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Instructions:: Question Paper Booklet Code

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Instructions:: Question Paper Booklet Code

Uploaded by

Vikram Das
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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424: 1 :

QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET CODE :


A
424
Question Paper Booklet No.

Roll No. :

Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum marks : 100


Total number of questions : 100 Total number of printed pages : 24
Instructions :
1. Candidates should use blue/black ball point pen ONLY to fill-in all the required information in
OMR Answer Sheet and this Question Paper Booklet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet cannot be taken out from the Examination Hall by the examinees and the
same is required to be properly handed over to the Invigilator/Supervisory staff on duty and
acknowledgement be obtained for doing so on the Admit Card before leaving the Examination
Hall.
3. Candidates are required to correctly fill-in the Question Paper Booklet Code and the Question
Paper Booklet No. (as mentioned on the top of this booklet) in the OMR Answer Sheet, as
the same will be taken as final for result computation. Institute shall not undertake any responsibility
for making correction(s) at later stage.
4. This Question Paper Booklet contains 100 questions. All questions are compulsory and carry ONE
mark each. There will be negative marking for wrong answers in the ratio of 1 : 4, i.e., deduction
of 1 mark for every four wrong answers.
5. Seal of this Question Paper Booklet MUST NOT be opened before the specified time of examination.
6. Immediately on opening of Question Paper Booklet, candidates should ensure that it contains 100
questions in total and none of its page is missing/misprinted. In case of any discrepancy, the booklet
shall be replaced at once.
7. Each question is followed by four alternative answers marked as A, B, C and D. For answering
the questions including those requiring filling-in the blank spaces, candidates shall choose one most
appropriate answer to each question and mark the same in the OMR Answer Sheet by darkening
the appropriate circle only in the manner as prescribed in the OMR Answer Sheet.
8. Darkening of more than one circle corresponding to any question or overwriting/cutting any answer(s)
shall be taken as wrong answer for computation of result. Ticking/marking/writing of answer(s)
in the Question Paper Booklet shall not be considered in any circumstance for award of marks.
The Institute shall neither entertain any claim nor be liable to respond to any of the query in the
aforesaid matter.
9. Rough work, if any, should be done only on the space provided in this Question Paper Booklet.
10. The Copyright of this Question Paper Booklet and Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) contained
therein solely vests with the Institute.
.......................................................
(SIGNATURE OF CANDIDATE)

2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
A
424 : 2 :
Note : All questions in Part-I relate to the Income Tax Act, 1961 and Assessment Year 2019-20,
unless stated otherwise.

PART—I

1. The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) 4. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) vide
is headed by Chairman and also comprises
Circular No. 8 of 2017 dated 23rd February,
of six members. The Chairman and all the
2017 has clarified that the Place of Effective
Members of the CBDT are being selected :
Management (POEM) provisions shall not
(A) By Finance Minister
apply to a company having turnover or gross
(B) From IRS
receipts in a financial year of ............... .
(C) By Prime Minister
(A) ` 30 crore or less
(D) By Chief Justice of India
2. The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) (B) ` 10 crore or less

provides essential inputs for policy and (C) ` 50 crore or less


planning of direct taxes in India and is a
(D) ` 5 crore or less
...................... functioning under the Central
Board of Revenue Act, 1963. 5. Thomas, an Indian citizen is living in Kerala
(A) Constituted Authority since birth in 1954 and left for UAE on
(B) Revenue Administration Authority 13th June, 2014 for a salaried employment

(C) Statutory Authority contract for 4 years and came back on

(D) Central Authority 7th July, 2018 to India and settled at Kerala.

3. A person is deemed to be of Indian origin His residential status for the Assessment Year
if he, or either of his parents or any of his 2019-20 shall be :
grandparents, was born in ................. .
(A) Resident
(A) India
(B) Non-Resident
(B) India other than J & K
(C) Resident & Not Ordinary Resident
(C) Undivided India
(D) Greater India (D) Resident & Ordinary Resident

2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
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: 3 : 424
6. The Apex Court in the case of CIT-Gujarat 9. What will be the amount of gross salary
Vs. Saurashtra Cements Ltd. (2010) 233 which shall be required to be declared in
CTR 209 has held that liquidated damages the return of income to be filed for the
previous year 2018-19 by Harun, who joined
received from the supplier on account of
services as Manager Accounts on the
delay in the supply of plant and machinery
salary of ` 17,000 p.m. in XYZ Ltd. on
shall be treated in the nature of : 1st April, 2016 in the grade of 15,000 –
(A) Capital Receipt 2000 — 19,000 – 3000 — 28,000 ?

