LQ 7: CHEST & TMJ (2 MISTAKES) c.

Rectus abdominis
d. All of the above
1. Rib #3 articulation: e. NOTA
a. T3 superior facet, T4 inferior facet 10. The TM capsule is loose and thin in its anterior,
b. T3 inferior facet, T4 superior facet medial and posterior aspect which predisposes
c. T2 inferior facet, T3 superior facet the joint to be most commonly dislocated
d. T2 superior facet, T3 inferior facet posteriorly.
e. NOTA a. True
2. Cranial nerve/s that innervates the digastric b. False
muscle: 11. Ventilatory muscles has both voluntary and
a. CN5 involuntary neurological control
b. CN12 a. True
c. CN7 b. False
d. Both A & C 12. You are currently assigned to assess a patient
e. Both A & B diagnosed to have a scoliosis. Upon
3. You are currently assigned to assess a patient assessment, you noticed that the patient
diagnosed to have a scoliosis. Upon presents with a higher R shoulder with an X-ray
assessment, you noticed that the patient result and an angle of 35 deg.
presents with a higher R shoulder with an X-ray Question: The severity of scoliosis presented
result and an angle of 35 deg. above is considered as:
Question: Based on the presented case, how is a. Mild
the scoliosis identified according to the laterality b. Moderate
of scoliosis? c. Primary severe
a. Levoscoliosis d. Secondary severe
b. Dextroscoliosis e. Tertiary severe
c. Hemi-dextroscoliosis 13. It is the volume of air that remains in the lungs
d. Hemi-levoscoliosis after a quiet exhalation:
e. Cobb scoliosis a. Total lung capacity
4. The ff are the articular structures if the TMJ, b. Tidal volume
EXCEPT: c. Residual volume
a. Mandible d. Functional residual capacity
b. Sphenoid e. IRV
c. Temporal 14. Skeletal muscles of ventilation in the elderly
d. All of the above choices have a decrease in the number or the size of
e. None of the above choices fast-twitch type II fibers. The resting position of
5. Mandibular protrusion and retrusion occur in the diaphragm becomes less domed, with a
both TM joints decrease in abdominal tone in aging
a. True a. 1st statement is true
b. False b. 1st statement is false
6. Cranial nerves that supplies the muscles of c. Both are true
mastication, EXCEPT: d. Both are false
a. CN 5 15. In this motion, there is an increase in
b. CN 7 anteroposterior diameter of the thorax:
c. CN 9 a. Bucket-handle motion
d. CN 12 b. Pump-handle motion
e. NOTA c. Caliper motion
7. Crural fibers of the diaphragm arises from: d. Both A & C
a. Sternum 16. Muscles that make up the infrahyoid, EXCEPT:
b. Ribs a. Stylohyoid
c. Vertebral bodies b. Omohyoid
d. All of the above c. Sternohyoid
8. 11th and 12th ribs do not participate in the d. Thyrohyoid
closed-chain motion of the thorax. Ribs 11 & 12 e. NOTA
pass through the costovertebral joint only 17. The ff structures make up the superior border of
a. 1st statement TRUE, 2nd FALSE the rib cage, EXCEPT:
b. 1st statement FALSE, 2nd TRUE a. Superior borders of the 1st
c. Both are true costocartilages
d. Both are false b. 1st rib and their corresponding 1st
9. What muscle/s will assist in raising upper chest and 2nd vertebrae
for inspiration? c. Jugular notch of sternum
a. Subclavius d. NOTA
b. Pectoralis minor
18. What muscles are active during relaxed 27. Costovertebral joint is a synchondrosis type of
expiration? joint
a. SCM a. True
b. Abdominals b. False
c. External intercostals 28. Primary muscles of mastication, EXCEPT:
d. All of the above a. Masseter
e. No muscles involved b. Lateral pterygoid
19. Mandible is the largest facial bone and is less c. Temporalis
mobile d. Internal pterygoid
a. True e. NOTA
b. False 29. Atypical ribs, EXCEPT:
20. What is considered functional mandibular a. 1
depression? b. 9
a. 2 knuckles c. 10
b. 3 knuckles d. 11
c. 4knuckles e. None of the above
d. 1 whole fist 30. An infant’s chest wall muscles as mobilizers,
e. A & B only rather than stabilizers, of the thorax to
21. Weakest of the three ligaments of TMJ: counteract the reduced intrapulmonary pressure
a. Sphenomandibular ligament created by the lowered diaphragm during
b. Thyromandibular ligament inspiration
c. Temporomandibular ligament a. True
d. Stylomandibular ligament b. False
22. What ribs are known as the vertebral ribs? 31. Translation occurs in the upper TM joint while
a. Ribs 1-7 rotation occurs in the lower TM joint
b. Ribs 8-10 a. True
c. Ribs 11-12 b. False
d. NOTA 32. The diaphragm has a limited ability to laterally
23. What joint refers to the articulation of the 1st expand the rib cage.
through 10th ribs anterolaterally with the costal a. True
cartilages? b. False
a. Costotransverse joint 33. What muscle is responsible for elevating the
b. Costochondral joint upper rib cage when the shoulder and humerus
c. Chondrosternal joint is stabilized?
d. Interchondral joint a. SCM
e. None of the above b. Pectoralis major(sternocostal
24. WRONG SPELLING WILL BE MARKED AS portion)
INCORRECT. c. Pectoralis minor
“COPD” stands for: d. Biceps brachii
a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary e. All of the above
disease 34. One of the important function of the rib cage is
25. You are currently assigned to assess a patient to protect the organs such as heart and lung.
diagnosed to have a scoliosis. Upon The 12 ribs that make up the rib cage is also
assessment, you noticed that the patient vital during ventilation
presents with a higher R shoulder with an x-ray a. 1st statement is true, 2nd is false
result and an angle of 35 deg. b. 1st statement is false, 2nd is true
Question: Which of the following is true c. Both are true
regarding the case above? d. Both are false
a. L shoulder is anteriorly rotated 35. Mastication requires approximately how much of
b. R flexed elbow is noted to be lower mandibular depression?
c. Right hip elevated a. 12 mm
d. Rib hump is noted on the right side b. 14 mm
e. None of the above is correct c. 16 mm
f. C & D only d. 18 mm
26. The ff are functions of the chest wall, EXCEPT: e. NOTA
a. Protection of the lungs, viscera and 36. OA is the most common cause of synovial
heart membrane inflammation in the TMJ
b. Respiratory function a. True
c. Base for muscle attachment of UE, b. False
LE, head & neck, vertebral column 37. Muscles active during forceful expiration,
and pelvis EXCEPT:
d. NOTA (none of the above) a. Transverse abdominis
 b. Rectus abdominis 46. Functions of the scalene muscles during
c. Serratus posterior inferior ventilation are the ff:
d. Rhomboids a. Lifts the first two ribs
e. NOTA b. Lifts the sternum
38. Gravity assist both with mandibular depression c. Stabilization of the rib cage
and elevation d. All of the above
a. True e. NOTA
b. False 47. Innervation of the diaphragm:
39. You are currently assigned to assess a patient a. C3, C4, C5
diagnosed to have a scoliosis. Upon b. C4, C5, C6
assessment, you noticed that the patient c. C5, C6, C7
presents with a higher R shoulder with an X-ray d. NOTA
result and an angle of 35 deg. 48. TMJ contains a disc that separates the joint into
Question: The ff are effects of scoliosis on the upper and lower articulations
rib cage CONVEX side, EXCEPT: a. True
a. Anterior rib distortion b. False
b. Decreased lung volume 49. What do you call the motion that describes the
c. Narrowing of intercostals spaces action of ribs 8-12 during normal respiration?
d. All of the above a. Bucket-handle motion
e. None of the above b. Pump-handle motion
40. What type of displacement will have a reciprocal c. Caliper motion
click at two intervals? d. Piston action
a. Disc displacement with reduction e. NOTA
b. Disc displacement without reduction 50. The ff are functions of the articular disc of the
c. BOTH TMJ, EXCEPT:
d. NOTA a. Reduces friction
41. The following are observed in the skeletal b. Decreases stress on the TMj
muscles of an elderly individual, except: c. Congruency
a. Loss of strength d. Maximizes loss of mobility
b. Fewer muscle fibers
c. Lower oxidative capacity LQ 8: VERTEBRAL COLUMN (2 MISTAKES)
d. Decrease in the time of peak tension
e. None of the above 1. Match the following:
42. The ff are the primary ligaments of the TMJ, a. No body and no spinous process - C1
EXCEPT: b. Peglike odontoid process - C2
a. Sphenomandibular ligament c. Have no facets on the transverse
b. Thyromandibular ligament processes - T11-T12
c. Temporomandibular ligament 2. Match the following:
d. Stylomandibular ligament a. Largest lat. flexion and rot. ROM. - none
e. NOTA of the above
43. Cranial nerve # 5 is called: b. Transitional vertebrae - C7
a. Trochlear nerve c. Has a small/no foramen transversarium
b. Trigeminal nerve - C7
c. Vestibulocochlear nerve 3. Match the following:
d. Hypoglossal nerve a. ASIS and public symphysis move
e. None of the above inferiorly - anterior pelvic tilting
44. These group of muscles will assist in mandibular b. Ambulation - pelvic torsion
depression: c. Sacral promontory moves post and
a. Suprahyoid superiorly while apex moves anteriorly -
b. Infrahyoid counter nutation
c. Temporalis 4. Match the following:
d. Masseter a. Bending forward (2nd motion) - anterior
e. All of the above pelvic tilting
45. In a typical thoracic vertebra the vertebral body b. Bending forward (last motion) - nutation
and transverse process have six costal c. ASIS and pubic symphysis move
articulating surfaces. False ribs AKA superiorly - posterior pelvic tilting
vertebrosternal ribs 5. In what region of the vertebral column has the
a. 1st statement TRUE, 2nd FALSE smallest and circular spinal canal?
b. 1st statement FALSO, 2nd TRUE a. CERVICAL
c. Both are TRUE b. THORACIC
d. Both are FALSE c. LUMBAR
d. SACRAL
6. In what vertebral region is the secondary curve 16. Nearly all movements of the spinal column take
most developed? place within the ____ portions of the spinal
a. Thoracic and cervical column
b. Cervical and lumbar a. Cervical and thoracic
c. Lumbar and thoracic b. Coccyx and lumbar
d. Thoracic and sacral c. Lumbar and cervical
7. Which is considered the most mobile segment of d. Sacrum and lumbar
the vertebral column? 17. If the line of gravity falls posterior to the thoracic
a. CERVICAL spine, what moment will be produced?
b. THORACIC a. Extension moment
c. LUMBAR b. Flexion moment
d. SACRAL c. Rotation moment
8. Six main ligaments of the vertebral column, d. Translation moment
EXCEPT: 18. Increased anterior concavity of the thoracic
a. ALL spine is known as:
b. Ligamentum flavum a. Kyphosis
c. Interspinous ligament b. Lordosis
d. Supratransverse ligament c. Scoliosis
e. Supraspinous ligament d. Vertebrados
9. Which of the ff ligaments connect the tips of the 19. What is the normal lumbosacral angle?
spinous processes of C7 to L3/L4? a. 28 deg
a. PLL b. 30 deg
b. Ligamentum nuchae c. 33 deg
c. Interspinous ligament d. 40 deg
d. Supraspinous ligament e. 25 deg
e. None of the above 20. When you try to bend forward, what motion will
10. ANSWER IN CAPITAL LETTERS & CORRECT occur in the lumbopelvic region?
SPELLING: a. LS flexion, anterior pelvic tilting
The highest content of elastic fiber is found in b. LS flexion, posterior pelvic tilting
what ligament? c. LS extension, ant. Pelvic tilt
a. LIGAMENTUM FLAVUM d. LS extension, post. pelvic tilt
11. The ff ligaments are stretched during flexion of 21. Vertebral column is composed of 32 vertebrae
the back, EXCEPT: and 23 IV discs. Primary curves develop in
a. ALL infancy as a result of the accommodation of the
b. Interspinous ligament skeleton to the upright position
c. Supraspinous ligament a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is FALSE
d. NOTA b. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is TRUE
12. What will happen to the intervertebral foramen c. Both statements are TRUE
during extension motion in the vertebral column? d. Both statements are FALSE
a. Narrowing 22. Axis (C1) has no body and no spinous process.
b. Widening Atlanto-occipital joint is the “NO” jt.
c. Both a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is FALSE
d. NOTA b. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is TRUE
13. Flexion at the AO joint, occipital condyles: c. Both statements are TRUE
a. Roll backward & slide forward d. Both statements are FALSE
b. Roll & slide forward 23. Which of the following activity will lead to sacral
c. Roll forward & slide backward nutation?
d. Roll & slide backward a. Wall push-up
14. The atlanto-axial joint is what type of joint? b. Reaching the back pocket with both
a. Saddle hands
b. Condyloid c. Toe touch in standing
c. Trochoid d. NOTA
d. Pivot 24. Forward bending is a complex movement of
e. Both c & d combined lumbar and hip motion, and many of
15. What motion is greater in the lower thoracic the tasks that occur during everyday activities
region (T9-T12)? require trunk flexion. The ff statements apply to
a. Lateral flexion this movement, EXCEPT:
b. Flexion a. Stretching short hamstring may affect
c. Extension lumbar motion during forward bending
d. BOTH B & C b. Excessive lumbar motion decreases
tensile loads on the spine
 c. Short hamstring muscles, because of 31. The position of the spine that puts a person at
their attachment to the posterior leg and most risk for lumbar disks protrusion and
to the ischial tuberosity, may limit hip herniation is:
flexion ROM a. Extension
d. Low back pain could result from b. Flexion
excessive lumbar motion due to their c. Lateral flexion
influence on lumbopelvic rhythm during d. Rotation
forward bending 32. Which of the ff ligaments is considered as the
e. Restricted hip motion is coupled with primary spine stabilizer inside the vertebral
excessive lumbar motion canal?
25. A PT examines a patient with cervical pain of a. ALL
unknown etiology. The PT identifies shortening b. Ligamentum nuchae
of the cervical spine extensors, upper trapezius c. Ligamentum flavum
and levator scapulae. The most probable d. PLL
postural deviation is: e. None of the above
a. Forward shoulders 33. The ff muscles are responsible for head rotation,
b. Kyphosis EXCEPT:
c. Scapular retraction a. Splenius capitis
d. Lordosis b. SCM
e. Forward head c. Splenius cervicis
26. If a patient stands with his trunk lateral bending d. Iliocostalis cervicis
to the L and trunk rotation to the R, what e. None of the above
muscles are probably weak?* 34. Origin of the rectus abdominis muscle:
a. R external oblique and L internal a. PSIS
oblique b. Crest of pubis
b. L external oblique and R internal oblique c. Posterior inner lip of the iliac crest
c. R external oblique and R internal d. ASIS
oblique 35. The ff refers to the movement of rectus
d. L external oblique and L internal oblique abdominis muscle, EXCEPT:
e. None of the above a. Lumbar flexion
27. The central vertical indentation that divides the b. Weak lateral flexion
abdominal area into a right and left portion is c. Pelvic rotation
known as the: d. Pelvic tilting
a. Linea alba e. None of the above
b. Tendinous inscription 36. Pars interarticularis is susceptible to stress
c. Linea semilunaris fracture and is most developed in the
d. Midsagittal line thoracolumbar spine. Five (5) sacral vertebrae
e. None of the above are fused to form the triangular or wedge-
28. Flat-back syndrome is essentially a significant shaped structure that is called the sacrum
reduction in the amount of lumbar: a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is FALSE
a. Kyphosis b. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is TRUE
b. Lordosis c. Both statements are TRUE
c. Recurvatum d. Both statements are FALSE
d. Scoliosis 37. The most palpable aspect of the spine is the:
29. The trunk is composed of the: a. Inferior articular facet
a. Rib cage, cervical spine, and pelvic b. Spinous process
girdle c. Superior articular facet
b. Thoracic spine, cervical spine, and d. Transverse process
pelvic girdle 38. The spinous processes prevent excessive
c. Thoracic spine, rib cage, and cervical spinal:
spine a. Abduction
d. Thoracic spine, rib cage, and pelvic b. Extension
girdle c. Flexion
30. The greatest amount of rotation between any d. Lateral flexion
two vertebrae occurs between _____ and 39. The rectus abdominis, external oblique
______ abdominal, and internal oblique abdominal are
a. C1; C2 the agonists against resistance in:
b. C2; C3 a. Lumbar extension
c. C3; C4 b. Lumbar flexion
d. C4; C5 c. Right lateral flexion
d. Right lumbar rotation
 40. The external and internal oblique abdominal c. Using a cane in the right hand
muscles have essential actions that are opposite ensuring appropriate lateral distance
of each other in terms of: from the right hip
a. Lumbar flexion d. It is not possible to distinguish between
b. Lumbar extension these answers with the information given
c. Lumbar rotation 6. Refer to the image below. Assuming that this is in
d. Lumbar lateral flexion neutral standing position, which of the muscles
41. Spondylolisthesis common occurs in which of credited to facilitate hip medial rotation is most
the following spinal segments? efficient considering its ability to generate torque
a. C1-C2 basing on its line of pull and moment arm?
b. C6-C7
c. L4-L5
d. L5-S1
e. None of the above

