Unit wise MCQ ITCCN (TE)

Unit-I Information Theory & Source Coding

Sr. No. Questions Ans.
1.
In discrete memory-less source, the current letter produced by a source is statistically c
independent of _____

a. Past output
b. Future output
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
2.
Huffman coding technique is adopted for constructing the source code with ________ c
redundancy.

a. Maximum
b. Constant
c. Minimum
d. Unpredictable
3.
Which bitmap file format/s support/s the Run Length Encoding (RLE)? d

a. TIFF
b. BMP
c. PCX
d. All of the above
4.
Which type of channel does not represent any correlation between input and output c
symbols?

a. Noiseless Channel
b. Lossless Channel
c. Useless Channel
d. Deterministic Channel
5.
In digital communication system, smaller the code rate, _________are the redundant bits. b

a. less
b. more
c. equal
d. unpredictable
6.
Which among the following compression techniques is/are intended for still images? a
 a. JPEG
b. H.263
c. MPEG
d. All of the above
7.
Which lossy method for audio compression is responsible for encoding the difference C
between two consecutive samples?

a. Silence Compression
b. Linear Predictive Coding (LPC)
c. Adaptive Differential Pulse Code modulation (ADPCM)
d. Code Excited Linear Predictor (CELP)

8.
Which, coding technique/s exhibit/s the usability of fixed length codes? A

a. Lempel Ziv
b. Huffman
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
9.
Information rate basically gives an idea about the generated information per _____ by A
source.

a. Second
b. Minute
c. Hour
d. None of the above
10.
With respect to power-bandwidth trade-off, for reducing the transmit power requirement, A
the bandwidth needs to be ________.

a. Increased
b. Constant
c. Decreased
d. None of the above
11.
The distance between each symbol in given sequence and reference sequence is known as b
_______

a. Euclidean Distance
 b. Distance between sequences
c. Manmattan Distance
d. Hamming Distance
12.
For designing a communication system, which among the following parameters should be A
maximum?

A. Transmission rate
B. Received signal-to-noise ratio
C. Error probability
D. Bandwidth requirement

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
13.
For fixed symbol rate, increase in bits/symbol ultimately improves r b/B bits/s/Hz & hence, B
regarded as _____.

a. Power efficiency
b. Spectral efficiency
c. Transmission efficiency
d. Modulation efficiency
14.
In dictionary techniques for data compaction, which approach of building dictionary is A
used for the prior knowledge of probability of the frequently occurring patterns?

a. Static Dictionary
b. Adaptive Dictionary
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
15. B
For a baseband system with transmission rate 'r s' symbols/sec, what would be the required
bandwidth?

a. rs / 2 Hz
b. rs / 4 Hz
c. rs / 8 Hz
d. rs / 16 Hz
16. B
For a Gaussian channel of 1 MHz bandwidth with the signal power to noise spectral
 density ratio of about 104 Hz, what would be the maximum information rate?

a. 12000 bits/sec
b. 14400 bits/sec
c. 28000 bits/sec
d. 32500 bits/sec
17. C
In digital communication system, if both power and bandwidth are limited, then which
mechanism/choice is preferred?

a. Power efficient modulation

b. Bandwidth efficient modulation
c. Error control coding
d. Trellis coded modulation
18. A
In coding gain & bandwidth of TCM, if the signal energy is kept constant, the ________of
constellation reduces the noise margin and results into the degradation of performance.

a. Expansion
b. Compression
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
19. D
If a noiseless channel bandlimited to 5 kHz is sampled every 1msec, what will be the value
of sampling frequency?

a. 250 samples/sec
b. 500 samples/sec
c. 800 samples/sec
d. 1000 samples/sec
20. C
Assuming that the channel is noiseless, if TV channels are 8 kHz wide with the bits/sample
= 3Hz and signalling rate = 16 x 106 samples/second, then what would be the value of data
rate?

a. 16 Mbps
b. 24 Mbps
c. 48 Mbps
d. 64 Mbps
21. B
Which decoding method involves the evaluation by means of Fano Algorithm?

