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Infinite Series - Solution

This document summarizes the steps to evaluate the infinite series S = ∑(n=1 to ∞) (1/n^2) * (Hn), where Hn is the nth harmonic number. It decomposes the series into two sums, S1 and S2. Through algebraic manipulations and introducing new infinite series, it expresses the original series as S = 2*S1 - S2. It then states that the next step is to simplify S1.

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Nabeel Alhamdani
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
164 views

Infinite Series - Solution

This document summarizes the steps to evaluate the infinite series S = ∑(n=1 to ∞) (1/n^2) * (Hn), where Hn is the nth harmonic number. It decomposes the series into two sums, S1 and S2. Through algebraic manipulations and introducing new infinite series, it expresses the original series as S = 2*S1 - S2. It then states that the next step is to simplify S1.

Uploaded by

Nabeel Alhamdani
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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2 A Really Hard Infinite Series

The infinite series we will evaluate is


∞  2
X 1 1 1
S= 1 + + ··· + . (3)
n=1
n2 2 n

1 1
We adopt the shorthand notation Hn = 1 + 2 + ··· + n to denote the nth harmonic number. Recall that
Hn ∼ log n, so S clearly converges.

Step 1: Decompose S into two sums.


1
We begin by rewriting the summand. Observe that Hn+1 = Hn + n+1 . Thus,
 
1 Hn
Hn2 = Hn Hn+1 − = Hn Hn+1 −
n+1 n+1
 
1 1
= Hn Hn+1 − Hn+1 −
n+1 n+1
Hn+1 1
= Hn Hn+1 − + .
n + 1 (n + 1)2
The next step is seemingly out of nowhere. We introduce two infinite series with the eventual goal of using
summation by parts. We have
n n
! n n
!
2 Hn+1 1 X Hk X Hk X 1 X 1
Hn = Hn Hn+1 − + + − + −
n + 1 (n + 1)2 k k k2 k2
k=1 k=1 k=1 k=1
n+1
!
X Hk n+1 X 1 Xn
Hk X 1
n
= Hn Hn+1 − + + −
k k2 k k2
k=1 k=1 k=1 k=1
n+1
!
X Hk n+1 X 1 Xn
Hk X 1
n
= Hn Hn+1 − + + − .
k k2 k k2
k=2 k=2 k=1 k=1

The last equality comes from the observation that the terms corresponding to k = 1 in the first and second
summations are both 1. Continuing,
n+1 n n
!
X1 1
 X Hk X 1
2
Hn = Hn Hn+1 − Hk − + −
k k k k2
k=2 k=1 k=1
n+1 n n
!
X1 X Hk X 1
= Hn Hn+1 − · Hk−1 + −
k k k2
k=2 k=1 k=1
n+1 n n
!
X X Hk X 1
= Hn Hn+1 − (Hk − Hk−1 ) Hk−1 + −
k k2
k=2 k=1 k=1
n+1 n+1 n n
!
X X
2
X Hk X 1
= Hn Hn+1 − Hk Hk−1 + Hk−1 + −
k k2
k=2 k=2 k=1 k=1
n+2 n+1 n n
!
X X
2
X Hk X 1
= Hn Hn+1 − Hk−1 Hk−2 + Hk−1 + −
k k2
k=3 k=2 k=1 k=1
n+2 n+1 n n
!
X X
2
X Hk X 1
= Hn Hn+1 − Hk−1 Hk−2 + Hk−1 + −
k k2
k=3 k=2 k=1 k=1
n+1 n n
!
X
2
 X Hk X 1
=1+ Hk−1 − Hk−1 Hk−2 + − .
k k2
k=3 k=1 k=1