(B) Revenue Receipt (A) ` 3,00,000


(B) ` 2,28,000
(C) Not a receipt but to be reduced from
the cost of Plant & Machinery (C) ` 2,64,000

(D) Compensation (D) ` 2,52,000


10. Total income of Nand Kishore under the
7. XYZ Pvt. Ltd. had distributed income of
head ‘Salary’ for the financial year 2018-19
` 6 lakh to Rajesh for the reason of buyback of whose basic salary and DA per month
of its shares (Not being listed on a recognized was of ` 40,000 and ` 3,000 respectively
stock exchange) from him on 1st February, and who was also paid leave salary of
2019. The amount of ` 6 lakh received by ` 6,000 and ` 1,000 of professional tax by
Rajesh in the A.Y. 2019-20 shall the employer shall be .................... .
be ........................... . (A) ` 4,82,000
(A) Taxable in full (B) ` 4,76,000
(B) Exempt u/s 10(34A) (C) ` 5,23,000

(C) Taxable @ 20% (D) ` 5,16,000


11. A Central Government Officer received
(D) Taxable at normal rate of tax
during the year 2018-19 salary excluding all
8. The maximum amount of any death-cum- allowances of ` 9,00,000 and amount of
retirement gratuity received by an employee entertainment allowance of ` 12,000 @ `
not covered under the payment of Gratuity 1,000 p.m. The maximum amount of
Act, 1972 on Superannuation from the entertainment allowance so received by him
being exempt under section 16(ii) of the Act
employer exempt from tax is of .......... .
is ...................... .
(A) ` 20 Lakh
(A) 1/5th of salary
(B) ` 10 Lakh (B) ` 1,000 p.m.
(C) ` 5 Lakh (C) ` 5,000
(D) ` 15 Lakh (D) ` 10,000
2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
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424 : 4 :
12. Rajendra a non-resident Indian in the 14. Santhnam purchased in October, 2017 with
previous year 2018-19 was in receipt of rent the financial assistance by way of housing
of house property located in Dubai of loan provided by PNB Housing Finance Ltd.
` 27,50,000. The amount of rent was a flat in Chennai to be used exclusively for
transferred and credited in the bank account his own residential purposes. Interest on the
of Rajendra maintained with SBI, Vadodara housing loan till March, 2019 paid by him
by the tenant quarterly. The Annual Letting was of ` 2,18,780. He wants to know the
Value (ALV) of the house located in Dubai amount of deduction to be available to him
subject to tax under the head Income
in respect of interest so paid on the housing
from house property in A.Y. 2019-20 shall
loan while computing his income for A.Y.
be ....................... .
2019-20.
(A) ` 16,50,000
(A) ` 30,000
(B) ` 19,25,000
(B) ` 2,18,780
(C) ` 27,50,000
(C) ` 1,50,000
(D) Not taxable as property is in Dubai
(D) ` 2,00,000
and he is non-resident
15. House owned by Suresh was sold on 1st
13. What will be the Gross Annual Value (GAV)
January, 2019 and till the date of sale, the
of a house owned by Ramesh covered by
house was on rent of ` 7,000 p.m. The other
Rent Control Act remained let out during
the year 2018-19 of which; relevant details of this house are
(i) municipal value ` 72,000 p.a. (ii) fair
(i) Municipal value is ` 3,50,000
rent ` 66,000 p.a. and standard rent
(ii) Actual (De Facto) Rent is ` 3,20,000 ` 60,000 p.a. The income chargeable under
(iii) Fair Rent is ` 3,00,000, and the head House Property in A.Y. 2019-20
(iv) Standard Rent is ` 3,60,000 of this house shall be :

(A) ` 3,60,000 (A) ` 63,000

(B) ` 3,20,000 (B) ` 50,400

(C) ` 3,50,000 (C) ` 46,200

(D) ` 3,00,000 (D) ` 44,100


2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
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: 5 : 424
16. Assets put to use in business for more than 18. A machine owned by AB & Co. was
180 days during the previous year consisting transferred to XYZ & Co. on 1st January,
(i) Factory Building, (ii) Computers, 2019 for ` 5 lakh of which actual cost and
(iii) Motor Vehicles used for Commercial WDV was of ` 3 lakh and 2 lakh
Purposes and (iv) Intangible Assets shall be respectively. However, the fair market value
depreciated at the rate of ..................... on the date of transfer of machine was of
respectively.
` 4 lakh. XYZ & Co. will be allowed
(A) 5%, 15%, 30%, 25% depreciation on such machine by taking value

(B) 10%, 40%, 30%, 25% thereof at ` .................... .

(C) 10%, 15%, 25%, 25% (A) 5 lakh

(D) 5%, 40%, 15%, 25% (B) 2 lakh

17. The WDV of the block of asset of plant (C) 3 lakh


& machinery depreciated @ 15% as on 1st
(D) 4 lakh
April, 2018 was of ` 13,50,000. Out of
19. Any asset, on which depreciation is claimed
this block, one machine was sold 1st July,
on the basis of Straight Line Method (SLM)
2018 for ` 4,50,000 and a new machine
is sold and the amount by which money
of ` 7,50,000 was purchased on 1st August,
2018 which could be put to use from 1st payable together with scrap value, fall short

March, 2019. The amount of depreciation of the Written Down Value (WDV) of such

to be claimed on the block of plant & asset, the amount of such deficiency in value

machinery in the computation of income for of asset is allowed to be written off in the

A.Y. 2019-20 shall be : year of sale as ......................... .

