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Advanced Papers From 2020 To 2007

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311 views

Advanced Papers From 2020 To 2007

Uploaded by

Lekha Harshaa

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

You are on page 1/ 796

JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.1 A large square container with thin transparent vertical walls and filled with water
4
(refractive index 3) is kept on a horizontal table. A student holds a thin straight wire vertically
inside the water 12 cm from one of its corners, as shown schematically in the figure. Looking at the
wire from this corner, another student sees two images of the wire, located symmetrically on each
side of the line of sight as shown. The separation (in cm) between these images is ____________.

Q.2 A train with cross-sectional area 𝑆𝑡 is moving with speed 𝑣𝑡 inside a long tunnel of cross-sectional
area 𝑆0 (𝑆0 = 4𝑆𝑡 ). Assume that almost all the air (density ) in front of the train flows back between
its sides and the walls of the tunnel. Also, the air flow with respect to the train is steady and laminar.
Take the ambient pressure and that inside the train to be 𝑝0 . If the pressure in the region between the
7
sides of the train and the tunnel walls is 𝑝, then 𝑝0 − 𝑝 = 2𝑁 𝜌𝑣𝑡2 . The value of 𝑁 is ________.

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.3 Two large circular discs separated by a distance of 0.01 m are connected to a battery via a switch as
shown in the figure. Charged oil drops of density 900 kg m−3 are released through a tiny hole at the
center of the top disc. Once some oil drops achieve terminal velocity, the switch is closed to apply a
voltage of 200 V across the discs. As a result, an oil drop of radius 8 × 10−7 m stops moving
vertically and floats between the discs. The number of electrons present in this oil drop is ________.
(neglect the buoyancy force, take acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms−2 and charge on an electron
(e) = 1.6×10–19 C)

Q.4 A hot air balloon is carrying some passengers, and a few sandbags of mass 1 kg each so that its total
mass is 480 kg. Its effective volume giving the balloon its buoyancy is 𝑉. The balloon is floating at
an equilibrium height of 100 m. When 𝑁 number of sandbags are thrown out, the balloon rises to a
new equilibrium height close to 150 m with its volume 𝑉 remaining unchanged. If the variation of
ℎ
−
the density of air with height ℎ from the ground is 𝜌(ℎ) = 𝜌0 𝑒 ℎ0 , where 𝜌0 = 1.25 kg m−3 and
ℎ0 = 6000 m, the value of 𝑁 is _________.

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.5 A point charge q of mass 𝑚 is suspended vertically by a string of length 𝑙. A point dipole of dipole
moment 𝑝⃗ is now brought towards q from infinity so that the charge moves away. The final
equilibrium position of the system including the direction of the dipole, the angles and distances is
shown in the figure below. If the work done in bringing the dipole to this position is 𝑁 × (𝑚𝑔ℎ),
where g is the acceleration due to gravity, then the value of 𝑁 is _________ . (Note that for three
F
coplanar forces keeping a point mass in equilibrium, sin𝜃 is the same for all forces, where 𝐹 is any
one of the forces and 𝜃 is the angle between the other two forces)

Q.6 A thermally isolated cylindrical closed vessel of height 8 m is kept vertically. It is divided into two
equal parts by a diathermic (perfect thermal conductor) frictionless partition of mass 8.3 kg. Thus the
partition is held initially at a distance of 4 m from the top, as shown in the schematic figure below.
Each of the two parts of the vessel contains 0.1 mole of an ideal gas at temperature 300 K. The
partition is now released and moves without any gas leaking from one part of the vessel to the other.
When equilibrium is reached, the distance of the partition from the top (in m) will be _______ (take
the acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms −2 and the universal gas constant = 8.3 J mol−1 K −1).

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.7 4
A beaker of radius 𝑟 is filled with water (refractive index 3) up to a height 𝐻 as shown in the figure
on the left. The beaker is kept on a horizontal table rotating with angular speed 𝜔. This makes the
water surface curved so that the difference in the height of water level at the center and at the
circumference of the beaker is ℎ (ℎ ≪ 𝐻, ℎ ≪ 𝑟), as shown in the figure on the right. Take this
surface to be approximately spherical with a radius of curvature 𝑅. Which of the following is/are
correct? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

ℎ 2 +𝑟 2
(A) 𝑅 =
2ℎ
3𝑟 2
(B) 𝑅 =
2ℎ
−1
3𝐻 𝜔2 𝐻
(C) Apparent depth of the bottom of the beaker is close to 2
(1 + 2𝑔
)
−1
3𝐻 𝜔2 𝐻
(D) Apparent depth of the bottom of the beaker is close to (1 + )
4 4𝑔

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.8 A student skates up a ramp that makes an angle 30° with the horizontal. He/she starts (as shown in
the figure) at the bottom of the ramp with speed 𝑣0 and wants to turn around over a semicircular path
xyz of radius 𝑅 during which he/she reaches a maximum height ℎ (at point y) from the ground as
shown in the figure. Assume that the energy loss is negligible and the force required for this turn at
the highest point is provided by his/her weight only. Then (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

1
(A) 𝑣02 − 2𝑔ℎ = 2 𝑔𝑅
√3
(B) 𝑣02 − 2𝑔ℎ = 2
𝑔𝑅
(C) the centripetal force required at points x and z is zero
(D) the centripetal force required is maximum at points x and z

Q.9 A rod of mass 𝑚 and length 𝐿, pivoted at one of its ends, is hanging vertically. A bullet of the same
mass moving at speed 𝑣 strikes the rod horizontally at a distance 𝑥 from its pivoted end and gets
embedded in it. The combined system now rotates with angular speed 𝜔 about the pivot. The
maximum angular speed 𝜔𝑀 is achieved for 𝑥 = 𝑥𝑀 . Then

3𝑣𝑥 12𝑣𝑥
(A) 𝜔 = (B) 𝜔 =
𝐿2 +3𝑥 2 𝐿2 +12𝑥 2

𝐿 𝑣
(C) 𝑥𝑀 = (D) 𝜔𝑀 = √3
√3 2𝐿

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.10 In an X-ray tube, electrons emitted from a filament (cathode) carrying current I hit a target (anode)
at a distance 𝑑 from the cathode. The target is kept at a potential 𝑉 higher than the cathode resulting
𝐼
in emission of continuous and characteristic X-rays. If the filament current 𝐼 is decreased to , the
2
𝑑
potential difference 𝑉 is increased to 2𝑉, and the separation distance 𝑑 is reduced to , then
2
(A) the cut-off wavelength will reduce to half, and the wavelengths of the characteristic X-rays will
remain the same
(B) the cut-off wavelength as well as the wavelengths of the characteristic X-rays will remain the
same
(C) the cut-off wavelength will reduce to half, and the intensities of all the X-rays will decrease
(D) the cut-off wavelength will become two times larger, and the intensity of all the X-rays will
decrease