a. Maximum Likelihood Decoding

 b. Sequential Decoding
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
22. An analogue signal is band limited to 4 KHz it is sampled at Nyquist rate. Samples are A
quantized to L1, L2, L3, L4 with probabilities1/8,, 1/8, 1/8, 3/8 respectively. The entropy is

a. 1.8 bits/message
b. 1.7 bits/message
c. None
23. With entropy of 2 bits/message and 8 KHz sampling rate, the information rate is C

a. 12400 bits/sec
b. 11400 bits/sec
c. 14400 bits/sec
24. The code efficiency is B

a. Avg code word length /entropy

b. entropy/ Avg code word length
c. None
25. Redundancy is defined as A

a. 1 – efficiency
b. 1 + efficiency
c. always 1
d. None
 Unit-II :Information Capacity & Channel Coding
Sr. Questions Ans.
No.
1.
Which coding terminology deals with the inverse operation of assigned words of second B
language corresponding to the words in the first language?

a. Enciphering
b. Deciphering
c. Codeword
d. Codebook
2.
In channel coding theorem, channel capacity decides the _________permissible rate at A
which error free transmission is possible.

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Constant
d. None of the above

3.
If the channel is bandlimited to 6 kHz & signal to noise ratio is 16, what would be the B
capacity of channel?

a. 15.15 kbps
b. 24.74 kbps
c. 30.12 kbps
d. 52.18 kbps
4.
According to Shannon's second theorem, it is not feasible to transmit information over the A
channel with ______error probability, although by using any coding technique.

a. small
b. large
c. stable
d. unpredictable
5.
Which among the following is/are the essential condition/s for a good error control coding D
technique?

a. Faster coding & decoding methods

b. Better error correcting capability
c. Maximum transfer of information in bits/sec
 d. All of the above
6.
Which among the following represents the code in which codewords consists of message B
bits and parity bits separately?

a. Block Codes
b. Systematic Codes
c. Code Rate
d. Hamming Distance

7.
In a linear code, the minimum Hamming distance between any two code words is C
______minimum weight of any non-zero code word.

a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. None of the above

8.
The minimum distance of linear block code (d min) is equal to minimum number of rows or A
T
columns of H , whose _____ is equal to zero vector.

a. sum
b. difference
c. product
d. divison
9.
For designing of (4,1) cyclic repetition code, what would be the order of the generator B
polynomial g(x)?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
10.
At any given time, the output of an encoder depends on ______ C

a. Past input
b. Present input
 c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
11.
During the shifting of bits in an encoder, how are the transitions in the states represented? A

a. By lines
b. By circles
c. By summers
d. By squares
12.
Which among the following is used to construct the binary code that satisfies the prefix D
condition?

a. Information Rate
b. Noiseless Channel
c. Channel Coding Theorem
d. Kraft Inequality
13.
Which approach plays a cardinal role in supporting the results obtained regarding the C
information capacity theorem?

a. Line Packing
b. Volume Packing
c. Sphere Packing
d. All of the above
14.
In sphere packing, where is the received code vector with added noise located? A

a. Inside the sphere

b. Outside the sphere
c. On the boundary (circumference) of sphere
d. All of the above
15.
On which factor/s do/does the channel capacity depend/s in the communication system? C

a. Bandwidth
b. Signal to Noise Ratio
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
16.
Which amount the following is capable of correcting any combination of three or fewer D
errors random errors in a block of 23 bits?
 a. Hamming codes
b. Interleaved code
c. Repetition codes
d. Golay code
17.
For a (6,4) block code where n = 6, k = 4 and d min = 3, how many errors can be corrected by B
this code?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
18.
In Repetition Code, how many information bit/s is/are present in addition to n-1 parity A
bits?

a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Eight
19.
On which factor/s do/does the error probability depend/s after decoding? C

a. Number of error vectors

b. Error probability of symbol transmission
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
20.
Which buffer size is required by the interleaved codes at the transmitter for the C
accumulation of λ code words?

a. Small
b. Medium
c. Large
d. All of the above
21. In a sphere packing the radius of inner sphere is are A

b. √
c. None
22. With reference to the channel capacity in presence of white gaussian noise the upper limit C
of capacity is given by
 a. S/N0
b. N0 / B
c. 1.44 S/N0
d. None
23. The capacity of a channel with bandwidth 1 MHz and Signal to noise ratio of 10 dB is B

a. 2.46 Mbps
b. 3.46 Mbps
c. 1.45 Mbps
d. None
24. The maximum information rate for a channel capacity of 137424 bits/sec is C

a. 120000 bits/sec
b. 140000 bits/sec
c. 144000 bits/sec
d. None
25. For equiprobable source symbols the channel capacity is c