(A) ` 1,35,000 (A) Balancing charge

(B) ` 2,47,500 (B) Terminal depreciation

(C) ` 1,91,250 (C) Loss on sale of asset

(D) ` 2,53,125 (D) Residual value of asset


2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
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424 : 6 :
20. Anirudh had made payment of (i) ` 30,000 22. Ping Pong is a Proprietorship firm of Pinga,
resident in India having turnover from
to IIT, Kanpur for an approved scientific
manufacturing and sale of Steel balls for the
research programme (ii) ` 45,000 revenue year 2018-19 of ` 148 lakh which is inclusive
expenditure on in house R&D facility as of amount of ` 42 lakh received through
approved by prescribed authority and (iii) electronic clearing system/RTGS/NEFT. The
accounts are not properly maintained by
` 1,00,000 to Indian Institute of Science,
Pinga and therefore he wants to pay tax on
Bengaluru for scientific research, wants to the income computed under section 44AD
know about the deduction available while of Act. Advise Pinga, how much income he
computing the income under “Profits and will be required to pay tax for A.Y. 2019-
20 as per section 44AD :
gains from business” in the Assessment Year
(A) ` 11,84,000
2019-20.
(B) Not allowed to opt 44AD being
(A) ` 2,40,000 turnover above ` 100 lakh
(B) ` 1,75,000 (C) ` 11,00,000
(D) ` 8,88,000
(C) ` 2,62,500
23. Mr. Ramanad, engaged in the business of
(D) ` 2,65,000 plying, hiring or leasing of goods carriers as
21. XAB Ltd. has incurred amount of on 1st April, 2018 was having 3 trucks of
gross vehicles weight of less than 12,000
` 4,00,000 towards capital expenditure
kgs each. One truck out of these 3 trucks
and ` 1,50,000 towards bona fide revenue was sold by him on 23rd July, 2018 and
expenditure for the purpose of promoting after its sale, 2 more trucks (1 of less than
family planning amongst its employees during 12,000 kgs. and 1 of 16,900 kgs) were
purchased on 5th September, 2018. He
the year 2018-19. Company can claim wants to declare the income of trucks as
deduction of an amount of ` .................... per provisions of section 44AE of the Act
for such expenses in the return to be filed and be required to declare such income at
` ...................... in the return for A.Y. 2019-
for A.Y. 2019-20.
20 from plying of these vehicles during the
(A) 50% of ` 5,50,000 previous year ended on 31st March, 2019.

(B) ` 2,30,000 (A) ` 3,54,500


(B) ` 3,81,500
(C) Such expenses are not allowed
(C) ` 3,15,000
(D) 20% of ` 5,50,000
(D) ` 3,74,000
2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
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: 7 : 424
24. Indexed cost of acquisition of the house 26. Rohit is working as Company Secretary in
property purchased for ` 80 lakh in June, Raj Chem Pvt. Ltd. on a salary of ` 20,000
1998 and was sold in December, 2018 will p.m. He got married to Pooja who holds
be of ` ................... (worked out by taking 25% shares of this Company. What will be
the CII of 1998-99 as 351; of the year 2001- the impact of salary paid to Rohit by the
02 as 100; of the year 2018-19 as 280) company in the hands of Pooja ?
and FMV of the house property as on 1st
(A) No amount to be clubbed
April, 2001 of ` 90 lakh.
(B) Club 50% salary
(A) ` 63,81,766
(C) Club 100% salary
(B) ` 90 lakh
(D) 25% salary be clubbed
(C) ` 252 lakh
27. Transfer of income is revocable in the
(D) ` 71,79,487
following cases :
25. Chirag entered into an agreement for sale
(A) Sale with a condition of re-purchase
of his house property located at Jaipur to
Yash on 1st August, 2017 for a total sale (B) Power to change beneficiary or trustees
consideration of ` 95 lakh. Yash paid an (C) Both (A) and (B)
amount of ` 20 lakh by account payee cheque
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
to Chirag on 1st August, 2017 and balance
was agreed to be paid at the time of 28. Ram has gifted on 11th May, 2018 an
registration of the Conveyance Deed which amount of ` 10,00,000 to his wife Sita
could only be executed by Chirag on 1st without consideration and also for not to live
September 2018. The Stamp Valuation apart. The gifted amount was invested by
Authority determined the value of the house his wife in interest bearing security on which
property on the date of registration of deed she earned interest of ` 1,00,000 on 1st
at ` 140 lakh. However, the value determined January, 2019. The amount of interest of
by the Stamp Valuation Authority of the ` 1,00,000 was further invested by her in
house on the date of agreement (1st August, the business from which she earned a profit
2017) was ` 110 lakh. The sale value for of ` 15,000 for the period ended on 31st
the purpose of computing the capital gain March, 2019. Specify the income which is
of the property in A.Y. 2019-20 to be taken to be included in the hands of Ram in A.Y.
by Chirag shall be : 2019-20.
(A) ` 95 lakh (A) ` 1,15,000
(B) ` 110 lakh (B) ` 1,00,000
(C) ` 140 lakh (C) ` 15,000
(D) ` 120 lakh (D) Nil
2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
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424 : 8 :

29. ABC Limited fulfilling all the conditions 31. Ram & Co., a partnership firm worked out
total book profits for the year ended 31st
of operating different infrastructure facilities
March, 2019 of ` 6,00,000 and has made
for claiming deduction u/s 80-IA. Find which payment of salary of ` 4,60,000 authorized
are being not covered under infrastructure by the partnership deed to the working
partners. Firm wants to know that how much
facility out of the following :
amount of salary paid to partners be allowable
(A) Developing of Toll-Road as deduction in A.Y. 2019-20.

