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CSEC Collins Physics Exam Style Answers

This document provides an overview of exam-style questions covering topics in physics from chapters 1 to 9. It includes sample multiple choice and extended response questions testing concepts such as scalars, vectors, kinematics, dynamics, momentum, work and energy. The questions follow CSEC Physics exam format and cover relevant laws of motion.

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© © All Rights Reserved
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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
2K views

CSEC Collins Physics Exam Style Answers

This document provides an overview of exam-style questions covering topics in physics from chapters 1 to 9. It includes sample multiple choice and extended response questions testing concepts such as scalars, vectors, kinematics, dynamics, momentum, work and energy. The questions follow CSEC Physics exam format and cover relevant laws of motion.

Uploaded by

Aiden
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Collins Concise Revision Course: CSEC® Physics

Exam-style questions – iii) distance = area under the graph to t = 10 s


d = 20 × 4.0 + 20 × 6.0
Chapters 1 to 9 2
(d = 160 m) (3 marks)
STRUCTURED
c) An object moving at uniform speed in a circle is
1. a) i) A scalar quantity is one which has only magnitude. constantly changing direction. Its velocity is therefore
(2 marks) constantly changing and it is accelerating.
ii) A vector quantity has magnitude and direction.
a = Δv (1 mark)
(2 marks) Δt
Total 15 marks
b)
Scalar Vector 3. a) i) The moment of a force about a point is the product
energy force of the force and the perpendicular distance of its
line of action from the point. (2 marks)
pressure displacement
ii) The centre of gravity of a body is the point
power momentum through which the resultant gravitational force on
(3 marks)
c) i) Since the vectors are at right angles, a sketch the body acts. (2 marks)
can be made and the solution obtained from b) i) The principle of moments states that for a system
application of Pythagoras’ theorem and simple of coplanar forces in equilibrium, the sum of the
trigonometry. clockwise moments about any point is equal to
the sum of the anticlockwise moments about that
same point. (2 marks)
ii) N m (1 mark)
c) i) W = mg
VR
8.0 m s–1 W = 2.0 × 10
(W = 20 N) (2 marks)
ii) Taking moments about point C:
θ ∑ anticlockwise moments = ∑ clockwise moments
20 × 0.15 = 0.40 P
6.0 m s–1
P = 20 × 0.15
0.40
Resultant velocity
(P = 7.5 N) (4 marks)
magnitude VR = √8.02 + 6.02 d) If the height of the cone is doubled, the force (P)
(VR = 10 m s−1) required is halved, in order to provide the same
direction, θ = tan−1 8.0 = 53° (6 marks) clockwise moment as before. (2 marks)
6.0
ii) distance = speed × time Total 15 marks
d = 10 × (5.0 × 60) EXTENDED RESPONSE
(d = 3000 m) (2 marks) 4. a) (Law 1) A body continues in its state of rest or uniform
Total 15 marks motion in a straight line unless acted on by a
2. a) i) Displacement: The distance measured in a specified resultant force.
direction from some reference point. (2 marks) (Law 2) The rate of change of momentum of a body
ii) Velocity: The rate of change of displacement. is proportional to the applied force and takes
(2 marks) place in the direction of the force. F = mv − mu .
t
iii) Acceleration: The rate of change of velocity.
(Law 3) If body A exerts a force on body B, then body
(2 marks)
B exerts an equal but oppositely directed force
b) i) v/m s−1
on body A. (6 marks)
b) i) FR = ma
20 FR = 4.0 × 104 × 3.6
FR = 1.44 × 105
(FR = 1.4 × 105 N) (2 marks)
0
ii) The acceleration is proportional to the resultant
4.0 10.0 18.0 t/s (3 marks) force on the jet. The forward thrust of the engines
must be greater than the resultant force by an
ii) acceleration = Δv amount equal to the opposing forces of friction. The
Δt
a= 20 − 0 resultant force will then be 1.44 × 105 N. (2 marks)
4.0 − 0 iii) W = F × s = 1.44 × 105 × 500
(a = 5.0 m s−2) (2 marks)
(W = 7.2 × 107 J or 72 MJ) (3 marks)