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.11 Two identical non-conducting solid spheres of same mass and charge are suspended in air from a
common point by two non-conducting, massless strings of same length. At equilibrium, the angle
between the strings is 𝛼. The spheres are now immersed in a dielectric liquid of density 800 kg m−3
and dielectric constant 21. If the angle between the strings remains the same after the immersion,
then

(A) electric force between the spheres remains unchanged

(B) electric force between the spheres reduces
(C) mass density of the spheres is 840 kg m−3
(D) the tension in the strings holding the spheres remains unchanged

Q.12 Starting at time 𝑡 = 0 from the origin with speed 1 ms−1, a particle follows a two-dimensional
𝑥2
trajectory in the x-y plane so that its coordinates are related by the equation 𝑦 = 2
. The x and y
components of its acceleration are denoted by 𝑎𝑥 and 𝑎y , respectively. Then

(A) 𝑎𝑥 = 1 ms −2 implies that when the particle is at the origin, 𝑎𝑦 = 1 ms−2

(B) 𝑎𝑥 = 0 implies 𝑎𝑦 = 1 ms−2 at all times
(C) at 𝑡 = 0, the particle’s velocity points in the 𝑥-direction
(D) 𝑎𝑥 = 0 implies that at 𝑡 = 1 s, the angle between the particle’s velocity and the 𝑥 axis is 45°

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.13 A spherical bubble inside water has radius 𝑅. Take the pressure inside the bubble and the water
pressure to be 𝑝0 . The bubble now gets compressed radially in an adiabatic manner so that its radius
becomes (𝑅 − 𝑎). For 𝑎 ≪ 𝑅 the magnitude of the work done in the process is given by
(4𝜋𝑝0 𝑅𝑎2 )𝑋, where 𝑋 is a constant and 𝛾 = 𝐶𝑝 ⁄𝐶𝑉 = 41⁄30. The value of 𝑋 is________.

Q.14 In the balanced condition, the values of the resistances of the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge are
shown in the figure below. The resistance 𝑅3 has temperature coefficient 0.0004 ℃−1 . If the
temperature of 𝑅3 is increased by 100 ℃, the voltage developed between 𝑆 and 𝑇 will be __________
volt.

Q.15 Two capacitors with capacitance values 𝐶1 = 2000 ± 10 pF and 𝐶2 = 3000 ± 15 pF are
connected in series. The voltage applied across this combination is 𝑉 = 5.00 ± 0.02 V. The
percentage error in the calculation of the energy stored in this combination of capacitors is _______.

Q.16 𝑑𝑃
A cubical solid aluminium (bulk modulus = −𝑉 𝑑𝑉 = 70 GPa) block has an edge length of 1 m on
the surface of the earth. It is kept on the floor of a 5 km deep ocean. Taking the average density of
water and the acceleration due to gravity to be 103 kg m−3 and 10 ms−2, respectively, the change in
the edge length of the block in mm is _____.

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.17 The inductors of two 𝐿𝑅 circuits are placed next to each other, as shown in the figure. The values of
the self-inductance of the inductors, resistances, mutual-inductance and applied voltages are specified
in the given circuit. After both the switches are closed simultaneously, the total work done by the
batteries against the induced 𝐸𝑀𝐹 in the inductors by the time the currents reach their steady state
values is________ mJ.

Q.18 A container with 1 kg of water in it is kept in sunlight, which causes the water to get warmer than the
surroundings. The average energy per unit time per unit area received due to the sunlight is
700 Wm−2 and it is absorbed by the water over an effective area of 0.05 m2. Assuming that the heat
loss from the water to the surroundings is governed by Newton’s law of cooling, the difference (in ℃)
in the temperature of water and the surroundings after a long time will be _____________. (Ignore
effect of the container, and take constant for Newton’s law of cooling = 0.001 s −1, Heat capacity
of water = 4200 J kg −1 K −1 )

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.1 The 1st, 2nd, and the 3rd ionization enthalpies, 𝐼1 , 𝐼2 , and 𝐼3 , of four atoms with atomic numbers 𝑛, 𝑛 +
1, 𝑛 + 2, and 𝑛 + 3 , where 𝑛 < 10, are tabulated below. What is the value of 𝑛?

Atomic Ionization Enthalpy (kJ/mol)

number 𝐼1 𝐼2 𝐼3
𝑛 1681 3374 6050
𝑛+1 2081 3952 6122
𝑛+2 496 4562 6910
𝑛+3 738 1451 7733

Q.2 Consider the following compounds in the liquid form:

O2, HF, H2O, NH3, H2O2, CCl4, CHCl3, C6H6, C6H5Cl.

When a charged comb is brought near their flowing stream, how many of them show deflection as
per the following figure?

Q.3 In the chemical reaction between stoichiometric quantities of KMnO4 and KI in weakly basic solution,
what is the number of moles of I2 released for 4 moles of KMnO4 consumed?

Q.4 An acidified solution of potassium chromate was layered with an equal volume of amyl alcohol.
When it was shaken after the addition of 1 mL of 3% H2O2, a blue alcohol layer was obtained. The
blue color is due to the formation of a chromium (VI) compound ‘X’. What is the number of oxygen
atoms bonded to chromium through only single bonds in a molecule of X?

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.5 The structure of a peptide is given below.

If the absolute values of the net charge of the peptide at pH = 2, pH = 6, and pH = 11 are |𝑧1 |, |𝑧2 |,
and |𝑧3 |, respectively, then what is |𝑧1 | + |𝑧2 | + |𝑧3 |?

Q.6 An organic compound (C8H10O2) rotates plane-polarized light. It produces pink color with neutral
FeCl3 solution. What is the total number of all the possible isomers for this compound?

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.7 In an experiment, 𝑚 grams of a compound X (gas/liquid/solid) taken in a container is loaded in a

balance as shown in figure I below. In the presence of a magnetic field, the pan with X is either
deflected upwards (figure II), or deflected downwards (figure III), depending on the compound X.
Identify the correct statement(s).

(A) If X is H2O(l), deflection of the pan is upwards.

(B) If X is K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ](𝑠), deflection of the pan is upwards.
(C) If X is O2 (𝑔), deflection of the pan is downwards.
(D) If X is C6H6(l), deflection of the pan is downwards.

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.8 Which of the following plots is(are) correct for the given reaction?
([P]0 is the initial concentration of P)

(A) (B)

Q.9 Which among the following statement(s) is(are) true for the extraction of aluminium from bauxite?
(A) Hydrated Al2 O3 precipitates, when CO2 is bubbled through a solution of sodium aluminate.
(B) Addition of Na3 AlF6 lowers the melting point of alumina.
(C) CO2 is evolved at the anode during electrolysis.
(D) The cathode is a steel vessel with a lining of carbon.

Q.10 Choose the correct statement(s) among the following.