(B) Operating and maintaining of Highway (A) ` 4,60,000

Project (B) ` 3,90,000

(C) ` 2,70,000
(C) Operating and maintaining of an Air-
(D) ` 4,50,000
port
32. A charitable trust registered as per section
(D) Developing of industrial park 12AA of Income Tax Act, having capital
asset purchased in June, 2015 for ` 1,00,000
30. The profits of a Co-operative Society
and used for the charitable purposes till the
engaged in (i) Carrying out the business
same was sold in December, 2018 for
of banking, (ii) A cottage industry and ` 1,50,000. The Trust, after sale of capital

(iii) Collective disposal of labour of its asset purchased a new capital asset for
` 1,20,000 which was also used for charitable
members are exempt from tax as per section
purposes of the Trust. The amount of capital
80P up-to : gain utilized in purchase of new capital asset
by Trust shall be .............. .
(A) 75% of the profits
(A) ` 20,000
(B) 100% of the profits
(B) ` 50,000
(C) 50% of the profits (C) ` 30,000

(D) 40% of the profits (D) Nil


2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
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33. Samode Charitable Trust formed under the 35. Provisions of Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT)
Trust Deed on 1st May, 2018 filed an are applicable to the companies which are;
application for grant of registration u/s 12AA
(i) Indian companies
of the Act to the CIT (Exemption) on 13th
May, 2018. The CIT (Exemption) did not (ii) Foreign companies

pass any order as to Registration of the Trust, (iii) LLP


till 31st March, 2019. The trust shall be
(A) (i) & (iii)
deemed to have the registration as per
provisions of Act under section 12AA (B) (i) & (ii)

effective from ....................... . (C) All the three

(A) 1st May, 2018


(D) None of the above
(B) 1st December, 2018
36. Total income of XYZ Limited includes the
(C) 13th May, 2018
income of dividend of ` 10 lakh paid by
(D) 13th November, 2018 a U.K. base foreign company in which XYZ

34. ABC Ltd., a domestic company having a Limited holds 30% of the equity share capital.
turnover of ` 350 crore has computed its The dividend income so received by the
total income for the year 2018-19 of
company from the U.K. base foreign
` 102 lakh. The tax payable by the company
company in A.Y. 2019-20 shall be :
on such income in A.Y. 2019-20 shall
(A) Taxable @ 15% of such income
be :

(A) ` 34,05,168 (B) Not taxable being exempt u/s 10(34)

(B) ` 29,70,240 (C) Taxable at the normal rate applicable

(C) ` 33,28,000 on domestic company

(D) ` 33,30,968 (D) Taxable @ 10% of such income

2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
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424 : 10 :
37. RAJA Ltd. has earned income of ` 150 lakh 39. A transfer of capital asset by a private
inclusive of income of ` 50 lakh from the company or unlisted public company shall
transfer of Carbon Credit during the year not be treated as transfer u/s 47 (xiiib) of

2018-19. The company had incurred an the Act on Conversion into LLP on fulfillment
of the conditions which inter-alia include that
amount of ` 5 lakh as transfer expenses on
the total value of assets as appearing in the
transfer of Carbon Credit. The income
books of account of the company in any
received from transfer of Carbon Credit in
of the three previous years preceding the
the A.Y. 2019-20 shall be taxed as per
previous year in which the conversion took
section 115BBG of the Act and the amount
place does not exceed ................ .
of tax on such income payable shall be :
(A) ` 5,00,00,000
(A) ` 5,82,400
(B) ` 10,00,00,000
(B) ` 5,56,400
(C) ` 20,00,00,000
(C) ` 13,00,000
(D) ` 1,00,00,000
(D) ` 5,00,000 40. Rakesh entered into a Joint Development
38. Every person being resident Indian who Agreement with Reality Builders Pvt. Ltd.
carries-out the business/profession or a non- for developing a project on the land owned
resident who has a permanent establishment by him during the previous year 2018-19

in India shall deduct equalization levy from and the builder who agreed to make the
payment of ` 50 lakh to Rakesh paid the
the amount paid/payable to a non-resident
same to him on execution of the Joint
in respect of specified services @ .............
Development Agreement. The amount of
whereas the aggregate amount of
TDS u/s 194-IC required to be deducted
consideration for specified services in the
on the amount of ` 50 lakh shall be
previous year exceeds ` .............. .
.................. .
(A) 8%, ` 10,00,000 (A) ` 50,000
(B) 8%, ` 1,00,000 (B) ` 2,50,000
(C) 6%, ` 1,00,000 (C) ` 5,00,000
(D) 10%, ` 1,00,000 (D) ` 10,00,000
2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
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41. Wealth Maximization Fund Limited had paid 44. Wherever any tax, interest, penalty or other
an amount of interest of ` 20 lakh in respect sum under the I.T. Act is payable, the
of money borrowed outside India on rupee Assessing Officer has to serve upon the
denominated bonds to a foreign Institutional
assessee a notice of demand as per Rule
Investor. Wealth Maximization Fund Limited
is required to deduct tax at source out of 15 and 38 under section .................... of
such payment of interest on these bonds at the I.T. Act, 1961.
the rate of ....................... . (A) 156
(A) 10%
(B) 143(3)
(B) 15%
(C) 153
(C) No TDS
(D) 220
(D) 5%
45. Where the advance tax paid on or before
42. A house property owned by Nitin, a non-
resident, at Delhi was agreed to be sold to March, 2019 is less than 100% of the tax
Ramesh for a consideration of ` 70,00,000. due on the total income declared in the return
Ramesh has stated to Nitin that the payment as reduced by the amount of tax deducted
of sale consideration shall be subject to TDS at source, the assessee shall be making
and the amount of TDS on the sale payment of interest on the amount of shortfall
consideration will be @ ..................... as per for the tax due on the returned income so
section ....................... of the Income Tax
declared per month at the rate of ......... .
Act, 1961.
(A) 34.32%, 195 (A) 2%

(B) 10%, 194-IC (B) 1%


(C) 5.72%, 194-LBA (C) Nil
(D) 1%, 194-IA (D) 1.5%
43. The quarterly return of TDS relating to 46. The premises of an assessee within the
payments made to non-resident and the jurisdiction of an Assessing Officer can be
foreign company being a unit holder of
surveyed during business hours by such
mutual funds is to be filed in return form
number : Income-Tax Authority ......................... .