a. Maximum
b. infinite
c. zero
d. n0/B
 Unit-III: Cyclic Codes
Sr. Questions Ans.
No.
1.
Basically, Galois field consists of ______ number of elements. A

a. Finite
b. Infinite
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

2.
According to linearity property, the ________ of two code words in a cyclic code is also A
a valid code word.

a. sum
b. difference
c. product
d. division
3.
What is the value of leading coefficient of a monic polynomial? B

a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 4
d. 16
4.
While decoding the cyclic code, if the received code word is similar as transmitted code A
word, then r(x) mod g(x) is equal to _________

a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Infinity
d. None of the above
5.
In decoding of cyclic code, which among the following is also regarded as 'Syndrome D
Polynomial'?

a. Generator Polynomial
b. Received code word Polynomial
c. Quotient Polynomial
d. Remainder Polynomial
6.
For the generation of a cyclic code, the generator polynomial should be the factor of A
_____

a. xn + 1
b. xn – 1
c. xn /2
d. x2n/3
7.
Consider the assertions related to decoding process of cyclic code. Which among the D
following is a correct sequence of steps necessary for the correction of errors?

A. Syndrome determination after the division of r(x) & g(x)

B. Addition of error pattern to received code word
C. Selection of error pattern corresponding to the syndrome
D. Preparation of table comprising error patterns and syndromes

a. A, B, C, D
b. B, A, D, C
c. C, B, D, A
d. D, A, C, B

8.
Which among the below stated logical circuits are present in encoder and decoder used A
for the implementation of cyclic codes?

A. Shift Registers
B. Modulo-2 Adders
C. Counters
D. Multiplexers

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D

9.
In register contents at decoder, the syndrome register consists of syndrome after all A
bits of received vector are clocked into the decoder ________.
 a. Input
b. Output
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
10. For Galois field of GF(2), 1XOR 1 is B

a. 1
b. 0
11. a) Cyclic code is a sub class of linear block codes A
b) It possesses cyclic property

a. a & b correct
b. only b is correct
c. only a is correct
d. both a & b wrong
12. A code is said to be linear if A

a. Sum of any two codewords produce a valid code word

b. Sum of any two codewords produce a invalid code word
c. Subtraction of any two codewords produce a valid code word
d. none
13. Elements in GF satisfies following laws D

a. Commutative law
b. distributive law
c. associative law
d. all of above
14. Addition of f1(x)= and f2(x)= in GF(3) is b

b.
c.
15. Product of f1(x)= and f2(x)= in GF(2) is C

a.
b.
c. 1
d. None
16. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________. A

a. 0
b. 1
c. N
d. none of the above
17. The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding C
bits.

a. Hamming rule
b. Hamming code
c. Hamming distance
d. none of the above
18. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial. C

a. range
b. power
 c. degree
d. none of the above
19. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results. A

a. addition and subtraction

b. addition and multiplication
c. addition and division
d. none of the above
20. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___. B

a. block; blockwords
b. block; datawords
c. linear; datawords
d. none of the above
21. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and ______coding. B

a. linear; nonlinear
b. block; convolution
c. block; linear
d. none of the above
22. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming A
distance in a block code must be ________.

a. 11
b. 6
c. 5
d. none of the above
23. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______. B

a. detection; correction
b. correction; detection
c. creation; correction
d. creation; detection
24. In block coding, if k = 2 and n = 3, we have _______ invalid codewords. A

a. 4
b. 8
c. 2
d. none of the above
25. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit A
blocks are called _________.

a. codewords
b. datawords
c. blockwords
d. none of the above
 Unit-IV: BCH and Convolutional Codes
Sr. Questions Ans.
No.
1.
BCH codes exhibit the multiple error correcting capability with the provision of D
selecting _________.

a. Alphabet size
b. Block length
c. Code rates
d. All of the above
2.
Generally, a primitive polynomial of degree 'm' is an irreducible polynomial in such a A
way that it is a factor of xn + 1, where 'n' = ______

a. 2m - 1
b. m/n - 1
c. (m+1) /2
d. m-n-1
3.
In minimal polynomial, _______degree polynomial is present with coefficients in the C
basefield along with the zeros in extension field.

a. largest
b. constant
c. smallest
d. unpredictable
4.
While representing the convolutional code by (n,k,m), what does 'm' signify or C
represent in it?

