CS504 Midterm MCQs from 1-22 Lectures

Lecture-01

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT Which question no longer concerns the modern software engineer?

Why does computer hardware cost so much?

A)

Why does software take a long time to finish?

B)

Why does it cost so much to develop a piece of software?

C)

Why can't software errors be removed from products prior to delivery?

D)
2 CORRECT
Today the increased power of the personal computer has brought about an
abandonment of the practice of team development of software.

True
A)

False
B)
3 CORRECT
Software is a product and can be manufactured using the same technologies
used for other engineering artifacts.

True
A)

False
B)
4
INCORRECT Software deteriorates rather than wears out because

Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments

A)

Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often
B)

Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions

C)

Software spare parts become harder to order

D)
5
INCORRECT Most software continues to be custom built because

Component reuse is common in the software world.

A)

Reusable components are too expensive to use.

B)
Software is easier to build without using someone else's components.
 C)
Off-the-shelf software components are unavailable in many application
D) domains.
6
INCORRECT The nature of software applications can be characterized by their information

complexity
A)

content
B)

determinacy
C)

both b and c
D)
7
INCORRECT Modern software applications are so complex that it is hard to develop mutually
exclusive category names.

True
A)

False
B)
8 CORRECT
The so called "new economy" that gripped commerce and finance during the
1990s died and no longer influences decisions made by businesses and software
engineers.

True
A)

False
B)
9 CORRECT
The functionality of most computer systems does not need to be enhanced the
lifetime of the system.

True
A)

False
B)
10
CORRECT Change cannot be easily accommodated in most software systems, unless the
system was designed with change in mind.

True
A)

False
B)
11
INCORRECT Most software development projects are initiated to try to meet some business
need.

True
A)
False
 B)
12
CORRECT In general software only succeeds if its behavior is consistent with the objectives
of its designers.

True
A)

False
B)

Lecture-02

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?

Process
A)

Manufacturing
B)

Methods
C)

Tools
D)
Feedback:

2
INCORRECT Software engineering umbrella activities are only applied during the initial
phases of software development projects.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

3 CORRECT
Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities?

communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment

A)

communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing

B)

analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance

C)

analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing

D)
Feedback:

4
Process models are described as agile because they
INCORRECT
eliminate the need for cumbersome documentation
A)

emphasize maneuverability and adaptability

B)

do not waste development time on planning activities

C)

make extensive use of prototype creation

D)
Feedback:

5
INCORRECT Which of these terms are level names in the Capability Maturity Model?

Performed
A)

Repeated
B)

Reused
C)

Optimized
D)

both a and d
E)
Feedback:

6 CORRECT
Software processes can be constructed out of pre-existing software patterns to
best meet the needs of a software project.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

7
INCORRECT Which of these are standards for assessing software processes?

SEI
A)

SPICE
B)

ISO 19002
C)

ISO 9001
D)

both b and d
E)
Feedback:
8 CORRECT
The best software process model is one that has been created by the people who
will actually be doing the work.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

9
INCORRECT Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software Process?

Emphasizes personal measurement of work product

A)

Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager

B)

Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling

C)

Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work products

D)
Feedback:

10
INCORRECT Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process?

Accelerate software process improvement

A)

Allow better time management by highly trained professionals

B)

Build self-directed software teams

C)

Show managers how to reduce costs and sustain quality

D)

both b and c
E)
Feedback:

11
INCORRECT Process technology tools allow software organizations to compress schedules by
skipping unimportant activities.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

12
CORRECT It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and
create high quality end products.
True
 A)

False
B)

Lecture-03

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT The linear sequential model of software development is

A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

A)

A good approach when a working program is required quickly.

B)

The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
C)

An old fashioned model that cannot be used in a modern context.

D)
Feedback:

2
INCORRECT The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the

Classical life cycle model

A)

Fountain model
B)

Spiral model
C)

Waterfall model
D)

both a and d
E)
Feedback:

3 CORRECT
The incremental model of software development is

A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

A)

A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.

B)

The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
C)

A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

D)
Feedback:

4
INCORRECT The rapid application development model is

Another name for component-based development.

A)

A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

B)

A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model.

C)

All of the above.

D)
Feedback:

5
INCORRECT Evolutionary software process models

Are iterative in nature

A)

Can easily accommodate product requirements changes

B)

Do not generally produce throwaway systems

C)

All of the above

D)
Feedback:

6
INCORRECT The prototyping model of software development is

A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

A)

A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

B)

The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
C)

A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.

D)
Feedback:

7
INCORRECT The spiral model of software development

Ends with the delivery of the software product

A)

Is more chaotic than the incremental model

B)

Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration

C)

All of the above

D)
Feedback:
8
INCORRECT The concurrent development model is

Another name for the rapid application development model.

A)

Often used for the development of client/server applications.

B)

Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems.

C)

Used whenever a large number of change requests are anticipated.

D)
Feedback:

9
INCORRECT The component-based development model is

Only appropriate for computer hardware design.

A)

Not able to support the development of reusable components.

B)

Works best when object technologies are available for support.

C)

Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics.

D)
Feedback:

10
INCORRECT The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical
methods to

Define the specification for computer-based systems

A)

Develop defect free computer-based systems

B)

Verify the correctness of computer-based systems

C)

All of the above

D)
Feedback:

11
INCORRECT Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process
model for software development?

Inception phase
A)

Elaboration phase
B)

Construction phase
C)

Validation phase
D)
 Feedback:

12
CORRECT In the Unified Process model requirements are determined iteratively and may
span more than one phase of the process.

True
A)

False
B)

Lecture-04

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 CORRECT
Agility is nothing more than the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to
change.

True
A)

False
B)
2
INCORRECT Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process?

Eliminate the use of project planning and testing

A)

Only essential work products are produced

B)

Process allows team to streamline tasks

C)

Uses incremental product delivery strategy

D)
3
INCORRECT How do you create agile processes to manage unpredictability?

Requirements gathering must be conducted very carefully

A)

Risk analysis must be conducted before planning takes place

B)

Software increments must be delivered in short time periods

C)

Software processes must adapt to changes incrementally

D)

both c and d
E)
4 CORRECT
In agile software processes the highest priority is to satisfy the customer
through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
True
 A)

False
B)
5
INCORRECT It is not possible to build software that meets the customers' needs today and
exhibits the quality characteristics that will enable it to be extended tomorrow.

True
A)

False
B)
6
INCORRECT Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile
software team?

Competence
A)

Decision-making ability
B)

Mutual trust and respect

C)

All of the above

D)
7 CORRECT
All agile process models conform to a greater or lesser degree to the principles
stated in the "Manifesto for Agile Software Development".

True
A)

False
B)
8
INCORRECT What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP)
process model?

analysis, design, coding, testing

A)

planning, analysis, design, coding

B)

planning, analysis, coding, testing

C)

planning, design, coding, testing

D)
9
INCORRECT What are the three framework activities for the Adaptive Software Development
(ASD) process model?

analysis, design, coding

A)

feasibility study, functional model iteration, implementation

B)

requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development

C)
 speculation, collaboration, learning
D)
10
INCORRECT The Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM) suggests a philosophy that
is based on the Pareto principle (80% of the application can be delivered in 20%
of the time required to build the complete application).

True
A)

False
B)
11
INCORRECT Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at
each daily Scrum meeting?

What did you do since the last meeting?

A)

What obstacles are you encountering?

B)

What is the cause of the problems you are encountering?

C)

What do you plan to accomplish at the next team meeting?

D)
12
INCORRECT In Feature Driven Development (FDD) a "feature" is a client-valued function that
can be delivered in two months or less.

True
A)

False
B)
13
INCORRECT Agile Modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these
software tasks?

Analysis
A)

Design
B)

Coding
C)

Testing
D)

both a and b
E)

Lecture-05

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 CORRECT
The essence of software engineering practice might be described as understand
 the problem, plan a solution, carry out the plan, and examine the result for
accuracy.

True
A)

False
B)
2
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of Hooker's core principles of software
engineering practice?