LQ 9: HIP
1. This adductor muscle has a dual innervation as
well as dual action on the hip joint.
a. Adductor longus
b. Adductor brevis
c. Gracilis
d. Adductor magnus
2. Determine the muscle force needed to maintain
an upright position of the body with level pelvis for
the following subject during single limb stance.
Total body weight = 240 lbs.
LoG to rotation point on femur = 4 in.
Femoral head to line of force for abductor muscle
a. Gluteus minimus (anterior fiber)
= 2.5 in.
b. Adductor longus
a. 384 lb
c. Gluteus medius (anterior fiber)
b. 256 lb
d. Tensor fasciae latae
c. 320 lb
7. The ff. muscles can produce adduction moment
d. 150 lb
of the hip except:
3. Which of the following is not an action of the
a. Quadratus femoris
pectineus muscle?
b. Gluteus max - interior fiber
a. External rotation
c. Biceps fem - long head
b. Adduction
d. Biceps fem - short head
c. Abduction
8. Adductors are accessory hip flexors. In what hip
d. Flexion
position will these muscles provide flexion
4. The Rectus Femoris strength can be tested in
movement?
sitting position provided that knee on tested limb
a. Flexed
should be:
b. Abducted
a. Laterally Rotated
c. Adducted
b. Medially Rotated
d. Extended
c. Flexed
9. Which of the following statements is true
d. Extended
concerning the neck-to-shaft angle (angle of
5. During ambulation, a patient complains of left hip
inclination) of the femur?
pain when stepping forward with the right leg. You
a. Coxa Valga will decrease the lever arm
suspect that this is due to degenerative changes
of the hip abductor muscles
at the hip joint and wish to reduce the amount of
b. A decrease in the normal angle is called
compressive forces at the left hip joint during
coxa valga
ambulation. When considering the mechanical
c. The normal angle in adults is
forces acting on the left hip joint, which of the
approximately 150°
following would be most effective in reducing the
d. It is the angle formed between the axis of
hip joint compression force?
the femoral neck and the transverse axis
a. Using a cane in the right hand ensuring
of the femoral condyles
appropriate anterior distance from the
10. True about hip joint
right hip
a. Classified as plane synovial joint
b. Using a cane in the left hand ensuring
b. Functions mostly in close kinematic
appropriate lateral distance from the left
chain
hip
c. Functions mostly in non-weight bearing
d. Has 6 deg. of freedom
11. True about the hip when in frog leg position b. Semitendinosus
a. Incongruent position c. Sartorius
b. Loose-packed position d. Rectus femoris
c. Close-packed position 20. A posterior pelvic rotation (horizontal plane during
d. None of these weight-bearing position of the right lower
12. The medial hamstring muscles are stretched in extremity will cause:
the supine position with full hip flexion provided a. Accompanying internal rotation of the left
that the knee is in ____. hip and compensatory lumbar rotation to
a. External rotation the left.
b. Internal rotation b. Accompanying internal rotation of the
c. Flexion and internal rotation right hip and compensatory lumbar
d. Extension and external rotation rotation to the left.
13. During the period of pregnancy where some c. Accompanying external rotation of
degree of sacroiliac joint movement is possible, the right hip and compensatory
counter-nutation is achieved through lumbar rotation to the right.
a. Hip flexion d. Accompanying external rotation of the
b. Hip abduction left hip and compensatory lumbar
c. Hip adduction rotation to the right.
d. Hip extension 21. The ff. are considered accessory hip flexor,
14. Gluteus maximus has a leverage in moving the except:
hip into all of the ff. Except: a. No exception
a. Abduction b. Gracilis
b. Medial rotation c. Adductor longus
c. Extension d. Pectineus
d. Lateral rotation 22. These muscles provide tension directly on the
15. The depth of the acetabulum can be measured iliotibial band, except:
through: a. Gluteus medius
a. Labrum depth b. Tensor fascia lata
b. Center edge angle c. No exception
c. Acetabular inclination d. Gluteus max
d. Femoral head inclination 23. In normal walking, the hip flexors primarily propel
16. Which of the ff. muscles is best stretched in a the LE forward. Which muscle group is
side-lying position by having a partner take the synergistic to this activity?
knee into full flexion and simultaneously take the a. Adductor longus, TFL, anterior
hip into extension? gluteus medius
a. Semitendinosus muscle b. Gluteus max and medial hamstrings
b. Semimembranosus muscle c. Small external rotators
c. Rectus femoris muscle d. Gluteus max and lateral hamstrings
d. Biceps femoris muscle 24. When crossing one knee over the opposite thigh
17. The risk of superior hip dislocation is common in: in a sitting position, one customarily an individual
a. Young children will lean backwards. The Sartorius muscle is
b. Elderly believed to be the primary muscle responsible.
c. Adult The backward leaning mechanism is an attempt
d. Women to:
18. Which statement is true regarding articular a. Recruit other hip flexors to assist the
congruency of the hip joint? movement
a. The acetabulum is larger than the b. Inhibit the hip extensors to prevent
femoral head and entirely covers the antagonistic action
head c. Stabilize the pelvis
b. The hip joint is considered to be perfectly d. Lengthen the Sartorius to prevent
congruent joint at rest insufficiency
c. A combination of hip flexion, 25. You noticed your patient in-toeing. The patient is
abduction, and lateral rotation gives mostly positive of:
the hip joint its most congruent a. Coxa vara
position b. Excessively anteverted femoral head
d. A combination of extension and (IN)
adduction gives the hip its most c. Coxa valga
congruent position d. Excessively retroverted femoral
19. The muscle that is believed to be the longest head(OUT)
muscle in the body is found in the lower extremity 26. When an individual assumes a frog-leg position,
and acting on the hip and knee. This is the: the hip joint is in congruent position. This position
a. Gracilis
 places the hip joint in loose-pack but stable 32. Which articulating surface exhibits a position of
position. torsion?
a. Only first statement is correct a. Femoral head
b. Only first statement is incorrect b. Both
c. Both statements are incorrect c. Acetabulum
d. Both statements are correct d. Neither
27. Which muscle of the pelvic floor/wall thought to 33. Refer to the image below. The illustration shows
influence the hip joint even with the immovable the muscles of the hip that moves the pelvis into
sacroiliac joint? anterior tile. What muscles are needed so that
a. Piriformis these muscles produces hip flexion with femur
b. Coccygeus moving on a fixed pelvis?
c. Pubococcygeus
d. Iliococcygeus
28. The gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
muscles functionally act:
a. As the primary extensors of the hip
b. As accessory muscles to hip flexion
c. To stabilize the pelvis during
unilateral stance
d. To laterally rotate the hip in unilateral
stance
29. Refer to the image below. Assuming that this is in
neutral standing position, which of the accessory
flexors is most efficient considering its ability to
generate torque basing on its line of pull and
moment arm?
a. Gluteus minimus
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Lumbar erector spinae
34. A patient with uncompensated femoral
anteversion will present with which of the ff.
apparent range of motion adaptations at the hip?
a. Symmetric lateral and medial rotation
hypermobility
b. Symmetric lateral and medial rotation
hypomobility
c. Decreased lateral rotation and
increased medial rotation
d. Increased lateral rotation and decreased
medial rotation
35. The acetabulum and the femoral head is oriented
similarly in this direction
a. Lateral
b. Posterior
a. Gluteus minimus c. Medial
b. Adductor longus d. Anterior
c. Tensor fascia latae 36. Which of the ff. muscles is important in providing
d. Adductor brevis dynamic medial stability to the knee joint because
30. Which of the following activities the rectus femoris of the manner in which it crosses the joint and is
is least active? also responsible for internal rotation of the knee?
a. Ascending stairs a. Gluteus maximus muscle
b. Descending stairs b. Gracilis muscle
c. Stand to sit c. Medial hamstring muscles
d. Initial swing in walking/gait d. Lateral hamstring muscles
31. The risk of superior dislocation of the femoral 37. In the context of the pelvic girdle motions, which
head is due to: of the following statement is true of the right pelvic
a. Coxa valga drop with left LE in weight bearing?
b. Overdeveloped center edge angle a. It is characterized by a left lateral tilt
c. Underdeveloped center edge angle
d. Coxa vara
 b. The right pelvis moves inferiorly in c. Pectineus
relation to the left pelvis in the frontal d. Iliacus
plane 43. Which of the ff. is true if an individual has a weak
c. It is accomplished by right lumbar and gluteus medius?
lateral flexion left hip abduction in the a. The client rarely present with gait
frontal plane abnormality
d. Either the left pelvis rotates downward or b. The hip joint compression forces are
the right pelvis rotates upward greater during single limb stance
38. Leg-raising exercises focusing on the action of c. Using a cane on the ipsilateral side is a
iliopsoas muscles requires stabilization by the: good way to address the weakness.
a. Quadriceps femoris d. The client often shifts the trunk over
b. Abdominal muscles the weight bearing hip to eliminate the
c. Lumbar erector spinae force needed by gluteus medius to
d. Hip abductors support for single limb stance.
39. The primary weight-bearing area of the 44. Bringing the left knee to the chest from standing,
acetabulum is the ___ portion. under normal arthrokinematics of the hip joint, the
a. Superior-medial left femoral head glides on the acetabulum in this
b. Inferior manner.
c. Inferior-medial a. Anteriorly/superiorly
d. Entire surface b. Posteriorly/superiorly
40. A therapist is testing his patient’s hip flexor c. Posteriorly/inferiorly
strength while seated on the edge of the plinth. d. Anteriorly/inferiorly
Which flexor is being tested? 45. Which 2-jointed hip muscle is least affected by
a. Sartorius knee position?
b. Iliopsoas a. Rectus femoris
c. Tensor fascia lata b. Sartorius
d. Gracilis c. Semimembranosus
41. Refer to the image below. Assuming that this is in d. Semitendinosus
neutral standing position, which of the prime 46. Strenuous and prolonged leg-raising exercises
movers for adduction is least efficient considering focusing on the action of iliopsoas muscles leads
its ability to generate torque basing on its line of to:
pull and moment arm? a. Increasing the lordotic curve in the
absence of adequate stabilization
b. All of these
c. Low back pain
d. Pulling the lumbar spine into
hyperextension
47. Refer to the image below. Assuming that this is in
neutral standing position, which of the hip
extensors is most efficient considering its ability
to generate torque basing on its line of pull and
moment arm?