6
The last equality comes from picking off the last term of the first sum and the first term of the second sum.
Simplifying,
n+1 n n
!
2
X X Hk X 1
Hn = 1 + Hk−1 (Hk−1 − Hk−2 ) + −
k k2
k=3 k=1 k=1
n+1 n n
!
X Hk−1 X Hk X 1
=1+ + −
k−1 k k2
k=3 k=1 k=1
n+1 n n
!
X Hk−1 X Hk X 1
= + −
k−1 k k2
k=2 k=1 k=1
n n
X Hk X 1
=2 − .
k k2
k=1 k=1

All of this shows that


∞ ∞ n ∞ n
X Hn2 X 1 X Hk X 1 X 1
S= =2 − . (4)
n=1
n2 n=1
n2 k n=1
n2 k2
k=1 k=1
| {z } | {z }
S1 S2

Step 2: Simplify S1 .
Next we consider S1 . Note that
k k Z
Hk 1X1 1 X 1 j−1
= = x dx
k k j=1 j k j=1 0
Z 1 k
1 X
= xj−1 dx
k 0 j=1
1
1 − xk
Z
1
= dx
k 0 1−x

where we have used the partial sum formula for a geometric series in the last equality. Continuing,
1 1 1
1 − xk
Z Z Z
Hk 1 1
= dx = tk−1 dt dx.
k k 0 1−x 0 1−x x

Next, we change the order of integration, taking care to change the bounds appropriately.
Z 1 Z t Z 1
Hk 1
= tk−1 dx dt = − tk−1 log(1 − t) dt.
k 0 0 1−x 0

We continue simplifying S1 in the same manner. In particular,


n n Z 1
X Hk X
=− tk−1 log(1 − t) dt
k 0
k=1 k=1
Z 1
1 − tn
=− log(1 − t) dt
0 1−t
Z 1
log(1 − t) 1 n−1
Z
= −n y dy dt
0 1−t t
Z 1 Z y
log(1 − t)
= −n y n−1 dt dy.
0 0 1−t

7
The inner integral can be evaluated by a simple substitution to yield
n Z 1
X Hk n
= y n−1 log2 (1 − y) dy.
k 2 0
k=1

So
∞ n ∞
1 X 1 1 n−1
Z
X 1 X Hk
2
= y log2 (1 − y) dy
n=1
n k 2 n=1
n 0
k=1

Z 1 !
1 1 X yn
= log2 (1 − y) dy.
2 0 y n=1 n
P∞ yn
Recall that log(1 − y) = − n=1 n for −1 ≤ y < 1. Thus,
∞ n
1 1 log3 (1 − y)
Z
X 1 X Hk
= − dy.
n=1
n2 k 2 0 y
k=1

Now we make the change of variables z = 1 − y. This yields


∞ ∞ Z
!
1
log3 (1 − y) 1
log3 z 1
1X 1 n
Z Z Z
1 1 1 3
X
− dy = − dz = − log z z n
dz = − z log3 z dz.
2 0 y 2 0 1−z 2 0 n=0
2 n=0 0

Next, we integrate by parts three times. First, an observation. By L’Hopital’s rule,

logm z
lim 1 =0
z→0
zj

for any m, j > 0. Thus, if we let u = log3 z and dv = z n dz and integrate by parts, the boundary terms
disappear and we have
Z 1 Z 1
3
z n log3 z dz = − z n log2 z dz.
0 n+1 0
Integrating by parts two more times yields
Z 1 Z 1 Z 1
6 6 6
z n log3 z dz = z n log z dz = − z n dz = − .
0 (n + 1)2 0 (n + 1)3 0 (n + 1)4

Putting all of this together yields


∞ n ∞ Z ∞ ∞
X 1 X Hk 1X 1 n 3
X 1 X 1
S1 = 2
= − z log z dz = 3 4
= 3 .
n=1
n k 2 n=0 0 n=0
(n + 1) n=1
n4
k=1

Step 3: Simplify S2 .
(2) 1 1
Next, we consider S2 . We adopt the shorthand notation Hn = 1+ 22 + ··· + n2 to denote the nth
harmonic number of order 2. Then
∞ (2)
X Hn
S2 = .
n=1
n2
We proceed by summation by parts. We have
N N  N N
X 1 (2) X
(2) (2)