All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler

A)

A software system exists only to provide value to its users.

B)

Pareto principle (20% of any product requires 80% of the effort)

C)

Remember that you produce others will consume

D)
3
INCORRECT Every communication activity should have a facilitator to make sure that the
customer is not allowed to dominate the proceedings.

True
A)

False
B)
4 CORRECT
The agile view of iterative customer communication and collaboration is
applicable to all software engineering practice.

True
A)

False
B)
5
INCORRECT Software engineers collaborate with customers to define which of the following?

Customer visible usage scenarios

A)

Important software features

B)

System inputs and outputs

C)

All of the above

D)
6
INCORRECT Everyone on the software team should be involved in the planning activity so
that we can

reduce the granularity of the plan

A)

analyze requirements in depth

B)
 get all team members to "sign up" to the plan
C)

begin design
D)
7
INCORRECT What role(s) do user stories play in agile planning?

Define useful software features and functions delivered to end-users

A)

Determine a schedule used to deliver each software increment

B)

Provide a substitute to performing detailed scheduling of activities

C)

Used to estimate the effort required build the current increment

D)

both a and d
E)
8
INCORRECT Which of the following activities is not one of the four things that need to be
accomplished by the generic planning task set?

Develop overall project strategy

A)

Identify the functionality to deliver in each software increment

B)

Create a detailed schedule for the complete software project

C)

Devise a means of tracking progress on a regular basis

D)
9
INCORRECT Analysis models depict software in which three representations?

architecture, interface, component

A)

cost, risk, schedule

B)

information, function, behavior

C)

None of the above

D)
10
CORRECT The customer can directly observe both the difference between the internal
quality of a design and its external quality?

True
A)

False
B)
11
INCORRECT Teams using agile software practices never create models.
 True
A)

False
B)
12
CORRECT Many of the tasks from the generic task sets for analysis modeling and design
can be conducted in parallel with one another.

True
A)

False
B)
13
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of the principles of good coding?

Create unit tests before you begin coding

A)

Create a visual layout that aids understanding

B)

Keep variable names short so that code is compact

C)

Write self-documenting code, not program documentation

D)
14
INCORRECT A successful test is one that discovers at least one as-yet undiscovered error.

True
A)

False
B)
15
INCORRECT Which of the following are tasks in the generic task set for construction?

Build a software component

A)

Create a user interface

B)

Unit test the component

C)

Assess the quality of the component

D)

both a and c
E)
16
CORRECT Which of the following are valid reasons for collecting customer feedback
concerning delivered software?

Allows developers to make changes to the delivered increment

A)

Delivery schedule can be revised to reflect changes

B)
 Developers can identify changes to incorporate into next increment
C)

All of the above

D)

Lecture-06

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 CORRECT
Software engineers do not need to consider hardware when designing a
computer-based system.

True
A)

False
B)
2
INCORRECT Which of the following can be elements of computer-based systems?

documentation
A)

software
B)

people
C)

hardware
D)

all of the above

E)
3
INCORRECT The system engineering process usually begins with the

detailed view
A)

domain view
B)

element view
C)

world view
D)
4
INCORRECT To construct a system model the engineer should consider which of the following
restraining factors?

assumptions
A)

budget
B)
constraints
 C)

schedule
D)

both a and c
E)
5 CORRECT
By following modern system engineering practices simulation of reactive
systems is no longer necessary.

True
A)

False
B)
6
INCORRECT During business process engineering, three different architectures are examined.

applications, data, technology infrastructure

A)

communications, organization, financial infrastructure

B)

network, database, reporting structure

C)

systems, requirements, data structure

D)
7
INCORRECT Which elements of business processing engineering are the responsibilities of
the software engineer?

business area analysis

A)

business system design

B)

construction and integration

C)

information strategy planning

D)

both b and c
E)
8
INCORRECT The goal of product engineering is to translate the customer's desire for a set of
defined capabilities into a working product.

True
A)

False
B)
9
INCORRECT The architecture components for product engineering are

data, hardware, software, people

A)
data, documentation, hardware, software
 B)

data, hardware, software, procedures

C)

documentation, hardware, people, procedures

D)
10
INCORRECT The top level of the hierarchical model of a system is known as the

AFD
A)

DFD
B)

SCD
C)

SFD
D)
11
INCORRECT The system model template contains which of the following elements

input
A)

output
B)

user interface
C)

all of the above

D)
12
INCORRECT UML notations that can be used to model the hardware and software elements of
a system are

Activity diagrams
A)

Class diagrams
B)

Deployment diagrams
C)

Use-case diagrams
D)

a, b, and c
E)

Lecture-07

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 INCORRECT
Requirements engineering is a generic process that does not vary from one software project
to another.
 True
A)

False
B)
2 INCORRECT
During project inception the intent of the of the tasks are to determine

basic problem understanding

A)

nature of the solution needed

B)

people who want a solution

C)

none of the bbove

D)

a, b and c
E)
3 INCORRECT
Three things that make requirements elicitation difficult are problems of

budgeting
A)

scope
B)

understanding
C)

volatility
D)

b, c and d
E)
4 INCORRECT
The result of the requirements engineering elaboration task is an analysis model that defines
which of the following problem domain(s)?

information
A)

functional
B)

behavioral
C)

all of the above

D)
5 CORRECT
It is relatively common for different customers to propose conflicting requirements, each
arguing that his or her version is the right one.

True
A)

False
B)
6 CORRECT
 The system specification describes the

Function, performance and constraints of a computer-based system

A)

implementation of each allocated system

B)

element software architecture

C)

time required for system simulation

D)
7 INCORRECT
The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is to

examine the system model for errors

A)

have the customer look over the requirements

B)

send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns
C)

use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement

D)
8 INCORRECT
The use of traceability tables helps to

debug programs following the detection of run-time errors

A)

determine the performance of algorithm implementations

B)

identify, control, and track requirements changes

C)

none of the above

D)
9 INCORRECT
A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under
development.

True
A)

False
B)
10
UNANSWERED The job of the requirements engineer is to categorize all stakeholder information in a way
that allows decision makers to choose an internally consistent set of requirements.

True
A)

False
B)
11 CORRECT
The nature of collaboration is such that all system requirements are defined by consensus of
a committee of customers and developers.
True
 A)

False
B)
12
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of the context-free questions that would be used during
project inception?

What will be the economic benefit from a good solution?

A)

Who is against this project?

B)

Who will pay for the work?

C)

Who will use the solution?

D)
13 CORRECT
In collaborative requirements gathering, the facilitator

cannot be a member of the software team

A)

cannot be a customer
B)

controls and facilitates the process

C)

must be an outsider
D)
14
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of the requirement classifications used in Quality Function
Deployment (QFD)?

exciting
A)

expected
B)

mandatory
C)

normal
D)
15
INCORRECT Developers and customers create use-cases to help the software team understand how
different classes of end-users will use functions.

True
A)

False
B)
16 CORRECT
The work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary depending on the

size of the budget

A)
size of the product being built
 B)

software process being used

C)

stakeholders needs
D)
17
INCORRECT Use-case actors are always people, never system devices.

True
A)

False
B)
18
INCORRECT Which of following is not a UML diagram used creating a system analysis model?

activity diagram
A)

class diagram
B)

dataflow diagram
C)

state diagram
D)
19
INCORRECT Analysis patterns facilitate the transformation of the analysis model into a design model by
suggesting reliable solutions to common problems.

True
A)

False
B)
20 CORRECT
In win-win negotiation, the customer's needs are met even though the developer's need may
not be.

True
A)

False
B)
21
INCORRECT In requirements validation the requirements model is reviewed to ensure its technical
feasibility.

True
A)

False
B)

Lecture-08
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1
INCORRECT Which of the following is not an objective for building an analysis model?

define set of software requirements that can be validated

A)

describe customer requirements

B)

develop an abbreviated solution for the problem

C)

establish basis for software design

D)
2 CORRECT
Object-oriented domain analysis is concerned with the identification and
specification of reusable classes within an application domain.