a. Gracilis
b. Adductor brevis
c. Pectineus
d. Adductor longus
42. There are hip flexors that when recruited to
perform the action also rotates the hip. Sartorius
is one of these which facilitates hip lateral
rotation. What hip flexor will neutralize this
movement when the intend action is pure hip a. Semimembranosus
flexion. b. Gluteus maximus
a. Psoas major c. Adductor magnus
b. Rectus femoris d. Long head of the biceps femoris
 48. A person bends forward at the hips to tie his b. Biceps femoris short head
shoes. The acetabulum on the R side glides ____ c. Vastus lateralis
on the head of the femur to allow this to happen. d. Semimembranosus
a. Anteriorly and inferiorly e. None of these
b. Posteriorly and superiorly 7. Unilateral standing will shift the weight:
c. Posteriorly and inferiorly a. Laterally
d. Anteriorly and superiorly b. Medially
49. Aside from hip flexion, the iliacus part of the c. Equally
iliopsoas muscle also act favorably intro: d. None of these
a. Hip external rotation 8. Unilateral standing will cause distraction:
b. Hip abduction with internal rotation a. Laterally
c. Hip abduction b. Medially
d. Hip adduction with external rotation c. Equally
50. Which of the ff. is important in extension of the d. None of these
thigh with external rotation? 9. Bilateral standing will shift the weight:
a. Rectus femoris muscle a. Laterally
b. Semimembranosus muscle b. Medially
c. Gluteus maximus muscle c. Equally
d. Semitendinosus muscle d. None of these
10. TRUE about the Menisci, EXCEPT:
LQ 10 KNEE (2 MISTAKES): a. Lateral meniscus has attachment to the
Popliteus muscle
1. Patella alta results in: b. Medial meniscus is more movable
a. Increased Q-angle compare to the lateral meniscus
b. Decreased Q-angle c. Lateral meniscus is less susceptible to
c. Neither injury
d. Both d. Both of the menisci has attachment to
2. Patella baja results in: the transverse ligament
a. Increased Q-angle e. None of these
b. Decreased Q-angle 11. The deepest mechanoreceptor:
c. Neither a. Ruffini’s corpuscles
d. Both b. Pacinian corpuscles
3. TRUE about the Tibiofemoral joint, EXCEPT: c. GTO
a. It has a 3 degrees of freedom d. Free nerve endings
b. It has a modified hinge joint 12. TRUE about the fibrous layer of the joint
c. During flexion, the apex of the patella capsule, EXCEPT:
will go inferiorly a. Transverse fibers- Patellofemoral
d. During extension, it is accompanied by ligament
internal rotation of the femur b. Longitudinal fibers- Patellotibial ligament
e. None of these c. Oblique fibers- patellomeniscal ligament
4. TRUE about the Femur, EXCEPT: d. None of these
a. Medial and lateral condyle exhibit a e. All of these
slight concavity 13. The following are transverse stabilizer,
b. INtercondylar notch separates the two EXCEPT:
condyles inferiorly a. Vastus medialis
c. Femoral shaft is oblique b. Vastus lateralis
d. Medial femoral condyle extends distally c. Patellar tendon
compare to lateral femoral condyle d. ITB
e. None of these e. None of these
5. A patient complains of severe knee pain 14. Pure knee extensor:
specifically at the inferior part of the patella. He a. Vastus lateralis
states that the pain aggravates during prolonged b. Vastum medialis
kneeling especially during mass. What could be c. Vastus intermedius
the structure that is affected? d. All of these
a. Superficial infrapatellar bursa e. None of these
b. Deep infrapatellar bursa 15. TRUE about the knee joint reinforcements,
c. Prepatellar bursa EXCEPT:
d. Suprapatellar bursa a. Anterior portion- flexor retinaculum
e. Gastrocnemius bursa b. Medial portion- sartorius and vastus
6. The following muscles can laterally rotates the medialis
tibia, EXCEPT: c. Lateral portion- ITB
a. Biceps femoris long head d. Posterior portion- arcuate ligament
 e. None of these 19. What could be the possible diagnosis for the
16. Cruciate Ligaments patient?
a. Commonly injured - ACL a. Anteromedial instability
b. (+) Godfrey - PCL b. Anterolateral instability
c. Strongest ligament - PCL c. Posteromedial instability
d. Prevents posterior translation of tibia - d. Posterolateral instability
PCL 20. The following structure/s is/are affected,
e. Increased tension by the contraction of EXCEPT:
quadriceps - ACL a. ACL
f. Tight during external rotation of femur - b. PCL
ACL c. Medial meniscus
g. Prevents anterior translation of tibia - d. MCL
ACL e. None of these
h. Increased tension by the contraction of 21. TRUE about the structure/s that are affected,
hamstrings - PCL EXCEPT:
i. Prevents anterior translation of femur - a. One of the structures affected limits
PCL hyperextension of the knee
j. Limits medial rotation of the tibia - ACL b. One of the structures affected limits
k. (+) Lachmann - ACL anterior translation of femur on tibia
l. Can resist valgus and varus stresses - c. One of the structures affected provides
all of these stability together with the muscles that
17. Collateral ligaments inserts at the anteromedial tibia
a. Compress during bilateral standing - all d. One of the structures affected resist
of these forces coming from lateral to medial
b. Prevents lateral displacement of tibia - e. None of these
MCL
c. Most commonly injured - MCL LQ 11 ANKLE & FOOT:
d. Prevents medial displacement of tibia -
LCL 1. The following are components of lateral
e. Prevents varus forces - LCL longitudinal arch, EXCEPT:
f. Prevents valgus forces - MCL a. Calcaneus
g. Attachment of lateral meniscus - none b. Talus
of these c. Cuboid
h. Attachment of medial meniscus - MCL d. 4th MT bone
i. Can prevent anterior displacement of e. 5th MT bone
tibia - all of these 2. TRUE about the plantar aponeurosis, EXCEPT:
j. Compress during unilateral standing - a. Increases the stability of the foot
MCL b. Decrease the stability of the arches
18. Menisci c. Supports the medial longitudinal arch
a. Affected in posteromedial instability - d. Supports the lateral longitudinal arch
medial meniscus e. None of these
b. Injury can cause pain during distraction 3. The following are components of the medial
tests - neither longitudinal arch of the foot, EXCEPT:
c. Shock absorber - both a. Calcaneus
d. Less subject to stress - medial b. Talus
meniscus c. 2nd MT bone
e. More movable - lateral meniscus d. 3rd MT bone
f. Affected in anteromedial instability - e. 4th MT bone
medial meniscus 4. The following are functions of the ankle & foot,
g. Attach to the PCL - lateral meniscus EXCEPT:
h. More fixed - medial meniscus a. Shock absorber
i. Attach to the ACL - medial meniscus b. Adapting to the level of the ground
j. Limits anterior and posterior translation c. Provides a stable base of support
of tibia - neither d. None of these
CASE 1 e. All of these
A 22 year old patient was referred to you secondary to 5. Planes
knee injury. Upon history taking, the patient landed his a. Plantarflexion - sagittal plane
right foot when attempting to do a lay-up and twisted her b. Inversion - frontal plane
knee. Patient states that there is a gnawing pain on his c. Adduction - transverse plane
right knee and rate it as 4/10. Pt has (+) knee instability d. Dorsiflexion - sagittal plane
while performing Valgus Stress Test and Lachman’s e. Eversion - frontal plane
Test f. Abduction - transverse plane
6. Keystone for lateral longitudinal arch of the foot: e. 4th MT bone
a. Calcaneus 12. Ankle & foot conditions
b. Talus a. Claw toes - none of these
c. Cuboid b. Inflammation of the gastrocsoleus
d. 4th MT bone tendon - none of these
e. 5th MT bone c. Pain around the metatarsal heads -
7. Ankle & foot muscles metatarsalgia
a. Flexor hallucis longus - deep posterior d. Turf toe - none of these
group e. Exercise - induced pain along medial
b. Tibialis posterior - deep posterior edge of tibia - shin splints
group f. Cause by abnormal pressure on the
c. Extensor hallucis longus - anterior plantar digital nerves - morton’s
group neuroma
d. Popliteus - deep posterior group g. Inflammation of the plantar fascia -
e. Tibialis anterior - anterior group none of these
f. Peroneus tertius - anterior group h. Mallet toe - none of these
g. Peroneus longus - lateral group i. Anterior leg pain associated with stress
h. Flexor digitorum longus - deep fracture - none of these
posterior group j. Pain is describes as “walking in
i. Gastrocnemius - superficial posterior pebbles” - metatarsalgia
group 13. Ankle joints
j. Peroneus brevis - lateral group a. Chopart’s joint - transverse tarsal joint
k. Nerve supply: deep peroneal nerve - b. Calcaneocuboid joint - transverse
anterior group tarsal joint
l. Extensor digitorum longus - anterior c. Base of 1st MT + medial cuneiform -
group tarsometatarsal joint
m. Nerve supply: superficial peroneal nerve d. Close- packed position is maximum
- lateral group dorsiflexion - talocrural joint
8. Ankle joints e. Metatarsal break - none of these
a. No joint capsule - inferior tibiofibular f. Plantarflexion and dorsiflexion is the
joint primary motion - talocrural joint
b. Dissipate the torsional force applied to g. Bears weight during hyperextension of
the ankle joint - superior tibiofibular the metatarsals - none of these
joint h. Inversion and eversion is the primary
c. Concave distal tibia & convex distal motion - two of the choices
fibula - inferior tibiofibular joint i. Talonavicular joint - transverse tarsal
d. Dissipate the torsional force applied to joint
the knee joint - neither j. Primary gliding motion - talocalcaneal
e. Gliding motion is possible - superior joint
tibiofibular joint k. Forms the distal tarsal row anteriorly -
f. Syndesmosis - inferior tibiofibular none of these
joint l. Subtalar joint - talocalcaneal joint
g. Uniaxial plane joint - superior 14. Valgus VS. Varus
tibiofibular joint a. The distal segment is positioned
h. Distal tibia and fibular head - neither towards the midline - Varus
9. If the talus will collapse, it can lead to: b. The distal segment is positioned away
a. Pes planus from the midline - Valgus
b. Pes cavus 15. Keystone for transverse arch of the foot:
c. Pes equinovarus a. Bases of the MT bones
d. All of these b. Cuboid
10. The following are components of transverse c. Intermediate cuneiform
arch, EXCEPT: d. Lateral cuneiform
a. Bases of MT bones e. Medial cuneiform
b. Cuboid
c. None of these
d. Lateral cuneiform LQ 12: POSTURE & GAIT (5 MISTAKES)
e. Medial cuneiform
11. Keystone for medial longitudinal arch of the foot: 1. This gait determinant prevents excessive lateral
a. Calcaneus shifting of the body
b. Talus a. Physiologic knee valgus
c. 2nd MT bone b. Physiologic knee varus
d. 3rd MT bone c. Pelvic tilt
 d. Pelvic rotation a. 30 degrees
2. Movement of the ankle from initial contact to b. 20 degrees
loading response in a normal gait c. 5 degrees
a. Dorsiflexion d. 50 degrees
b. Flexion 13. This phase of stair gait (ascending) corresponds
c. Plantarflexion to the period of midstance through toe-off in
d. Extension level ground gait
3. Movement of the hip from initial to loading a. Foot placement
response in a normal gait b. Forward continuance
a. Plantarflexion c. Pull-up
b. Flexion d. Weight acceptance
c. Dorsiflexion 14. Which of these muscles is considered “anti-
d. Extension gravity” muscles of the vertebral column?
4. What category of balance control does a. All of these
somatory- sensory system belong? b. Spinalis cervicis
a. Afferent system c. Longissimus lumborum
b. Efferent system d. Iliocostalis thoracis
c. Feedforward system 15. Posterior lurching is due to:
d. Central processing a. Weak gluts max
5. A good point of reference when observing b. Weak quads
posture at the level of the posterior pelvis is the: c. Tight gluts max
a. “Dimple of venus” d. Tight hamstrings
b. Greater trochanter 16. Most active just prior to & just after initial contact
c. Iliac crest during a normal gait
d. ASIS a. Hamstring
6. These muscles contribute in controlling GRF b. Iliopsoas
effect at heelstrike, except: c. Hip abductors
a. Extensor hallucis longus d. Gluteus max
b. Extensor digitorum longus 17. What is the normal lumbosacral angle?
c. Tibialis anterior a. 15 degrees
d. Peroneus longus b. 30 degrees
7. Under normal alignment, what moment is c. 45 degrees
produced by the pull of gravity at the lumbar d. 5 degrees
region of the vertebral column? 18. The contraction of the iliopsoas from preswing to
a. Flexion initial swing
b. Rotation a. Eccentric
c. Lateral flexion b. Isometric
d. Extension c. Concentric
8. The ability of a person to sense the stability of 19. Pelvic tilt as determinant of gait controls the
support surface is attributed to: COG from excessive:
a. Joint & cutaneous receptors a. Lateral tilt
b. Muscle spindle and GTO b. Rise
c. Sense of sight c. Medial tilt
d. Vestibular apparatus at the inner ear d. Drop
9. A patient presents a compensatory posterior 20. Movement of the knee from initial swing to
leaning of upper back will present a lumbosacral midswing in a normal gait
angle that is: a. Dorsiflexion
a. Greater than normal b. Extension
b. Lesser than normal c. Flexion
10. This lower extremity muscle is consistently d. Plantarflexion
active as “anti-gravity” muscle 21. The contraction of the hamstrings during
a. Soleus terminal swing
b. Gluteus maximus a. Eccentric
c. Gastrocnemius b. Isometric
d. Iliopsoas c. Concentric
11. Prevent uncontrolled trunk flexion at initial 22. To be able to propel your body forward during
contact during a normal gait push-off, the ankle and foot must be in a
a. Iliopsoas ________ position
b. Hip abductors a. Both
c. Gluteus max b. Loose-pack
d. Hamstrings c. Neither
12. At midstance knee is flexed at: d. Closed-pack
23. Vaulting may be due to: 33. You are performing a postural assessment at
a. Tight tibs, anterior the pelvis in frontal view. Which indicator shows
b. Longer swing limb that the region assessed is an optimal position?
c. Weak gastrocsoleus a. Symphysis pubis is posterior to PSIS
d. Longer stance limb b. ASIS of the ilium should be level
24. What hip muscle group will become tight in coxa c. Both pelvis should be anteriorly tilted
valga deformity? d. Iliac crest protrudes laterally
a. Extensors 34. The unique stance of human being allows multi-
b. Flexors tasking; however, it also has a drawback of
c. Adductors increased work of the cardiovascular system
d. Abductors a. Disagree
25. Most active during single limb support during a b. Agree
normal gait 35. The normal gravitational moment seen acting on
a. Iliopsoas the vertebral column in frontal view leads to:
b. Hamstrings a. Left lateral flexion
c. Gluteus max b. Forward flexion
d. Hip abductors c. None of these
26. A good landmark to assess the postural d. Right lateral flexion
alignment of the upper extremity would be: 36. This gait kinematics is common in a child and in
a. Deltoid tuberosity an elder
b. Scapular spine a. Shorter step length
c. Dorsal tubercle of the radius b. Narrow base of support
d. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus c. Longer swing time
27. During swing phase (midswing through terminal d. Exaggerated heel-toe pattern
swing) of the left lower extremity the response of 37. Which muscle group contracts eccentrically
the trunk is: during deceleration?
a. Rotation to the left a. Hip & knee flexors
b. Side bending to the left b. Hip & knee extensors
c. Side bending to the right c. Hip extensors & knee flexors
d. Rotation to the right d. Hip flexors & knee extensors
28. At the end of midstance, the ankle & foot goes 38. Hip circumduction may be due to:
into: a. Weak gluts max
a. Neutral b. Tight adductors
b. Plantarflexion & pronation c. Tight hamstrings
c. Dorsiflexion & supination d. Weak iliopsoas
d. Plantarflexion & supination 39. Lateral lurching is due to:
29. This muscle is one of the “anti-gravity” muscles a. Weak gluteus medius
that specifically acts on the scapula b. Weak quads
a. Teres minor c. Tight hamstrings
b. Latissimus dorsi d. Tight iliopsoas
c. Serratus anterior 40. Knee flexion in level walking reaches maximum
d. Levator scapulae during:
30. Movement of the ankle from loading response to a. Terminal swing
midstance in a normal gait b. Preswing
a. Plantarflexion c. Midswing
b. Dorsiflexion d. Initial swing
c. Extension 41. Movement of the knee from initial contact to
d. Flexion loading response in a normal gait
31. The moment produced by the ground reaction a. Extension
force at the ankle during heelstrike b. Flexion
a. Plantarflexion c. Plantarflexion
b. Dorsiflexion d. Dorsiflexion
c. Supination 42. The action of the quadriceps femoris muscles at
d. Pronation the knee during midstance
32. In the absence of double support during running, a. Force generation
what phase takes place? b. Contracting with constant tension
a. Float period c. Force absorption
b. Foot clearance d. Contracting with constant length
c. Swing phase 43. If the step length of each limb is equal, the stride
d. Single support of the gait cycle will appear to be symmetrical
a. Disagree
b. Agree
44. Superior angle of the scapula aligns with what c. None of the above
thoracic vertebra? d. Preswing
a. T1 55. This ligament is needed to be intact & normal to
b. T2 counter the pull of gravity at the hip joint
c. T7 a. Iliofemoral
d. T4 b. Ligamentum teres
45. The contraction of the pretibial muscles from c. Pubofemoral
initial contact to loading response d. Ischiofemoral
a. Eccentric 56. Push-off in gait is a combination of:
b. Isometric a. Heel strike and foot flat
c. Concentric b. Toe-off and acceleration
46. The contraction of the tibialis anterior observed c. Hell-off and toe-off
from midswing to terminal swing d. Midstance and terminal stance
a. Eccentric 57. Force that could distract the maintenance of
b. Concentric erect posture
c. Isometric a. Inertia
47. Active only during the 1st half of swing during a b. Ground reaction force
normal gait c. Gravitational force
a. Iliopsoas d. All of these
b. Gluteus max 58. If sacroiliac joint becomes movable, what
c. Hamstrings movement will it produce due to the pull of
d. Hip abductors gravity?
48. Double support accounts for how many percent a. Counter-nutation
of the gait cycle? b. Nutation
a. 22% 59. When the achilles tendon is seen deviating
b. 40% medially it may implies a:
c. 15% a. Calcaneo valgus
d. 60% b. Pes equinus
49. Gravitation moment in the knee as seen in c. Supinated foot
sagittal view in normal erect standing posture d. Pronated foot
generates 60. Swing time of the reference limb is equivalent to
a. Neutral single support time of the contralateral limb
b. Rotation a. Agree
c. Flexion b. Disagree
d. Extension
50. The contraction of the quadriceps femoris action
at midstance
a. Eccentric
b. Concentric
c. Isometric
51. Patient with thoracic dextroscoliosis will have
tight muscles at:
a. Right side of the trunk
b. Left side of the trunk
c. All back muscles
d. Abdominals
52. Pelvic shifting during gait controls mediolateral
movement of COG. This is observed during:
a. Approaching double support
b. Initial contact
c. Midstance
d. Midswing
53. These upper extremity muscles contribute to
controlling the limb during gait, except:
a. Teres major
b. Pectoralis major
c. Deltoids
d. Biceps brachii - short head
54. Pelvic rotation minimizes excessive drop of
COG during:
a. Loading response
b. Terminal stance
KINES a. Flexed
HIP b. Extended
1. Center Edge angle is in inclination of the: c. Either
a. Femoral Neck
b. Femoral Head 10. Adductors are accessory hip flexors. In what position will
c. Labrum these muscles flex the hip?
d. Acetabulum a. Abducted
b. Flexed
2. In open chain right hip abduction, to achieve balance, the c. Adducted
lumbar vertebrae goes into: d. Extended
a. Right side bending
b. Rotation to the left 11. The risk of superior dislocation of the femoral head is due
c. Rotation to the right to:
d. Right side bending a. Overdeveloped CE angle
b. Coxa Vara
3. A therapist is testing his patient's hip flexor strength while c. Coxa Valga
seated on the edge of the plinth. Which flexor is being tested? d. Underdeveloped CE angle
a. Gracilis
b. Tensor fascia lata 12. True about the hip when in frog leg position.
c. Sartorius a. Close-packed position
d. mIliopsoas b. Loose-packed position
c. None of these
4. The angle of torsion is seen in: d. Incongruent position
a. Femoral Head
b. Acetabulum 13. The main vessel where blood supply to the hip sprouts after
c. Both bone maturity.
d. Neither a. Femoral artery
b. Obturator artery
5. The following are true about the normal hip ROM, except? c. Saphenous artery
a. Tying on shoelace is greater than sitting d. Popliteal artery
b. Descending stairs is greater than ascending stairs
c. Abduction is greater than adduction 14. A backward pelvic rotation during weight-bearing in upright
d. Flexion with knee flexed is greater than with knee position of the right lower extremity will cause:
extended a. Accompanying medial rotation of the left hip and
compensatory lumbar rotation
6. During gait, the estimate total joint compressive load on the b. Accompanying medial rotation of the right hip and
supporting hip during the beginning of stance is: compensatory lumbar rotation to the left.
a. The same as bilateral WB c. Accompanying outward rotation of the right hip and
b. Higher than unilateral WB compensatory lumbar rotation to the right
c. The same as unilateral WB d. Accompanying outward rotation of the left hip to the
d. Lower than unilateral WB right

7. In open chain right hip abduction, which gluteus medius is 15. Open chain right hip abduction also generates:
contracting to stabilize the pelvis? a. Drop on left side
a. Neither b. Hiking on right side
b. Both c. Drop on right side
c. Right gluteus medius d. Hiking on left side
d. Left gluteus medius
16. This muscle has dual innervation.
8. Which among these ligaments is needed to stabilize the hip a. Adductor magnus
in upright standing posture? b. Adductor longus
a. Ischiofemoral c. Rectus femoris
b. Iliofemoral d. Sartorius
c. Pubofemoral
17. If a patient weigh 180lb, how much load (total compressive
9. The therapist can also test rectus femoris strength in the load) would his right hip bear when standing on one leg?
same position above provided that knee on tested limb should (Consider the normal values of moment arm)
be: a. 360 lb
 b. 1260 lb 26. The deepest mechanoreceptor:
c. 720 lb a. Ruffini's corpuscles
d. 450 lb (guessed) b. Pacinian corpuscles
c. GTO
18. In open chain right hip abduction, the gluteus medius d. Free Nerve Endings
stabilizing the pelvis is contracting:
a. Concentrically (could be isometrically) 27. TRUE about the Menisci, EXCEPT:
b. Eccentrically a. Lateral meniscus has attachment to the Popliteus
c. Both muscle
d. Neither* b. Medial meniscus is more movable compare to the
lateral meniscus
19. Gluteus maximus has a leverage in moving the hip into, c. Lateral meniscus is less susceptible to injury
except: d. Both of the menisci has attachment to the transverse
a. Abduction ligament
b. Lateral rotation e. None of these
c. Medial rotation
d. Extension 28. The following are transverse stabilizer, EXCEPT:
a. Vastus medialis
20. The trabecular system that bears the torsional stresses on b. Vastus lateralis
the hip joint. c. Patellar tendon
a. Medial Trabecular d. ITB
b. Lateral Trabecular e. None of these
c. Both (guessed)
d. Neither 29. TRUE about the Femur, EXCEPT:
a. Medial and lateral condyle exhibit a slight concavity
KNEE b. Intercondylar notch separates the two condyles
21. Patella baja results in: inferiorly
a. Increased Q-angle c. Femoral shaft is oblique
b. Decreased Q-angle d. Medial femoral condyle extends distally compare to
c. Neither lateral femoral condyle
d. Both e. None of these

22. Unilateral standing will shift the weight: 30. The following muscles can laterally rotates the tibia,
a. Laterally EXCEPT:
b. Medially a. Biceps femoris long head
c. Equally b. Biceps femoris short head
d. None of these c. Vastus lateralis
d. Semimembranosus
23. Unilateral standing will cause distraction: e. None of these
a. Laterally
b. Medially 31. Patella alta results in:
c. Equally a. Increased Q-angle
d. None of these b. Decrease Q-angle
c. Neither
24. TRUE about the Tibiofemoral joint, EXCEPT: d. Both
a. It has a 3 degrees of freedom
b. It is a modified hinge joint 32. Pure knee extensor:
c. During flexion, the apex of the patella will go inferiorly a. Vastus lateralis
d. During extension, it is accompanied by internal rotation b. Vastus medialis
of the femur c. Vastus intermedius
e. None of these d. All of these
e. None of these
25. Bilateral standing will shift the weight:
a. Laterally 33. TRUE about the knee joint reinforcements, EXCEPT:
b. Medially a. Anterior portion - flexor retinaculum
c. Equally b. Medial portion - Sartorius and vastus medialis
d. None of these c. Lateral portion - ITB
d. Posterior portion - arcuate ligament
 e. None of these b. Plantarflexion moment
c. Extension moment
34. Cruciate ligaments d. Dorsiflexion moment
Choices:
1 - ACL 41. The period of double support occurs in the ff phases,
2 - PCL except:
3 - All of these a. Beginning of stance
4 - None of these b. No exception
● Increased tension by the contraction of quadriceps - 1 c. End of stance
ACL d. Beginning of swing
● Increased tension by the contraction of hamstrings - 2
PCL 42. At the end of loading response the ankle goes into:
● Can resist valgus and varus stresses - 3 All a. Dorsiflexion & supination
● Prevents posterior translation of tibia - 2 PCL b. Plantarflexion & pronation
● Prevents anterior translation of tibia - 1 ACL c. Neutral
d. Plantarflexion & supination
35. TRUE about the fibrous layer of the joint capsule, EXCEPT:
a. Transverse fibers - Patellofemoral ligament 43. Knee flexion in level walking reaches maximum during:
b. Longitudinal fibers - Patellotibial ligament a. Initial swing
c. Oblique fibers - Patellomeniscal ligament b. Preswing
d. None of these c. Midswing
e. All of these d. Terminal swing

36. A patient complains of severe knee pain specifically at the 44. Flexed/plantarflexed segment during midstance:
inferior part of the patella. He states that the pain aggravates a. Toes
during prolonged kneeling especially during mass. What could b. Knee
be the structure that is affected? c. Hip
a. Superficial infrapatellar bursa d. Ankle
b. Deep infrapatellar bursa
c. Prepatellar bursa 45. In a typical hemiplegic gait of a left CVA, what pelvic muscle
d. Suprapatellar is primarily responsible for hip hiking?
e. Gastrocnemius a. Left gluteus medius
b. Right quadratus lumborum (if left CVA means right side
POSTURE AND GAIT affected)
37. Hip joint movement from initial contact to loading response c. Right gluteus medius
in a normal gait d. Left quadratus lumborum
a. Extension
b. Dorsiflexion 46. In order to delineate walking form running gait there should
c. Plantarflexion be:
d. Flexion a. Period of swing
b. Single support
38. Quads in running is seen more active during: c. Double support
a. Preswing d. Period of stance
b. Midstance
c. Terminal stance 47. The ground reaction force moment influencing the ankle
d. First part of stance joint at the end of preswing in a normal gait
a. Flexion moment
39. When the quadratus lumborum muscle hikes the right b. Extension moment
lower extremity in a Stroke patient, what muscle is synergistic c. Plantarflexion moment
to the above action? d. Dorsiflexion moment
a. Left gluteus maximus
b. Left gluteus medius 48. Movement of hip joint from initial contract to terminal
c. Right Iliopsoas swing
d. Right gluteus medius a. Extension to flexion
b. Flexion to neutral
40. The ground reaction force moment influencing the Knee c. Flexion to extension
joint at the end of preswing in a normal gait d. Extension to neutral
a. Flexion moment
49. What movement is needed more at the toes during gait: 58. The rectus abdominis, external oblique abdominal, and
a. Abduction internal oblique abdominal are the agonist against resistance
b. Flexion in:
c. Hyperextension a. Lumbar extension
d. Adduction b. Lumbar flexion
c. Right lateral flexion
50. The phase where tibialis anterior is most evident in running. d. Right lumbar rotation
a. Swing phase
b. Stance phase 59. The position of the spine that puts a person at most risk for
c. Both lumbar disks protrusion and herniation is
d. Neither a. Extension
b. Flexion
51. Paralysis of dorsiflexors leads to, except: c. Lateral flexion
a. Toe first d. Rotation
b. Steppage gait
c. Foot slap (wrong) 60. The atlanto axial joint is what type of joint?
d. Foot drop a. Saddle
b. Condyloid
52. Knee joint movement from initial contact to loading c. Trochoid
response in a normal gait d. Pivot
a. Plantarflexion e. Both c & d
b. Extension
c. Flexion 61. Pars interarticularis is susceptible to stress fracture and is
d. Dorsiflexion most developed in the thoracolumbar spine. Five (5) sacral
vertebrae are fused to form the triangular or wedge-shaped
53. Tibialis anterior contraction during swing phase structure that is called the sacrum.
a. Isometric only a. 1st statement TRUE, 2nd FALSE
b. Eccentric to isometric b. 1st statement FALSE, 2nd TRUE
c. Concentric to isometric c. Both are TRUE
d. Both are FALSE
d. Eccentric to concentric
62. The trunk is composed of the:
54. Big toe assumes mainly the weight bearing, responsible a. Rib cage, cervical spine and pelvic girdle
during: b. Thoracic spine, cervical spine and pelvic girdle
a. Initial contact c. Thoracic spine, rib cage and cervical spine
b. Terminal stance d. Thoracic spine, rib cage and pelvic girdle
c. Preswing
63. Which of the ff ligaments is considered as the primary spine
d. Loading response
stabilizer inside the vertebral canal?
a. ALL
55. Total hip ROM in stance: b. Ligamentum nuchae
a. 0-30 deg c. Ligamentum flavum
b. 0-60 deg d. PLL
c. 0-50 deg e. None of the above
d. 0-40 deg
64. Vertebral Column is composed of 32 vertebrae and 23 IV
discs. Primary curves develop in infancy as a result of the
56. Maximum toe ROM occurs in: accommodation of the skeleton to the upright position.
a. Preswing a. 1st statement TRUE, 2nd FALSE
b. Terminal swing b. 1st statement FALSE, 2nd TRUE
c. Midswing c. Both are TRUE
d. Initial swing d. Both are FALSE