a. Coded bits
b. Message bits
c. Memory order
d. All of the above
5.
In Viterbi's algorithm, which metric is adopted for decision making? A

a. Hamming distance
b. Galois Field
c. Hamming bound
d. Parity-check
6.
In Viterbi's algorithm, the selected paths are regarded as __________ A

a. survivors
b. defenders
c. destroyers
d. carriers
7.
Decoding of RS code comprises the determination of error _______ A

A. position
B. magnitude
C. angle
D. frequency

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
8.
In RS code, the length is ____less than number of symbols in symbol set (q). A

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Infinite
9.
In Trellis diagram, what do/does the horizontal axis represent/s? B

a. Continuous time
b. Discrete time
c. Sampled time
d. All of the above
10.
For the 4 states of an encoder on vertical axis of Trellis diagram, what do/does the A
solid line indicate/s?

a. '0' input
b. '1' input
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
11.
For a received sequence of 6 bits, which decoding mechanism deals with the selection A
of best correlated sequence especially by correlating the received sequence and all
permissible sequences?

a. Soft Decision Decoding

b. Hard Decision Decoding
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

12.
To obtain the transfer function of a convolutional code, the splitting of all-zero state A
takes place into ___

A. starting state
B. first return to all-zero state
C. in-between state

a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. None of the above
13.
dfree is defined as the Euclidean distance of coded signal in terms of _________ s A
possible distance between all allowed sequences.

a. smallest
b. largest
c. average
d. constant
14.
For designing trellis code, the emphasis must be on maximizing __________ A

a. Euclidean distance between code vectors

b. Hamming distance of error correcting codes
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
15. A) Block code uses syndrome decoding B) Convolutional codes uses Viterbi A
decoding

a. A & B are correct

b. only A is correct
c. only B is correct
d. A & B both are wrong
16. A) Block code need memory B)Convolutional code need memory C

a. A & B are correct

b. only A is correct
c. only B is correct
d. A & B both are wrong
17. In convolutional code, the number of states in a 3-bit message are C

a. 3
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9
18. The graphical representation for convolutional encoder is done by C

a. State diagram
b. trellis diagram
c. both a & b
d. only b
19. The ratio of number of message bits to the number of encoded bits per message is B

a. Constraint length
b. code rate
c. code dimension
d. none of these
20. a) Metric is the hamming distance of each branch of each surviving path from the A
corresponding branch of received signal
b) Metric is the hamming distance of each branch of each surviving path from the
corresponding branch of input signal

a. A & B both correct

b. only A is correct
c. only B is correct
21. Surviving path is defined as A

a. A path of the decoded signal with minimum metric

b. A path of the decoded signal with maximum metric
c. A path of the encoded signal with maximum metric
22. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___. B

a. block; blockwords
b. block; datawords
c. linear; datawords
d. none of the above
23. A _____ error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed. A

a. burst
b. double-bit
c. single-bit
d. none of the above
24. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________. A

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. none of the above
25. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______. B

a. 1 and 2
b. 0 and 1
c. 0 and 2
d. none of the above

Unit-V: Data Communication & Physical Layer

Sr. No. Questions Ans.
1. What is the crucial function of Protocol Data Unit (PDU) in layer communication c
process?

a. Transfer of user data by N+1 layer to N and N-1 layers

b. Exchange of information with the help of peer entities over the different network sites
 c. Combination of Service Data Unit (SDU) & Protocol Control Information (PCI)
d. Passage of temporary parameter between N & N-1 layers apprise service function
2. Which salient characteristic/s play/s a significant role in determining the effectivity D
of data communication system?

a. Accuracy
b. Delivery
c. Timeliness
d. All of the above
3. Which form of data flow strategy is adopted in simplex mode of data A
communication system?

a. Uni-directional
b. Bi-directional
c. Multi-directional
d. All of the above
4. Which kind of communication mode has a provision of sharing channel capacity in C
addition to the transmission and reception of data at a simultaneous level?

a. Simplex
b. Half-duplex
c. Full-duplex
d. None of the above
5. Which factors are responsible in determining the reliability of a network? B

a. Number of users & type of transmission media

b. Accuracy, Robustness, Failure rate & Establishment time
c. Hardware & Software
d. All of the above
6. Which strategy of network connection possesses an ability of sharing the dedicated A
link capacity only between two nodes?