True
A)

False
B)
3
INCORRECT The data dictionary contains descriptions of each software

control item
A)

data object
B)

diagram
C)

notation
D)

both a and b
E)
4
INCORRECT Which of these is not an element of an object-oriented analysis model?

Behavioral elements
A)

Class-based elements
B)

Data elements
C)

Scenario-based elements
D)
5
INCORRECT In analysis models the only data objects that need representation are those that
will be implemented using software classes.

True
A)
 False
B)
6 CORRECT
The values that are assigned to an object's attributes make that object unique.

True
A)

False
B)
7
INCORRECT The relationships shown in a data model must be classified to show their

cardinality
A)

directionality
B)

modality
C)

probability
D)

both a and c
E)
8 CORRECT
The entity relationship diagram

depicts relationships between data objects

A)

depicts functions that transform the data flow

B)

indicates how data are transformed by the system

C)

indicates system reactions to external events

D)
9 CORRECT
A generalized description of a collection of similar objects is a

class
A)

instance
B)

subclass
C)

super class
D)
10
INCORRECT Operations are object procedures that are invoked when an object receives a
message.

True
A)
False
 B)
11
INCORRECT In many cases there is no need to create a graphical representation of a usage
scenario.

True
A)

False
B)
12
INCORRECT UML activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model elements?

Behavioral elements
A)

Class-based elements
B)

Flow-based elements
C)

Scenario-based elements
D)
13
INCORRECT The data flow diagram

depicts relationships between data objects

A)

depicts functions that transform the data flow

B)

indicates how data are transformed by the system

C)

indicates system reactions to external events

D)

both b and c
E)
14
INCORRECT Control flow diagrams are

needed to model event driven systems.

A)

required for all systems.

B)

used in place of data flow diagrams.

C)

useful for modeling real-time systems.

D)

both a and d
E)
15
CORRECT The data flow diagram must be augmented by descriptive text in order to
describe the functional requirements for a software product.
True
 A)

False
B)
16
INCORRECT Which of the following should be considered as candidate objects in a problem
space?

events
A)

people
B)

structures
C)

all of the above

D)
17
INCORRECT Attributes cannot be defined for a class until design has been completed.

True
A)

False
B)
18
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of the broad categories used to classify
operations?

computation
A)

data manipulation
B)

event monitors
C)

transformers
D)
19
INCORRECT Which of the following items does not appear on a CRC card?

class collaborators
A)

class name
B)

class reliability
C)

class responsibilities
D)
20
INCORRECT Class responsibilities are defined by

its attributes only

A)
its collaborators
 B)

its operations only

C)

both its attributes and operations

D)
21
CORRECT An analysis package involves the categorization of analysis model elements into
useful groupings.

True
A)

False
B)
22
INCORRECT Events occur whenever a(n)

actor and the OO system exchange information

A)

class operation is invoked

B)

messages are passed between objects

C)

all of the above

D)
23
INCORRECT The state diagram

depicts relationships between data objects

A)

depicts functions that transform the data flow

B)

indicates how data are transformed by the system

C)

indicates system reactions to external events

D)
24
INCORRECT For purposes of behavior modeling a state is any

consumer or producer of data.

A)

data object hierarchy.

B)

observable mode of behavior.

C)

well defined process.

D)

Lecture-09
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1
INCORRECT Which of the following are areas of concern in the design model?

architecture
A)

data
B)

interfaces
C)

project scope
D)

a, b and c
E)
2
INCORRECT The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word

accuracy
A)

complexity
B)

efficiency
C)

quality
D)
3
INCORRECT Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

exhibits strong coupling between its modules

A)

implements all requirements in the analysis model

B)

includes test cases for all components

C)

provides a complete picture of the software

D)

both b and d
E)
4
INCORRECT Which of the following is not a characteristic common to all design methods?

configuration management
A)

functional component
B)

notation quality assessment

C)

guidelines refinement heuristics

D)
5
INCORRECT Software design is an iterative generic process that may be applied without
modification to any software project.

True
A)

False
B)
6
INCORRECT What types of abstraction are used in software design?

control
A)

data
B)

environmental
C)

procedural
D)

a, b and d
E)
7
INCORRECT Which of the following models can be used to represent the architectural design
of a piece of software.

Dynamic models
A)

Functional models
B)

Structural models
C)

All of the above

D)
8
INCORRECT Design patterns are not applicable to the design of object-oriented software?

True
A)

False
B)
9 CORRECT
Since modularity is an important design goal it is not possible to have too many
modules in a proposed design.

True
A)

False
B)
10
INCORRECT Information hiding makes program maintenance easier by hiding data and
procedure from unaffected parts of the program.
True
 A)

False
B)
11
CORRECT Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

can be written more compactly.

A)

focuses on just one thing.

B)

is able to complete its function in a timely manner.

C)

is connected to other modules and the outside world.

D)
12
INCORRECT Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

can be written more compactly.

A)

focuses on just one thing.

B)

is able to complete its function in a timely manner.

C)

is connected to other modules and the outside world.

D)
13
INCORRECT When using structured design methodologies the process of stepwise refinement
is unnecessary.

True
A)

False
B)
14
CORRECT Software designs are refactored to allow the creation of software that is easier
to integrate, easier to test, and easier to maintain.

True
A)

False
B)
15
INCORRECT Inheritance provides a mechanism by which changes to lower level classes can
be propagated to all super classes quickly.

True
A)

False
B)
16
CORRECT Polymorphism reduces the effort required to extend an object system by

coupling objects together more tightly.

 A)

enabling a number of different operations to share the same name.

B)

making objects more dependent on one another.

C)

removing the barriers imposed by encapsulation.

D)
17
CORRECT Which of the following is not one of the five design class types

Business domain classes

A)

Entity classes
B)

Process classes
C)

User interface classes

D)
18
CORRECT Which design model elements are used to depict a model of information
represented from the user's view?

Architectural design elements

A)

Component-level design elements

B)

Data design elements

C)

Interface design elements

D)
19
INCORRECT Which design is analogous to the floor plan of a house?

Architectural design
A)

Component-level design
B)

Data design
C)

Interface design
D)
20
INCORRECT Which design model is analogous to the detailed drawings of the access points
and external utilities for a house?

Architectural design
A)

Component-level design
B)
Data design
 C)

Interface design
D)
21
INCORRECT Which design model is analogous to a set of detailed drawings for each room in
a house?

Architectural design
A)

Component-level design
B)

Data design
C)

Interface design
D)
22
INCORRECT The deployment design elements specify the build order for the software
components.

True
A)

False
B)
23
CORRECT One of the key problems in software reuse is the inability to find existing
reusable design patterns when hundreds of candidates exist.

True
A)

False
B)
24
INCORRECT Design patterns are best thought of as coding patterns.

True
A)

False
B)
25
INCORRECT Frameworks and design patterns are the same thing as far as designers are
concerned.

True
A)

False
B)

Lecture-10

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 CORRECT
The best representation of system architecture is an operational software
prototype.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

2 CORRECT
The architectural representations can be an enabler for communication among
project stakeholders.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

3
INCORRECT Which of these characteristics are true of a data warehouse, but not a typical
data base?

business level orientation

A)

currency of information
B)

integration
C)

nonvolatility
D)

both c and d
E)
Feedback:

4 CORRECT
Data design actually begins during the creation of the analysis model, not the
architectural model.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

5
INCORRECT An architectural style encompasses which of the following elements?

constraints
A)

set of components
B)
semantic models
 C)

syntactic models
D)

a, b and c
E)
Feedback:

6
INCORRECT To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the
proposed system, requirements engineering is used to uncover

algorithmic complexity
A)

characteristics and constraints

B)

control and data

C)

design patterns
D)
Feedback:

7
INCORRECT Before an architectural pattern can be chosen for use in a specific system it
must have a code implementation to facilitate its reuse.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

8
INCORRECT The criteria used to assess the quality of an architectural design should be based
on system

accessibility
A)

control
B)

data
C)

implementation
D)

both b and c
E)
Feedback:

9
INCORRECT During the process of modeling the system in context, systems that interact with
the target system are represented as

Peer-level systems
A)
 Subordinate systems
B)

Superordinate systems
C)

Working systems
D)

a, b and c
E)
Feedback:

10
CORRECT Once selected, archetypes always need to be refined further as architectural
design proceeds.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

11
CORRECT Which of the following is not an example of infrastructure components that may
need to be integrated into the software architecture?