65. Forward bending is a complex movement combined of

VC/SPINE combined lumbar and hip motion, and many of the tasks that
57. Transversospinalis consists of the following EXCEPT: occur during everyday activities require trunk flexion. The ff
a. Multifidus statements apply to this movement, EXCEPT:
b. Rotators a. Stretching short hamstring may affect lumbar motion
c. Semispinalis during forward bending.
b. Excessive lumbar motion decreases tensile loads on the
d. Spinalis
spine.
e. None of the above
 c. Short hamstring muscles because of their attachment asked by the doctor for an MRI examination and results showed
to the posterior leg and to the ischial tuberosity, may osteophyte formation at the C5-C6 level.
limit hip flexion ROM. Questions: Based on the condition of the pt presented in the
d. Low back pain could result from excessive lumbar case, what structures could be involved if there is degenerative
motion due to their influence on lumbopelvic rhythm changes observed on her cervical spine?
during forward bending. a. Joints of Luschka
e. Restricted hip motion is coupled with excessive lumbar b. Uncovertebral joints
motion c. Uncinate process
d. Spinous process (guess)
66. Axis (C1) has no body and no spinous process. e. All of the above
Atlanto-occipital joint is the “NO” jt. f. A, b, and c only
a. 1st statement TRUE, 2nd FALSE
b. 1st statement FALSE, 2nd TRUE 74. TRUE about the joints of Von Luschka, EXCEPT:
c. Both are TRUE a. Aka uncovertebral joints
d. Both are FALSE b. Present in C3-C7 vertebrae
c. Total of 12 joints
67. The ff muscles are responsible for head rotation, EXCEPT: d. All of the above
a. Splenius Capitis e. NOTA (guess)
b. SCM
c. Splenius Cervicis 75. A 60 years old female came to rehab complaining of neck
d. Iliocostalis Cervicis pain rated as 5/10 (0=no pain, 10=worst possible pain) using
e. None of the above the pain rating scale. During hx taking, you found out that
patient worked as an accountant and retired at the age of 58;
68. Flat-back syndrome is essentially significant reduction in the further stated that her work requires her to sit, write and use
amount of lumbar: the computer for long period of time. She has been
a. Kyphosis experiencing neck pain before however, recently pain is felt
b. Lordosis even at rest which lead her to opt for a consultation. She was
c. Recurvatum asked by the doctor for an MRI examination and results showed
d. Scoliosis osteophyte formation at the C5-C6 level.
Questions: Based on the condition of the pt presented in the
69. The highest content of elastic fiber is found in what case, what motion of the spine could be mostly limited?
ligament? - LIGAMENTUM FLAVUM a. Flexion
b. Extension
70. The ff ligaments are stretched during flexion of the back, c. Lateral flexion
EXCEPT: d. Rotation
a. ALL e. All motions are equally limited
b. Interspinous ligament
c. Supraspinous ligament 76. The ff make up the suboccipital muscles, EXCEPT:
d. NOTA a. Rectus capitis posterior minor & major (my answer but
wrong)
71. If a patient stands with his trunk lateral bending to the L b. Rectus capitis anterior minor & major
and trunk rotation to the R. what muscles are probably weak? c. Inferior oblique
a. R external oblique and L internal oblique d. Superior oblique
b. L external oblique and R internal oblique e. None of the above
c. R external oblique and R internal oblique
d. L external oblique and L internal oblique CHEST WALL & TMJ
e. None of the above 77. Cranial nerve/s that innervates the digastric muscle:
a. CN 8
72. A PT examines a patient with cervical pain of unknown b. CN 12
etiology. The PT identifies shortening of the cervical spine c. CN 7
extensors, upper trapezius and levator scapulae. The most d. Both A & C
probable postural deviation is: e. Both A & B
a. Forward shoulders
b. Kyphosis 78. Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume = ?
c. Scapular retraction a. Vital capacity
d. Lordosis b. Residual volume
e. Forward head c. Functional residual capacity
d. Inspiratory capacity
73. A 60 years old female came to rehab complaining of neck e. Total lung capacity
pain rated as 5/10 (0=no pain, 10=worst possible pain) using
the pain rating scale. During hx taking, you found out that 79. The ff structures make up the superior border of the rib
patient worked as an accountant and retired at the age of 58; cage, EXCEPT:
further stated that her work requires her to sit, write and use a. Superior borders of the 1st costocartilages
the computer for long period of time. She has been b. 1st rib and their corresponding 1st and 2nd vertebrae
experiencing neck pain before however, recently pain is felt c. Jugular notch of sternum
even at rest which lead her to opt for a consultation. She was d. NOTA
80. The following are observed in the skeletal muscles of an 89. Translation occurs in the upper TM joint while rotation
elderly individual, except: occurs in the lower TM joint
a. Loss of strength a. True
b. Fewer muscle fibers b. False
c. Lower oxidative capacity
d. Decrease in the time of peak tension 90. The ff are functions of the chest wall, EXCEPT:
e. None of the above a. Protection of the lungs, viscera and heart
b. Respiratory function
81. Cranial nerve/s that innervates the digastric muscle: c. Base for muscle attachment of UE, LE, head & neck,
a. CN 5 vertebral column and pelvis
b. CN 12 d. NOTA (none of the above)
c. CN 7
d. Both A & C 91. You are currently assigned to assess a patient diagnosed to
e. Both A & B have scoliosis. Upon assessment, you noticed that the patient
presents with a higher R shoulder with an X-ray result and an
82. Functions of the scalene muscles during ventilation are the angle of 35 deg.
ff: Question: Which of the following is true regarding the case
a. Lifts the first two ribs above?
b. Lifts the sternum a. L shoulder is anteriorly rotated
c. Stabilization of the rib cage b. R flexed elbow is noted to be lower
d. All of the above c. Right hip elevated
e. NOTA d. Rib hump is noted on the right side
e. None of the above is correct
83. What muscles are active during relaxed expiration? f. C & D only
a. SCM
b. Abdominals 92. Muscles active during forceful expiration, EXCEPT:
c. External Intercostals a. Transversus abdominis
d. All of the above b. Rectus abdominis
e. No muscles involved c. Serratus Posterior inferior
d. Rhomboids
84. An infant’s chest wall muscles as mobilizers, rather than e. NOTA
stabilizers, of the thorax to counteract the reduced
intrapulmonary pressure created by the lowered diaphragm 93. You are currently assigned to assess a patient diagnosed to
during inspiration. have a scoliosis. Upon assessment, you noticed that the patient
a. True presents with a higher R shoulder with an X-ray result and an
b. False angle of 35 deg.
Question: The ff are effects of scoliosis on the rib cage CONVEX
85. The diaphragm has limited ability to laterally expand the rib side, EXCEPT:
cage a. Anterior rib distortion
a. True b. Decreased lung volume
b. False c. Narrowing of intercostals spaces
d. All of the above
86. One of the important function of the rib cage is to protect e. None of the above
the organs such as heart and lung. The 12 ribs that make up the
rib cage is also vital during ventilation. 94. The ff are effects of scoliosis on the rib cage CONVEX side,
a. 1st statement TRUE, 2nd FALSE EXCEPT:
b. 1st statement FALSE, 2nd TRUE a. Anterior rib distortion
c. Both are TRUE b. Decreased lung volume
d. Both are FALSE c. Narrowing of intercostals spaces
d. All of the above
87. Skeletal muscles of ventilation in the elderly have a e. A & C only
decrease in the number or the size of fast-twitch type II fibers.
The resting position of the diaphragm becomes less domed 95. A patient diagnosed with COPD was recently referred to
with a decrease in abdominal tone in aging. your care. Upon assessment, you noticed obvious chest
a. 1st statement TRUE deformity that appeared as a barrel-chest. As an amazing PT
b. 1st statement FALSE student, you know that the lung volume that is greatly
e. Both are TRUE increased in this type of patient is the _____.
f. Both are FALSE a. IRV
b. TV
88. 11th and 12th ribs do not participate in the closed-chain c. ERV
motion of the thorax. Ribs 11 & 12 pass through the d. RV
costovertebral joint only. e. TLV
a. 1st statement TRUE, 2nd FALSE
b. 1st statement FALSE, 2nd TRUE 96. A patient presenting with lateral curvature of the spine was
c. Both are TRUE referred to your care. Upon doing Adam’s forward bending test,
d. Both are FALSE a rib hump was noted on the right side. Based on the condition
presented by the patient, what do you call the most tilted c. Provides a stable base of support
vertebra? d. None of these
a. Rotation vertebra e. All of these
b. Apical vertebra
c. End vertebra 104. Keystone for lateral longitudinal arch of the foot:
d. Bended vertebra a. Calcaneus
e. All of the above b. Talus
c. Cuboid
d. 4th MT bone
ANKLE AND FOOT e. 5th MT bone
97. Planes
Choices: 105. Ankle Joints
1 - Sagittal Plane Choices:
2 - Transverse Plane 1 - Talocrural joint
3 - Frontal Plane 2 - Transverse tarsal joint
● Abduction = Transverse 3 - Tarsometatarsal joint
● Inversion = Frontal 4 - Talocalcaneal joint
● Plantarflexion = Sagittal 5 - Two of the choices
6 - None of these
98. Ankle & Foot Muscles ● Inversion and eversion is the primary motion = Two of
Choices: the choices
1 - Deep Posterior Group ● Base of 1st MT + medial cuneiform = Tarsometatarsal
2 - Lateral Group joint
3 - Superficial Posterior Group ● Primary gliding motion = Talocalcaneal joint Or Subtalar
● Gastrocnemius = Superficial posterior group ● Bears weight during hyperextension of the metatarsals
● Peroneus tertius = Lateral group = none of these
● Flexor hallucis longus = Deep posterior group
● Peroneus longus = Lateral group

99. Ankle & Foot Conditions

Choices:
1 - Shin Splints
2 - Medial tibial stress syndrome
3 - Metatarsalgia
4 - Morton’s Neuroma
5 - None of these
● Anterior leg pain associated with stress fracture = None
● Cause by abnormal pressure on the plantar digital
nerves = Morton’s neuroma
● Pain around the metatarsal heads = Metatarsalgia
● Exercise-induced pain along medial edge of tibia = Shin
splints

100. The following are components of transverse arch, EXCEPT:

a. Bases of MT Bones
b. Cuboid
c. None of these
d. Lateral cuneiform
e. Medial cuneiform

101. Keystone for medial longitudinal arch of the foot:

a. Calcaneus
b. Talus
c. 2nd MT bone
d. 3rd MT bone
e. 4th MT bone

102. Keystone for transverse arch of the foot:

a. Bases of the MT bones
b. Cuboid
c. Intermediate cuneiform
d. Lateral cuneiform
e. Medial cuneiform

103. The following are functions of the ankle & foot, EXCEPT:
a. Shock absorber
b. Adapting to the level of the ground
LQ 1: Intro to Biomechanics (? mistakes)

1. Lumbar Traction is closely associated with what type of motion?

a. Curvilinear
b. Linear
c. Rotatory
d. General motion

2. In almost all movements of the extremities, when muscle action follows an efficient lever,
the contraction is:
a. Concentric
b. Isokinetic
c. Eccentric
d. Isometric

3. As your patient abducts her shoulder from 90deg to 120deg, the deltoid moment arm
decreases. If the torque requirement is constant, the force of the deltoid should
__________ as the shoulder abducts to reach 120 deg.
a. Become zero pound force
b. Increase
c. Decrease
d. Remain the same

4. Synergistic action of the internal and external obliques

a. Sagittal plane
b. Transverse plane
c. Frontal plane

5. Which of the following represent the least degree of stability?

a. Low center of gravity; large base of support
b. High center of gravity; large base of support
c. High center of gravity; small base of support
d. Low center of gravity; small base of support

6. Which of the following best describes torque?

a. The force a muscle generates
b. A force times the perpendicular distance from the line of force of the axis of
rotation
c. The distance a muscle can move
d. A force times the distance measured along the lever from the line of force to the
axis of rotation

7. Actions of the right pectoralis major from 90 degree shoulder abduction.

a. Vertical axis
 b. Frontal axis
c. AP axis

8. Action of the left quadratus lumborum from standing position.

a. Sagittal plane
b. Frontal plane
c. Transverse plane

9. Bilateral action of sternocleidomastoid in standing position

a. Frontal axis
b. Vertical axis
c. AP axis
10. The center of gravity of an object or body segment is:
a. At the tip of the heavier end
b. At the point of origin for gravity’s vector force
c. Easier to find in asymmetrical objects than it is in symmetrical
d. The theoretical point around which the mass of the object is balanced

11. Which of the following forces can be present internally (as internal force) or externally
(as external force)?
a. Ground reaction
b. Joint capsule tension
c. Gravity
d. Friction

12. Bony prominences and sesamoid bones in the body serve anatomic pulleys. In what way
they directly influence the biomechanics of a specific region?
a. Bony prominences and sesamoid bones deflect the action line of the pull of
gravity thereby increasing the moment arm and consequently generate
greater torque
b. Bony prominences and sesamoid bones deflect the action line leading to an
increase in the angle of pull of muscles thereby increasing the muscle moment
arm and consequently generate greater torque
c. Bony prominences and sesamoid bones deflect the action line leading to a
decrease angle of pull of muscles thereby decreasing the moment arm and
consequently generate lesser torque
d. Bone prominences and sesamoid bones deflect the action line of the pull of
gravity thereby decreasing the moment arm and consequently general lesser
torque

13. In almost all movements of the extremities, when muscle action follows an inefficient
lever, the contraction is:
a. Isometric
b. Concentric
 c. Isokinetic
d. Eccentric

14. Given a particular distance where a deltoid muscle force is contracting 10lb. Of force and
its moment arm is 2 inches, what is the desired action if the UE weighs 5lbs. and
gravitational moment arm is 10 inches for the subject to be able to abduct his UE?
a. Change the position of the UE to increase the moment arm
b. Relax the deltoid to allow movement
c. Contract the deltoid to produce more tension
d. Adjust the weight of the ue to lower the gravitational torque

15. Considering a full grown adult human being with proportional and average body size,
where could be the estimated COG (CoM) of the entire right lower extremity?
a. Just above the knee
b. Mid-leg
c. Mid-thigh
d. Just below the gluteal bridge
16. This is associated with the motion of the human body that gives regard to the forces
responsible for the motion.
a. Kinematics
b. Statics
c. Dynamics
d. Kinetics

17. Which of the following statements best describes gravitational torque?

a. Greatest when line of gravity acts 90 degrees of the moving segment
b. Dependent with muscle torque
c. Affected by muscle moment arm
d. Independent of extremity position

18. Pelvic motion in supine when rectus abdominis contracts

a. Frontal plane
b. Transverse plane
c. Sagittal plane

19. If excessive, this source of force may significant decrease the joint motion:
a. Muscle contraction
b. Gravity
c. Ground friction
d. Externally applied resistance
20. The extent of movement in a rotatory motion is expressed in:
a. degrees/second
b. meters/second
c. feet/ second
d. meters/second (squared)

21. Refer to the illustration below. Which position requires the least muscle torque to initiate
movement?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
22. Elbow flexion from 180 degrees shoulder flexion
a. Frontal plane
b. Sagittal plane
c. Transverse plane

23. The mechanical advantage of this lever type is variable.

a. 3rd Class Lever
b. 1st Class Lever
c. 2nd Class Lever

24. Which of the following levers is best used to move a specific object if your objective is a
quick movement of the object?
a. Each lever would be just as effective as the others
b. A first-class lever with a resistance arm of 10 inches an effort arm of 10 inches
c. A second-class lever with a resistance arm of 10 inches and an effort arm of 20
inches
d. A third-class lever with a resistance arm of 15 inches and an effort arm of 5
inches
25. Sesamoid bones act as anatomic pulleys. Muscles that have anatomic pulleys can be
described as follows, except:
a. Can conserve energy
b. Can resist greater external load
c. Can produce greater tension/contraction
d. Can generate greater torque
26. Which of the following statements accurately represents the relationship between linear
and angular motion?
a. Angular motion of joint produces the linear motion of walking, and linear motion
of joints produces an angular motion
b. Angular motion of joints produces the linear motion of walking
c. Linear motion of joints produces an angular motion
d. None of the answers is correct

27. If insufficient, this source of force may place the joint in an unstable position.
a. Gravity
b. Muscle contraction
c. Capsule tension
d. Externally applied resistance
28. A lever system with the effort force between the fulcrum and the resistance is best
designed for:
a. Weak movements
b. Forceful movements
c. Balanced movements
d. Faster range of motion

29. Which of the following could be done to reduce the amount of force needed to move a
lever?
a. Apply the force closer from an axis
b. All of the answers are correct
c. Move the resistance closer to the axis
d. Increase the amount of resistance

30. Refers to the ability of a force to produce rotational movement.

a. Torque
b. Action line
c. Reaction
d. Movement arm

31. The extent of movement in a translatory motion is expressed in __________.

a. feet/second
b. meters/second
c. degrees/second
d. meters/second(squared)
32. Your patient had an above knee amputation on the left lower extremity. From an
anatomic position reference point, which direction did the body’s center of gravity shift?
a. Up and to the left
b. Down and to the right
c. Up and to the right
d. Down and to the left

33. What class of lever is utilized mostly in making work less difficult?
a. 2nd Class Lever
b. 3rd Class Lever
c. 1st Class Lever

34. Elbow flexion from 90 degrees shoulder abduction and full medial rotation.
a. AP Axis
b. Vertical Axis
c. Frontal Axis

35. When body segments act as one solid object, COG location remains unchanged.
However, if the segments change positions in space, COG changes.
a. Only the 1st statement is correct
b. Only the 2nd statement is incorrect
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect

36. The forces of this lever type are applied in the same direction.
a. 1st Class Lever
b. 2nd Class Lever
c. 3rd Class Lever

37. Motion that occurs in the frontal axis also takes place in the _______ plane.
a. Sagittal
b. Coronal
c. Transverse
d. Frontal

38. Which of the following is correct regarding levers?

a. Third class levers have a mechanical advantage greater than 1.
b. The longer the lever, the more effective it is in generating higher velocity.
c. Second-class levers have a mechanical advantage less than 1.
 d. First-class levers have a mechanical advantage that is always 1.