(A) SnCl2 2H2 O is a reducing agent.
(B) SnO2 reacts with KOH to form K 2 [Sn(OH)6 ].
(C) A solution of PbCl2 in HCl contains Pb2+ and Cl− ions.
(D) The reaction of Pb3 O4 with hot dilute nitric acid to give PbO2 is a redox reaction.

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.11 Consider the following four compounds I, II, III, and IV.

Choose the correct statement(s).

(A) The order of basicity is II > I > III > IV.
(B) The magnitude of pKb difference between I and II is more than that between III and IV.
(C) Resonance effect is more in III than in IV.
(D) Steric effect makes compound IV more basic than III.

Q.12 Consider the following transformations of a compound P.

Choose the correct option(s).

(A) P is (B) X is

Pd-C/quinoline/H2

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.13 A solution of 0.1 M weak base (B) is titrated with 0.1 M of a strong acid (HA). The variation of pH
of the solution with the volume of HA added is shown in the figure below. What is the p𝐾b of the
base? The neutralization reaction is given by B + HA → BH + + A− .

Q.14 Liquids A and B form ideal solution for all compositions of A and B at 25 ℃. Two such solutions
with 0.25 and 0.50 mole fractions of A have the total vapor pressures of 0.3 and 0.4 bar, respectively.
What is the vapor pressure of pure liquid B in bar?

Q.15 The figure below is the plot of potential energy versus internuclear distance (𝑑) of H2 molecule in
the electronic ground state. What is the value of the net potential energy 𝐸0 (as indicated in the figure)
in kJ mol−1, for 𝑑 = 𝑑0 at which the electron-electron repulsion and the nucleus-nucleus repulsion
energies are absent? As reference, the potential energy of H atom is taken as zero when its electron
and the nucleus are infinitely far apart.
Use Avogadro constant as 6.023 × 1023 mol−1 .

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.16 Consider the reaction sequence from P to Q shown below. The overall yield of the major product Q
from P is 75%. What is the amount in grams of Q obtained from 9.3 mL of P? (Use density of P =
1.00 g mL−1; Molar mass of C = 12.0, H =1.0, O =16.0 and N = 14.0 g mol−1)

Q.17 Tin is obtained from cassiterite by reduction with coke. Use the data given below to determine the
minimum temperature (in K) at which the reduction of cassiterite by coke would take place.
At 298 K: ∆𝑓 𝐻 0 (SnO2 (𝑠)) = −581.0 kJ mol−1 , ∆𝑓 𝐻 0(CO2(g)) = −394.0 kJ mol−1,
𝑆 0 (SnO2(s)) = 56.0 J K −1 mol−1, 𝑆 0 (Sn(s)) = 52.0 J K −1 mol−1,
𝑆 0 (C(𝑠)) = 6.0 J K −1 mol−1, 𝑆 0 (CO2 (g)) = 210.0 J K −1 mol−1.
Assume that the enthalpies and the entropies are temperature independent.

Q.18 An acidified solution of 0.05 M Zn2+ is saturated with 0.1 M H2S. What is the minimum molar
concentration (M) of H + required to prevent the precipitation of ZnS?
Use 𝐾sp (ZnS) = 1.25 × 10−22 and
overall dissociation constant of H2 S, 𝐾NET = 𝐾1 𝐾2 = 1 × 10−21 .

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.1 For a complex number 𝑧, let Re(𝑧) denote the real part of 𝑧. Let 𝑆 be the set of all complex
numbers 𝑧 satisfying 𝑧 4 − |𝑧|4 = 4 𝑖 𝑧 2 , where 𝑖 = √−1 . Then the minimum possible value of
|𝑧1 − 𝑧2 |2, where 𝑧1 , 𝑧2 ∈ 𝑆 with Re(𝑧1 ) > 0 and Re(𝑧2 ) < 0, is _____

Q.2 The probability that a missile hits a target successfully is 0.75. In order to destroy the target
completely, at least three successful hits are required. Then the minimum number of missiles that
have to be fired so that the probability of completely destroying the target is NOT less than 0.95, is
_____

Q.3 √5
Let 𝑂 be the centre of the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑟 2 , where 𝑟 > 2 . Suppose 𝑃𝑄 is a chord of this circle
and the equation of the line passing through 𝑃 and 𝑄 is 2𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 5. If the centre of the
circumcircle of the triangle 𝑂𝑃𝑄 lies on the line 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 4, then the value of 𝑟 is _____

Q.4 The trace of a square matrix is defined to be the sum of its diagonal entries. If 𝐴 is a 2 × 2 matrix
such that the trace of 𝐴 is 3 and the trace of 𝐴3 is −18, then the value of the determinant of 𝐴 is
_____

Q.5 Let the functions 𝑓: (−1, 1) → ℝ and 𝑔: (−1, 1) → (−1, 1) be defined by

𝑓(𝑥) = |2𝑥 − 1| + |2𝑥 + 1| and 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑥 − [𝑥],

where [𝑥] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to 𝑥. Let 𝑓 ∘ 𝑔: (−1, 1) → ℝ be the
composite function defined by (𝑓 ∘ 𝑔)(𝑥) = 𝑓(𝑔(𝑥)). Suppose 𝑐 is the number of points in the
interval (−1, 1) at which 𝑓 ∘ 𝑔 is NOT continuous, and suppose 𝑑 is the number of points in the
interval (−1, 1) at which 𝑓 ∘ 𝑔 is NOT differentiable. Then the value of 𝑐 + 𝑑 is _____

Q.6 The value of the limit

4√2(sin 3𝑥 + sin 𝑥)
lim𝜋 3𝑥 5𝑥 3𝑥
𝑥→
2 (2 sin 2𝑥 sin + cos ) − (√2 + √2 cos 2𝑥 + cos )
2 2 2

is _____

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.7 Let 𝑏 be a nonzero real number. Suppose 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ is a differentiable function such that 𝑓(0) = 1.
If the derivative 𝑓 ′ of 𝑓 satisfies the equation

𝑓(𝑥)
𝑓 ′ (𝑥) =
𝑏2+ 𝑥2

for all 𝑥 ∈ ℝ, then which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

(A) If 𝑏 > 0, then 𝑓 is an increasing function

(B) If 𝑏 < 0, then 𝑓 is a decreasing function

(C) 𝑓(𝑥)𝑓(−𝑥) = 1 for all 𝑥 ∈ ℝ

(D) 𝑓(𝑥) − 𝑓(−𝑥) = 0 for all 𝑥 ∈ ℝ

Q.8 Let 𝑎 and 𝑏 be positive real numbers such that 𝑎 > 1 and 𝑏 < 𝑎. Let 𝑃 be a point in the first
𝑥2 𝑦2
quadrant that lies on the hyperbola 2 − 2 = 1. Suppose the tangent to the hyperbola at 𝑃 passes
𝑎 𝑏
through the point (1, 0), and suppose the normal to the hyperbola at 𝑃 cuts off equal intercepts on
the coordinate axes. Let ∆ denote the area of the triangle formed by the tangent at 𝑃, the normal at 𝑃
and the 𝑥-axis. If 𝑒 denotes the eccentricity of the hyperbola, then which of the following statements
is/are TRUE?