Communications components
A)

Database components
B)

Interface components
C)

Memory management components

D)
Feedback:

12
INCORRECT In the architecture trade-off analysis method the architectural style should be
described using the

data flow view

A)

module view
B)

process view
C)

user view
D)

a, b and c
E)
Feedback:

13
Quantitative methods for assessing the quality of proposed architectural designs
INCORRECT are readily available.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

14
INCORRECT A useful technique for evaluating the overall complexity of a proposed
architecture is to look at the component

cohesion flow
A)

dependencies
B)

sharing dependencies
C)

size
D)

both b and c
E)
Feedback:

15
INCORRECT When the overall flow in a segment of a data flow diagram is largely sequential
and follows straight-line paths, _________ is present.

low coupling
A)

good modularity
B)

transaction flow
C)

transform flow
D)
Feedback:

16
INCORRECT When a single item that triggers other data flow along one of many paths of a
data flow diagram, ________ characterizes the information flow.

high coupling
A)

poor modularity
B)

transaction flow
C)

transform flow
D)
Feedback:
17
CORRECT When you encounter both transform flow and transaction flow in the same DFD
the flow is partitioned and the appropriate mapping technique is used on each
part of the DFD.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

18
INCORRECT In transaction mapping the first level factoring results in the

creation of a CFD
A)

derivation of the control hierarchy

B)

distribution of worker modules

C)

refinement of the module view

D)
Feedback:

19
INCORRECT A successful application of transform or transaction mapping to create an
architectural design is supplemented by

entity relationship diagrams

A)

module interface descriptions

B)

processing narratives for each module

C)

test cases for each module

D)

both b and c
E)

Lecture-11

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 INCORRECT
In the most general sense a component is a modular building block for
computer software.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:
2 INCORRECT
In the context of object-oriented software engineering a component contains

attributes and operations

A)

instances of each class

B)

roles for each actor (device or user)

C)

a set of collaborating classes

D)
Feedback:

3 INCORRECT
In traditional software engineering, modules must serve in which of the
following roles?

Control component
A)

Infrastructure component
B)

Problem domain component

C)

All of the above

D)
Feedback:

4 CORRECT
Software engineers always need to create components from scratch in order
to meet customer expectations fully.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

5 INCORRECT
Which of the following is not one of the four principles used to guide
component-level design?

Dependency Inversion Principle

A)

Interface Segregation Principle

B)

Open-Closed Principle
C)

Parsimonious Complexity Principle

D)
Feedback:

6 INCORRECT
During component-level design it is customary to ignore organization issues
 like subsystem membership or packaging.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

7
UNANSWERED The use of stereotypes can help identify the nature of components at the
detailed design level.

True
A)

False
B)
8 INCORRECT
Classes and components that exhibit functional, layer, or communicational
cohesion are relatively easy to implement, test, and maintain.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

9 CORRECT
Software coupling is a sign of poor architectural design and can always be
avoided in every system.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

10
INCORRECT In component design, elaboration requires which of the following elements to
be described in detail?

Source code
A)

Attributes
B)

Interfaces
C)

Operations
D)

b, c and d
E)
Feedback:

11
INCORRECT In component-level design "persistent data sources" refer to
 Component libraries
A)

Databases
B)

Files
C)

All of the above

D)

both b and c
E)
Feedback:

12
INCORRECT The object constraint language (OCL) complements UML by allowing a
software engineer to use a formal grammar to construct unambiguous
statements about design model elements.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

13 CORRECT
OCL is not strong enough to be used to describe pre- or post conditions for
design actions.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

14
INCORRECT Which of these constructs is used in structured programming?

branching
A)

condition
B)

repetition
C)

sequence
D)

b, c, and d
E)
Feedback:

15
INCORRECT Which of these is a graphical notation for depicting procedural detail?

process diagram
 A)

decision table
B)

ER diagram
C)

flowchart
D)
Feedback:

16
INCORRECT A decision table should be used

to document all conditional statements

A)

to guide the development of the project management plan

B)

only when building an expert system

C)

when a complex set of conditions and actions appears in a component

D)
Feedback:

17
INCORRECT A program design language (PDL) is often a

combination of programming constructs and narrative text

A)

legitimate programming language in its own right

B)

machine readable software development language

C)

useful way to represent software architecture

D)
Feedback:

18
INCORRECT Which of these criteria are useful in assessing the effectiveness of a
particular design notation?

maintainability
A)

modularity
B)

simplicity
C)

size
D)

a, b, and c
E)
 Lecture-12

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 INCORRECT
Which of the following interface design principles does not allow the user to
remain in control of the interaction with a computer?

allow interaction to interruptible

A)

allow interaction to be undoable

B)

hide technical internals from casual users

C)

only provide one defined method for accomplishing a task

D)
Feedback:

2 INCORRECT
Which of the following interface design principles reduces the user's memory
load?

define intuitive shortcuts

A)

disclose information in a progressive fashion

B)

establish meaningful defaults

C)

provide an on-line tutorial

D)

answers a, b and c
E)
Feedback:

3 CORRECT
The reason for reducing the user's memory load is make his or her
interaction with the computer quicker to complete.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

4 CORRECT
Interface consistency implies that

each application should have its own distinctive look and feel
A)

input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application

B)

navigational methods are context sensitive

C)
 visual information is organized according to a design standard
D)

both b and d
E)
Feedback:

5 CORRECT
If past interactive models have created certain user expectations it is not
generally good to make changes to the model.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

6 INCORRECT
Which model depicts the profile of the end users of a computer system?

design model
A)

implementation model
B)

user model
C)

user's model
D)
Feedback:

7 INCORRECT
Which model depicts the image of a system that an end user creates in his or
her head?

design model
A)

user model
B)

system model
C)

system perception
D)
Feedback:

8 CORRECT
Which model depicts the look and feel of the user interface along with all
supporting information?

Implementation model
A)

user model
B)

user's model
C)
 system perception
D)
Feedback:

9 INCORRECT
Which of these framework activities is not normally associated with the user
interface design processes?

cost estimation
A)

interface construction
B)

interface validation
C)

user and task analysis

D)
Feedback:

10
INCORRECT Which approach(es) to user task analysis can be useful in user interface
design?

have users indicate their preferences on questionnaires

A)

rely on the judgement of experienced programmers

B)

study existing computer-based solutions

C)

observe users performing tasks manually

D)

both c and d
E)
Feedback:

11
INCORRECT Object-oriented analysis techniques can be used to identify and refine user
task objects and actions without any need to refer to the user voice.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

12 CORRECT
The computer's display capabilities are the primary determinant of the order
in which user interface design activities are completed.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:
13
UNANSWERED It is sometimes possible that the interface designer is constrained by
environmental factors that mitigate against ease of use for many users.

True
A)

False
B)
14
INCORRECT One means of defining user interface objects and actions is to conduct a
grammatical parse of the user scenario.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

15 CORRECT
Interface design patterns typically include a complete component-level
design (design classes, attributes, operations, and interfaces).

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

16
INCORRECT Several common design issues surface for almost every user interface
including

adaptive user profiles

A)

error handling resolution of graphics

B)

displays system
C)

response time
D)

both b and d
E)
Feedback:

17 CORRECT
Add-on help facilities are almost always better received by users than
integrated help facilities.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:
18
INCORRECT User interface development systems typically provide several mechanisms
for building interface prototypes including

code generation
A)

drawing tools
B)

input validation
C)

windows handlers
D)

both c and d
E)
Feedback:

19
INCORRECT Usability questionnaires are most meaningful to the interface designers when
completed by

customers
A)

experienced programmers
B)

product users
C)

project managers
D)
Feedback:

20
INCORRECT Several usability measures can be collected while observing users interacting
with a computer system including

down time for the application

A)

number of user errors

B)

software reliability
C)

time spent looking at help materials

D)

both b and d
E)

Lecture-13

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software
 verification and software validation.