(A) 24Q (A) After sunset and before sunrise


(B) 27Q (B) After sunrise but before sunset
(C) 26Q (C) Any time during 24 hours
(D) 22Q (D) After 11 A.M.
2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
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47. The Assessing Officer can complete the 49. As per section 9A, an eligible off-shore
assessment under section 144 of the Act even
investment fund shall furnish within 90 days
though there is no failure on the part of
assessee under section 139(1), 139(4), from the end of the financial year, a statement
139(5), 142(1), 142(2A) or 143(2) of the containing information relating to fulfillment
Act. Such powers by the A.O. may
of specified conditions and such other
be exercised in which of the following
situations : information or documents as may be

(A) Where the A.O. is not satisfied about prescribed. Penalty of ................... to be
the correctness or completeness of the levied, if investment fund failed to comply
accounts of the assessee with the requirements as per section 271FAB.
(B) Where the method of accounting has
(A) ` 1,00,000
not been regularly followed by the
assessee (B) ` 500 per day
(C) Where the income has not been
(C) ` 5,00,000
computed in accordance with “ICDS”
notified by the Central Government (D) ` 10,00,000
u/s 145(2)
50. The Assessing Officer while scrutinizing the
(D) Any of above three or in all the three
above situations return of an assessee find under reporting

48. The Commissioner of Income Tax can call of income for the reason of misreporting of
for the records of an assessee and by virtue facts of such income and thus levied penalty
of powers conferred under the Act can make
on such under reported income resulting from
the revision of the order passed by the
Assessing Officer after giving an opportunity misreporting of income. The penalty to be
of being heard to the assessee. Such powers imposed by the A.O. shall be at the rate
can be invoked by the CIT, when : of ....................... tax payable on such
(A) The order is erroneous misreported income.
(B) The order is prejudicial to the interest
(A) 50%
of revenue
(C) When the return has not been filed by (B) 100%
the assessee
(C) 200%
(D) When both the conditions of (A) and
(B) exist. (D) 300%

2/2019/TL/NS ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
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PART—II
51. Every decision of the Goods and Service 53. Administration and procedural aspects of
Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting, by
Goods and Service Tax are to be
majority of not less than ..................... of
administered by the .................... which is
the weighted votes of the members present
under the control of the Department of
and voting. The vote of the Central
Government shall have the weightage of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government
.................... of the total votes cast and the of India.
votes of all the State Government taken
(A) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and
together shall have a weightage of ..............
Customs
of the total votes cast in that meeting.

(A) 2/3, 1/3, 3/4 (B) Central Board of Indirect Taxes

(B) 3/4, 1/3, 2/3 (C) Central Board of Direct Taxes

(C) 2/3, 2/3, 1/3 (D) GST Council


(D) 3/4, 1/2, 2/3
54. GST is a comprehensive tax regime covering
52. The Goods and Service Tax Council shall
both Goods and Services and be collected
establish a mechanism to adjudicate any
on value added at each stage of the supply
dispute ...................... .
chain. GST is thus levied on the basis
(A) Relating to any defect in the
appointment of a person as a Member of .......................... .

(B) Relating to any procedural irregularity (A) Consumption principle


of the Council
(B) Destination principle
(C) Between the Government of India and
(C) Set-off against that payable principle
one or more States

(D) Relating to weightage of vote for taking (D) Both consumption and destination base

decision principle

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55. Most of the countries in the world follow 57. Permanent transfer or disposal of goods
forming part of business asset by or under
a uniform GST System whereas considering
the directions of the person carrying on the
to the federal nature of Indian Constitution, business whether or not for consideration as

Model of GST proposed and implemented well as transfer of title in goods under an
agreement where property in goods passes
in India from 1st July, 2017 is .............. .
at a future date on payment of full
(A) Unilateral Model consideration as per Schedule - II of the
CGST Act, 2017 to be treated as ........ .
(B) Bilateral Model
(A) Supply of Goods
(C) Dual Model (B) Supply of Services

(D) None of the above (C) Deemed supply

(D) Both, supply and deemed supply


56. Section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 defines
58. Construction of a complex, building, civil
the term ‘supply’ which are further being
structure or the part thereof including a
enumerated in the various schedules as complex or building intended for sale to a

specified in that section. The section includes buyer, wholly or partly except where the
entire consideration has been received after
certain transactions which are even without
issuance of completion certificate, where
consideration but being construed as supply required, by a competent authority or after

and also known as deemed supply. Such its first occupation, whichever is earlier as
per section - 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 read
transactions are being specified in .......... .
with item specified in schedule is known

(A) Schedule - II as ........................ .