(A) 1 < 𝑒 < √2 (B) √2 < 𝑒 < 2 (C) ∆= 𝑎4 (D) ∆= 𝑏 4

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.9 Let 𝒇: ℝ → ℝ and 𝒈: ℝ → ℝ be functions satisfying

𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑦) = 𝑓(𝑥) + 𝑓(𝑦) + 𝑓(𝑥)𝑓(𝑦) and 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥𝑔(𝑥)

for all 𝑥, 𝑦 ∈ ℝ. If lim 𝑔(𝑥) = 1, then which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
𝑥→0

(A) 𝑓 is differentiable at every 𝑥 ∈ ℝ

(B) If 𝑔(0) = 1, then 𝑔 is differentiable at every 𝑥 ∈ ℝ

(C) The derivative 𝑓 ′ (1) is equal to 1

(D) The derivative 𝑓 ′ (0) is equal to 1

Q.10 Let 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾, 𝛿 be real numbers such that 𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 + 𝛾 2 ≠ 0 and 𝛼 + 𝛾 = 1. Suppose the point
(3, 2, −1) is the mirror image of the point (1, 0, −1) with respect to the plane 𝛼𝑥 + 𝛽𝑦 + 𝛾𝑧 = 𝛿.
Then which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

(A) 𝛼 + 𝛽 = 2 (B) 𝛿 − 𝛾 = 3

Q.11 Let 𝑎 and 𝑏 be positive real numbers. Suppose 𝑃𝑄 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑎𝑖̇̂ + 𝑏𝑗̇̂ and 𝑃𝑆
⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑎𝑖̇̂ − 𝑏𝑗̇̂ are adjacent sides
of a parallelogram 𝑃𝑄𝑅𝑆. Let 𝑢 ⃗ and 𝑣 be the projection vectors of 𝑤 ⃗⃗ = 𝑖̇̂ + 𝑗̇̂ along 𝑃𝑄
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ and 𝑃𝑆
⃗⃗⃗⃗ ,
respectively. If |𝑢
⃗ | + |𝑣 | = |𝑤
⃗⃗ | and if the area of the parallelogram 𝑃𝑄𝑅𝑆 is 8, then which of the
following statements is/are TRUE?

(A) 𝑎 + 𝑏 = 4

(B) 𝑎 − 𝑏 = 2

(C) The length of the diagonal 𝑃𝑅 of the parallelogram 𝑃𝑄𝑅𝑆 is 4

(D) 𝑤 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ and 𝑃𝑆

⃗⃗ is an angle bisector of the vectors 𝑃𝑄 ⃗⃗⃗⃗

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.12 For nonnegative integers 𝑠 and 𝑟, let

𝑠!
𝑠 if 𝑟 ≤ 𝑠,
( ) = { 𝑟! (𝑠 − 𝑟)!
𝑟
0 if 𝑟 > 𝑠.

For positive integers 𝑚 and 𝑛, let

𝑚+𝑛
𝑓(𝑚, 𝑛, 𝑝)
𝑔(𝑚, 𝑛) = ∑ 𝑛+𝑝
𝑝=0 ( 𝑝 )

where for any nonnegative integer 𝑝,

𝑝
𝑚 𝑛+𝑖 𝑝+𝑛
𝑓(𝑚, 𝑛, 𝑝) = ∑ ( ) ( ) (𝑝 − 𝑖 ).
𝑖 𝑝
𝑖=0

Then which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

(A) 𝑔(𝑚, 𝑛) = 𝑔(𝑛, 𝑚) for all positive integers 𝑚, 𝑛

(B) 𝑔(𝑚, 𝑛 + 1) = 𝑔(𝑚 + 1, 𝑛) for all positive integers 𝑚, 𝑛

(C) 𝑔(2𝑚, 2𝑛) = 2 𝑔(𝑚, 𝑛) for all positive integers 𝑚, 𝑛

(D) 𝑔(2𝑚, 2𝑛) = (𝑔(𝑚, 𝑛))2 for all positive integers 𝑚, 𝑛

4/6
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.13 An engineer is required to visit a factory for exactly four days during the first 15 days of every
month and it is mandatory that no two visits take place on consecutive days. Then the number of all
possible ways in which such visits to the factory can be made by the engineer during 1-15 June
2021 is _____

Q.14 In a hotel, four rooms are available. Six persons are to be accommodated in these four rooms in
such a way that each of these rooms contains at least one person and at most two persons. Then the
number of all possible ways in which this can be done is _____

Q.15 Two fair dice, each with faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, are rolled together and the sum of the
numbers on the faces is observed. This process is repeated till the sum is either a prime number or a
perfect square. Suppose the sum turns out to be a perfect square before it turns out to be a prime
number. If 𝑝 is the probability that this perfect square is an odd number, then the value of 14𝑝 is
_____

Q.16 Let the function 𝑓: [0, 1] → ℝ be defined by

4𝑥
𝑓(𝑥) = .
4𝑥 + 2
Then the value of

1 2 3 39 1
𝑓( )+ 𝑓( ) +𝑓( )+ ⋯+ 𝑓( ) −𝑓( )
40 40 40 40 2

is _____

Q.17 Let 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be a differentiable function such that its derivative 𝑓 ′ is continuous and 𝑓(𝜋) = −6.
𝑥
If 𝐹: [0, 𝜋] → ℝ is defined by 𝐹(𝑥) = ∫0 𝑓(𝑡)𝑑𝑡, and if

∫( 𝑓 ′ (𝑥) + 𝐹(𝑥)) cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 2,

then the value of 𝑓(0) is _____

5/6
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 2

Q.18 Let the function 𝑓: (0, 𝜋) → ℝ be defined by

𝑓(𝜃) = (sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃)2 + (sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃)4 .