True
A)

False
B)
2 CORRECT
The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that

software developers do not need to do any testing

A)

a test team will test the software more thoroughly

B)

testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins
C)

arguments between developers and testers are reduced

D)
3 CORRECT
What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is
organized?
a. integration testing
b. system testing
c. unit testing
d.validation testing

a, d, c, b
A)

b, d, a, c
B)

c, a, d, b
C)

d, b, c, a
D)
4
INCORRECT Class testing of object-oriented software is equivalent to unit testing for
traditional software.

True
A)

False
B)
5 CORRECT
By collecting software metrics and making use of existing software reliability
models it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines for determining when
software testing is finished.

True
A)

False
B)
6
INCORRECT Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful
software testing process?
 conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing
A)

specify requirements in a quantifiable manner

B)

use independent test teams

C)

wait till code is written prior to writing the test plan

D)

both a and b
E)
7
INCORRECT Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing?

algorithmic performance
A)

code stability
B)

error handling
C)

execution paths
D)

both c and d
E)
8 CORRECT
Drivers and stubs are not needed for unit testing because the modules are
tested independently of one another.

True
A)

False
B)
9
INCORRECT Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that

low level modules never need testing

A)

major decision points are tested early

B)

no drivers need to be written

C)

no stubs need to be written

D)

both b and c
E)
10
INCORRECT Bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that

major decision points are tested early

A)
 no drivers need to be written
B)

no stubs need to be written

C)

regression testing is not required

D)
11
INCORRECT Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a
new module is added to the system new

control logic is invoked

A)

data flow paths are established

B)

drivers require testing

C)

all of the above

D)

both a and b
E)
12
INCORRECT Smoke testing might best be described as

bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software

A)

rolling integration testing

B)

testing that hides implementation errors

C)

unit testing for small programs

D)
13
CORRECT When testing object-oriented software it is important to test each class
operation separately as part of the unit testing process.

True
A)

False
B)
14
INCORRECT The OO testing integration strategy involves testing

groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way

A)

single operations as they are added to the evolving class implementation

B)

operator programs derived from use-case scenarios

C)

none of the above

D)
15
CORRECT The focus of validation testing is to uncover places that a user will be able to
observe failure of the software to conform to its requirements.

True
A)

False
B)
16
INCORRECT Software validation is achieved through a series of tests performed by the user
once the software is deployed in his or her work environment.

True
A)

False
B)
17
CORRECT Configuration reviews are not needed if regression testing has been rigorously
applied during software integration.

True
A)

False
B)
18
INCORRECT Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the

developer
A)

end users
B)

test team
C)

systems engineers
D)
19
INCORRECT Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail in a variety of
ways and verifies that software is able to continue execution without
interruption.

True
A)

False
B)
20
CORRECT Security testing attempts to verify that protection mechanisms built into a
system protect it from improper penetration.

True
A)

False
B)
21
INCORRECT Stress testing examines the pressures placed on the user during system use in
extreme environments.
 True
A)

False
B)
22
INCORRECT Performance testing is only important for real-time or embedded systems.

True
A)

False
B)
23
CORRECT Debugging is not testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing.

True
A)

False
B)
24
INCORRECT Which of the following is an approach to debugging?

backtracking
A)

brute force
B)

cause elimination
C)

code restructuring
D)

a, b, and c
E)

Lecture-14

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 INCORRECT
With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program
prior to delivery to the customer.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

2 INCORRECT
Which of the following are characteristics of testable software?

observability
A)
simplicity
 B)

stability
C)

all of the above

D)
Feedback:

3 CORRECT
The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that
each program function is operational is called

black-box testing
A)

glass-box testing
B)

grey-box testing
C)

white-box testing
D)
Feedback:

4 INCORRECT
The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the
internal logic of a software module is called

behavioral testing
A)

black-box testing
B)

grey-box testing
C)

white-box testing
D)
Feedback:

5 INCORRECT
What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered
by white-box testing?

behavioral errors
A)

logic errors
B)

performance errors
C)

typographical errors
D)

both b and d
E)
Feedback:

6 INCORRECT
 Program flow graphs are identical to program flowcharts.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

7 INCORRECT
The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information
regarding the number of

cycles in the program

A)

errors in the program

B)

independent logic paths in the program

C)

statements in the program

D)
Feedback:

8 CORRECT
The cyclomatic complexity of a program can be computed directly from a PDL
representation of an algorithm without drawing a program flow graph.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

9 INCORRECT
Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria
used to design test cases is that they

rely on basis path testing

A)

exercise the logical conditions in a program module

B)

select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables

C)

focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

D)
Feedback:

10
INCORRECT Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria
used to design test cases is that they

rely on basis path testing

A)

exercise the logical conditions in a program module

B)
 select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
C)

focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

D)
Feedback:

11
INCORRECT Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used
to design test cases is that they

rely basis path testing

A)

exercise the logical conditions in a program module

B)

select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables

C)

focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

D)
Feedback:

12
INCORRECT Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories

incorrect or missing functions

A)

interface errors
B)

performance errors
C)

all of the above

D)

none of the above

E)
Feedback:

13
INCORRECT Graph-based testing methods can only be used for object-oriented systems

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

14 CORRECT
Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which
test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must
be developed.

True
A)
False
 B)
Feedback:

15
INCORRECT Boundary value analysis can only be used to do white-box testing.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

16
INCORRECT Comparison testing is typically done to test two competing products as part
of customer market analysis prior to product release.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

17 CORRECT
Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize the coverage
of the test cases devised for relatively small input domains.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

18
UNANSWERED Test case design "in the small" for OO software is driven by the algorithmic
detail of the individual operations.

True
A)

False
B)
19
INCORRECT Encapsulation of attributes and operations inside objects makes it easy to
obtain object state information during testing.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

20 CORRECT
Use-cases can provide useful input into the design of black-box and state-
based tests of OO software.

True
A)
 False
B)
Feedback:

21
INCORRECT Fault-based testing is best reserved for

conventional software testing

A)

operations and classes that are critical or suspect

B)

use-case validation
C)

white-box testing of operator algorithms

D)
Feedback:

22
INCORRECT Testing OO class operations is made more difficult by

encapsulation
A)

inheritance
B)

polymorphism
C)

both b and c
D)
Feedback:

23 CORRECT
Scenario-based testing

concentrates on actor and software interaction

A)

misses errors in specifications

B)

misses errors in subsystem interactions

C)

both a and b
D)
Feedback:

24
INCORRECT Deep structure testing is not designed to

examine object behaviors

A)

exercise communication mechanisms

B)
exercise object dependencies
 C)

exercise structure observable by the user

D)
Feedback:

25
INCORRECT Random order tests are conducted to exercise different class instance life
histories.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

26
INCORRECT Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class level

attribute-based partitioning
A)

category-based partitioning
B)

equivalence class partitioning

C)

state-based partitioning
D)
Feedback:

27
INCORRECT Multiple class testing is too complex to be tested using random test cases.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

28
INCORRECT Tests derived from behavioral class models should be based on the

data flow diagram

A)

object-relation diagram
B)

state diagram
C)

use-case diagram
D)
Feedback:

29
INCORRECT Client/server architectures cannot be properly tested because network load is
highly variable.
 True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

30
INCORRECT Real-time applications add a new and potentially difficult element to the
testing mix

performance
A)

reliability
B)

security
C)

time
D)

Lecture-15

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 CORRECT
Conformance to implicit requirements and customer expectations has no place in
modern software quality assurance work.

True
A)

False
B)
2
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by
McCall's software quality factors?

ability to undergo change

A)

adaptability to new environments

B)

operational characteristics
C)

production costs and scheduling

D)
3 CORRECT
The ISO 9126 quality standards for computer software are useful because they
lend themselves to direct measurement of software attributes.