(A) Goods
(B) Schedule - I
(B) Both Goods and Services
(C) Schedule - III
(C) Services

(D) Schedule - IV (D) Contract work

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59. Which of the categories of registered persons 61. The liability to pay GST would depend on
who are being eligible for the composition the mechanism the transaction aligns to the
scheme under the CGST Act, 2017 : supplier who is registered with GST, issues

(A) Supplier of the Restaurant Services a tax invoice, collects the GST and pays

(B) Manufacturer of notified goods it to the Government. This mechanism under

GST is known as ...................... .


(C) Non-resident taxable persons
(A) Forward charge mechanism
(D) Casual taxable person

60. The composition levy payable by a registered (B) Reverse charge mechanism

person whose aggregate turnover in the (C) Composition levy mechanism


preceding Financial Year did not exceed One
(D) Taxable supply mechanism
Crore and fifty lakh rupees making supply
62. The exempt supply has been defined as
by way of or as part of any services or in
supply of any goods/services/both, which
any other manner whatsoever of goods being
attract a Nil rate of tax, or which may be
food or any other article for human
consumption or any drink (other than wholly exempt from tax, and therefore,

Alcoholic Liquor for human consumption) includes non-taxable supplies. Which of the

where such supply or service is for cash or following is covered as an exempt supply

defer payment or other valuable consideration under GST ?

shall be at ..................... of the turnover. (A) Branded Aata/Basin/Maida

(A) 0.5% (B) Services by IRDA, SEBI, RBI, EPFO


(B) 1%
(C) Services by Post Office
(C) 2.5%
(D) Services by the Government for
(D) 5% transportation of passenger

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63. The supply of Goods/Services/both, where 66. ABC Ltd., supplied goods to XYZ Ltd.
location of supplier and the place of supply under a contract for the goods to be delivered
are in the same State or same Union Territory
to the factory of XYZ Ltd. The goods were
under CGST Act, 2017 and UTGST Act,
2017 is known as a ....................... . removed from the factory of ABC Ltd. on
9th September, 2018 and the goods were
(A) Inter-state supply
delivered to the factory of XYZ Ltd. on 15th
(B) Export supply
September, 2018.
(C) Intra-state supply
The invoice was issued on 18th September,
(D) Not Intra-state supply
2018 and the payment was credited to
64. Ram & Company of Delhi has taken a
ABC’s account on 20th Oct., 2018 although
contract to supply of food in New Delhi-
Mumbai Rajdhani Express and the supplies the entry in the books was made on 19th
of food in the train are being taken on board Sept., 2018 when the cheque was received.
at Kota in Rajasthan from Agarwal Food The time of supply in this case will be :
& Caterers. The place of supply in such case
(A) 18th September, 2018
shall be ............................ .
(A) Delhi (B) 9th September, 2018

(B) Kota (C) 15th September, 2018


(C) Mumbai (D) 20th October, 2018
(D) None of the above 67. What will the value of supply of the mobile
65. Mr. Ravi Raj a registered person based in phone sold by Micromax to Anil Kumar for
Ahmedabad solicits the services of an Event
` 35,000 in exchange with of his old mobile
Management Company based in Mumbai for
phone. The sale price of the new mobile
his daughter’s marriage planned as a
destination wedding at a Palace located in phone without exchange is ` 40,000. The
Udaipur. The place of supply in this case value of old mobile phone so exchanged was
shall be ....................... and tax to be charged of ` 7,000.
under ...................... .
(A) ` 35,000
(A) Ahmedabad, IGST
(B) ` 40,000
(B) Mumbai, IGST
(C) Udaipur, IGST (C) ` 42,000

(D) Ahmedabad, SGST (D) ` 33,000

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68. Mishra Enterprises had made supplies of 70. Section 2(62) of CGST Act, 2017 specify
` 5,50,000 to Bee Kay Enterprises. input tax in relation to a registered person,
Municipal Authorities of Jaipur on such means the Central Tax, State Tax, Integrated
supplies levied the tax @ 10% of ` 55,000.
Tax or Union Territory Tax charged on any
CGST and SGST chargeable on the supply
supply of goods or services or both made
was of ` 66,000. Packing charges not
to him but does not include :
included in the price of ` 5,50,000 amounted
to ` 15,000. Subsidy of ` 25,000 was (A) Integrated goods and service tax
received from an NGO on the sale of such charged on import of goods
goods and the price of ` 5,50,000 is after
(B) Tax under the provisions of section 9(3)
taking in to account the amount of subsidy
and 9(4)
so received. Discount offered is @ 1% which
was mentioned on the invoice. The value of (C) Tax paid under composition levy
supply in this case shall be ................... . (D) Tax under Union Territory Goods &
(A) ` 6,45,000 Service Tax Act
(B) ` 6,39,500 71. A registered taxable person is eligible to
(C) ` 6,20,000 obtain Input Tax Credit (ITC) as per section
(D) ` 6,38,550 16 of the CGST Act, on fulfilling of certain
conditions which consist of that such person
69. Babbur Automobiles of Jaipur has supplied
the goods of ` 2,66,090 to Goel should :
Automobiles of Ajmer in the month of March, (i) Be in possession of tax invoice
2019. The supply so made was inclusive of
(ii) Have received the goods
tax charged as CGST and SGST which on
the products so sold as per rates prescribed (iii) Supplier have not paid the tax charged
under CGST Act, 2017 is @ 18% The value (iv) Supplier have furnished the return
of supply as per Rule 35 of the CGST Rule, u/s 39
2017 of such supply shall be .............. .
(A) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(A) ` 2,66,090
(B) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(B) ` 2,25,000
(C) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(C) ` 3,13,986
(D) ` 2,25,500 (D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