(2)
X
(2) (2)
X (2)
H
2 n
= 1 + Hn − Hn−1 Hn = 1 + H n H n − Hn−1 Hn(2) .
n=1
n n=2 n=2 n=2

8
Next, we reindex the first sum and pull off terms from both in order to simplify.
N N   N N
X X (2) (2) (2) 1 X (2) (2)
X (2)
1+ Hn(2) Hn(2) − Hn−1 Hn(2) =1+ HN HN − 1+ + Hn−1 Hn−1 − Hn−1 Hn(2)
n=2 n=2
4 n=3 n=3
2 N
1 (2)
 X (2)

(2)

= − + HN + Hn−1 Hn−1 − Hn(2)
4 n=3
2 N
1 (2)
 X (2) 1
= − + HN − Hn−1 ·
4 n=3
n2
2 N

(2)
X (2) 1
= HN − Hn−1 · .
n=2
n2

(2)
H1
The last inequality comes from the observation that 22 = 14 . Continuing,

N (2) N (2) 1 N (2) N



(2)
2 X Hn−1 
(2)
2 X Hn − n2

(2)
2 X Hn X 1
HN − = H N − = HN − + .
n=2
n2 n=2
n2 n=1
n 2
n=1
n 4

Putting all of this together and sending N → ∞ yields


!2 ∞
X 1 X 1
S2 = 2
− S2 + 4
n=1
n n=1
n

and so !2
∞ ∞
1 X 1 1X 1
S2 = + .
2 n=1
n2 2 n=1 n4
P∞ 1
P∞ 1
Step 4: Algebraically relate n=1 n4 to n=1 n2 .
P∞ 1
There are many ways to evaluate n=1 n4 .
Typical arguments use Fourier series, complex analy-
sis, or infinite product expansions. In the spirit of presenting a complete solution which only uses inte-
P∞
grals, infinite sums, and ordinary power series, we present a pure algebraic manipulation of n=1 n14 to
P∞ 1
n=1 n2 . This technique comes from https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1006510 and the refer-
ence therein. Note that
∞ ∞  
X 1 1X 2 1 2
= + 2 2+ 3 .
n=1
n4 5 n=1 n · n3 n ·n n ·n

Let
2 1 2
am,n = 3
+ 2 2+ 3 .
mn m n m n
Observe1 that

X X X X
an,n = am,n − am,n − am,n
n=1 m,n≥1 n>m≥1 m>n≥1
X X X
= am,n − am,m+n − am+n,n
m,n≥1 m,n≥1 m,n≥1
X
= (am,n − am,m+n − am+n,n ) .
m,n≥1

1 Note that there are some divergent double sums here. It’s probably okay though!

9
Now we simplify the above double sequence.
 
2 1 2
am,n − am,m+n − am+n,n = + 2 2+ 3
mn3 m n m n
   
2 1 2 2 1 2
− + 2 + 3 − + + .
m(m + n)3 m (m + n)2 m (m + n) (m + n)n3 (m + n)2 n2 (m + n)3 n
| {z }
A

Isolating and simplifying A,


 2 3
2m n + mn3 (m + n) + 2n3 (m + n)2 + 2m3 n2 + m3 n(m + n) + 2m3 (m + n)2

A=−
m3 n3 (m + n)3
 2 2
2m n (m + n) + mn3 (m + n) + 2n3 (m + n)2 + m3 n(m + n) + 2m3 (m + n)2

=−
m3 n3 (m + n)3
 2 2
2m n + mn + 2n (m + n) + m3 n + 2m3 (m + n)
3 3

=−
m3 n3 (m + n)2
mn(2mn + n + m2 ) + 2n3 (m + n) + 2m3 (m + n)
2
 
=−
m3 n3 (m + n)2
mn(n + m) + 2n (m + n) + 2m3 (m + n)
2 3
 
=−
m3 n3 (m + n)2
mn(n + m) + 2n3 + 2m3
 
=−
m3 n3 (m + n)