True
A)

False
B)
4 CORRECT
Most technical software metrics described in this chapter represent indirect
 measures of software attributes that are useful in the quantitative assessment of
software quality.

True
A)

False
B)
5
INCORRECT Which of these are reasons for using technical product measures during software
development?

large body of scientific evidence supports their use

A)
provides software engineers with an objective mechanism for assessing
B) software quality
they allow all software quality information to be expressed unambiguously
C) as a single number

all of the above

D)
6 CORRECT
Which measurement activity is missing from the list below?
Formulation
Collection
Analysis
Interpretation

design
A)

feedback
B)

measurement
C)

quantification
D)
7
INCORRECT The Goal/Question/Metric (GQM) paradigm was developed as a technique for
assigning blame for software failures.

True
A)

False
B)
8 CORRECT
One of the most important attributes for a software product metric is that it
should be

easy to compute
A)

qualitative in nature
B)

reliable over time

C)
 widely applicable
D)
9 CORRECT
In many cases metrics for one model may be used in later software engineering
activities (e.g., design metrics may be used in test planning).

True
A)

False
B)
10
INCORRECT The function point metric is an example of metric that can be used to assist with
technical decision-making based on the analysis model information, without
making use of historical project data.

True
A)

False
B)
11
INCORRECT The specification metrics proposed by Davis address which two characteristics of
the software requirements?

functionality and performance

A)

performance and completeness

B)

specificity and completeness

C)

specificity and functionality

D)
12
INCORRECT Architectural design metrics focus on

architectural structure
A)

data structural relationships

B)

internal module complexity

C)

module effectiveness
D)

both a and d
E)
13
INCORRECT Which of the following is not a measurable characteristic of an object-oriented
design?

completeness
A)

efficiency
B)
 size
C)

volatility
D)
14
INCORRECT The depth of inheritance tree (DIT) metric can give an OO software designer a
reading on the

attributes required for each class

A)

completion time required for system implementation

B)

complexity of the class hierarchy

C)

level of object reusability achieved

D)
15
INCORRECT Because the class is the dominant unit in OO systems, there is no call for the
definition of class-oriented metrics.

True
A)

False
B)
16
INCORRECT If you encounter a class with a large responsibility (large class size or CS value)
you should consider

making it a base class

A)

making it a subclass
B)

partitioning the class

C)

starting a new class hierarchy

D)
17
INCORRECT Component-level metrics include measures of

complexity
A)

coupling
B)

module cohesion
C)

performance
D)

a, b, and c
E)
18
CORRECT Because the class is the dominant unit in OO systems, relatively few metrics
 have been proposed for operations that reside within a class.

True
A)

False
B)
19
INCORRECT Interface metrics are used to assess the complexity of the module's input and
output relationships with external devices.

True
A)

False
B)
20
INCORRECT Halstead's source code metrics are based on the number of

modules in the program

A)

operands in the program

B)

operators in the program

C)

volume elements in the program

D)

both b and c
E)
21
INCORRECT Most testing metrics actually focus on the process of testing rather than the
technical characteristics of the tests themselves.

True
A)

False
B)
22
INCORRECT Testing effort can also be estimated using metrics derived from cylcomatic
complexity.

True
A)

False
B)
23
INCORRECT Software testing metrics fall into two broad categories

metrics that focus on defect removal effectiveness

A)

metrics that focus on test coverage

B)

metrics that estimate the duration of the testing process

C)
metrics that predict the number of test cases required
 D)

both b and d
E)
24
INCORRECT The IEEE software maturity index is used to provide a measure of the

maintainability of a software product based on its availability

A)

relative age of a software product being considered for retirement

B)

reliability of a software product following regression testing

C)

stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance

D)

Lecture-16

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT Which of the following is not a characteristic of a WebApp?

content driven
A)

continuously evolving
B)

easily measurable
C)

network intensive
D)
Feedback:

2
INCORRECT Which of these application categories are commonly encountered in WebE work?

informational
A)

transaction-oriented
B)

portal
C)

all of the above

D)
Feedback:

3
INCORRECT WebApps must be developed and deployed quickly, making the application of
software engineering processes impossible.

True
A)
 False
B)
Feedback:

4
INCORRECT Which process model best describes WebE?

Linear model
A)

Incremental model
B)

Formal model
C)

all of the above

D)
Feedback:

5
INCORRECT The mechanics of software engineering analysis, design, and testing must be
adapted to accommodate the special characteristics of WebApps.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

6
INCORRECT Which of the following technologies is important to Web engineers?

component-based development
A)

internet standards
B)

security
C)

all of the above

D)
Feedback:

7 CORRECT
An evolutionary process model would never be chosen over an agile process
model to build a WebApp.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

8
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of the characteristics that we need to take into
account when a process framework for WebE is formulated.
 Changes occur frequently
A)

Graphic design expertise is hard to acquire

B)

Timelines are short

C)

WebApps are delivered incrementally

D)
Feedback:

9
INCORRECT During the analysis/formulation step of the WebE process two types of goals
need to be defined

applicative goals and aesthetic goals

A)

applicative goals and informational goals

B)

information goals and performance goals

C)

aesthetic goals and performance goals

D)
Feedback:

10
CORRECT With extremely short time-lines it is impossible to develop plans for WebApp
development projects.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

11
INCORRECT Which activities are conducted during the WebE modeling process?

content analysis
A)

refine user tasks

B)

design architecture
C)

all of the above

D)
Feedback:

12
INCORRECT Which test(s) are not performed during WebE construction?

configuration
A)
 navigation
B)

reliability
C)

usability
D)
Feedback:

13
INCORRECT WebE are usually delivered to users untested and then debugged as user
complaints are registered.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

14
INCORRECT Since WebApps are fairly standard it is not important for developers to
understand the customer's business needs and objectives.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

15
CORRECT Scenario-based approaches to describing user interaction are good to use in
WebE.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

16
INCORRECT Since WebApps are usually developed using agile processes, modeling can safely
be ignored or skipped altogether.

True
A)

False
B)

Lecture-17

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 CORRECT
Formulation and requirements gathering are distinct and different processes
during WebE.
 True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

2
INCORRECT Which of these is not one of the formulation questions asked during Web
engineering?

What are the objectives for the WebApp?

A)

What is the business need for the WebApp?

B)

Who will use the WebApp?

C)

Will you need to outsource development of the WebApp?

D)
Feedback:

3
INCORRECT Which of these are goals for WebE requirements gathering?

Define user interaction scenarios

A)

Determine performance constraints

B)

Identify content requirements

C)

Identify WebApp development tools

D)

a, b, and c
E)
Feedback:

4 CORRECT
During requirements gathering Web engineers should attempt to define the
smallest reasonable number of user classes.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

5
INCORRECT Which type of analysis is not conducted during the WebE process?

content analysis
A)

functional analysis
B)
 user interaction analysis
C)

market analysis
D)
Feedback:

6 CORRECT
One of the things that distinguish the development of WebApps from other
software products is the need to combine the work products from both technical
and non-technical tasks into a single product.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

7 CORRECT
Which of these roles is not usually assigned to members of the WebE team?

content developer
A)

marketing specialist
B)

Web master
C)

Web publisher
D)
Feedback:

8 CORRECT
In building a WebE team strong team leadership is essential.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

9
INCORRECT Once formulation is complete Web engineering

is complete.
A)

may be performed in-house.

B)

may be outsourced.
C)

both b or c
D)
Feedback:

10
CORRECT Outsourcing WebApps is common practice, it is important to perform thorough
analysis of the application and even create a rough design internally before
selecting a vendor.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

11
INCORRECT Developing WebApps in-house is no different than developing any other piece of
software.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

12
CORRECT Which of these is not a goal for using metrics in WebE?

to provide basis for effort estimation

A)

to provide basis for making personnel decisions

B)

to provide indication of business success

C)

to provide indication of technical quality

D)
Feedback:

13
INCORRECT Which of these is not a category for WebE effort metrics?

application authoring
A)

media authoring
B)

page authoring
C)

scenario authoring
D)
Feedback:

14
INCORRECT Business people lag considerably behind Web engineers in developing,
collecting, and using metrics for WebApps.