Suppose the function 𝑓 has a local minimum at 𝜃 precisely when 𝜃 ∈ {𝜆1 𝜋, … , 𝜆𝑟 𝜋}, where 0 <
𝜆1 < ⋯ < 𝜆𝑟 < 1. Then the value of 𝜆1 + ⋯ + 𝜆𝑟 is _____

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

6/6
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.1 A football of radius R is kept on a hole of radius r (𝑟 < 𝑅) made on a plank kept horizontally. One
end of the plank is now lifted so that it gets tilted making an angle 𝜃 from the horizontal as shown in
the figure below. The maximum value of 𝜃 so that the football does not start rolling down the plank
satisfies (figure is schematic and not drawn to scale)

𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 𝑟
(A) sin𝜃 = (B) tan𝜃 = (C) sin𝜃 = (D) cos𝜃 =
𝑅 𝑅 2𝑅 2𝑅

Q.2 A light disc made of aluminium (a nonmagnetic material) is kept horizontally and is free to rotate
about its axis as shown in the figure. A strong magnet is held vertically at a point above the disc away
from its axis. On revolving the magnet about the axis of the disc, the disc will (figure is schematic
and not drawn to scale)

(A) rotate in the direction opposite to the direction of magnet’s motion

(B) rotate in the same direction as the direction of magnet’s motion
(C) not rotate and its temperature will remain unchanged
(D) not rotate but its temperature will slowly rise

1/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.3 A small roller of diameter 20 cm has an axle of diameter 10 cm (see figure below on the left). It is
on a horizontal floor and a meter scale is positioned horizontally on its axle with one edge of the scale
on top of the axle (see figure on the right). The scale is now pushed slowly on the axle so that it
moves without slipping on the axle, and the roller starts rolling without slipping. After the roller has
moved 50 cm, the position of the scale will look like (figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)

(A) (B)

2/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.4 A circular coil of radius R and N turns has negligible resistance. As shown in the schematic figure,
its two ends are connected to two wires and it is hanging by those wires with its plane being vertical.
The wires are connected to a capacitor with charge Q through a switch. The coil is in a horizontal
uniform magnetic field Bo parallel to the plane of the coil. When the switch is closed, the capacitor
gets discharged through the coil in a very short time. By the time the capacitor is discharged fully,
magnitude of the angular momentum gained by the coil will be (assume that the discharge time is so
short that the coil has hardly rotated during this time)

𝜋
(A) 2 𝑁𝑄𝐵𝑜 𝑅 2 (B) 𝜋𝑁𝑄𝐵𝑜 𝑅 2 (C) 2𝜋𝑁𝑄𝐵𝑜 𝑅 2 (D) 4𝜋𝑁𝑄𝐵𝑜 𝑅 2

3/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.5 A parallel beam of light strikes a piece of transparent glass having cross section as shown in the figure
below. Correct shape of the emergent wavefront will be (figures are schematic and not drawn to
scale)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.6 An open-ended U-tube of uniform cross-sectional area contains water (density 103 kg m−3 ). Initially the
water level stands at 0.29 m from the bottom in each arm. Kerosene oil (a water-immiscible liquid) of
density 800 kg m−3 is added to the left arm until its length is 0.1 m, as shown in the schematic figure
ℎ
below. The ratio ( 1 ) of the heights of the liquid in the two arms is
ℎ2

15 35 7 5
(A) (B) (C) 6
(D)
14 33 4

4/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.7 A particle of mass m moves in circular orbits with potential energy 𝑉(𝑟) = 𝐹𝑟, where F is a positive
constant and r is its distance from the origin. Its energies are calculated using the Bohr model. If the
radius of the particle’s orbit is denoted by R and its speed and energy are denoted by v and E,
respectively, then for the nth orbit (here h is the Planck’s constant)

(A) 𝑅 ∝ 𝑛1⁄3 and v ∝ 𝑛2⁄3 (B) 𝑅 ∝ 𝑛2⁄3 and v ∝ 𝑛1⁄3

1⁄3 1⁄3
3 𝑛 2 ℎ 2 𝐹2 𝑛2 ℎ 2 𝐹 2
(C) 𝐸 = 2 ( 4𝜋2 𝑚 ) (D) 𝐸 = 2 ( 4𝜋2 𝑚 )

Q.8 The filament of a light bulb has surface area 64 mm2 . The filament can be considered as a black
body at temperature 2500 K emitting radiation like a point source when viewed from far. At night
the light bulb is observed from a distance of 100 m. Assume the pupil of the eyes of the observer to
be circular with radius 3 mm. Then
(Take Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10−8 Wm−2 K −4 , Wien’s displacement constant =
2.90 × 10−3 m-K, Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 Js, speed of light in vacuum = 3.00 ×
108 ms −1 )
(A) power radiated by the filament is in the range 642 W to 645 W
(B) radiated power entering into one eye of the observer is in the range 3.15 × 10−8 W to
3.25 × 10−8 W
(C) the wavelength corresponding to the maximum intensity of light is 1160 nm
(D) taking the average wavelength of emitted radiation to be 1740 nm, the total number of photons
entering per second into one eye of the observer is in the range 2.75 × 1011 to 2.85 × 1011

5/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.9 Sometimes it is convenient to construct a system of units so that all quantities can be expressed in
terms of only one physical quantity. In one such system, dimensions of different quantities are given
in terms of a quantity X as follows: [position] = [𝑋 𝛼 ]; [speed] = [𝑋𝛽 ]; [acceleration] =[𝑋 𝑝 ]; [linear
momentum] = [𝑋 𝑞 ]; [force] = [𝑋 𝑟 ]. Then

(A) 𝛼 + 𝑝 = 2𝛽 (B) 𝑝 + 𝑞 − 𝑟 = 𝛽
(C) 𝑝 − 𝑞 + 𝑟 = 𝛼 (D) 𝑝 + 𝑞 + 𝑟 = 𝛽

Q.10 A uniform electric field, 𝐸⃗ = −400√3ŷ NC −1 is applied in a region. A charged particle of mass m
carrying positive charge q is projected in this region with an initial speed of 2√10 × 106 ms−1. This
particle is aimed to hit a target T, which is 5 m away from its entry point into the field as shown
𝑞
schematically in the figure. Take 𝑚 = 1010 Ckg −1. Then

(A) the particle will hit T if projected at an angle 45o from the horizontal
(B) the particle will hit T if projected either at an angle 30o or 60o from the horizontal
5 5
(C) time taken by the particle to hit T could be √6 μs as well as √2 μs

5
(D) time taken by the particle to hit T is √ μs
3

6/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.11 Shown in the figure is a semicircular metallic strip that has thickness t and resistivity  . Its inner
radius is R1 and outer radius is R2. If a voltage V0 is applied between its two ends, a current I flows
in it. In addition, it is observed that a transverse voltage ∆𝑉 develops between its inner and outer
surfaces due to purely kinetic effects of moving electrons (ignore any role of the magnetic field due
to the current). Then (figure is schematic and not drawn to scale)

𝑉0 𝑡 𝑅
(A) 𝐼 = ln ( 2)
𝜋𝜌 𝑅1

(B) the outer surface is at a higher voltage than the inner surface
(C) the outer surface is at a lower voltage than the inner surface
(D) ∆𝑉 ∝ 𝐼 2