So
2m2 + mn + 2n2 mn(n + m) + 2n3 + 2m3
   
am,n − am,m+n − am+n,n = −
m3 n3 m3 n3 (m + n)
2m2 (n + m) + 2n2 (n + m) − 2n3 − 2m3
=
m3 n3 (m + n)
2m2 n + 2n2 m
=
m3 n3 (m + n)
2m + 2n
=
m n2 (m + n)
2

2
= .
m2 n2
Putting everything together, we have
∞ ∞
X 1 1X 1 X
4
= an,n = (am,n − am,m+n − am+n,n )
n=1
n 5 n=1 5
m,n≥1
1 X 2
=
5 m n2
2
m,n≥1
∞ X∞
2 X 1 1
= ·
5 m=1 n=1 m2 n2

!2
2 X 1
= .
5 n=1 n2

P∞ 1
Step 5: Evaluate n=1 n2 .

10
P∞
Again, there are numerous ways to evaluate n=1 n12 . We present a solution due to [1] which is themat-
ically consistent with everything else done thus far. Note that
∞ ∞ ∞ ∞ ∞
X 1 X 1 X 1 1X 1 X 1
2
= 2
+ 2
= 2
+ .
n=1
n n=1
(2n) n=0
(2n + 1) 4 n=1 n n=0
(2n + 1)2
Solving for the desired sum in the above equation gives
∞ ∞
X 1 4X 1
2
= .
n=1
n 3 n=0
(2n + 1)2
We evaluate the latter sum by converting it to a double integral. Note that
∞ ∞ Z 1  Z 1 
X 1 X
2n 2n
= x dx y dy
n=0
(2n + 1)2 n=0 0 0
Z 1Z 1X ∞
= (x2 y 2 )n dx dy
0 0 n=0
Z 1 Z1
1
= dx dy.
0 0 1 − x2 y 2
Next, we make the change of variables
sin u sin v
x= and y= .
cos v cos u
Note that " # " #
∂ x cos u sin u sin v
u ∂v x
= 1 − tan2 u tan2 v.
2
= sincos v cos v


∂u y u sin v cos v
∂v y cos 2u cos u

It follows that dx dy = (1 − tan2 u tan2 v) du dv. Let E be the region in the the square 0 ≤ u, v ≤ π2 which
is the image of 0 ≤ x, y ≤ 1 under this transformation. Note that this region is defined by sin u ≤ cos v
and sin v ≤ cos u. Note that equality occurs in both inequalities if v = π2 − u. This line divides the square
0 ≤ u, v ≤ π2 into two triangles. The inequalities dictate that E is the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (π/2, 0),
and (0, π/2). Therefore,
Z 1Z 1
1 − tan2 u tan2 v π2
ZZ ZZ
1 1 π π
2 2
dx dy = 2 2 du dv = du dv = · · = .
0 0 1−x y E 1 − tan u tan v E 2 2 2 8
Thus,
∞ ∞
X 1 4X 1 4 π2 π2
2
= 2
= · = .
n=1
n 3 n=0 (2n + 1) 3 8 6

Step 6: Put it all together.


Summarizing steps 1 through 5 gives the final answer:
∞ ∞
!2 ∞ ∞ ∞
!2
X 1 1 X 1 1X 1 11 X 1 1 X 1
S = 2S1 − S2 = 6 4
− 2
− 4
= 4

n=1
n 2 n=1 n 2 n=1 n 2 n=1 n 2 n=1
n2

!2 ∞
!2
11 2 X 1 1 X 1
= · −
2 5 n=1 n2 2 n=1 n2
 2
17 π 2
= .
10 6
Thus,
∞ 2
17π 4

X 1 1 1
1 + + · · · + = .
n=1
n2 2 n 360

11

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