27
c) Constant velocity implies that the acceleration is zero. ii) P = mcΔT
Since FR = ma, the resultant force must also be zero. A t

forward thrust equal but oppositely directed to the t = mcΔT


P
opposing force of friction will produce a resultant force t = 0.500 × 4200 × (100 − 30)
of zero. (2 marks) 600
Total 15 marks (t = 245 s) (2 marks)
5. a) There is a definite need to use alternative sources of iii) EH = ml
energy in the Caribbean. The region depends heavily EH = 0.200 × 2.3 × 106
on the use of fossil fuels for its energy. These fuels are (EH = 4.6 × 105 J) (2 marks)
EH
diminishing in availability and the sudden drop in iv) P= t
oil prices has highlighted the high risk of investment EH 5
t= P
= 4.6 × 10
in crude oil companies. Fossil fuels are also polluting 600
the environment, increasing global warming, and are (t = 767 s) (2 marks)
contributing to increased medical expenses caused c) i) Temperature is a measure of the degree of hotness
particularly by respiratory illnesses. of a body. (1 mark)
The Caribbean can take advantage of the excellent solar ii) Liquid-in-glass thermometer – the volume of
radiation available throughout the year by using it as liquid increases with increased temperature.
an alternative energy source. Many homes are already Resistance thermometer – the resistance increases
using solar water heaters to heat water directly. These with increased temperature. (4 marks)
are relatively cheap to install and require very little Total 15 marks
maintenance. Photovoltaic panels are also becoming 2. a) Relation Law
popular. These convert solar energy into electrical
V ∝ T (P constant) Charles’ law
energy which is stored in batteries for later use or
1
returned to the electrical grid supply. P∝ (T constant) Boyle’s law
V
Biogas is another useful alternative source of energy.
P ∝ T (V constant) Pressure law
Gases produced from decayed animal wastes are now (3 marks)
being used to power electrical generators on farms. b) i) P1 V1 = P2 V2
(6 marks) 8.0 × 104 × 10 = P2 × 5.0
b) i) max. EP = mgΔh 8.0 × 10 4 × 10
= P2
max. EP = 0.500 × 10 × 30 5.0
(max. EP = 150 J) (2 marks) (1.6 × 105 Pa = P2) (2 marks)
ii) The 150 J of potential energy transforms completely ii) As a gas is compressed at constant temperature,
to 150 J of kinetic energy as the stone falls. (2 marks) the speed of its molecules is unchanged and
iii) The 150 J of kinetic energy does 150 J of work as it therefore the force, F, exerted by its molecules
bores into the soil. (1 mark) remains constant. However, since the volume
iv) Whenever work is done, an equal amount of decreases, the collisions are on a smaller area, A.
energy is transformed. The 150 J of work done The force per unit area therefore increases,
results in a transformation of 150 J of kinetic resulting in an increase in pressure, P.
F
energy into 150 J of thermal energy and sound P= (2 marks)
A
energy. (1 mark) iii) The molecules of mass, m, of a gas, bombard
v) work on boring hole = force × distance moved in each other and the walls of their container. As
direction of force they rebound, their velocity changes from u to
150 = F × 0.20 v in a short time, t, and they impart forces, F, in
150
=F accordance with Newton’s second law of motion.
0.20
(750 N = F) (3 marks) F = m(v − u) (2 marks)
t
Total 15 marks
c) i) P = mcΔT
t
Pt
=m
Exam-style questions – cΔT
300 × 200
=m
Chapters 10 to 18 4200 × 70
(0.20 kg = m) (3 marks)
STRUCTURED ml
ii) P =
t
1. a) The heat capacity of a body is the heat required to ml
raise the temperature of the entire body by one unit, t=
P
whereas the specific heat capacity of a substance is 0.400 × 3.4 × 105
t=
the heat required to raise the temperature of only unit 300
(t = 453 s) (3 marks)
mass of the substance by one unit. (2 marks)
Total 15 marks
b) i) C = mc = 0.500 × 4200
(C = 2100 J °C−1) (2 marks)