True
A)

False
B)
 Feedback:

15
CORRECT WebApps need to be built with such urgency that planning is not possible.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

16
CORRECT WebApps are extremely volatile, but this does not eliminate the need to
understand the WebApp requirements.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

17
INCORRECT Any team of experienced software engineers can develop WebApps.

True
A)

False
B)
Feedback:

18
INCORRECT WebApps involve so little programming that formal testing is not needed before
releasing the product to the users.

True
A)

False
B)

Lecture-18

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 INCORRECT
Which of the following is not one of the WebApp requirements analysis tasks?

Analysis modeling
A)

Formulation
B)

Requirements gathering
C)

User interface prototyping

D)
2 INCORRECT
User hierarchies are used to replace UML user representations for WebApps
having large numbers of user categories?

True
A)

False
B)
3 INCORRECT
WebApp use-cases might be described as bundles of functionality.

True
A)

False
B)
4 INCORRECT
As use-cases are organized into functional packages, each functional package
is assessed to ensure that it is

Comprehensive
A)

Highly cohesive
B)

Loosely coupled
C)

All of the above

D)
5 INCORRECT
Dynamic elements of WebApp analysis models describe how users interaction
with the system.

True
A)

False
B)
6 INCORRECT
Which is not one of the analysis activities that is used to create a complete
analysis model?

Configuration analysis
A)

Content analysis
B)

Functional analysis
C)

Data analysis
D)
7 INCORRECT
The content model contains dynamic elements that encompass the WebApp
content objects.

True
A)
False
 B)
8 CORRECT
Content objects are extracted from use cases by examining the scenarios
description for direct or indirect content references.

True
A)

False
B)
9
UNANSWERED In building a content hierarchy is sufficient to examine a list of content
objects and a brief description of each object.

True
A)

False
B)
10
INCORRECT By examining each use-case and building a class model for 1 or 2
representative users it is possible to derive the needed analysis classes.

True
A)

False
B)
11
INCORRECT What are the most useful UML diagrams and related information that can be
used to represent a WebApp interaction model?

activity diagrams, class diagrams, state diagrams, interface prototype

A)
activity diagrams, collaboration diagrams, sequence diagrams, state
B) diagrams

use-cases, sequence diagrams, state diagrams, interface prototype

C)

use-cases, sequence diagrams, state diagrams, sequence diagrams

D)
12
INCORRECT A user interface prototype should not be created during WebApp analysis
because doing so involves programming.

True
A)

False
B)
13 CORRECT
UML activity diagrams can be used to represent the user observable
functionality delivered by the WebApp as well as the operations contained in
each analysis class.

True
A)

False
B)
14
UNANSWERED The construction details indicating how the user will invoke an operation are
deferred until the WebApp design phase.

True
A)

False
B)
15 CORRECT
UML deployment diagrams can be used to create the configuration model for
a complex WebApp.

True
A)

False
B)
16
INCORRECT Configuration analysis focuses on the architecture of the user's Web browsing
environment.

True
A)

False
B)
17
INCORRECT Which of these are not steps of relationship-navigation analysis?

Element analysis
A)

Evaluation analysis
B)

Functional analysis
C)

Stakeholder analysis
D)
18 CORRECT
The answers to the relationship analysis questions help the Web engineer
position a content element within the WebApp.

True
A)

False
B)
19
INCORRECT Once the WebApp architecture is modeled the Web engineer must consider
requirements that dictate how users will navigate from one content element
to another.

True
A)

False
B)

Lecture-19
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1
INCORRECT Which of the following characteristics should not be used to assess the quality of
a WebApp?

aesthetics
A)

reliability
B)

maintainability
C)

usability
D)
2
INCORRECT Which of the following are design goals for every WebApp?

Simplicity
A)

Consistency
B)

Navigability
C)

Visual appeal
D)

all of the above

E)
3 CORRECT
Which of the following are not part of the design pyramid for WebE design?

Architectural design
A)

Business case design

B)

Content design
C)

Navigation design
D)
4 CORRECT
Every WebApp user interface should be easy to use, easy to navigate, error-free
and functional.

True
A)

False
B)
5
INCORRECT With WebApps content is everything, a poorly defined user interface will be
quickly overlooked by frequent users.

True
A)

False
B)
6
INCORRECT Which of these are WebApp interaction mechanisms?

Graphic icons
A)

Graphic images
B)

Navigation menus
C)

All of the above

D)
7
INCORRECT UML does not have any representation schemas that are useful in building
WebApp design models.

True
A)

False
B)
8
INCORRECT Screen layout design has several widely accepted standards based on human
factors research.

True
A)

False
B)
9
INCORRECT Graphic design considers every aspect of the look and feel of a WebApp.

True
A)

False
B)
10
INCORRECT Content design is conducted by

Copywriters and graphic designer

A)

Web engineers
B)

both a and b
C)

none of the above

D)
11
CORRECT Content objects have both information attributes defined during analysis and
implementation specific attributes specified during design.

True
A)

False
B)
12
INCORRECT Content objects are not normally chunked into Web pages until the
implementation activities begin.

True
A)

False
B)
13
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of the browsing primitives normally found in
WebApp interfaces.

Conditional browsing
A)

Nested browsing
B)

Recursive browsing
C)

Sequential browsing
D)
14
CORRECT Content architecture and WebApp architecture are pretty much the same thing
for many WebApps?

True
A)

False
B)
15
INCORRECT Which of the following is not one of the content architectural structures used by
web engineers?

linear
A)

grid
B)

hierarchical
C)

parallel
D)
16
INCORRECT MVC is a three layer architecture that contains a

machine, view, content objects

A)

model, view, and content objects

B)

model, view, and controller

C)

machine, view, controller

D)
17
Web navigational design involves creating a semantic navigational unit for each
CORRECT goal associated with each defined user role.

True
A)

False
B)
18
INCORRECT To allow the user to feel in control of a WebApp, it is a good idea to mix both
horizontal and vertical navigation mechanisms on the same page.

True
A)

False
B)
19
INCORRECT Component level design for WebApps is very similar to component level design
for other software delivery environments.

True
A)

False
B)
20
INCORRECT Which of the following is a navigation pattern used during web-based design?

cycle
A)

counterpoint
B)

sieve
C)

all of the above

D)
21
INCORRECT Which of these is not one of the design activities associated with object-oriented
hypermedia design?

abstract interface design

A)

conceptual design
B)

content design
C)

navigational design
D)
22
INCORRECT Most WebApps can be easily characterized by judicious use of widely recognized
suites of software metrics?

True
A)

Fals
B)
 Lecture-20

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT Since content is central to users of WebApps testing is less important than for
conventional software products.

True
A)

False
B)
2 CORRECT
Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a
WebApp.

Content
A)

Maintainability
B)

Navigability
C)

Usability
D)
3 CORRECT
WebApps require special testing methodologies because WebApp errors have
several unique characteristics.

True
A)

False
B)
4
INCORRECT Since WebApps evolve continuously, the testing process is an on-going activity,
conducted by the Web support staff using regression tests.

True
A)

False
B)
5
INCORRECT Test planning is not used in WebApp testing.

True
A)

False
B)
6
INCORRECT As the WebApp architecture is constructed which types of testing are used as
integration tests?

Component testing
A)
 Content testing
B)

Navigation testing
C)

Usability testing
D)

both a and c
E)
7 CORRECT
Which of the following is not one of the objectives of WebApp content testing?

Find organizational or structure errors

A)

Identify linking errors

B)

Uncover semantic errors

C)

Uncover syntactic errors

D)
8
INCORRECT Database testing is very rarely a part of WebApp content testing.

True
A)

False
B)
9
INCORRECT The overall strategy for interface testing is to uncover errors

in navigation semantics
A)

in overall usabililty
B)

related to specific interface mechanisms

C)

both a and c
D)
10
INCORRECT Which of the following is not a WebApp interface mechanism?