39. According to Newton’s Second Law of Motion?

a. Acceleration is directly proportional to the mass of the moving object.
b. A body at rest will remain at rest.
c. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
d. Acceleration is directly proportional to the net force applied to a body.

40. Action of the left rectus femoris from a sitting position

a. Frontal Axis
b. Vertical Axis
c. AP Axis

LQ 2: MUSCLE STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION (1 mistake)

1. When reaching forward in a standing position, the ff muscles are required to act
concentrically, EXCEPT:
a. Pectoralis Major (clavicular head)
b. Anterior Deltoid
c. Coracobrachialis
d. Biceps Brachii
e. None of the above
2. This type of muscle fiber arrangement has a spindle-shaped with central belly that tapers
to tendons to each end:
a. Strap
b. Radiate
c. Fusiform
d. Bipennate
e. Sphincter
3. This type of injury can occur from a single high-force contraction of the muscle while the
muscle is lengthened by external forces:
a. Sarcopenia
b. Muscle sprain
c. Muscle strain
d. Disuse atrophy
e. None of the above
4. When tapping a tendon using a reflex hammer, which of the ff sensory receptors will be
activated first to create a quick stretch?
a. GTO organs
b. Muscle spindle
c. Sharpey fibers
d. Pacinian corpuscle
e. None of the above
5. The magnitude of the active tension of a muscle is affected by the following, except:
a. Sarcomere length
 b. Speed
c. Type of muscle contraction
d. Innervation
e. None of the above
6. A group of muscle surrounded by connective tissue:
a. Fascicles
b. Muscle fiber
c. Myofibril
d. Myofilament
e. None of the above
7. The pull of the tendon creates approximation of the bony segments when the contractile
elements in the muscle:
a. Actively lengthens
b. Actively shortens
c. Passively shortens
d. Passively lengthens
e. None of the above
8. A PT positions the patient in prone to measure knee flexion. Range of motion may be
limited in this position primarily due to:
a. Passive insufficiency of the knee extensors
b. Passive insufficiency of the sacrospinalis group
c. Active insufficiency of the knee extensors
d. Passive insufficiency of the knee flexors
e. Active insufficiency of the knee flexors
9. Quadriceps muscles are designed for force production while the hamstring muscles are
designed for motions that requires larger ROM. Pennate muscles usually have a larger
number of muscle fibers which results into increasing PCSA.
a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd statement is FALSE
b. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Bots statements are FALSE
10. These muscles act as an antagonist in scapular elevation and depression but they
upwardly rotate the scapula:
a. Lower trapezius and levator scapulae
b. Upper and lower trapezius
c. Rhomboids and levator scapula
d. Lower trapezius and rhomboids
e. All of the above
11. The H zone contains:
a. Z disc
b. Myosin
c. Actin
d. Troponin
e. Both B&C
12. During muscle contraction, this part of the muscle fiber doesn’t change:
a. H zone
b. A band
c. I band
d. H band
e. Z disc
13. The ff are examples of a unipennate muscle, EXCEPT:
a. FPL
b. Supraspinatus
c. Teres Minor
d. Vastus Intermedius
e. None of the above
14. The following are not true about the troponin activity, except:
a. Under resting conditions, calcium is bound to the troponin and the attachment
sites on the actin are available for cross-linking
b. When the calcium binds to troponin, the troponin-tropomyosin complex
moves, making the attachment sites for the cross-bridges on the actin
available
c. Contraction is terminated when the calcium binds with the troponin
d. Early in the contraction process, calcium detaches to the troponin, and it remains
attached during cross-bridge cycling
e. None of the above
15. Protein that is responsible in maintaining position of this filament during a muscle
contraction:
a. Desmin
b. Troponin
c. Tropomyosin
d. Both B&C
e. None of the above
16. Based on the muscle fiber arrangement, triceps brachii is a:
a. Strap
b. Fusiform
c. Unipennate
d. Bipennate
e. None of the above
17. What will happen to the muscle tension generation if there will be recruitment of motor
units with larger number of fibers?
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. No change in tension
18. Which of the following is a multipennate muscle?
a. Infraspinatus
b. Gluteus Maximus
c. Serratus Anterior
 d. None of the above
19. Basic unit of tension in a muscle:
a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcomere
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Alpha motor unit
e. None of the above
20. The ff structure may be affected with overuse injury, EXCEPT:
a. Tendon
b. Muscle
c. Bursae
d. Nerves
e. None of the above
21. DOMS reaches a peak at 3 days after exercise. DOMS occurs in muscles performing
concentric contraction but not in muscles performing eccentric contraction.
a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is FALSE
b. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are FALSE
22. Which muscle fiber type has a large diameter?
a. Slow oxidative
b. Slow-fast oxidative glycolytic
c. Fast glycolytic
d. Fast oxidative glycolytic
e. None of the above
23. Characteristics of an isometric contraction:
a. Performs work
b. Change in muscle tension
c. Change in muscle length
d. All of these
e. None of the above
24. Hamstring muscles have higher proportion of Type II fibers.
a. True
b. False
25. In the process of rising up from a sitting position, the following muscles are primarily
active, EXCEPT:
a. Iliopsoas
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps Femoris
e. None of the above
26. The greater the velocity of the shortening of the muscle, the greater the tension it
produces. The larger the number of motor units in a single muscle, the greater the
tension it generates.
 a. Only the 1st statement is true
b. Only the 2nd statement is true
c. Both of the statements are true
d. None of the statements is true
27. Stores and releases calcium ions during the contractile process:
a. Myofilament
b. Tubules
c. Myosin
d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. None of the above
28. Which of the following statements incorrectly describes the muscle architecture?
a. A muscle with long fibers is able to move the bony lever to which it is attached to
a greater distance than a muscle with short fibers
b. The amount of force that a muscle produces is directly related to the number of
sarcomeres aligned side by side or parallel
c. The larger the number of fibers packed into a muscle or greater in size, the
greater the force produced
d. Long muscle fibers with more sarcomeres are capable of shortening over a
greater distance than a short muscle fiber
e. All of these statements are correct
29. The ff. Are possible effects when a muscle is immobilized in a shortened position for a
long period of time, EXCEPT:
a. Muscle atrophy
b. Decrease number of sarcomeres
c. Thickening of endomysium
d. Decrease amount of perimysium
e. None of the above
30. All of the ff. Will affect the generation of tension in a muscle, EXCEPT:
a. Frequency of motor unit firing
b. Number of dendrites in a muscle
c. Diameter of axon
d. Number of motor units firing at any one time
e. None of the above
31. When the sarcomere is at shorter length, the distance between Z discs increases
creating tension.
a. True
b. False
32. Which of the following structures respond to passive loading?
a. Myosin
b. Actin
c. Myofibril
d. Titin
e. All of the above
33. By producing or controlling the movement of a bony lever around a joint axis, a muscle is
able to generate mobility.
a. True
b. False
34. The highest tension is generated in which of the ff. Muscle contraction?
a. Slow lengthening
b. Fast shortening
c. Slow shortening
d. Fast lengthening
35. The ff characteristics describes Type IIA muscle fibers, except:
a. Contained in motor units characterized by high firing frequency
b. High thresholds for activation and slow-twitch contraction
c. Have cytological properties that fall between Type I and Type IIB fiber
d. Relatively fatigue resistance
e. None of the above
36. Skeletal muscles relax when:
a. The Z lines come closer to each other
b. There is an increase in cross linkages between actin and myosin
c. Calcium ion is actively pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
37. Which of the following is incorrect in describing isometric length-tension relationship?
a. Muscle fibers develop maximal isometric tension at optimal sarcomere length due
to the positions of the myofilaments in a way that it creates maximum number of
cross bridges
b. The amount of isometric tension generated is decreased or lesser when the
muscle is lengthened or shortened beyond optimal length
c. Lengthened position of the sarcomeres shows less overlapping of the actin and
myosin, leading to a decrease possibility of cross-bridge formation
d. A loss of isometric tension generated is noted if the distance between two
z-disks in a sarcomere is shorter, thus allowing the formation of the
cross-bridges to happen
e. All of these
38. The connective tissue covering a muscle fiber:
a. Epimysium
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Sarcolemma
e. None of the above
39. Which among these muscles allows greater range of motion?
a. Quadriceps
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Soleus
 e. None of the above
40. Match the following:
a. Binds with calcium remaining attached during cross bridge cycling - Troponin
b. Covers or makes the attachment sites unavailable in resting muscles -
Tropomyosin
c. Is broken down to power the mechanical aspect of contraction - None of the
choices
41. Which of the ff is considered a multi-pennate muscle?
a. Biceps femoris
b. Sartorius
c. Soleus
d. Tibialis Anterior
e. None of the above
42. Which of the following muscles listed below is considered a strap muscle?
a. Adductor Magnus
b. Serratus Anterior
c. Vastus Medialis
d. Levator Scapulae
e. None of the above
43. This is the primary component of a muscle that accounts for its stiffness:
a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Tropomyosin
d. Troponin
e. Titin

LQ:3 (2 mistakes)

1. While listening to the class in kinesiology, you want to raise your hand and ask a
question. As a PT student, you are analyzing the movement occurring in your shoulder.
What could be the glide of the humeral head during this activity:
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Inferior
d. Superior
2. Bone
a. Zone I
b. Zone II
c. Zone III
d. Zone IV
3. While doing deep squats, you notice the movement of your knee joint. As a student
studying kinesiology, you will know that during knee flexion, the femoral condyle will
glide:
a. Anteriorly
 b. Posteriorly
c. Superiorly
d. Inferiorly
4. The following structures resist compressive forces, EXCEPT:
a. Water
b. Nucleus Pulposus
c. IV Disk
d. None of these
5. The following are synarthroses, EXCEPT:
a. Temporomandibular joint
b. Symphysis joint
c. Interosseous Membrane
d. Sutures
e. None of these
6. In this region, the deformation of the material will be permanent when the load is
removed:
a. Elastic region
b. Plastic region
c. Ultimate failure point
d. None of these
7. Synchondrosis is a type of joint in which the material used for connecting the
components is fibrocartilage.
a. True
b. False
8. The following joint/s can perform rotation, EXCEPT:
a. Radiocarpal joint
b. Glenohumeral joint
c. MCP joint
d. None of these
9. Last Saturday night, you and your classmates are drinking at Ferdies. While it’s your turn
to take the shot and drink it. You notice that there is a joint activity happening in your UE
when you drink the beer. As a PT student, you will know that the joint that is the most
active is a type of:
a. Condyloid joint
b. Trochoid joint
c. Pivot joint
d. None of these
10. Synarthrosis joint has synovial fluid.
a. True
b. False
11. Connective tissues
a. Forms the IV Disks - Cartilage
b. 25% water content - Bone
c. 60-85% water content - Cartilage
 d. 70% water content - Ligaments
e. Appear as the thickening in the capsule - Ligaments
12. The following is/are TRUE regarding bones, EXCEPT:
a. The compact part is responsible for osteoclasts
b. The spongy part is hollow
c. The red marrow produces RBC
d. The yellow marrow is important for shock absorption
e. None of these
13. If two externally applied forces are equal and act in a line toward each other:
a. Tensile loading
b. Compressive loading
c. Shear loading
d. Torsional loading
14. In this region, the deformation of the material will not be permanent and the structure will
return to its original dimension:
a. Elastic region
b. Plastic region
c. Ultimate failure point
d. None of these
15. Tendon:
a. Zone I
b. Zone II
c. Zone III
d. Zone IV
16. Diarthroses joints are also found in between the tooth.
a. True
b. False
17. While listening to the class in kinesiology, you want to raise your hand and ask a
question. As a PT student, you are analyzing the movement occurring in your shoulder.
What could be the roll of the humeral head during this activity:
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Inferior
d. Superior
18. If two externally applied forces are equal, parallel and applied in opposite direction but
are not in line with one another:
a. Tensile loading
b. Compressive loading
c. Shear loading
d. Torsional loading
19. Saddle joint is also known as the sellar joint.
a. True
b. False
20. Pivot joint is a biaxial joint.
 a. True
b. False
21. While doing deep squats, you notice the movement of your knee joint. As a student
studying kinesiology, you will know that during knee flexion, the femoral condyle will roll:
a. Anteriorly
b. Posteriorly
c. Superiorly
d. Inferiorly
22. Peg in a hole mechanism.
a. Synarthrodial
b. Diarthroidal
c. Cartilaginous
d. Synchondroses
23. Last Saturday night, you and your classmates are drinking at Ferdies. While it’s your turn
to take the shot and drink it. You notice that there is a joint activity happening in your UE
when you drink the beer. As a PT student, you will know that this activity is an example
of:
a. Open kinematic chain
b. Closed kinematic chain
c. Both
d. Neither
24. If two externally applied forces are equal and act along the same line and in an opposite
direction:
a. Tensile loading
b. Compressive loading
c. Shear loading
d. Torsional loading
25. Accounts 90% of body collagen:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
26. Symphysis joint is a type of primary cartilaginous joint.
a. True
b. False
27. The following joint/s has 3 degrees of freedom, EXCEPT
a. Plane
b. Gliding
c. Ball & Socket
d. Trochoid
e. None of these
28. The exercise that is indicated for mobility
a. Close kinematic chain
 b. Open kinematic chain
c. Both
d. Neither
29. Most abundant protein:
a. Collagen
b. Elastic
c. Both
d. Neither
30. Most abundant protein in the joint that is responsible for tensile strength and functional
integrity:
a. Collagen
b. Elastic
c. Both
d. Neither
31. Cartilage
a. Yellow - Elastic cartilage
b. Covering on the ends of the bones in the majority of joints - Hyaline cartilage
c. Articular - Hyaline cartilage
d. It provides a smooth, resilient, low-friction surface - Hyaline cartilage
e. White - Fibrocartilage
32. The following is/are TRUE regarding cartilage, EXCEPT:
a. Fibrocartilage is also known as white cartilage
b. Elastic is also known as the yellow cartilage
c. The yellow cartilage may be found in the area that produces phonation
d. None of these
33. Best position for palpation:
a. Open-packed position
b. Close-packed position
c. Both
d. Neither
34. The following are paired correctly, EXCEPT:
a. Cartilage - chondrocyte
b. CNS - astrocyte
c. Tendons - tendocyte
d. Bone - osteocyte
e. None of these
35. The bone has the least water content. While the ligaments have the highest water
content.
a. Only the 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only the 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Neither statements are TRUE
36. The following is/are TRUE regarding bursa, EXCEPT:
a. Found where movable structures are tight approximation in between
 b. Flat sacs containing synovial fluid
c. If found between skin and bones they are called subcutaneous bursa
d. If found between muscle and bones are called submuscular bursa
e. None of these
37. The exercise that is indicated for stability:
a. Close kinematic chain
b. Open kinematic chain
c. Both
d. Neither
38. Gomphoses are movable joint.
a. True
b. False
39. If two are equal, parallel, and opposite forces applied perpendicular to the axis of a
structure.
a. Tensile loading
b. Compressive loading
c. Shear loading
d. Torsional loading
40. Best position for joint mobilization:
a. Open-packed position
b. Close-packed position
c. Both
d. Neither
41. Last Saturday night, you and your classmates are drinking at Ferdies. While it’s your turn
to take the shot and drink it. You notice that there is a joint activity happening in your UE
when you drink the beer. As a PT student, you will know that the joint that is the most
active is
a. Radiocarpal joint
b. Proximal radioulnar joint
c. Humeroulnar joint
d. Glenohumeral joint
42. Uniaxial joint has 2 degrees of freedom with a movement of flexion and extension.
a. True
b. False
LQ4: Shoulder Complex (3 mistakes)

1. Mr. Hagupit Rubio is waiting for a bus ride to go home. Within the first two minutes he
was still carrying a handbag with his right hand. It was a rush hour so he could hardly
hitch a ride, he transferred the handbag later to his left hand. Minutes gone, a neighbor
saw him & requested if he could bring the fruits his neighbor bought. Hagupit did not
accept the request then transferred his handbag back on his right hand. The first minute
on the bus stop, Rubio's right shoulder (GH joint) is stabilized by:
a. Superior capsule & coracohumeral ligament
b. Active supraspinatus tension, superior capsule & coracohumeral ligament
c. Supraspinatus & deltoids
d. Passive supraspinatus tension, superior capsule & coracohumeral ligament

2. Subscapularis & infraspinatus are antagonist in rotation of the shoulder but synergist in:
a. Scapular elevation
b. Humeral depression
c. Scapular rotation
d. Humeral abduction

3. Close packed position of the glenohumeral joint:

a. Adduction & lateral rotation
b. Abduction & lateral rotation
c. Abduction & medial rotation
d. Adduction & medial rotation

4. Upon scapular elevation from resting position, you noted a dropped scapula. What
muscles are most likely weak/paralyzed?
a. Rhomboids, subscapularis, supraspinatus
b. Serratus anterior, trapezius, deltoid
c. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor
d. Levator scapulae, trapezius, serratus anterior

5. A strong contraction of the biceps with the elbow flexed and shoulder abducted to
90deg, promotes ____ and prevents _____ translation of the glenohumeral joint.
a. Compression; inferior
b. Distraction; superior
c. Distraction; inferior
d. Compression; superior

6. These muscles prevent scapular downward rotation, except:

a. Rhomboids
b. Serratus anterior
c. Teres major
d. Trapezius
7. Considering the scapular stabilizers are recruited to fixate the scapula, what is the
outcome if only the deltoid contracts at the GH joint?
a. Humeral adduction
b. Humeral abduction
c. Humeral depression
d. Humeral upward translation

8. After a thoracodorsal nerve injury, your patient will manifest difficulty in:
a. Depressing the scapula
b. Elevating the shoulder
c. Depressing the shoulder
d. Elevation of the scapula

9. Protraction of the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint involves osteokinematic motion of

the clavicle in the _________ distraction and arthrokinematic motion of the joint surface
in the ______________ direction.
a. Posterior; posterior
b. Inferior, superior
c. Inferior, inferior
d. Anterior, anterior

10. The external rotation that occurs at the glenohumeral joint after 80deg to 90deg of
abduction produces a(n) __________ roll and a(n) __________ glide of the humeral
head on the glenoid fossa.
a. Posterior, anterior
b. Anterior, posterior
c. Anterior, anterior
d. Posterior, posterior