28
EXTENDED RESPONSE Exam-style questions –
3. a) The heater is switched on and the water is brought to
boiling point. The initial mass, m1, is measured and Chapters 19 to 25
recorded and the stop watch is started. The readings of STRUCTURED
voltage, V, across the heater, and current, I, through it, 1. a) i) X-rays, ultraviolet waves, light waves, radio waves.
are taken. After a few minutes, the new mass, m2, and (2 marks)
the time, t, are measured and recorded. ii)
Assuming that all the electrical energy is used in
boiling the water, the following equation is used to Type of wave Source Use
calculate the specific latent heat of vaporisation, lv. Radio Radio transmitter Radio broadcasting
electrical energy = heat to boil water Gamma Cobalt-60 Sterilisation
VIt = mw lv
(4 marks)
VIt = (m1 − m2)lv
VIt iii) Gamma diffracts least. (1 mark)
= lv (6 marks)
(m1 − m2) b) v = λf
b) i) If P is the power of the heater, then 3.0 × 108

electrical energy = heat to boil water 1.5 × 1017
−9
Pt = mw lv (2.0 × 10 m = λ) (2 marks)
1
Pt
= lv c) i) η= = 1 = 1.59 (3 marks)
mw sin c sin 39°
1000(10 × 60) sin θa ηg
= lv ii) sin θg = ηa
0.250
6
(2.4 × 10 J kg = lv)−1
(3 marks) η
sin θa = ηg sin θg
ii) EH = ml = 0.250 × 2.4 × 106 = 6.0 × 105 J (3 marks) a

c) i) A portion, H, of the energy supplied by the heater sin θa = 1.59 sin33°


1.0
was radiated to the surroundings. (1 mark) (θa = 60°) (3 marks)
ii) The calculated value is greater than the true value. Total 15 marks
The true value of lv can be found from 2. a) i) Laws of reflection:
Pt − H • The incident ray, the reflected ray and the
= lv (2 marks)
mw
Total 15 marks normal, at the point of incidence, are on the
4. a) During the day, the Sun’s radiation warms the land same plane.
more than it warms the sea. The air over the land is, • The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
therefore, heated by conduction to a greater extent than reflection. (2 marks)
is the air over the sea. As the temperature increases, ii) Characteristics of the image formed in a plane
so does the kinetic energy of the air particles; the mirror:
molecules take up more space and the region becomes • It is the same size as the object.
less dense. Warm air then rises from over the land and • It is virtual.
cooler breezes blow onshore from over the sea to take • It is laterally inverted. (3 marks)
its place. Coastal regions, therefore, do not experience b) i) amplitude = 2 m (1 mark)
extremely high temperatures during the day. (6 marks) ii) period = 8.0 s (1 mark)
b) i) A = 8 × 0.50 iii) f = 1 = 1
T 8.0
(A = 4.0 m2) (1 mark) ( f = 0.125 Hz) (2 marks)
ii) PT = 800 × 4.0 iv) λ= v
= 4.0
(PT = 3200 W) (2 marks) f 0.125
60 (λ = 32 m) (2 marks)
iii) Pw = 3200 × v) The diffraction would be extensive since the
100
(Pw = 1920 W) (2 marks) wavelength is greater than the size of the gap.
iv) Pw = mcΔT (2 marks)
t
t = mcΔT c) ii) progression
Pw
250 × 4200 × 40
t= i) particle
1920
t = 21 875 s vibration
(t = 6.1 h) (4 marks)
Total 15 marks
(2 marks)
Total 15 marks
EXTENDED RESPONSE
3. a) Monochromatic light from a sodium lamp is allowed
to diffract through a narrow slit, S, and then to further
diffract through two other narrow slits, S1 and S2 about
0.5 mm apart. The distance between the primary slit

29
S and the secondary slits S1 and S2 is about 1 m. A I
v) m=
translucent screen positioned approximately 2 m in O

front of S1 and S2 displays the interference pattern 3= I


5
of alternate bright and dark fringes. The experiment (15 cm = I) (2 marks)
should be performed in a poorly lit laboratory. Total 15 marks
translucent
screen
2nd bright fringe
S1
Exam-style questions –
1st bright fringe
Chapters 26 to 32
sodium S 0.5 mm central bright fringe
STRUCTURED
lamp
1st bright fringe 1. a)
S2
2nd bright fringe Zinc-carbon cell Lead-acid
1m 2m accumulator
Electrolyte ammonium chloride dilute sulfuric
(6 marks)
distance
jelly acid
b) i) speed =
time Rechargeability not rechargeable rechargeable
20(2 × 60)
v= Terminal voltage 1.5 V 2.0 V
7.0
(v = 343 m s−1) (5 marks) Maximum current a few amps – works >400 A
ii) The result would be the same since the speed of well when delivering
sound is not affected by its volume. (1 mark) up to about 1 A
iii) v=d
t Internal resistance 0.5 Ω 0.01 Ω
d
343 =
6.0 (4 marks)
343 × 6.0 = d
b) i) Conventional current flows in the direction in
2058 = d
which positive charge would move if free to do so.
(2.1 × 103 m = d) (3 marks)
This is opposite to the direction in which electrons
Total 15 marks
would flow, since electrons are negatively charged.
4. a) A converging lens is mounted as shown in the diagram
(2 marks)
below. The distance between the lens and the object
ii) An aqueous solution of sodium chloride contains
(small gap with crossed wires) is altered until a
both positive and negative ions which move
sharp image of the crossed wires is observed next to
freely in opposite directions when subjected to an
the source. The rays of light would then be almost
electric field. (1 mark)
retracing their paths after reflection from the mirror. −6