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72. Availability of Input Tax Credit in special 74. The Input Tax Credit (ITC) is being credited
cases as per section 18(1) of the CGST Act, to ........................ of a person which may
2017 is available where a registered person
be used by the person to pay his out-put
is having tax invoice relating to such supply
tax liability.
issued not after expiry of ...................... from
the date of issue of tax invoice. (A) Electronic Cash Ledger
(A) 3 months (B) Electronic Credit Ledger
(B) 6 months
(C) Electronic Tax Ledger
(C) 1 year
(D) Electronic Tax Credit Ledger
(D) 9 months
75. Zebra, a supplier of goods located at Jaipur
73. ABC Ltd. is engaged in manufacture of
electrical appliances supply following details paid GST under regular scheme both Inter-

relating to GST paid on various items by state and Intra-state. The supplies are
them : chargeable to GST @ 18% The outward
Item GST Paid (`) taxable supply in the month of February,

Electrical Transformers utilized 2019 made by him of Intra-state ` 12,00,000


in the manufacturing process 1,20,000 and Inter-state ` 5,00,000. The total tax
Trucks used for transporting liability under GST Act on both these supplies
materials 80,000 shall be ........................., if he is having the
Cakes and Pastries for Opening Balance of ITC available of `
consumption within factory 12,500 45,000 each under CGST and SGST and
The amount of Input Tax Credit (ITC) of ` 55,000 under IGST.
available to ABC Ltd. shall be .............. .
(A) ` 3,06,000
(A) ` 2,00,000
(B) ` 2,16,000
(B) ` 2,12,500
(C) ` 1,61,000
(C) ` 52,500

(D) ` 1,00,000 (D) ` 1,71,000

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76. The registration under GST is ................... 79. Section 2(77) of CGST Act, 2017 defines
based with State specific number and is “non-resident taxable person” who has the
known as GST Identification Number business outside India, comes to India for
(GSTIN) which is a ...................... digit a temporary business purpose. Such person
would need to register as a non-resident
number under the CGST Act, 2017.
taxable person in the State and he will be
(A) TAN, 12 granted registration for a maximum period
(B) PAN, 15 of ....................... under the Act.

(C) TAN, 15 (A) 90 days

(D) PAN, 12 (B) 45 days


(C) 60 days
77. Every supplier as per section 22 of the CGST
Act, 2017 shall be liable to be registered (D) 30 days
under this Act in the State where he makes 80. The application for registration filed as per
taxable supplies of goods or services or both, Rule 8, prior to grant of registration be
if his aggregate turnover in the Financial Year examined and if found to be deficient, a notice
exceeds ....................... . to the applicant in Form ..................... be
issued within a period of .................... days
(A) ` 20,00,000 from the date of submission of application.
(B) ` 40,00,000 (A) GST REG-03, 7
(C) ` 30,00,000 (B) GST REG-03, 3
(D) ` 60,00,000 (C) GST REG-05, 7
78. Section 22 of the CGST Act, 2017 refers (D) GST REG-01, 3
to the expression “Special Category States” 81. Any person required to deduct tax or required
and there are total ........................ special to collect tax at source under GST as per
category States as per sub-clause (2) Rule 12 shall electronically submit an
of Clause (4) of Article 279A of the application for the grant of registration in Form
Constitution. However, special category ............................... and after verification of
States for the purpose of registration under the application the proper officer may grant
the CGST Act, 2017 out of which are ........ . the registration and issue the certificate of
registration in Form ....................... .
(A) 7, 2
(A) GST REG-5, GST REG-4
(B) 7, 4
(B) GST REG-8, GST REG-7
(C) 11, 4
(C) GST REG-7, GST REG-6
(D) 11, 7
(D) GST REG-10, GST REG-9
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82. The proper officer, if has reasons to believe 84. A draft template of invoice to be raised by
a registered person liable to pay tax under
that the registration of a person is liable to
Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) under
be cancelled under section 29 of CGST GST is known as .................... .
Act, then he shall issue a notice to such (A) GST INV-1
person in Form ...................... and after (B) GST INV-2
considering the reply furnished by such person (C) GST INV-3

shall pass on order to drop proceedings in (D) GST INV-4

Form ......................... . 85. Tax invoice referred to in Rule 46 of CGST


Rules 2017, in case of taxable supply of
(A) GST REG-16, GST REG-17 services shall be issued under Rule-47 of
CGST Rules 2017, within a period of
(B) GST REG-17, GST REG-18
.......................... from the date of supply of
(C) GST REG-17, GST REG-19 service.
(A) 7 days
(D) GST REG-17, GST REG-20
(B) 15 days
83. Mundra Manufacturing Company of Jaipur
(C) 30 days
on the order placed by Dheeraj Enterprises (D) on the same day
of Noida for supply of goods despatched 86. Section 35(5) of Central Goods & Services
the goods from the factory located at Jaipur Tax (CGST) Act, 2017 mandates that every
registered person must get his accounts
on lst March, 2019. The tax invoice for such
audited by a ...................... if his aggregated
supply by Mundra Manufacturing Company turnover during a financial year exceeds
must be issued on Dheeraj Enterprises on ` .................... .