11. The inferior angle of the scapula lies at the level of:
a. T2
b. T7
c. T5
d. T9

12. Scaption is arm elevation along the place of the scapula. This is estimated to be angled
_____ from the frontal plane.
a. 20 deg to 35 deg
b. 45 deg to 90 deg
c. 45 deg to 60 deg
d. 30 deg to 45 deg
13. Portion of the GH joint capsule that is taut/tense at rest
a. Posteriorly
b. Anteriorly
c. Inferiorly
d. Superiorly

14. The superior free end of the clavicle medially serves as attachment of:
a. Posterior SC ligament
b. Anterior SC ligament
c. Interclavicular ligament
d. Costoclavicular ligament

15. Most effective muscle for shrugging the shoulder if scapula is downwardly rotated:
a. Rhomboid major
b. Trapezius
c. Levator scapulae
d. Serratus anterior

16. Forms part of the “osteo-ligamentous” vault over the glenohumeral joint:
a. Acromioclavicular ligament & clavicle
b. Coracoclavicular ligament & coracoid process
c. Coracoacromial ligament & acromion process
d. Acromioclavicular ligament & greater tubercle

17. The primary crutch walking muscle:

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Triceps
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Trapezius

18. Which of the following best describes the structure of the glenohumeral (GH) joint?
a. The glenoid labrum enhances the depth of the glenoid fossa
b. The glenoid labrum is a thin hyaline cartilage structure
c. The joint surfaces of the GH joint are naturally congruent and stable
d. The glenoid fossa, by itself, is three times larger than the hummelal width which it
articulates

19. Which of the following muscles assists in counteracting the upward translator force
caused by the deltoid muscle at the glenohumeral joint?
a. Serratus anterior
b. Coracobrachialis
c. Levator scapulae
d. Teres minor
20. Scapulohumeral joint is classified as:
a. Triaxial ball & socket
b. Condyloid joint
c. Functional joint
d. Synarthrosis joint

21. The muscle primarily involved in thoracodorsal nerve injury is ___________.

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Trapezius
c. Deltoids
d. Levator scapulae

22. Scapulohumeral joint is classified as:

a. Prevent superior dislocation
b. Neither
c. Protects the subacromial bursa
d. Both
23. Which muscle provides more dynamic stabilization to the scapula during GH joint
flexion?
a. Trapezius
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Serratus anterior
d. Pectoralis minor
24. Dynamic stabilizers believe to act as if they are “steering” the humeral head. Which of
the following steers the humeral head super-inferiorly at the GH joint?
a. Pectoralis minor & serratus anterior
b. Anterior & posterior deltoids
c. Supraspinatus & gravity
d. Infraspinatus & subscapularis
25. When the teres major contracts & no other synergists come into action, what is the
outcome?
a. Scapular downward rotation
b. Humeral abduction
c. Scapular upward rotation
d. Humeral adduction
26. When the deltoid muscle contracts and no other synergists come into action, what is the
outcome?
a. Scapular downward rotation
b. Humeral abduction
c. Scapular upward rotation
d. Humeral adduction
27. Which of the supporting ligaments of the glenohumeral (GH) joint is considered to be a
“ligament complex”?
a. The middle GH ligament
b. The inferior GH ligament
c. The coracoacromial ligament
d. The superior GH ligament
28. When a tennis player elevates her shoulder during a serve, the clavicle rolls in a(n)
__________ direction and glides in a(n) ____________ direction on the clavicular notch
at the sternoclavicular joint.
a. Inferior, inferior
b. Inferior, superior
c. Superior, superior
d. Superior, inferior
29. True regarding the osteokinematics of GH joint, except:
a. None of the above
b. Greater tubercle of the humerus slides automatically when elevating along
the sagittal plane
c. Shoulder need to be externally rotated to have full elevation along the plane of
the scapula
d. Shoulder need to be externally rotated to have full elevation along the frontal
plane
30. Which muscle(s) stabilize(s) the scapula in order to allow normal function for the teres
major muscle on the humerus?
a. Rhomboids
b. Upper trapezius
c. Supraspinatus
d. Levator scapula
31. Considered flexors of the GH joint, except:
a. Biceps brachii
b. Pectoralis major
c. Brachialis
d. Coracobrachialis
32. Which of the following is a function of the rotator cuff during scapular elevation?
a. Functions with the deltoid to produce a superior translation of the humeral head
during shoulder girdle elevation
b. Produces scapular upward rotation during shoulder girdle motion
c. Balances the deltoid activity by providing a slight inferior translator force
of the humeral head during scapular elevation
d. Produces downward rotation of the scapula during shoulder girdle motion
33. These muscles prevent humeral upward translation, except:
a. Subscapularis
b. Teres minor
c. Infraspinatus
d. No exception
34. A swimmer sustained a traumatic injury on his neck leading to absent scapular mobility
particular towards upward rotation. If the injury involves the cervical spinal nerves, which
roots are affected?
a. C3 to C7
b. C1 to C2
c. C1 to C4
d. C5 to C8
35. Mr. Hagupit Rubio is waiting for a bus ride to go home. Within the first two minutes he
was still carrying a handbag with his right hand. It was a rush hour so he could hardly
hitch a ride, he transferred the handbag later to his left hand. Minutes gone, a neighbor
saw him & requested if he could bring the fruits his neighbor bought. Hagupit did not
accept the request then transferred his handbag back on his right hand. When he
transferred the handbag to his left hand his, right shoulder is supported by:
a. Supraspinatus & coracohumeral ligament
b. Superior capsule & coracohumeral ligament
c. Supraspinatus, superior capsule, & coracohumeral ligament
d. Passive supraspinatus tension, superior capsule & coracohumeral
ligament
36. Which structure directly acts on the clavicle to produce posterior rotation of the needed
to achieve additional scapular elevation?
a. The anterior fibers of the deltoid muscle
b. The coracohumeral ligament
c. The coracoclavicular ligament
d. The subclavius muscle
37. Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to the injury rate of the
glenohumeral joint?
a. Shallowness of glenoid fossa
b. Tight configuration of ligaments
c. Laxity of the ligamentous structure
d. Lack of strength and endurance in the muscles
38. The acromioclavicular (AC) joint contributes to shoulder elevation at Phase II of the
scapulohumeral rhythm. This happens __________.
a. Between 30deg and 90deg of abduction when anterior rotation of the clavicle
allows for 30 deg of scapular upward rotation
b. After 60deg of abduction
c. After 90deg of shoulder abduction and until all scapulothoracic motion is
taken up
d. Between 30deg and 90deg of abduction when tension on the trapezoid
component of the coracoclavicular ligament produces a posterior rotation of the
clavicle
39. The ultimate function of motion at the scapulothoracic joint is to:
a. Work independent of the glenohumeral (GH) motion
b. Provide downward rotation during shoulder girdle elevation
 c. Orient the glenoid fossa for optimal contact with the humeral head when
maneuvering the arm
d. Decrease stability at the acromioclavicular (AC) and sternoclavicular (SC) joints
40. Factors that affect dynamic stability of the glenohumeral joint except:
a. Force of accessory ligaments
b. Joint reaction force
c. Gravitational force
d. Force of prime movers
41. Granting a patient with a complete tear of the coracoclavicular ligament performs
elevation of the arm pain free. How many degrees of abduction could he possibly make
from both GH and close chain joints?
a. 60 deg
b. 120 deg
c. 90 deg
d. 150 deg
42. A Pt. abducts his arm with a completely stiff AC & SC joints. If he externally rotates his
shoulder during elevation, how many degrees could he reach?
a. 90 deg
b. 120 deg
c. 150 deg
d. 60 deg
43. In the absence of the muscle innervated by thoracodorsal nerve, which muscle actively
compensates?
a. Subscapularis
b. Pectoralis major
c. Supraspinatus
d. Serratus anterior
44. Vertical dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint happens if:
a. Any of the AC ligaments is injured
b. AC ligament is sprain
c. None of the above
d. Coracoclavicular ligament is totally ripped off
45. The ___________ ligament is the primary stabilizer of the sternoclavicular joint against
superior displacement.
a. Costoclavicular
b. Sternoclavicular
c. Interclavicular
d. Coracoclavicular
46. Which of the following best describes the motion at the Sternoclavicular (SC) joint?
a. During clavicular elevation and depression, the disc of the SC joint moves with
the medial end of the clavicle on the manubrial facet
b. During clavicular protraction and retraction, the lateral end and medial end of the
clavicle move in opposite directions
 c. During clavicular protraction and retraction, the disc of the SC joint moves
with the medial end of the clavicle on the manubrial facet
d. During clavicular elevation and depression, the lateral end and medial end of the
clavicle move in the same direction
47. If shoulder abduction reach full range but weakened & the GH prime movers are normal,
you suspect a paralysis or weakness of:
a. Deltoid
b. Supraspinatus
c. Trapezius
d. Serratus anterior
48. Which of the following muscles produce upward scapular rotation when the shoulder girl
is elevated from 90deg to 180deg?
a. Deltoid and rotator cuff muscles
b. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior
c. Teres major and teres minor
d. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior
49. Anterior scapular tipping is normally _____________ from vertical and directly affects
motion at the ___________ joint.
a. 35deg to 45deg, glenohumeral
b. 10deg to 15 deg, acromioclavicular
c. 35deg to 45 deg, acromioclavicular
d. 10deg to 15deg, glenohumeral
50. Your patient exhibits weak but full range of shoulder flexion. Upon evaluation, all of the
prime movers are intact except one. What muscle is likely weak/paralyzed?
a. Trapezius
b. Supraspinatus
c. Deltoids
d. Serratus anterior

LQ: ELBOW COMPLEX (no mistakes)

1. The following are articulating surfaces of the ulna, EXCEPT:
a. Olecranon fossa
b. Olecranon process
c. Trochlear notch
d. Trochlear ridge
e. None of these
CASE 3: A tennis athlete comes to rehab holding his right elbow in considerable flexion. Your
assessment reveals tenderness in the area over the patient’s right lateral epicondyle. Active
wrist and/or finger extension increases the pain. And grip strength is weak. Based from the
case, considering the aggravating and/or relieving factors mentioned and with the support of the
physical exams you have performed.
2. What would be your PT impression?
a. Nursemaid’s elbow
b. Elbow fracture
 c. None of the above
d. Lateral epicondylitis
e. Medial epicondylitis
3. Based on the previous case, which of the following could also be affected on our
patient?
a. Oblique cord
b. Medial collateral ligament
c. Interosseous membrane
d. None of the above
e. Lateral collateral ligament
4. Based on the case above, which of the following areas could the patient develop tingling
sensations or have impaired sensory distribution?
a. Lateral forearm
b. Palmar hand
c. Posterior forearm
d. Medial forearm
5. Based on the case above, which reflexes could you observe hyporeflexia?
a. Brachioradialis
b. Triceps brachii
c. Biceps brachii
d. None of the above
6. Based on the previous case, as the patient’s physical therapist, with intensive
knowledge of the anatomy and kinesiology, you should be able to suspect which of the
following muscles to be affected in this case?
a. None of the above
b. Triceps, anconeus
c. FDS, FDP, FCU
d. Biceps brachii, Brachialis, Brachioradialis
e. ECRL, ECRB, ECU
7. Based on your previous answer, The following is/are correct management, except?
a. Use of elbow extensors rather than wrist extensors in playing tennis
b. Stretching of pronators
c. Strengthen wrist extensors with weights or controlled resistance
d. Use of wrist bands to allow improved biomechanical efficiency of muscle
contraction
Case 1: A patient ℅ painful lateral elbow following weight lifting a few days ago. He recalls that
he performed biceps curl with forearm in neutral rotation. Assessment reveals severe muscle
spasm over the area on the radial head and proximal forearm, which indicated possible muscle
strain.
8. The following would MOST likely be observed or correct regarding this case, except:
a. Return to function management should include strengthening of forearm rotators
b. Further assessment may reveal weakness of the forearm supinator
c. Triceps reflex could be hypo/hyper reflexive
 d. Assessment could reveal impaired sensory integrity on the area of the hand
innervated by a nerve that rises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus
9. Based on the case above, all of the following will confirm affectation of the neural
integrity secondary to muscle strain and/or impingement, except?
a. Weak index finger extension
b. Weak thumb function/movement
c. Sensory impairment on the hand
d. Hypo reflexive brachioradialis reflex
10. Matching Type
a. Moment arm is greatest between 80-100 degrees = Biceps Brachii
b. Large PCSA and Lard work capacity = BRACHIALIS
c. Small PCSA = Two of the choices
d. Elbow flexors = All of the above
e. Peak moment between 100-120 degrees = Brachioradialis
f. Mobility muscle = Two of the choices
11. All of the following are considered to be the articulating surfaces of the humeroulnar
joint, except:
a. Trochlear groove
b. Capitate
c. Trochlear notch
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
12. Collateral ligaments:
a. Maintains posterolateral rotatory instability = LCL
b. Prevents subluxation of the humeroulnar joint = LCL
c. Provides some resistance to longitudinal distraction = BOTH
d. Stability against varus torques = LCL
e. Stability again valgus torques = MCL
13. Two of the articulating surfaces of this joint include the ulnar radial notch and the
capitulum of the humerus. It also provides stability of the forearm upon
pronation/supination activities.
a. Proximal radioulnar joint
b. Distal radioulnar joint
c. Humeroradial joint
d. Humeroulnar joint
e. None of the above
14. TRUE about the Brachialis muscle:
a. It is more active when the forearm is supinated
b. It is a two-jointed muscle
c. It undergoes active insufficiency
d. All of these
e. None of these
15. Which of the following is not true about the biceps brachii muscle:
a. Affected by shoulder position
 b. Active in all positions when resistance is greater than limb weight
c. Innervated by a nerve that arises from the middle trunk of the brachial plexus
d. Innervated by a nerve that arises from nerve root C5 and C6
e. None of these
16. The following are the articulating surfaces of the Humeroradial joint, except:
a. Radial fossa
b. Olecranon fossa
c. Head of the radius
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
17. The ligament extends from the inferior edge of the ulna’s radial notch to insert in the
neck of the radius.
a. Quadrate ligament
b. Annular ligament
c. Oblique cord
d. Interosseous membrane
e. None of the above
18. The following are articulating surfaces of the humerus, EXCEPT:
a. Trochlea
b. Coronoid process
c. Coronoid fossaTrochlear groove
d. None of these
19. This structure is considered to be the major soft tissue restraint to valgus stresses over
the medial aspect of the elbow
a. Joint capsule
b. Medial collateral ligament
c. Annular ligament
d. Biceps Brachii
e. None of the above
20. The elbow joint is closely associated with the following structures, except:
a. 2 extra-capsular ligaments
b. 3 muscles anteriorly
c. 4 muscles posteriorly
d. All of the above
21. Closed-packed position of the elbow joint
a. 70 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination
b. 700 degrees flexion, 35 degrees supination
c. Full extension
d. 10 degrees supination
e. None of the above
22. Which of the following is true about the muscles that are associated with the elbow joint?
a. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint anteriorly and have their primary
function over the elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that arises from the
lateral cord of the brachial plexus
 b. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint anteriorly and have their primary
function over the elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that arises from the
posterior cord of the brachial plexus
c. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint posteriorly and have their primary
function over the elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that arises from the
lateral cord
d. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint posteriorly and have their
primary function over the elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that
arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus
Case 2: Your patient recalls painful elbow whenever he pitches. He states, he only feels the pain
when throwing. Your assessment reveals pain is observed in movement phase of throwing and
follow-up phase of push-ups.
23. Which of the following muscles could be affected?
a. Pronator teres
b. Biceps Brachii
c. Triceps Brachii
d. Pronator Quadratus
24. Based on your answer above, which of the following management is most appropriate
for your patient?
a. Rows
b. Pull-ups
c. Curl-ups
d. Dumbbell raises
25. What is the normal carrying angle?
a. 25 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 15 degrees
d. 20 degrees
e. None of these
26. The medial collateral ligament stabilizes the elbow joint against varus forces. Whereas
the lateral collateral ligament stabilizes the elbow against valgus forces.
a. First statement is true
b. Second statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
27. The radioulnar joints (proximal/distal; superior/inferior) are mechanically linked. Motions
over the distal radioulnar joint will always be accompanied by motions over the proximal
radioulnar joint.
a. First statement is true
b. Second statement is true
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are true
e. None of the above
28. These ligaments reinforce the distal radioulnar joint, except:
 a. Dorsal radioulnar ligament
b. Palmar radioulnar ligament
c. Ligament of Denuce
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
29. The following are part of the superior radioulnar joint, EXCEPT:
a. Radial head
b. Ulnar head
c. Capitulum
d. Radial notch of ulna
e. Annular ligament
30. Defined as a strong band that forms four fifths of a ring that encircles the radial head and
the lateral aspect is reinforced by fibers from the LCL
a. Quadrate ligament
b. Annular ligament
c. Oblique cord
d. Interosseous border
e. None of the above
31. The following are TRUE about the humeroulnar joint:
a. It is a type of a plane joint
b. In full extension, there is contact between the radial head and the capitulum
c. They are enclosed in a single capsule together with the humeroradial and distal
radioulnar joint
d. Elbow flexion causes the rim of the radial head to slide along the
capitulotrochlear groove thereby entering the radial fossa at end range
e. None of these
32. The elbow’s normal valgus configuration subjects the lateral aspect of the joint to a high
degree of valgus stress especially during the stance and preparatory phase of throwing
and golfing activities. Significant compression stress over the medial side of the joint is
observed with these activities as well.
a. First statement is true
b. Second statement is true
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are correct
e. None of the above
33. The following muscles crosses the elbow joint, EXCEPT:
a. Biceps brachii
b. Triceps brachii
c. Flexor digitorum profundus
d. Flexor digitorum superficialis
e. Anconeus
34. Radioulnar joint
a. Quadrate ligament = BOTH
b. Passive tension of the biceps = LIMITATION TO PRONATION
 c. Oblique cord = LIMITATION TO SUPINATION
35. Which of the following is true about the muscles that are associated with the elbow joint?
a. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint anteriorly and have their primary
function over the elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that arises from the
lateral cord of the brachial plexus
b. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint anteriorly and have their primary
function over the elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that arises from the
posterior cord of the brachial plexus
c. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint posteriorly and have their primary
function over the elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that arises from the
lateral cord of the brachial plexus
d. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint posteriorly and have their
primary function over the elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that
arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus
e. There are 5 muscles in total that pass over the elbow joint both anteriorly and
posteriorly and have their primary function over the elbow joint
36. The following are the primary muscles that are associated with the radioulnar joints,
except:
a. Pronator teres
b. Pronator quadratus
c. Biceps brachii
d. Supinator teres
e. None of the above
37. The elbow joint is classified as a ginglymus joint which allows flexion and extension
moment on the sagittal plane. It is considered to be a modified hinge joint for the reason
that it allows a slight bit of rotation and side to side motion.
a. First statement is true
b. Second statement is true
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are correct
e. None of the above
38. Which of the following is not true of the triceps brachii muscle:
a. Affected by changes in elbow position but not by changes in position of the FA
b. Activity of the long head is affected by shoulder position
c. The medial and lateral heads of the triceps, being one-joint muscles, are not
affected by the position of the shoulder
d. Innervated by the nerve that originates from the superior trunk of the
brachial plexus
39. Open-packed position of the humero-ulnar joint
a. 70 degrees flexion; 10 degrees supination
b. 70 degrees flexion; 35 degrees supination
c. Full extension
d. 10 degrees supination
 e. None of the above

LQ 6: Wrist & Hand

1. Tenderness of the snuffbox may be indicative of:

a. Carpal tunnel syndrome

b. Colle’s fracture

c. Scaphoid fracture

D. De quervain’s

e. None of the above

2. The ____ is located most laterally in relation to the wrist

a. Abductor pollicis longus

b. Extensor pollicis brevis

c. Extensor pollicis longus

d. Flexor pollicis longus

e. FCR

3. Other name of scaphoid:

a. Unciform

b. Os pyramidale

c. Navicular

d. Greater multangular

e. Lesser multangular

4. Which of the ff muscles allows ulnar deviation of the wrist?

a. FCU
b. ECU

c. ECRB

d. Both A and B

e. All of the above

5. Disruption of a tendon at or near the insertion of the ____ is known as a jersey or sweater
finger and should be addressed surgically within approximately one week.

a. Flexor digitorum superficialis muscle

b. Flexor digitorum profundus muscle

c. Extensor digitorum muscle

d. Extensor indicis muscle

6. All of the flexor tendons except for the flexor carpi ulnaris pass through the carpal tunnel,
along with the median nerve. The extensor carpi radialis longus muscle can perform weak
extension of the elbow during a concentric contraction.

a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is FALSE

b. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is TRUE

c. Both statement are TRUE

d. Both statements are FALSE

7. Gusion came to rehab with complaints of wrist pain after playing an online game for 12 hours.
He stated that there were only short-term rests during the entire gaming session.