7/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.12 As shown schematically in the figure, two vessels contain water solutions (at temperature 𝑇) of
potassium permanganate (KMnO4) of different concentrations 𝑛1 and 𝑛2 (𝑛1 > 𝑛2 ) molecules per
unit volume with ∆𝑛 = (𝑛1 − 𝑛2 ) ≪ 𝑛1 . When they are connected by a tube of small length 𝑙 and
cross-sectional area S, KMnO4 starts to diffuse from the left to the right vessel through the tube.
Consider the collection of molecules to behave as dilute ideal gases and the difference in their partial
pressure in the two vessels causing the diffusion. The speed 𝑣 of the molecules is limited by the
viscous force −𝛽𝑣 on each molecule, where 𝛽 is a constant. Neglecting all terms of the order (∆𝑛)2 ,
which of the following is/are correct? (𝑘𝐵 is the Boltzmann constant)

(A) the force causing the molecules to move across the tube is ∆𝑛𝑘𝐵 𝑇𝑆
(B) force balance implies 𝑛1 𝛽𝑣𝑙 = ∆𝑛𝑘𝐵 𝑇
∆𝑛 𝑘𝐵 𝑇
(C) total number of molecules going across the tube per sec is ( 𝑙 ) ( 𝛽
)𝑆

(D) rate of molecules getting transferred through the tube does not change with time

8/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.13 Put a uniform meter scale horizontally on your extended index fingers with the left one at 0.00 cm
and the right one at 90.00 cm. When you attempt to move both the fingers slowly towards the center,
initially only the left finger slips with respect to the scale and the right finger does not. After some
distance, the left finger stops and the right one starts slipping. Then the right finger stops at a distance
𝑥𝑅 from the center (50.00 cm) of the scale and the left one starts slipping again. This happens
because of the difference in the frictional forces on the two fingers. If the coefficients of static and
dynamic friction between the fingers and the scale are 0.40 and 0.32, respectively, the value of 𝑥𝑅 (in
cm) is ______.

Q.14 When water is filled carefully in a glass, one can fill it to a height h above the rim of the glass due to
the surface tension of water. To calculate h just before water starts flowing, model the shape of the
water above the rim as a disc of thickness h having semicircular edges, as shown schematically in the
figure. When the pressure of water at the bottom of this disc exceeds what can be withstood due to
the surface tension, the water surface breaks near the rim and water starts flowing from there. If the
density of water, its surface tension and the acceleration due to gravity are 103 kg m−3 , 0.07 Nm−1
and 10 ms −2, respectively, the value of h (in mm) is _________.

9/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.15 One end of a spring of negligible unstretched length and spring constant k is fixed at the origin (0,0).
A point particle of mass m carrying a positive charge q is attached at its other end. The entire system
is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. When a point dipole 𝑝 pointing towards the charge q is fixed
at the origin, the spring gets stretched to a length l and attains a new equilibrium position (see figure
below). If the point mass is now displaced slightly by ∆𝑙 ≪ 𝑙 from its equilibrium position and
1 𝑘
released, it is found to oscillate at frequency 𝛿 √𝑚. The value of 𝛿 is ______.

Q.16 Consider one mole of helium gas enclosed in a container at initial pressure 𝑃1 and volume 𝑉1. It
expands isothermally to volume 4𝑉1 . After this, the gas expands adiabatically and its volume becomes
32𝑉1. The work done by the gas during isothermal and adiabatic expansion processes are 𝑊𝑖𝑠𝑜 and
𝑊
𝑊𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑎 , respectively. If the ratio 𝑖𝑠𝑜 = 𝑓 ln2, then 𝑓 is ________.
𝑊𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑎

Q.17 A stationary tuning fork is in resonance with an air column in a pipe. If the tuning fork is moved with
a speed of 2 ms−1 in front of the open end of the pipe and parallel to it, the length of the pipe should
be changed for the resonance to occur with the moving tuning fork. If the speed of sound in air is
320 ms−1, the smallest value of the percentage change required in the length of the pipe is
____________.

10/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.18 𝑟
A circular disc of radius 𝑅 carries surface charge density 𝜎(𝑟) = 𝜎0 (1 − ), where 𝜎0 is a constant
𝑅
and 𝑟 is the distance from the center of the disc. Electric flux through a large spherical surface that
encloses the charged disc completely is 𝜙0 . Electric flux through another spherical surface of radius
𝑅 𝜙0
and concentric with the disc is 𝜙. Then the ratio 𝜙
is_________.
4

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

11/11
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.1 If the distribution of molecular speeds of a gas is as per the figure shown below, then the ratio of the
most probable, the average, and the root mean square speeds, respectively, is

(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 : 1.224

Q.2 Which of the following liberates O2 upon hydrolysis?

(A) Pb3O4 (B) KO2 (C) Na2O2 (D) Li2O2

Q.3 A colorless aqueous solution contains nitrates of two metals, X and Y. When it was added to an
aqueous solution of NaCl, a white precipitate was formed. This precipitate was found to be partly
soluble in hot water to give a residue P and a solution Q. The residue P was soluble in aq. NH3 and
also in excess sodium thiosulfate. The hot solution Q gave a yellow precipitate with KI. The metals
X and Y, respectively, are
(A) Ag and Pb (B) Ag and Cd
(C) Cd and Pb (D) Cd and Zn

1/8
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.4 Newman projections P, Q, R and S are shown below:

Which one of the following options represents identical molecules?

(A) P and Q (B) Q and S
(C) Q and R (D) R and S

Q.5 Which one of the following structures has the IUPAC name
3-ethynyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid?
(A) (B)

2/8
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.6 The Fischer projection of D-erythrose is shown below.

D-Erythrose and its isomers are listed as P, Q, R, and S in Column-I. Choose the correct
relationship of P, Q, R, and S with D-erythrose from Column II.

(A) P2, Q3, R2, S2 (B) P3, Q1, R1, S2
(C) P2, Q1, R1, S3 (D) P2, Q3, R3, S1

3/8
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.7 In thermodynamics, the 𝑃 − 𝑉 work done is given by

𝑤 = − ∫ 𝑑𝑉 𝑃ext .
For a system undergoing a particular process, the work done is,
𝑅𝑇 𝑎
𝑤 = − ∫ 𝑑𝑉 ( − 2) .
𝑉−𝑏 𝑉
This equation is applicable to a
(A) system that satisfies the van der Waals equation of state.
(B) process that is reversible and isothermal.
(C) process that is reversible and adiabatic.
(D) process that is irreversible and at constant pressure.

Q.8 With respect to the compounds I-V, choose the correct statement(s).

(A) The acidity of compound I is due to delocalization in the conjugate base.

(B) The conjugate base of compound IV is aromatic.
(C) Compound II becomes more acidic, when it has a -NO2 substituent.
(D) The acidity of compounds follows the order I > IV > V > II > III.

4/8
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.9 In the reaction scheme shown below, Q, R, and S are the major products.

The correct structure of

(A) S is (B) Q is

5/8
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.10 Choose the correct statement(s) among the following:

(A) [FeCl4 ]− has tetrahedral geometry.
(B) [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl2 ]+ has 2 geometrical isomers.
(C) [FeCl4 ]− has higher spin-only magnetic moment than [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl2 ]+.