a. Point-to-point
b. Multi-point / Multi-drop
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
7. Which application-level protocol plays a crucial role in carrying out the data b
definition and manipulation in addition to X-500 features?

a. TCP
b. LDAP
c. FTP
d. None of the above
8. What is/are the major role/s of Data Link Layer (DLL) in an OSI model? a

a. Detection & Correction of transmission errors

b. Provision of data flow control to prevent DTE from overburdening
c. Identification of various devices on the network
d. Generation of a frame for easy data transfer
a. A, B, C & D
b. Only C
c. Only D
d. None of the above
9. Which OSI layer allows the transmission and reception of data segments to a c
 session layer in addition to the provision of flow control, sequence numbering and
message acknowledgment?

a. Network Layer
b. Session Layer
c. Transport Layer
d. Application Layer
10. Which network component/s is/are involved in the Presentation layer of an OSI a
model?

a. Gateway
b. Multiplexer & Oscilloscope
c. Amplifier & Hub
d. All of the above
11. Which is the only layer of OSI model that prevents itself from adding its own c
header to the data during the data transmission process?

a. Application layer
b. Network layer
c. Physical layer
d. None of the above
12. Which protocol/s is/are used in data link layer of an OSI model? c

a. SMB
b. NCP
c. LLC
d. All of the above
13. Which among the four layers of TCP/IP is analogous to the physical and the data d
link layers of an OSI model?

a. Application Layer
b. Transport Layer
c. Internet Layer
d. Host to network Layer
14. Which combinational package of layers in OSI model is equivalent to an application b
layer of TCP/ IP model?

a. Transport, Session & Application Layers

b. Session, Presentation & Application Layers
c. Data Link, Transport & Presentation Layers
d. Network, Session & Application Layers
15. Which protocol of TCP/IP exhibits its usability in applications requiring instant and b
essentially reliable delivery operations?

a. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

b. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
c. Internet Protocol (IP)
d. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
16. Which protocol assists in providing the remote login access over the network D
especially in an application layer of TCP/IP reference model?

a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

b. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
c. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
d. TELNET (Network Terminal Protocol)
17. Consider the following assertions. Which of them is/are incorrect in accordance to D
functions associated with TCP in transport layer?

a. Conversion of an incoming byte stream into discrete message

b. Synchronization occurs between the fast sender and the slow receiver
c. It is widely applicable in prompt delivery
d. It allows an error-less byte stream to get delivered to a specified location

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. Only A
d. Only C
18. Addressing is the service offered by the Internet Protocol(IP), which basically deals B
with ___________

a. the provision of sequencing the datagrams

b. the determination of route in order to deliver data to the destination host
c. the handling of large messages in an intervening network
d. All of the above
19. Which unique internet address is/are of greater significance during the attachment C
of a header to the datagram by the Internet Protocol (IP)?

a. Source Address
b. Destination Address
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
20. Which among the below specified network associated components is/are not
involved in the host-to-network layer of TCP/IP model?

a. Protocols
b. Device Drivers
c. Network Interface Card
d. All of the above
21. Which addresses are related to the processes involved in an application layer of D
TCP/IP architecture?

a. Physical (Link) Addresses

b. Logical (IP) Addresses
c. Port Addresses
d. Specific Addresses
22. A packet used for the transmission purpose is basically a combination of _____ c

a. group of bits
b. source & destination addresses
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
23. Which unit plays a crucial role in carrying out the functions of network layer, a
simply by the addition of a header to it?

a. Network Service Data Unit (NSDU)

b. Medium Access Control Unit (MACU)
c. Network Address Translation Unit (NATU)
d. None of the above
24. Which among the following are delivered by the transport layer in process-to- c
process delivery mechanism?
 a. Frames
b. Datagrams
c. Packets
d. All of the above
25. Which among the below specified design issues should not be minimized while a
designing the system of a computer network?