The distance between the centre of the lens and the c) i) I = Q = 480 × 10−3
t 12 × 10
object is measured. It is the focal length of the lens. (I = 4.0 × 10−2 A) (2 marks)
source (small gap with ii) V = IR = 4.0 × 10−2 × 500
image of (V = 20 V) (2 marks)
crossed wires)
crossed wires
iii) Q = Nq
−6
N = Q = 480 × 10−19 = 3.0 × 1015 (2 marks)
q 1.6 × 10
−6
iv) E = QV = 480 × 10 × 20
lens mirror
(E = 9.6 × 10−3 J) (2 marks)
Total 15 marks
2. a) i)
focal length
(6 marks)
1 1 1
b) i) + = + −
u v f
1 1
= −1
v f u
1 1
= − 1
v 15 20
1 1
=
v 60 i) and ii)
(v = 60 cm) (3 marks)
ii) real since v is positive (1 mark)
iii) inverted (1 mark)
v N S
iv) m = = 60 cm = 3 (2 marks)
u 20 cm

F (7 marks)
30
b) i) RXY = 5.0 × 5.0 soft iron core
5.0 + 5.0
(RXY = 2.5 Ω) input terminals of output terminals of
primary coil
RPQ = 4 + 2 × 2 = 4 + 1 secondary coil
2+2
(RPQ = 4 Ω + 1 Ω = 5 Ω) (4 marks)
ii) From part (b) above the resistance across the (3 marks)
parallel section was found to be 1 Ω. ii) THREE advantages of using ac for transferring
Therefore the p.d. across the parallel section is electrical energy:
V=I×R=1×1 • Consumer appliances operate on several voltages
(V = 1 V) which can easily be obtained from an AC mains
Alternatively, the 1 A flowing in the 4 Ω resistor supply connected to a transformer.
splits into branches carrying only 0.5 A. The p.d. • Transformers step up and down ac with
across any of these branches is minimum energy loss.
V = IR = 0.5 × 2 • ac can be transferred from the power station at
(V = 1 V) (2 marks) small currents, resulting in minimum energy
iii) P = I2 R = 12 × 5 being wasted as heat in the resistance of the
P=5W (2 marks) transmitting cables. (3 marks)
Total 15 marks b) i) and iii)
EXTENDED RESPONSE
3. a) i) filament lamp metal rod
I

N S
−V V
+
motion
−I (3 marks)
ii) semiconductor diode i) and ii)
I
N S magnet pulled out of coil

N S
−V V

(5 marks)
−I (3 marks)
VP N
c) i) VS = NP
iii) The resistance of the component is constant. VP
S
6000
(1 mark) 20
=
1000
b) i) I = V = 5.0 VP = 6000
× 20
R 10 1000
(I = 0.50 A) (2 marks) (VP = 120 V) (2 marks)
ii) I = 5.0 ii) P = VI
10 + 10 P
(I = 0.25 A) (2 marks) =I
V
iii) VA = IA RA = 0.25 × 10 100
=I
(VA = 2.5 V) (2 marks) 20
iv) PA = VA IA = 2.5 × 0.25 (5.0 A = I) (2 marks)
(PA = 0.63 W) (2 marks) Total 15 marks
Total 15 marks
4. a) i) An ac supply is applied to the primary coil. The Exam-style questions –
changing current it creates produces a changing
magnetic field, which repeatedly grows into Chapters 33 and 34
and diminishes from the secondary coil via the STRUCTURED
permeable soft iron core. As the field repeatedly 1. a)
cuts into and then out of the secondary coil Mass number 14
it induces an emf which repeatedly reverses Atomic number 6
direction. The emf produced in the secondary 12
An isotope represented in a similar manner 6 C
coil is proportional to the number of turns it has
relative to that of the primary coil, and therefore Number of electron shells in its atom 2
by varying the ratio of turns, the secondary voltage Number of electrons in its neutral atom 6
can be altered. (5 marks)