Question: What possible structure may have caused the production of pain:

a. Carpal tunnel

b. Tunnel of Guyon

c. Tarsal tunnel

d. NOTA

8. Match the following

1 Almost exclusively involves the use of flexors 1. Cylindrical Grip

2 EDC, lumbricals, and interossei muscles are active 2. Lateral Prehension

3 Thumb is never included 3. Hook Grip

4 *Holding a incandescent light bulb* 4. Spherical Grip

2 contact occurs between 2 adjacent fingers

9. Active middle finger metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal extension range of motion is

greatest when:

a. All of the other fingers are extended with the wrist in extension.

b. All of the other fingers are flexed.

c. The wrist is in neutral position

d. The wrist is maximally extended.

10. MCP extension with flexion of the IP

a. EDC isolated contraction

b. Intrinsic muscles isolated contraction

c. All of the above

d. None of the above

11. The following muscles are flexors of the digits with secondary functions on the wrist,
EXCEPT:

a. FDP

b. FDS

c. FPL

d. FCU

e. None of the above

12. You are reviewing a chart of a patient who was recently referred to rehab d/t a median nerve
injury in the R hand. Which of the following is most affected based on the nerve injury
presented?
a. Power grip

b. Precision handling

c. Both are equally affected

d. None of the choices

13. Match the following:

1 Holding a glass of water 1. Power grip

1 Full hand prehension 2. Precision handling

2 Picking up a coin 3. both

2 Thumb assumes a position of abduction 4. None

14. The following are considered as the primary wrist muscles, EXCEPT:

a. FPL

b. PL

c. FCR

d. FCU

e. None of the above

15. The carpal bone that is first to ossify is the capitate. Pisiform is the only carpal bone that will
serve as a sesamoid bone to the FCU and ECU at the wrist.

a. 1st statement is TRUE , 2nd is FALSE

b. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is TRUE

c. Both statements are TRUE

d. Both statements are FALSE

16. Which of the ff muscles will have its insertion on the base of the 2nd and 3rd metacarpals?

a. FCU

b. ECU
c. FCR

d. ECRL

e. NOTA

17. Which of the following is the pointing muscle that originates between middle and distal
one-third of the posterior ulna?

a. The abductor pollicis longus muscle

b. The palmaris longus muscle

c. The extensor digitorum muscle

d. The extensor indicis muscle

e. All of the above

18. Which of the following components is incorrect of the functional position of the hand?
A. 45 deg MCP flexion
B. 10 deg ulnar deviation
C. 20 deg wrist extension
D. DIP slightly extended
E. NOTA

19. The lumbricals are innervated by both the median and ulnar nerves. Both the palmar and
dorsal interossei are innervated by the deep branch of ulnar nerve and may also assist the
action of the lumbricals.
A. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is FALSE
B. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is TRUE
C. Both statements are TRUE
D. Both statements are FALSE

20. Which of the ff muscles will be stretched during nerve and may also assist the action of the
lumbricals
A. FCR
B. FCU
C. PL
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C
21. Gusion came to rehab with complaints of wrist pain after playing an online game for 12
hours. He stated that there were only short-term rests during the entire gaming session.

QUESTION: What is the possible clinical manifestation of the case aforementioned?

A. Wrist drop
B. Full claw hand deformity
C. Sensory and motor deficits over the thenar eminence
D. Motor deficits over the intrinsic flexors of the wrist and hand
E. All of the above

22. To increase extension of the first CMC joint, where is the direction of glide?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Inferior
D. Superior

23. Match the Following:

A. Pad-to-pad prehension
B. Tip-to-tip prehension
C. Pad-to-side prehension
D. None of the above

Known as a key grip (C)

Adductor pollicis activity increase (C)
APL and ALL thenar muscles are active (D)
Flexion range for the DIP is important (B)
Two-jaw chuck (A)

24. MCP flexion with IP extension:

A. EDC Isolated Contraction
B. Intrinsic Muscle isolated contraction
C. All of the Above
D. None of the Above

25. Penny is a 45 y.o. Biker, when she decided to bike the entire Busay route. It was an all of a
sudden decision, and there were no prior training done. While on her way to the steepest road,
she lost control and fell with an outstretched hand to the ground. A week after, she was referred
for rehab complaining that she is unable to perform gripping activities, and radiographic
examination showed fractured carpal bone on her affected hand.
QUESTION: what other possible injuries would result from the mechanism of injury presented
by the patient?

A. Fractured scaphoid
B. Dislocated lunate
C. Disruption of the scapholunate ligament
D. Scapholunate advance collapse
E. All of the above

26. What nerve/nerves is/are affected in partial claw hand deformity?

A. Radial Nerve
B. Median Nerve
C. Ulnar Nerve
D. Both B & C

27. The ff statements are TRUE about the IP joints of the fingers, EXCEPT:
A. The thumb doesn’t have PIP joint
B. The PIP joint is classified as a condyloid type of joint
C. PIP range of motion is greater than the DIP range of motion
D. All of the above
E. NOTA

28. Which of the following correctly explains why ROM of wrist flexion is greater than wrist
extension?
A. The radius is approximately 12mm longer than the ulna
B. The distal radius is tilted 23 deg medially
C. The distal radius is tilted 12 deg medially
D. The distal is tilted 11 deg anteriorly
E. None of the above

29. The extensor digiti minimi muscle is innervated by the radial nerve, posterior interosseous
branch (C6-C8). The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle performs its action in the frontal plane.
A. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is FALSE
B. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is TRUE
C. Both statements are TRUE
D. Both statements are FALSE

30. Match the following:

A. FDS
B. FDP
C. BOTH
D. NONE
Responsible for a gently pinch (B)
Greater moment arm both MCP & PIP flexion (D)
Greater moment arm at MCP flexion (A)
Lesser torque at PIP flexion (A)
Greater Torque at PIP (B)

31. A gamekeeper’s or skier’s thumb is a common injury that involves a sprain of the ____ of
the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint and may require surgery when severely sprained.
A. Ulnar collateral ligament
B. Radial collateral ligament
C. Palmar metacarpal ligament
D. Palmar carpometacarpal ligament

32. Penny is a 45 y.o. Biker, when she decided to bike the entire Busay route. It was an all of a
sudden decision, and there were no prior training done. While on her way to the steepest road,
she lost control and fell with an outstretched hand to the ground. A week after, she was referred
for rehab complaining that she is unable to perform gripping activities, and radiographic
examination showed fractured carpal bone on her affected hand.

Question: What carpal bone is most likely fractured in the case?

1. Lunate
2. Capitate
3. Scaphoid
4. Pisiform
5. Both b and c

33. What is the average inclination of the distal radius?

A. 23 deg tilted medially
B. 23 deg tilted laterally
C. 12 deg tilted medially
D. 12 deg tilted laterally

34. The ff statements are TRUE about the wrist join, EXCEPT:
A. Wrist motion occurs primarily between the distal radius and distal carpal row
B. The wrist is a condyloid-type of joint
C. Lunate, scaphoid, and triquetrum are the carpal bones that make up the radiocarpal joint
D. The wrist joining is considered a true anatomical joint
E. None of the above
35. Which of the following muscles will not pass through the carpal tunnel?
A. FPL
B. FDS
C. FDP
D. Median Nerve
E. None of the Above
Kines Midterms

1. Scapholunate ligament is the key 5. Which of the following is not true about
structure maintaining scaphoid stability the biceps brachii muscle
and stability of much of the wrist. The a. Affected by shoulder position
most commonly fractured carpal bone b. Active in all position when
will articulate with the medial radial resistance is greater than limb
facet. weight
a. Both correct c. Innervated by a nerve that arises
b. Both incorrect from the middle trunk of the
c. 1st correct brachial plexus
d. 1st incorrect d. Innervated by a nerve that arises
from nerve root C5 and C6
CASE 2: Your patient recalls painful e. None of these
elbow whenever he pitches. He states,
he only feels the pain when throwing. 6. Which of the following is not true of the
Your assessment reveals pain is triceps brachii muscle
observed in movement phase of a. Affected by changes in elbow
throwing and follow-up phase of position but not by changes in
pushups position of the FA
b. Activity of long head is affected
2. Which of the following muscles could be by shoulder position
affected c. The medial and lateral heads of
a. Biceps brachii the triceps, being one-joint
b. Triceps brachii muscles, are not affected by
c. Pronator teres the position of the shoulder
d. Pronator quadratus d. Innervated by the nerve that
originates from the superior trunk
3. Based on your answer above, which of of the brachial plexus
the following management is most
appropriate for your patient 7. The elbow joint is closely associated
a. Pull-ups with the following structures, except:
b. Curl-ups a. 2 extra-capsular ligaments
c. Rows b. 3 muscles anteriorly
d. Dumbbell raises c. 4 muscles posteriorly
d. All of the above
4. A patient with severed ulnar nerve at the
wrist would be unable to: 8. Two of the articulating surfaces of this
a. Bring the thumb to the little finger joint include the ulnar radial notch and
b. Abduct and adduct fingers the capitulum of the humerus. It also
c. Flex the wrist provides stability of the forearm upon
d. Abduct the thumb pronation/ supination activities
e. All of the above a. Proximal radioulnar joint
b. Distal radioulnar joint
c. Humeroradial joint
 d. Humeroulnar joint b. Capitate
e. None of the above c. Trochlear notch
d. All of the above
9. What is the normal carrying angle e. None of the above
a. 25 degrees
b. 30 degrees 12. The following are the articulating
c. 15 degrees surfaces of the humeroradial joint
d. 20 degrees except
e. NOTA a. Radial fossa
b. Olecranon fossa
10. Which of the following is true about the c. Head of the radius
muscles that are associated with the d. All of the above
elbow joint e. None of the above
a. The muscles that pass over the
elbow joint anteriorly and have 13. Which of the following is true about the
their primary function over the muscles that are associated with the
elbow joint are all innervated elbow joint
by a nerve that arises from the a. The muscles that pass over the
lateral cord of the brachial elbow joint anteriorly and have
plexus their primary function over the
b. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint are all innervated by a
elbow joint anteriorly and have nerve that arises from the lateral
their primary function over the cord of the brachial plexus
elbow joint are all innervated by a b. The muscles that pass over the
nerve that arises from the elbow joint anteriorly and have
posterior cord of the brachial their primary function over the
plexus elbow joint are all innervated by a
c. The muscles that pass over the nerve that arises from the
elbow joint posteriorly and posterior cord of the brachial
have their primary function plexus
over the elbow joint are all c. The muscles that pass over the
innervated by a nerve that elbow joint posteriorly and
arises from the lateral cord have their primary function
d. The muscles that pass over the over the elbow joint are all
elbow joint posteriorly and have innervated by a nerve that
their primary function over the arises from the lateral cord
elbow joint are all innervated by a d. There are 5 muscles in total that
nerve that arises from the pass over the elbow joint both
posterior cord of the brachial anteriorly and posteriorly and
plexus have their primary function over
the elbow joint
11. All of the following are considered to be
articulating surfaces of the Humeroulnar 14. Which of the following is true about the
joint, except: muscles that are associated with the
a. Trochlear groove elbow joint
 a. The muscles that pass over the CASE 1: A patient c/o painful lateral elbow
elbow joint anteriorly and have following weight lifting a few days ago. He
their primary function over the recalls that he performed biceps curl with
elbow joint are all innervated by a forearm in a neutral position. Assessment
nerve that arises from the lateral reveals severe muscle spasm over the area on
cord of the brachial plexus the radial head and proximal forearm, which
b. The muscles that pass over the indicates possible muscle strain
elbow joint anteriorly and have
their primary function over the 17. The following would MOST likely be
elbow joint are all innervated by a observed or correct regarding this case,
nerve that arises from the except:
posterior cord of the brachial a. Triceps reflex could be
plexus hypo/hyper reflexive
c. The muscles that pass over the b. Further assessment may reveal
elbow joint posteriorly and have weakness of forearm supinator
their primary function over the c. Assessment could reveal
elbow joint are all innervated by a impaired sensory integrity on
nerve that arises from the lateral the area of the hand innervated
cord by a nerve that rises from the
d. The muscles that pass over the posterior cord of the brachial
elbow joint posteriorly and plexus
have their primary function d. Return to function
over the elbow joint are all management should include
innervated by a nerve that strengthening of forearm
arises from the posterior cord rotators

15. Considered to be the keystone for the 18. Based on the case above, all of the
wrist: following will confirm affectation of the
a. Scaphoid neural integrity secondary to muscle
b. Radius strain and/or impingement except:
c. TFCC a. Sensory impairment on the
d. Capitate forearm
e. Scaphoid b. Hyporeflexive brachioradialis
reflex
16. PT is evaluating a patient who presents c. Weak index finger extension
with paralysis of the wrist extensors and d. Weak thumb function/movement
long extensors of the digits. The PT e. Sensory impairment on the
should recognize these symptoms as hand
indications of injury to which nerve?
a. Ulnar 19. The acromioclavicular (AC) joint
b. Radial contributes to the shoulder elevation at
c. Musculocutaneous Phase II of the scapulohumeral rhythm.
d. Anterior interosseous This happens ______
e. None of the above a. Between 30deg and 90 deg of
abduction when anterior portion
 of the clavicle allows for 30 deg c. Anterior and posterior deltoids
of scapular upward rotation d. Supraspinatus and gravity
b. Between 30 deg and 90 deg of
abduction when tension on the 24. Which of the following muscles produce
trapezoid component of the upward scapular rotation when the
coracoclavicular ligament shoulder girdle is elevated from 90 deg
produces a posterior rotation of to 180 deg
the clavicle a. Teres major and teres minor
c. After 90deg of shoulder b. Upper & lower trapezius and
abduction and until all serratus anterior
scapulothoracic motion is c. Upper trapezius and serratus
taken up anterior
d. After 60deg of abduction d. Deltoid and rotator cuff muscles

20. When the deltoid muscle contracts and 25. Which of the following muscles assists
no other synergists come into action, in counteracting the upward translator
what is the outcome force caused by the deltoid muscle at
a. Humeral abduction the glenohumeral joint
b. Scapular upward rotation a. Coracobrachialis
c. Humeral adduction b. Levator scapulae
d. Scapular downward rotation c. Serratus anterior
d. Teres minor
21. After a long thoracic nerve injury, your
patient will manifest difficulty in: 26. Scaption is arm elevation along the
a. Elevation the scapula plane of the scapula. This is estimated
b. Elevating the scapula to be angled ____ from the frontal plane
c. Depressing the scapula a. 30degto45deg
d. Depressing the shoulder b. 20degto35deg
c. 45degto60deg
22. Subscapularis and infraspinatus are d. 45degto90deg
antagonist in rotation of the shoulder but
synergist in 27. The ultimate function of motion at the
a. Humeral abduction scapulothoracic joint is to
b. Scapular elevation a. Work independent of the
c. Humeral depression glenohumeral (GH) motion
d. Scapular rotation b. Orient the glenoid fossa for
optimal contact with the
23. Dynamic stabilizers believe to act as if humeral head when
they are ‘steering’ the humeral head. maneuvering the arm
Which of the following steers the c. Provide downward rotation during
humeral head supero-inferiorly at the shoulder girdle elevation
GH joint d. Decrease stability at the
a. Pectoralis major and serratus acromioclavicular (AC) and
anterior sternoclavicular (SC) joints
b. Infraspinatus and subscapularis
28. The ________ ligament is the primary 33. Which of the following is a function of
stabilizer of the sternoclavicular joint the rotator cuff during scapular elevation
against superior displacement a. Produces scapular upward
a. Interclavicular rotation during shoulder girdle
b. Coracoclavicular motion
c. Costoclavicular b. Balances the deltoid activity by
d. Sternoclavicular providing a slight inferior
translator force of the humeral
29. The external rotation that occurs at the head during scapular elevation
glenohumeral joint after 80deg to 90 deg c. Produces downward rotation of
of abduction produces a(n) _______ roll the scapula during shoulder
and a(n) _______ glide of the humeral girdle motion
head on the glenoid fossa d. Functions with the deltoid to
a. Anterior, posterior produce a superior translation of
b. Anterior, anterior the humeral head during shoulder
c. Posterior, posterior girdle elevation
d. Posterior, anterior
34. Which structure directly acts on the
30. Which muscle(s) stabilize(s) the scapula clavicle to produce posterior rotation of
in order to allow normal function of the the needed to achieve additional
teres major muscle on the humerus scapular elevation
a. Upper trapezius a. The coracoclavicular ligament
b. Rhomboids b. The anterior fibers of the deltoid
c. Supraspinatus muscle
d. Levator scapula c. The subclavius muscle
d. The coracohumeral ligament
31. If shoulder abduction reach full range
but weakened and the GH prime movers 35. When the teres major contracts and no
are normal, you suspect a paralysis or other synergists come into action, what
weakness of is the outcome
a. Trapezius a. Humeral abduction
b. Deltoid b. Scapular upward rotation
c. Supraspinatus c. Humeral adduction
d. Serratus anterior d. Scapular downward rotation

