of the bus and Vc the speed of the cyclist. Then the
distance between the buses = 4 · (Vb + Vc ) = 12 · (V b − V c), so Vb = 2 · Vc .
Interval between the buses = (distance between the buses)/(speed of the bus) =
4 · (Vb + Vc )/Vb = 4 · (3/2 · Vb )/Vb = 6 minutes.

19. (A) The quickest way is to count: 210 + 25 + 1 = 1024 + 32 + 1 = 1057. The hundreds
digit of 1057 is 0.

20. (D) Let’s use R for Richard’s age, S for his sister’s age. From Statement (1) an
equation can be built 2 · (R − 2) = S − 2. As S = R + 3, this equation can be solved
for R and thus R + 5 can also be determined. R = 5 and R + 5 = 10.
From Statement (2) another equation can be built S + 2 = 2 · R or R + 5 = 2 · R
from where R = 5 and R + 5 = 10.

21. (B) This is a look-for-shortcuts problem. To outscore Mary Joe has to score in the
range of 11 - 18. The probability to score 3 is the same as the probability to score
18 (1 - 1 - 1 combination against 6 - 6 - 6, if 1 - 1 - 1 is on the tops of the dice the 6
- 6 - 6 is on the bottoms). By the same logic, the probability to score x is the same
as the probability to score 21 − x. Therefore, the probability to score in the range

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11 - 18 equals the probability to score in the range of 3 - 10. As 3 - 18 covers all

possible outcomes the probability to score in the range 11 - 18 is 1/2 or 32/64.
22. (D) Triangle MON is similar to triangle ABC (that is all sides of MON are
proportional to the sides of ABC). In fact, MON is one of the four equal triangles
that ABC breaks into if lines MN, MO, and NO are drawn. Thus, Statement (1)
is sufficient to answer the question - the area of MON = 1/4 × (area of ABC).
Information given by Statement (2) is sufficient to find the area of ABC and therefore
is also sufficient to find the area of MON.
23. (A) Statement (1) says that members of S are evenly distributed in the set. In this
case, the mean = the median = (first member + last member)/2. This holds even if
S contains only one member. Statement (2) gives no valuable information. S can be
{75} with the answer to the question NO or it could be {1, 2, 72} with the answer
to the question YES.
24. (B) (X 2 −1)/2 can be written as (X −1)·(X +1)/2 = even·even/2 = even·integer =
even. To see that other choices are not necessarily even consider X = 3 (in C consider
p = 2).
25. (C) The key thing in this question is to avoid difficult calculations. Note that
the answer choices are very much apart so we can round numbers in calculations
wherever possible and then choose the answer choice which is closest to the result
we obtained. The wheel’s radius in meters = 20 inches / 2×0.0252 = 0.252 =
approximately 0.25 meters. The wheel’s circumference = 2π · (0.25) = 0.5 × π ≈
3/2 = 1.5 meters.
The distance in kilometers = 75000× 1.5/1000 = 75×1.5 = 112.5 = approximately
113 km. The average speed in km/h = 113/2 = 56.5 km/h which is closest to choice
C.
26. (A) We have a total of 9 languages taken by 6 students. If 3 of them study 2
languages, we have 3 languages left for 3 people to study. Therefore, since students
are studying at least one language, nobody is taking 3.
27. (E) Since we have 2 · 5 in the product the last digit will for sure be 0.
28. (A) Let’s denote the distance we are looking for by X. When the coach is riding at
24 km/h, the way to the office takes him 9 minutes = 3/20 hour longer, than when
he is driving 25% faster, i.e. at 24 × 1.25 = 30 km/h. So, we have the following
equation:
X X 3
= +
24 30 20
X X 3
− =
24 30 20
X 3
=
120 20
X = 18

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29. (D) Let X denote the percent of fair-haired employees. Then 0.4 · X = women with
fair hair = 20% from where X = 50%.

30. (C) Without limitations 5 children can be seated in 5! = 120 ways. What is the
number of ways to seat the 5 children so that the siblings DO sit together? The
siblings can be regarded as one unit so there are 4! combinations. But within this
unit the siblings can sit in two different ways. So the number of ways to seat the
5 children so that the siblings DO sit together is 4!×2 = 48. Thus, the number of
combinations in which the siblings DO NOT sit together is 120 − 48 = 72.

31. (E) Statement (1) allows AB to be of any length. Statement (2) also allows AB to
be of any length: if AB is long angle ACB has to be close to 180 degrees to make
the area of the triangle smaller than 1. Statements (1) and (2) combined are not
sufficient either. AB can be long (in this case angle ACB has to be close to 180) or
it can be short (in this case angle ACB has to be close to 0).

32. (B) (1/16)−1/4 = 161/4 = 2.

33. (B) Let X denote the volume of the 30% - solution and Y the volume of the 3% -
solution.
(0.3X + 0.03Y )/(X + Y ) = 12% or 30X + 3Y = 12X + 12Y . From here 18X = 9Y
or X : Y = 1 : 2.

34. (D) A for time spent in ascent, D for time spent in descent. From the stem it is
clear that 20D − 50A = 750 + 50 = 800. The question asks for A/(A + D) × 100%.
Statement (1) says that D is known. From the equation above A can be found and
thus A/(A + D) × 100% can be determined.
Statement (2) says that A + D is known. This allows to express A in terms of D
and find D from the equation above. A/(A + D) × 100% can then be determined.

35. (C) $(15) = 14. We have to compute $(...$($($(14)))...) 98 times. Each $ just adds
2 to the previous result. Therefore, $(...$($($(14)))...) 98 times = 14 + 2·98 = 210.

36. (E) From Statement (1) X is either 2 or −1. Be careful not to cancel out the factor
(X + 1) for it can equal 0. Statement (2) does not help to determine whether X is
−1 or 2 as both 2 and 5 are primes.

37. (D) Let X denote the required amount of raw pulp. This X kg of raw pulp will turn
into 0.8X kg of dry pulp after desiccation. Now we can compose a proportion:
0.8X/200 = 160/50 from where X = 800.

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