31
b) Proton Neutron Electron b) i) 131
53 I e + 131
0
54Xe (3 marks)
−1
40 days
Relative mass 1 1 1 ii) =5 (It decays for five half-lives)
8 days
1840
160 g 80 g 40 g 20 g 10 g 5g
Relative charge +1 0 −1 (Therefore, 5 g remains after 40 days) (3 marks)
(2 marks) iii)
17 100 y 160
c) i) = 3 (decays for 3 half-lives)
5700 y
100% 50% 25%
12.5% (12.5% remains) half-life = 8 days
(2 marks)

mass/g
ii) In natural carbon there is only ONE atom of C-14
in every 8 × 1011 atoms of carbon. 80
After a period of 60 000 years, the percentage of
any given sample remaining would be much too 40
small to provide a result with acceptable accuracy. 20
(2 marks)
iii) The half-life is unaffected. (2 marks) 0 8 16 24
iv) 146C 0 14 (3 marks)
−1e + 7N (2 marks) time/days
Total 15 marks Total 15 marks
2. a) 4. a) Advantages of nuclear generators
1. In the absence of natural disasters, they do not
Property Type of emission contaminate the environment if carefully managed.
Tracks produced in a cloud chamber are alpha They do not produce greenhouse gases such as
thick and straight methane or carbon dioxide, or other hazardous
gases such as sulfur dioxide or carbon monoxide.
Travels at the speed of light in a vacuum gamma
2. Many radioactive materials used in medicine are
Strongly ionises the air it passes through alpha made available at the power plants.
Penetrates up to a few mm of aluminium beta 3. A small amount of nuclear fuel produces an
enormous amount of electricity and, therefore,
Is deflected most by magnetic fields beta
delivery and storage of the material is relatively cheap.
On emission, produces an element one beta Disadvantages of nuclear generators
place ahead in the Periodic Table 1. Spent radioactive fuel still contains radioactive
Is electromagnetic in nature gamma material and is hazardous. Proper disposal of
radioactive waste is a problem that has not yet been
(7 marks) overcome.
210
b) 82Pb 0
−1 e + 210
83Bi 2. Nuclear power stations have to be discarded
210
83Bi 0
−1 e + 210
84Po after several years since the plant and machinery
210
84Po 4
He + 206
82Pb (4 marks) become heavily contaminated. To shut down these
2
operations is very costly and hazardous.
c) The background count rate remains constant. Only the
3. There is the possibility of a catastrophic effect if
count rate of the source diminishes.
there is a critical malfunction at the plant. Huge
Initial count rate of source = 85 Bq − 5 Bq = 80 Bq
explosions can spread the radioactive material over
1 hour is the time of 3 half-lives. (3 × 20 min. = 1 hr)
large areas and the radiation could impact heavily
80 Bq 40 Bq 20 Bq 10 Bq (count rate
on the planet. (6 marks)
from source = 10 Bq after 1 hour)
b) i) 21H + 21H = 32He + 10n + energy
Count rate received by detector including background
2.015 u + 2.015 u = 3.017 u + 1.009 u + Δm
rate = 5 + 10 = 15 Bq (4 marks)
4.0 × 10−3 u = Δm
Total 15 marks
E = Δmc2
EXTENDED RESPONSE
E = (4.0 × 10−3 × 1.66 × 10−27)(3 × 108)2
3. a) i) α-particles were shot through a thin sheet of gold E = 6.0 × 10−13 J (5 marks)
foil in an evacuated chamber. The paths of the ii) examining mass: 235 + 1 = 148 + 85 + x
particles were detected by a moveable eye-piece. 3 = x (3 neutrons emitted)
ii) Most of the particles passed through the foil (1 mark)
without deflection. 2 9 8 2
c) P = Δmc = 5.0 × 10 (3.0 × 10 )
A few were deflected at large angles and with very t 1
high velocity. (P = 4.5 × 1026 W) (3 marks)
iii) Most of the atom is empty space. Total 15 marks
A small concentrated positive nucleus existed in
the atom which caused the strong deflections of
the alpha particles of similar charge. (6 marks)

32

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