36. Upon scapular elevation from resting

32. In shoulder elevation, the clavicle rolls in position, you noted a dropped scapula.
a(n) _____ direction and glides in a(n) What muscles are most likely
______ direction on the clavicular notch weak/paralyzed
at the sternoclavicular joint a. Rhomboids, subscapularis,
a. Superior, superior supraspinatus
b. Superior, inferior b. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and
c. Inferior, inferior teres minor
d. Inferior, superior c. Levator scapulae, trapezius,
serratus anterior
 d. Serratus anterior, trapezius, c. Easier to find in asymmetrical
deltoid objects than it is in symmetrical
objects
37. Which of the following best describes d. The theoretical point around
motion at the Sternoclavicular (SC) joint which the mass of the object is
a. During clavicular elevation and less balanced
depression, the disc of the SC
joint moves with the medial end 41. In almost all movements of the
of the clavicle on the manubrial extremities, when muscle ac#on follows
facet an efficient lever, the contraction is:
b. During clavicular elevation and a. Isokinetic
depression, the lateral end and b. Isometric
medial end of the clavicle move c. Eccentric
in the same direction d. Concentric
c. During clavicular protraction and
retraction, the lateral end and 42. Lumbar traction is closely associated
medial end of the clavicle move with what type of motion
in opposite direction a. Rotatory
d. During clavicular protraction b. Linear
and retraction, the disc of the c. Curvilinear
SC joint moves with the medial d. General motion
end of the clavicle on the
manubrial facet 43. Motion that occurs in the frontal axis
also takes place in the ____ plane
38. Your patient exhibits weak but full range a. Frontal
of shoulder flexion. Upon evaluation, all b. Coronal
of the prime movers are intact except c. Transverse
one. What muscle is likely d. Sagittal
weak/paralyzed
a. Serratus anterior 44. If insufficient, this source of force may
b. Deltoids place the joint in an unstable position
c. Supraspinatus a. Externally applied resistance
d. Trapezius b. Muscle contraction
c. Gravity
39. Mallet finger results from a tear of the: d. Capsule tension
a. Ulnar collateral ligament
b. Radial collateral ligament 45. A lever system with the effort force
c. Extensor tendon between the fulcrum and the resistance
d. Flexor tendon is best designed for
a. Forceful movements
40. The center of gravity of an object or b. Weak movements
body segment is c. Faster range of motion
a. The point of origin gravity’s d. Balanced movements
vector
b. At the tip of the heavier end
46. Given a particular instance where a d. A third class lever with a
deltoid muscle force is contracting 10lb. resistance arm of 15 inches
of force and its moment arm is 2 inches, and an effort arm of 5 inches
what is the desired action if the UE
weighs 5lbs. and gravitational moment 50. Sesamoid bones act as anatomic
arm is 10 inches for the subject to be pulleys. Muscles that have anatomic
able to abduct his UE pulleys can be described as follows,
a. change the position of the UE to except:
increase the moment arm a. Can generate greater torque
b. relax the deltoid to allow b. Can resist greater external load
movement c. Can conserve energy
c. contract the deltoid to produce d. Can produce greater
more tension tension/contraction
d. adjust the weight of the UE to
lower his gravitational torque 51. Which of the following could be done to
reduce the amount of force needed to
47. Which of the following forces can be move a lever
associated with either internal or a. Increase the amount of
external force? resistance
a. Gravity b. All of the answers are correct
b. Joint capsule tension c. Apply force closer from an axis
c. Friction d. Move the resistance closer to
d. Ground reaction an axis

48. Which of the following statement best 52. Which of the following represents the
describes gravitational torque least degree of stability
a. Independent of extremity position a. Low center of gravity; large base
b. Greatest when line of gravity of support
acts 90 degrees of the moving b. Low center of gravity; small base
segment of support
c. Dependent with muscle torque c. High center of gravity; large base
d. Affected by muscle moment arm of support
d. High center of gravity, small
49. Which of the following levers is best base of support
used to move a specific object if your
objective is a quick movement of the 53. The extent of movement in a rotary
object motion is expressed in
a. Each lever would be just as a. Meters/second
effective as the others b. Feet/second
b. A second-class lever with a c. Meters/second (squared)
resistance arm of 10 inches and d. Degrees/second
an effort arm of 20 inches
c. A first class lever with a 54. Which of the following is correct
resistance arm of 10 inches and regarding levers
an effort arm of 10 inches
 a. First-class levers have a a. Up and to the left
mechanical have a mechanical b. Down and to the left
advantage is always 1 c. Down and to the right
b. second-class levers have a d. Up and to the right
mechanical advantage less than
1 59. As your patient abducts her shoulder
c. Third-class levers have a from 90 degree to 120 degrees, the
mechanical advantage greater deltoid moment arm decreases. If the
than 1 torque requirement is constant, the force
d. The longer the lever, the more of the deltoid should ______ as the
effective it in generating it is in shoulder abducts to reach 120 degrees
generating higher velocity a. Increase
b. Remain the same
55. This is associated with the mo#on of the c. Become zero pound-force
human body that gives regard to the d. decrease
forces responsible for the motion
a. Dynamics 60. A depressed patient attempted slashing
b. Kinematics the volar aspect of his wrist. Which of
c. Kinetics the ff would be the first to be
d. Statics transected?
a. Radial artery
56. Which of the following best describes b. Median nerve
torque c. Palmaris longus
a. A force times the distance d. FCR
measured along the lever from e. FDS
the line of force to the axis of
rotation Case 3
b. The distance a muscle can move A tennis athlete comes to rehab holding his
c. The force a muscle generates right elbow in considerable flexion. Your
d. A force times the assessment reveals tenderness in the area
perpendicular distance from over the patient’s right lateral epicondyle.
the line of force to the axis of Active wrist and/or finger extension increases
rotation the pain. And grip strength is weak. Based
from the case, considering the aggravating
57. If excessive, this source of force may and/or relieving factors mention and with the
significantly decrease the joint motion support of the physical exams you have
a. Muscle contraction performed.
b. Ground friction
c. Gravity 61. What would be your PT impression?
d. Externally applied resistance a. Lateral epicondylitis
b. Medial epicondylitis
58. Your patient had a hip joint c. None of the above
disarticulation on the left lower extremity. d. Elbow fracture
In which direction did the body’s center
of gravity shift?
62. Based on the previous case, which of b. Use of elbow extensors rather
the following could also be affected on than wrist extensors in playing
our patient? tennis
a. Oblique cord c. Strengthen wrist extensors with
b. None of the above weights or controlled resistance
c. Interosseous membrane d. Stretching of pronators
d. Lateral collateral ligament
e. Medial collateral ligament 67. Which of the ff carpal bones is also
known as “greater multangular”?
63. Based on the case above, which of the a. Scaphoid
following areas could the patient b. Capitate
develop tingling sensations or have c. Trapezium
impaired sensory distribution? d. Trapezoid
a. Posterior forearm
b. Palmar hand 68. MCP flexion with IP extension:
c. Medial forearm a. EDC isolated contraction
d. Lateral forearm b. Intrinsic muscles isolated
contraction
64. Based on the case above, which c. AOTA
reflexes could you observe d. NOTA
hyporeflexia?
a. Biceps Brachii 69. Active middle metacarpophalangeal and
b. Brachioradialis interphalangeal extension range of
c. Triceps Brachii motion is greatest when:
d. None of the above a. All of the other fingers are
extended with the wrist in
65. Based on the previous case, as the extension
patient’s physical therapist, with b. All of the other fingers are flexed
intensive knowledge of the anatomy and c. The wrist is in neutral position
kinesiology, you should be able to d. The wrist is maximally extended
suspect which of the following muscles e. AOTA
to be affected in his case?
a. Triceps, anconeus 70. Gusion came to rehab with complaints
b. None of the above of wrist pain after playing an online
c. FDS, FDP, FCU game for 12 hours. He stated that there
d. Biceps brachii, brachialis, were only short-term rests during the
brachioradialis entire gaming session. (WHAT
e. ECRL, ECRB, ECU POSSIBLE STRUCTURE MAY HAVE
CAUSED THE PRODUCTION OF PAIN)
66. Based on your previous answer, the a. Carpal tunnel
following is/are correct management, b. Tunnel of guyon
except? c. Tarsal tunnel
a. Use of wrist bands to allow d. NOTA
improved biomechanical
efficiency of muscle contraction
71. Which of the ff. muscles allows ulnar nerve and may also assist the action of
deviation of the wrist? the lumbricals
a. FCU a. 1st true, 2nd false
b. ECU b. 1st false, 2nd true
c. ECRB c. Both true
d. Both a&b d. Both false
e. All of the above
76. The extensor digiti minimi muscle is
72. The ff. statements are true about the innervated by the radial nerve, posterior
wrist joint, except: interosseous branch (C6-C8). The flexor
a. Wrist motion occurs primarily digitorum superficialis muscle performs
between the distal radius and its action in the frontal plane.
distal carpal row a. 1st statement true, 2nd false
b. The wrist is a condyloid-type of b. 1st statement false, 2nd true
joint c. Both true
c. Lunate, scaphoid, and triquetrum d. Both false
are the carpal bones that make
up the radiocarpal joint 77. Which of the ff. muscles will be
d. The wrist joint is considered a stretched during maximal elbow and
true anatomical joint wrist extension
e. NOTA a. FCR
b. FCU
73. Which of the following is the pointing c. PL
muscle that originates between middle d. BothAandB
and distal one-third of the posterior ulna e. BothBandC
a. APL muscle
b. PL muscle 78. You are reviewing a chart of a patient
c. Extensor digitorum muscle who was recently referred to rehab d/t a
d. Extensor indicis muscle median nerve injury in the R hand.
e. AOTA Which of the following is most affected
based on the nerve injury presented
74. The carpal bone that is first to ossify is a. Power grip
the capitate. Pisiform is the only carpal b. Precision handling
bone that will serve as a sesamoid bone c. Both are equally affected
to the FCU and ECU at the wrist d. NOTA
a. 1st true, 2nd false
b. 1st false, 2nd true 79. The ff. statements are TRUE about the
c. Both true IP joints of the fingers, EXCEPT:
d. Both false a. The thumb doesn’t have PIP joint
b. The PIP joint is classified as a
75. The lumbricals are innervated by both condyloid type of joint
the median and ulnar nerves. Both the c. PIP range of motion is greater
palmar and dorsal interossei are than the DIP range of motion
innervated by the deep branch of ulnar d. AOTA
e. NOTA
 d. Lower trapezius and rhomboids
80. DOMS reaches a peak at 3 days after e. All of the above
exercise. DOMS occurs in muscles
performing concentric contraction but 85. In the process of rising up from a sitting
not in muscles performing eccentric position, the following muscles are
contraction primarily active, EXCEPT:
a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is a. Iliopsoas
false b. Gastrocsoleus
b. 1st statement is FALSE, 2nd is c. Gluteus maximus
TRUE d. Quadriceps femoris
c. Both statements are TRUE e. None of the above
d. Both statements are FALSE
86. Which of the following muscles listed
81. When reaching forward in a standing below is considered a strap muscles
position, the following muscles are a. Infraspinatus
required to act concentrically, except: b. Gluteus maximus
a. Pectoralis major (clavicular head) c. Levator scapulae
b. Anterior deltoid d. Serratus anterior
c. Coracobrachialis e. None of the above
d. Biceps brachii
e. None of the above 87. The following are possible effects when
a muscle is immobilized in a shortened
82. Which of the ff is considered a position for a long period of time except:
multi-pennate muscle? a. Muscle atrophy
a. Biceps femoris b. Decrease number of sarcomeres
b. Sartorius c. Thickening endomysium
c. Soleus d. Decrease amount of
d. Tibialis anterior perimysium
e. None of the above e. None of the above

83. Characteristic of an isometric 88. The following are examples of a

contraction unipennate muscle, except:
a. Performs work a. FPL
b. Changes in muscle tension b. Supraspinatus
c. Changes in muscle length c. Teres minor
d. All of these d. Vastus intermedius
e. None of the above e. None of the above

84. These muscles act as antagonist in 89. Which among these muscles allows
scapular elevation and depression but greater range of motion
they upwardly rotate the scapula a. Quadriceps
a. Lower trapezius and levator b. Gastrocnemius
scapula c. Rectus abdominis
b. Upper and lower trapezius d. Soleus
c. Rhomboids and levator scapula e. None of the above
 sarcomere length due to the
90. The highest tension is generated in positioning of the myofilaments in
which of the following muscle a way that it creates maximum
contraction number of cross bridges
a. Slow lengthening b. The amount of isometric tension
b. Fast shortening generated is decreased or lesser
c. Slow shortening when the muscle is lengthened or
d. Fast lengthening shortened beyond optimal length
c. Lengthened positioning of the
91. A group of muscle cells surrounded by sarcomeres shows less
connective tissue overlapping of the actin and
a. Fascicles myosin, leading to a decrease
b. Muscle fiber possibility of cross-bridge
c. Myofibril formation
d. Myofilament d. A loss of isometric tension
e. None of the above generated is noted if the
distance between two z-disks
92. A PT positions the patient in prone to in a sarcomere is shorter, thus
measure knee flexion. Range of motion allowing the formation of the
may be limited in this position primarily cross-bridges to happen
due to: e. All of the above
a. Passive insufficiency of the
knee extensors 95. Which of the following structures
b. Passive insufficiency of the respond to passive loading
sacrospinalis group a. Myosin
c. Active insufficiency of the knee b. Actin
extensors c. Myofibril
d. Passive insufficiency of the knee d. Titin
flexors e. All of the above
e. Active insufficiency of the knee
flexors 96. The following are not true about the
troponin activity, except
93. During muscle contraction, this part of a. Under resting conditions
the muscle fiber doesn’t change conditions, calcium is bound to
a. H zone the troponin and the a;achment
b. A band sites on the actin are available for
c. I band cross-linking
d. H band b. When the calcium binds to
e. Z disc troponin, the
troponin-tropomyosin complex
94. Which of the following is incorrect in moves, making the attachment
describing isometric length-tension sites for the cross-bridges on
relationship the actin available for cross-
a. Muscle fibers develop maximal linking with myosin
isometric tension at optimal cross-bridges
 c. Contraction is terminated when b. High threshold for activation
the calcium binds with the and slow-twitch contraction
troponin c. Have cytological properDes that
d. Early in the contraction process, fall between type I and type IIB
calcium detaches to the troponin, fiber
and it remains attached during d. Relatively fatigue resistant
cross-bridge cycling e. None of the above
e. None of the above
100. If two equal, parallel and opposite
97. Which of the following statements forces applied perpendicular to the axis
incorrectly describes the muscle of a structure
architecture a. Tensile loading
a. A muscle with long fibers is able b. Compressive loading
to move the bony lever to which it c. Shear loading
is attached to a greater distance d. Torsional loading
than a muscle with short fibers
b. The amount of force that a 101. Tendon:
muscle produces is directly a. Zone I
related to the number of b. Zone II
sarcomeres aligned side by side c. Zone III
or parallel d. Zone IV
c. The larger the number of fibers
packed into a muscle or greater 102. The bone has the least water
in size, the greater the force content. While the ligaments have the
produced highest water content
d. Long muscle fibers with more a. Only the 1st statement is true
sarcomeres are capable of b. Only the 2nd statement is true
shortening over a greater c. Both statements are true
distance that a short muscle fiber d. Neither statements are true
e. All of these statements are
correct 103. In this region, the deformation of the
material will not be permanent and the
98. The connective tissue covering a structure will return to its original
muscle fiber dimension
a. Epimysium a. Elastic region
b. Endomysium b. Plastic region
c. Perimysium c. Ultimate failure point
d. Sarcolemma d. None of these
e. None of the above
104. If two externally applied forces are
99. The following characteristics describe equal and act in a line toward each
type IIA muscle fibers, except: other
a. Contained in motor units a. Tensile loading
characterized by a high firing b. Compressive loading
frequency c. Shear loading
 d. Torsional loading d. Ulnar head spins

105. Your client is performing ten reps of 110. The exercise that is indicated for
squats while carrying a 10lbs weight on stability
his shoulders. In this exercise, which a. Close kinematic chain
arthrokinematic movement is true for the b. Open kinematic chain
knee joint during extension? c. Both
a. The femoral condyles are d. Neither
rolling posteriorly
b. The femoral condyles are rolling 111. Best position for joint mobilization
anteriorly a. Open-packed
c. The tibial head is rolling b. Closed-packed
posteriorly c. Both
d. The tibial head is rolling anteriorly d. Neither
e. None of these
112. Most abundant protein in the joint
106. The following are synarthroses that is responsible for tensile strength
except and functional integrity
a. Temporomandibular joint a. Collagen
b. Symphysis joint b. Elastin
c. Interosseous membrane c. Both
d. Sutures d. Neither
e. None of these
113. All are examples of diarthrosis joints
107. The following are examples of an except:
open kinematic chain. Except: a. Radioulnar joint
a. Biceps curl b. Carpometacarpal joint
b. Cycling c. Intervertebral joint
c. Typing d. Glenohumeral joint
d. Throwing a ball
e. None of these 114. Most abundant protein
a. Collagen
108. The following joint/s has 3 degrees b. Elastin
of freedom EXCEPT c. Both
a. Plane d. Neither
b. Gliding
c. Ball & socket 115. Your client is performing knee
d. Trochoid extension when kicking the soccer ball
e. None of these during your PT session. You note that
tibia move during this movement, what
109. Your forearm pronates, what would be the correct arthrokinematic
arthrokinematics movement occurs? movement?
a. Radial head spins a. Tibial head rolls and glides
b. Radial head rotations inferiorly anteriorly
c. Ulnar head rotates inferiorly
 b. Femoral condyles roll anteriorly
and slide posteriorly
c. Tibial head rolls and glides
posteriorly
d. Tibial head spins

116. The exercise that is indicated for

mobility
a. Close kinematic chain
b. Open kinematic chain
c. Both
d. Neither

117. In this region, the deformation of the

material will be permanent when the
load is removed
a. Elastic region
b. Plastic region
c. Ultimate failure point
d. None of these

118. The following joint/s can perform

rotation, EXCEPT
a. Radiocarpal joints
b. Glenohumeral joint
c. MCP joint
d. None of these

119. Your client is performing ten reps of

squats while carrying a 10lbs weight on
his shoulders. What type of kinematic
chain is he performing?
a. Open kinematic chain
b. Close kinematic chain
c. Semi-close kinematic chain
d. None of the above

120. Carpal bone that articulates with 4

other bones:
a. Trapezium
b. Scaphoid
c. Capitate
d. Pisiform