(D) The cobalt ion in [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl2 ]+ has s𝑝3 𝑑2 hybridization.

Q.11 With respect to hypochlorite, chlorate and perchlorate ions, choose the correct statement(s).
(A) The hypochlorite ion is the strongest conjugate base.

(B) The molecular shape of only chlorate ion is influenced by the lone pair of electrons of Cl.

(C) The hypochlorite and chlorate ions disproportionate to give rise to identical set of ions.
(D) The hypochlorite ion oxidizes the sulfite ion.

Q.12 The cubic unit cell structure of a compound containing cation M and anion X is shown below. When
compared to the anion, the cation has smaller ionic radius. Choose the correct statement(s).

(A) The empirical formula of the compound is MX.

(B) The cation M and anion X have different coordination geometries.
(C) The ratio of M-X bond length to the cubic unit cell edge length is 0.866.
(D) The ratio of the ionic radii of cation M to anion X is 0.414.

6/8
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.13 5.00 mL of 0.10 M oxalic acid solution taken in a conical flask is titrated against NaOH from a burette
using phenolphthalein indicator. The volume of NaOH required for the appearance of permanent faint
pink color is tabulated below for five experiments. What is the concentration, in molarity, of the
NaOH solution?

Exp. No. Vol. of NaOH (mL)

1 12.5

2 10.5

3 9.0

4 9.0

5 9.0

Q.14 Consider the reaction A ⇌ B at 1000 K. At time 𝑡’, the temperature of the system was increased to
2000 K and the system was allowed to reach equilibrium. Throughout this experiment the partial
pressure of A was maintained at 1 bar. Given below is the plot of the partial pressure of B with time.
What is the ratio of the standard Gibbs energy of the reaction at 1000 K to that at 2000 K?

7/8
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.15 Consider a 70% efficient hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell working under standard conditions at 1 bar and
298 K. Its cell reaction is
1
H2 (𝑔) + O2 (𝑔) → H2 O (𝑙) .
2

The work derived from the cell on the consumption of 1.0 × 10−3 mol of H2 (𝑔) is used to compress
1.00 mol of a monoatomic ideal gas in a thermally insulated container. What is the change in the
temperature (in K) of the ideal gas?

The standard reduction potentials for the two half-cells are given below.

O2 (𝑔) + 4H + (𝑎𝑞) + 4𝑒 − → 2 H2 O (𝑙), 𝐸 0 = 1.23 V,

2H + (𝑎𝑞) + 2𝑒 − → H2 (𝑔), 𝐸 0 = 0.00 V .

Use 𝐹 = 96500 C mol−1 , 𝑅 = 8.314 J mol−1 K −1 .

Q.16 Aluminium reacts with sulfuric acid to form aluminium sulfate and hydrogen. What is the volume of
hydrogen gas in liters (L) produced at 300 K and 1.0 atm pressure, when 5.4 g of aluminium and
50.0 mL of 5.0 M sulfuric acid are combined for the reaction?
(Use molar mass of aluminium as 27.0 g mol−1, 𝑅 = 0.082 atm L mol−1 K −1)

238
Q.17 92U is known to undergo radioactive decay to form 206
82Pb by emitting alpha and beta particles. A
−6 238
rock initially contained 68 × 10 g of 92U. If the number of alpha particles that it would emit
during its radioactive decay of 238 206 18
92U to 82Pb in three half-lives is 𝑍 × 10 , then what is the value
of 𝑍?

Q.18 In the following reaction, compound Q is obtained from compound P via an ionic intermediate.

What is the degree of unsaturation of Q?

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

8/8
JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.1 Suppose 𝑎, 𝑏 denote the distinct real roots of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 + 20𝑥 − 2020 and
suppose 𝑐, 𝑑 denote the distinct complex roots of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 − 20𝑥 + 2020.
Then the value of

𝑎𝑐(𝑎 − 𝑐) + 𝑎𝑑(𝑎 − 𝑑) + 𝑏𝑐(𝑏 − 𝑐) + 𝑏𝑑(𝑏 − 𝑑)

(A) 0 (B) 8000 (C) 8080 (D) 16000

Q.2 If the function 𝑓: ℝ ⟶ ℝ is defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥|(𝑥 − sin 𝑥), then which of the following
statements is TRUE?

(A) 𝑓 is one-one, but NOT onto

(B) 𝑓 is onto, but NOT one-one

(C) 𝑓 is BOTH one-one and onto

(D) 𝑓 is NEITHER one-one NOR onto

Q.3 Let the functions 𝑓: ℝ ⟶ ℝ and 𝑔: ℝ ⟶ ℝ be defined by

1 𝑥−1
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑒 𝑥−1 − 𝑒 −|𝑥−1| and 𝑔(𝑥) = (𝑒 + 𝑒 1−𝑥 ).
2

Then the area of the region in the first quadrant bounded by the curves 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥), 𝑦 = 𝑔(𝑥) and
𝑥 = 0 is

1 1
(A) (2 − √3) + 2 (𝑒 − 𝑒 −1 ) (B) (2 + √3) + 2 (𝑒 − 𝑒 −1 )

1 1
(C) (2 − √3) + 2 (𝑒 + 𝑒 −1 ) (D) (2 + √3) + 2 (𝑒 + 𝑒 −1 )

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.4 Let 𝑎, 𝑏 and 𝜆 be positive real numbers. Suppose 𝑃 is an end point of the latus rectum of the
𝑥2 𝑦2
parabola 𝑦 2 = 4𝜆𝑥, and suppose the ellipse 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 = 1 passes through the point 𝑃. If the tangents
to the parabola and the ellipse at the point 𝑃 are perpendicular to each other, then the eccentricity
of the ellipse is

1 1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
√2 2 3 5

Q.5 2
Let 𝐶1 and 𝐶2 be two biased coins such that the probabilities of getting head in a single toss are 3
1
and 3 , respectively. Suppose 𝛼 is the number of heads that appear when 𝐶1 is tossed twice,
independently, and suppose 𝛽 is the number of heads that appear when 𝐶2 is tossed twice,
independently. Then the probability that the roots of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 − 𝛼𝑥 + 𝛽 are
real and equal, is

40 20 1 1
(A) (B) (C) 2
(D) 4
81 81

Q.6 Consider all rectangles lying in the region

𝜋
{(𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ ℝ × ℝ ∶ 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ and 0 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 2 sin(2𝑥)}
2

and having one side on the 𝑥-axis. The area of the rectangle which has the maximum perimeter
among all such rectangles, is

3𝜋 𝜋 𝜋√3
(A) (B) 𝜋 (C)
2√3 (D)
2 2

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Q.7 Let the function 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 − 𝑥 2 + (𝑥 − 1) sin 𝑥 and let 𝑔: ℝ → ℝ be an

arbitrary function. Let 𝑓𝑔: ℝ → ℝ be the product function defined by (𝑓𝑔)(𝑥) = 𝑓(𝑥)𝑔(𝑥). Then
which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

(A) If 𝑔 is continuous at 𝑥 = 1, then 𝑓𝑔 is differentiable at 𝑥 = 1

(B) If 𝑓𝑔 is differentiable at 𝑥 = 1, then 𝑔 is continuous at 𝑥 = 1

(C) If 𝑔 is differentiable at 𝑥 = 1, then 𝑓𝑔 is differentiable at 𝑥 = 1

(D) If 𝑓𝑔 is differentiable at 𝑥 = 1, then 𝑔 is differentiable at 𝑥 = 1

Q.8 Let 𝑀 be a 3 × 3 invertible matrix with real entries and let 𝐼 denote the 3 × 3 identity matrix. If
𝑀−1 = adj (adj 𝑀), then which of the following statements is/are ALWAYS TRUE?