a. Bandwidth
b. Content Switching
c. Software Overhead
d. All of the above

Unit-VI: Data Link Layer

Sr. No. Questions Ans.
1. An Universal Address System is essential in logical addresses in order to identify each a
host in completely unique manner irrespective of underlying _______
 a. Physical networks
b. Internet protocols
c. Processes in an application layer
d. All of the above
2. Which addresses are supposed to be of greater importance for transmitting the data
from source to destination? c

a. Physical address
b. IP address
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
3. The port address in TCP/IP architecture basically involves ______
A

a. Label assigning to a process

b. Changing of physical address from hop to hop
c. Encapsulation of data in a frame
d. All of the above
4. How does the crosstalk generated due to the electromagnetic interference between two
copper wires placed in vicinity get reduced? A

a. By twisting the copper wire

b. By using the repeaters
c. By using amplifiers
d. All of the above
5. Which category of UTP cable in accordance to the EIA standard exhibits the capability
of three twist per foot in addition to the transmission speed of about 16 Mbps? B

a. Category 5
b. Category 4
c. Category 3
d. Category 2
6. Which mode of coaxial cable represents the cable bandwidth by a single stream of data a
during the transmission of any data/information?

a. Baseband mode
b. Broadband mode
c. Passband mode
d. None of the above
7. The data transfer rate of any co-axial cable usually occurs or lies _______ A

a. Between TP and fiber optic cables

b. Between STP and UTP cables
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
8. When does the fixed path get established between the source and destination in the
A
 virtual packet switching network?

a. Before the transmission of packets

b. After the transmission of packets
c. During the transmission of packets
d. All of the above
9. Which among the following represents the objectives/requirements of Data Link Layer? c

a. Frame Synchronization
b. Error & Flow Control
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
10. When does the station B send a positive acknowledgement (ACK) to station A in Stop a
and Wait protocol?

a. Only when no error occurs at the transmission level

b. When retransmission of old packet in a novel frame is necessary
c. Only when station B receives frame with errors
d. All of the above
11. Which provision can resolve/overcome the shortcomings associated with duplication or a
failure condition of Stop and Wait Automatic Repeat Request protocol especially due to
loss of data frames or non-reception of acknowledgement?

a. Provision of sequence number in the header of message

b. Provision of checksum computation
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
12. Which consequences are more likely to occur during the frame transmission in Stop- d
and-Wait ARQ mechanism?

a. Loss of frame or an acknowledgement

b. Delay in an acknowledgement
c. Normal operation
d. All of the above
13. Which feature of Go-Back-N ARQ mechanism possesses an ability to assign the sliding b
window in the forward direction?

a. Control Variables
b. Sender Sliding Window
c. Receiver Sliding Window
d. Resending of frames
14. Which ARQ mechanism deals with the transmission of only damaged or lost frames b
despite the other multiple frames by increasing the efficiency & its utility in noisy
channels?

a. Go-Back-N ARQ
b. Selective Repeat ARQ
c. Stop-and-Wait ARQ
d. All of the above
15. What are the frames issued by the secondary station of HDLC, known as? c

a. Link
b. Command
 c. Response
d. None of the above
16. Which operational mode/s of HDLC support/s the balanced configuration by governing B
point-to-point link connectivity in addition to the primary as well as secondary functions
performed by the station?

a. NRM
b. ABM
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
17. Which category of HDLC frames undergoes error and flow control mechanisms by c
comprising send and receive sequence numbers?

a. U-frames
b. I-frames
c. S-frames
d. All of the above
18. Which type of S-frame in HDLC exhibit the correspondence of last three bits [N(R)] by c
defining the negative acknowledgement (NAK) number with the code value of '01'?

a. Receive ready
b. Receive not ready
c. Reject
d. Selective Reject
19. Which among the AAL protocol/s allow/s the CS checksum of about 32 bits? d

a. AAL-1
b. AAL-2
c. AAL-3/4
d. AAL-5

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. Only C
d. Only D
20. The ability of a single network to span multiple physical networks is known as ______ a

a. Subnetting
b. Masking
c. Fragmenting
d. Hopping
21. Which mechanism/s is/are extremely essential in data link and transport layers in c
accordance to operational services offered by the transport protocols?

a. Buffering
b. Flow Control
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
22. Which are the major divisional categories of an Internet Link Technologies? d

a. Within a campus
b. Wide Area Links
c. Dial-Up Access
d. All of the above
23. Which among the below mentioned communication assets specifies an agreement of a
a
 common language used by the two computers for the purpose of exchanging messages?

a. Protocols
b. Packets
c. Routers
d. Datagrams
24. Which element of a protocol represents the meaning of each section of bits?
b

a. Syntax
b. Semantics
c. Timing
d. All of the above
25. Which application programs are supported (or hosted) by the end systems in the
network edge operations? D

a. Web browser Programs

b. Web Server Programs
c. E-mail reader programs
d. All of the above