or before ....................... . (A) Chartered Accountant or Company


Secretary, 2 Crore
(A) 30th March, 2019
(B) Chartered Accountant or Cost
(B) 1st March, 2019 Accountant, 2 Crore
(C) Chartered Accountant or Company
(C) 15th March, 2019
Secretary or Cost Accountant, 3 Crore
(D) 7th March, 2019 (D) Chartered Accountant, 3 Crore
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87. Every registered person as per section 68 89. Section 56 of the CGST Act, 2017 states
that claim of refund arising from an order
of CCST Act, 2017 who causes movement
passed by an adjudicating authority or
of goods of consignment value greater than Appellate Authority or an Appellate Tribunal
...................... whether for supply or or Court which is not being refunded within
..................... days from the date of receipt
otherwise or due to the inward supply from
of application filed consequent to such order,
an unregistered person, shall before interest at such rate not exceeding .................
commencement of such movement, furnish per annum, shall be payable in respect of
the necessary information electronically on such refund.

the portal in the prescribed form. (A) 30 days, 6%


(B) 30 days, 9%
(A) ` 50,000
(C) 60 days, 9%
(B) ` 25,000
(D) 60 days, 6%
(C) ` 1,00,000 90. Tax on inter-state supplies, import into
India, supplies made outside India and
(D) ` 5,000
supplies made in SEZ shall be charged
88. The Electronic Liability Register specified under ......................... .
under section 49(7) of the CGST Act, 2017 (A) CGST & SGST
as per Rule 85 of the CGST Rules 2017 (B) CGST & UTGST
shall be maintained in Form ..................... (C) CGST & IGST
for each person liable to pay tax, penalty, (D) IGST
late fees or any other amounts payable by 91. Provision for levy and collection of tax on
him on the common portal which shall be intra-state supply of goods or services or
both by the Union Territory and for matters
debited to the said register.
connected therewith or incidental thereto are
(A) GST PMT-10 being enumerated in :
(A) CGST Act, 2017
(B) GST PMT-01
(B) IGST Act, 2017
(C) GST PMT-05
(C) UTGST Act, 2017
(D) GST PMT-02 (D) None of the above
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92. Integrated tax credit as per section 9A of 94 Section 22 of the UTGST Act, 2017 lays
UTGST Act, 2017 on account of Union down the power of Central Government
Territory Tax shall be utilized towards to make rules on the recommendation of
payrnent of ........................ only after the
the Council. Any rule made under sub-
input tax credit available on account of
section-1 of section 22 may provide that a
....................... has first been utilized towards
contravention thereof shall be liable to a
such payment.
maximum penalty of ................... .
(A) Integrated Tax and Union Territory
Tax, Integrated Tax (A) ` 10,000

(B) Union Territory Tax, Input Tax (B) ` 1,000

(C) Integrated Tax or Union Territory Tax, (C) ` 5,000

Union Territory Tax (D) ` 2,500


(D) Integrated Tax or Union Territory Tax,
95. Total proceeds of the cess levied under
Integrated Tax
section 8 of GST (Compensation to States)
93. Advance ruling means a decision provided
Act, 2017 as per section 10 shall be credited
by the ...................... to an applicant on the
to a fund which is known as ............... and
matter or a question specify u/s 97(2) and
shall form part of the public account of India
100(1) of the CGST Act, in relation of the
to be utilized for the purposes specified and
supply of goods or services or both being
shall be a non-lapsable Fund.
undertaken by the applicant.

(A) Commissioner (Appeals) (A) GST Cess Fund

(B) Authority or Appellate Authority (B) GST Cess Compensation Fund

(C) Appellate Tribunal (C) GST Compensation Fund

(D) Adjudicating Authority (D) GST Fund


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96. Section 110 of Finance Act, 2018 w.e.f. 2nd 99. Self-assessment of duty as per section 17
February, 2018 have levied ................. on
of the Customs Act, 1962 is being done by
imported goods which is a duty of customs
levied for the purpose of the union on the Importer and Exporter relating to the goods
goods specified in the first schedule with the subject to duty and after final assessment
Customs Performing Act, 1975 being goods of duty if any, amount refundable is not
imported into India.
refunded within ..................... from the date
(A) Anti Dumping Duty
of assessment of duty finally there shall be
(B) Paid Command Duty
paid an interest on such un-refunded amount
(C) IGST and GST Compensation Cess
by Central Government.
(D) Social Welfare Surcharge
(A) 1 month
97. Find from the following list which are treated
as Port under the provisions of the Customs (B) 2 months
Act, 1962 :
(C) 6 months
(A) Land Station
(D) 3 months
(B) Land Customs Stations (LCS)
(C) Container Freight Stations (CFS) not 100. The offences committed under the Customs
attached to Port Act, 1962 are having the criminal liability as
(D) None of the above well as civil liability. However, the offences
98. Duty Drawback under the Customs Act, involving duty evasion of more than
1962 shall be allowed on the imported goods,
` ............... or/and of ............... are non bail
where such imported goods are being used
for a period of eight months before the same able offences under criminal liabilities.
were re-exported @ .................... . (A) 50 lakh, Prohibited goods
(A) 85%
(B) 50 lakh, Smuggled goods
(B) 70%
(C) 100 lakh, Smuggled goods
(C) 60%
(D) 40% (D) 100 lakh, Prohibited goods

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Space for Rough Work

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