Browser
A)

Cookies
B)

Forms
C)

Links
D)
11
When testing WebApp interface semantics, each use-case is used as input for
CORRECT the design of a testing sequence.

True
A)

False
B)
12
INCORRECT Usability tests should be designed and executed by intended users for a given
WebApp.

True
A)

False
B)
13
INCORRECT WebApp compatibility testing is conducted to be sure that the user model for
usage scenario matched the user category assigned to a given user.

True
A)

False
B)
14
INCORRECT Which test case design technique(s) are appropriate for WebApp component-
level testing?

Boundary value analysis

A)

Equivalence partitioning
B)

Path testing
C)

All of the above

D)
15
INCORRECT The purpose of WebApp navigation syntactic testing is to ensure the correct
appearance of each navigation mechanism.

True
A)

False
B)
16
CORRECT Both Web engineers and non-technical users conduct navigation semantics
testing for WebApps.

True
A)

False
B)
17
INCORRECT Which of following is not one of the elements that needs to be considered when
constructing WebApp server-side configuration tests?
Browser compatibility
 A)

Database software integration

B)

Operating system compatibility

C)

System security measures

D)
18
CORRECT To design client-side configuration tests each user category is assessed to
reduce the number of configuration variables to a manageable number.

True
A)

False
B)
19
INCORRECT Which of the following is not a testable WebApp security element.

Authentication
A)

Encryption
B)

Firewalls
C)

Penetration
D)
20
INCORRECT WebApp performance tests are designed to

assess WebApp usability

A)

evaluate page loading times

B)

simulate real-world loading situations

C)

test network connectivity

D)
21
INCORRECT Load testing involves determining the input of which 3 variables?

N, T, D
A)

N, T, P
B)

T, D, P
C)

N, D, P
D)
22
CORRECT WebApp stress testing is a continuation load testing.
 True
A)

False
B)

Lecture-21

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 CORRECT
Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are

people, performance, payoff, product

A)

people, product, performance, process

B)

people, product, process, project

C)

people, process, payoff, product

D)
2 CORRECT
Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in people management have a
higher likelihood of implementing effective software engineering processes.

True
A)

False
B)
3
INCORRECT The first step in project planning is to

determine the budget.

A)

select a team organizational model.

B)

determine the project constraints.

C)

establish the objectives and scope.

D)
4
INCORRECT Process framework activities are populated with

milestones
A)

work products
B)

QA points
C)

All of the above

D)
5
INCORRECT Project management is less important for modern software development since
most projects are successful and completed on time.

True
A)

False
B)
6
INCORRECT Which of the following is not generally considered a player in the software
process?

customers
A)

end-users
B)

project managers
C)

sales people
D)
7
INCORRECT The best person to hire as a project team leader is the most competent software
engineering practitioner available.

True
A)

False
B)
8 CORRECT
The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely
complex problems is the

closed paradigm
A)

open paradigm
B)

random paradigm
C)

synchronous paradigm
D)
9
INCORRECT Which factors should be considered in choosing the organizational structure for a
software team? (Select all that apply)

degree of communication desired

A)

predicted size of the resulting program

B)

rigidity of the delivery date

C)

size of the project budget

D)
 a, b, and c
E)
10
CORRECT One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development
process is to

give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
A)

give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
B)

hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
C)

reward programmers based on their productivity.

D)
11
INCORRECT Small agile teams have no place in modern software development.

True
A)

False
B)
12
INCORRECT Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project
coordination difficulties?

interoperability
A)

performance
B)

scale
C)

uncertainty
D)
13
INCORRECT Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a
software project?

context, lines of code, function

A)

context, function, communication requirements

B)

information objectives, function, performance

C)

communications requirements, performance, information objectives

D)
14
INCORRECT The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity
are the

customer workflow
A)
functionality to be delivered
 B)

process used to deliver functionality

C)

software process model

D)

both b and c
E)
15
CORRECT Product and process decomposition often occurs simultaneously as the project
plan evolves.

True
A)

False
B)
16
INCORRECT When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during
process decomposition?

when the project is extremely small in size

A)

any time the software is mission critical

B)

rapid prototyping does not require their use

C)

never—the activities should always occur

D)
17
INCORRECT How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of
software failure?

double the project team size

A)

request a large budget

B)

start on the right foot

C)

track progress
D)

both c and d
E)
18
INCORRECT The W5HH principle contains which of the following questions?

Why is the system being developed?

A)

What will be done by whom?

B)

Where are they organizationally located?

C)
How much of each resource is required?
 D)

a, c, and d
E)
19
INCORRECT Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project
management?

assessing product usability

A)

defect tracking against quality targets

B)

empirical cost estimation

C)

formal risk management

D)

b, c, and d
E)

Lecture-22

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT Which of these are valid reasons for measuring software processes, products,
and resources?

to characterize them
A)

to evaluate them
B)

to price them
C)

to improve them
D)

a, b, and d
E)
2
INCORRECT The terms measure, measurement, and metric all share the same definition
according to the IEEE Standard Glossary of Software Engineering Terms.

True
A)

False
B)
3
INCORRECT Process indicators enable a software project manager to

assess the status of an on-going project

A)

track potential risks

B)
 adjust work flow or tasks
C)

all of the above

D)
4
INCORRECT Public metrics are used

to evaluate the performance of software development teams.

A)

to appraise the performance of individual team members.

B)

to make strategic changes to the software process.

C)

to make tactical changes during a software project

D)

both c and d
E)
5 CORRECT
Which of the following items are not measured by software project metrics?

inputs
A)

markets
B)

outputs
C)

results
D)
6
INCORRECT Software quality and functionality must be measured indirectly.

True
A)

False
B)
7
INCORRECT Which of following are advantages of using LOC (lines of code) as a size-oriented
metric?

LOC is easily computed.

A)

LOC is a language dependent measure.

B)

LOC is a language independent measure.

C)

LOC can be computed before a design is completed.

D)
8
INCORRECT Which of the following are advantages of using function points (FP) as a
measure of the functionality delivered by a software application?
 FP is easily computed.
A)

FP is a language dependent measure.

B)

FP is a language independent measure.

C)

FP can be computed before a design is completed.

D)

both c and d
E)
9
INCORRECT There is no need to reconcile LOC and FP measures since each is meaningful in
its own right as a project measure.

True
A)

False
B)
10
CORRECT Object-oriented project measures may be combined with historical project data
to provide metrics that aid in project estimation.

True
A)

False
B)
11
CORRECT Use-case oriented metrics are computed directly from UML diagrams and they
are often used as normalization measures.

True
A)

False
B)
12
INCORRECT Which of the following is not a measure that can be collected from a Web
application project?

Customization index
A)

Number of dynamic objects

B)

Number of internal page links

C)

Number of static web pages

D)
13
INCORRECT Which of the following software quality factors is most likely to be affected by
radical changes to computing architectures?

operation
A)
 transition
B)

revision
C)

none of the above

D)
14
INCORRECT Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?

correctness, business relevance, integrity, usability

A)

reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales

B)

correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction

C)

correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability

D)
15
CORRECT A software quality metric that can be used at both the process and project levels
is defect removal efficiency (DRE).

True
A)

False
B)
16
INCORRECT Why is it important to measure the process of software engineering and
software it produces?

It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex.

A)

To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set.

B)

To determine whether a software group is improving or not.

C)

To make software engineering more like other engineering processes.

D)
17
INCORRECT To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline data used must be:

based on reasonable guestimates from past projects

A)

measured consistently across projects

B)

drawn from similar projects

C)

based only on successful projects

D)

both b and c
E)
18
INCORRECT Baseline data must be collected in an on-going manner and cannot be computed
by formal study of historical project data.

True
A)

False
B)
19
INCORRECT Small software organizations are not likely to see any economic return from
establishing software metrics program.

True
A)

False
B)
20
CORRECT The software metrics chosen by an organization are driven by the business or
technical goals an organization wishes to accomplish.

True
A)

False
B)