(A) 𝑀 = 𝐼 (B) det 𝑀 = 1 (C) 𝑀2 = 𝐼 (D) (adj 𝑀)2 = 𝐼

Q.9 Let 𝑆 be the set of all complex numbers 𝑧 satisfying |𝑧 2 + 𝑧 + 1| = 1. Then which of the following
statements is/are TRUE?

1 1
(A) |𝑧 + 2| ≤ 2 for all 𝑧 ∈ 𝑆

(B) |𝑧| ≤ 2 for all 𝑧 ∈ 𝑆

1 1
(C) |𝑧 + 2| ≥ 2 for all 𝑧 ∈ 𝑆

(D) The set 𝑆 has exactly four elements

Q.10 Let 𝑥, 𝑦 and 𝑧 be positive real numbers. Suppose 𝑥, 𝑦 and 𝑧 are the lengths of the sides of a triangle
opposite to its angles 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍, respectively. If

𝑋 𝑍 2𝑦
tan + tan = ,
2 2 𝑥+𝑦+𝑧

then which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

(A) 2𝑌 = 𝑋 + 𝑍 (B) 𝑌 = 𝑋 + 𝑍

X
(C) tan 2 = 𝑦+𝑧
𝑥 (D) 𝑥 2 + 𝑧 2 − 𝑦 2 = 𝑥𝑧

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JEE (Advanced) 2020 Paper 1

Q.11 Let 𝐿1 and 𝐿2 be the following straight lines.

𝑥−1 𝑦 𝑧−1 𝑥−1 𝑦 𝑧−1

𝐿1 : = = and 𝐿2 : = = .
1 −1 3 −3 −1 1

Suppose the straight line

𝑥−𝛼 𝑦−1 𝑧−𝛾

𝐿: = =
𝑙 𝑚 −2

lies in the plane containing 𝐿1 and 𝐿2 , and passes through the point of intersection of 𝐿1 and 𝐿2 . If
the line 𝐿 bisects the acute angle between the lines 𝐿1 and 𝐿2 , then which of the following
statements is/are TRUE?

(A) 𝛼 − 𝛾 = 3 (B) 𝑙 + 𝑚 = 2 (C) 𝛼 − 𝛾 = 1 (D) 𝑙 + 𝑚 = 0

Q.12 Which of the following inequalities is/are TRUE?

1 3 1 3
(A) ∫0 𝑥 cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 ≥ 8 (B) ∫0 𝑥 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 ≥ 10

1 1 1 2
(C) ∫0 𝑥 2 cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 ≥ 2 (D) ∫0 𝑥 2 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 ≥
9

Q.13 Let 𝑚 be the minimum possible value of log 3 (3𝑦1 + 3𝑦2 + 3𝑦3 ), where 𝑦1 , 𝑦2 , 𝑦3 are real numbers
for which 𝑦1 + 𝑦2 + 𝑦3 = 9. Let 𝑀 be the maximum possible value of (log 3 𝑥1 + log 3 𝑥2 + log 3 𝑥3 ),
where 𝑥1 , 𝑥2 , 𝑥3 are positive real numbers for which 𝑥1 + 𝑥2 + 𝑥3 = 9. Then the value of
log 2 (𝑚3 ) + log 3 (𝑀2 ) is _____

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Q.14 Let 𝑎1 , 𝑎2 , 𝑎3 , … be a sequence of positive integers in arithmetic progression with common difference
2. Also, let 𝑏1 , 𝑏2 , 𝑏3 , … be a sequence of positive integers in geometric progression with common
ratio 2. If 𝑎1 = 𝑏1 = 𝑐, then the number of all possible values of 𝑐, for which the equality

2(𝑎1 + 𝑎2 + ⋯ + 𝑎𝑛 ) = 𝑏1 + 𝑏2 + ⋯ + 𝑏𝑛

holds for some positive integer 𝑛, is _____

Q.15 Let 𝑓: [0, 2] ⟶ ℝ be the function defined by

𝜋 𝜋
𝑓(𝑥) = ( 3 − sin(2𝜋𝑥)) sin (𝜋𝑥 − ) − sin (3𝜋𝑥 + ) .
4 4

If 𝛼, 𝛽 ∈ [0, 2] are such that {𝑥 ∈ [0, 2] ∶ 𝑓(𝑥) ≥ 0} = [𝛼, 𝛽], then the value of 𝛽 − 𝛼 is _____

Q.16 𝑄𝑅 , 𝑏⃗⃗ = 𝑅𝑃
In a triangle 𝑃𝑄𝑅, let 𝑎⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ and 𝑐⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑃𝑄. If

𝑎⃗ ⋅ (𝑐⃗ − 𝑏⃗⃗) |𝑎⃗|

|𝑎⃗| = 3, |𝑏⃗⃗| = 4 and = ,
𝑐⃗ ⋅ (𝑎⃗ − 𝑏⃗⃗) |𝑎⃗| + |𝑏⃗⃗|
2
then the value of |𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗| is _____

Q.17 For a polynomial 𝑔(𝑥) with real coefficients, let 𝑚𝑔 denote the number of distinct real roots of
𝑔(𝑥). Suppose 𝑆 is the set of polynomials with real coefficients defined by

𝑆 = {(𝑥 2 − 1)2 (𝑎0 + 𝑎1 𝑥 + 𝑎2 𝑥 2 + 𝑎3 𝑥 3 ) ∶ 𝑎0 , 𝑎1 , 𝑎2 , 𝑎3 ∈ ℝ}.

For a polynomial 𝑓, let 𝑓 ′ and 𝑓′′ denote its first and second order derivatives, respectively. Then
the minimum possible value of (𝑚𝑓′ + 𝑚𝑓′′ ), where 𝑓 ∈ 𝑆, is _____

Q.18 Let 𝑒 denote the base of the natural logarithm. The value of the real number 𝑎 for which the right
hand limit
1
(1 − 𝑥)𝑥 − 𝑒 −1
lim+
𝑥→0 𝑥𝑎

is equal to a nonzero real number, is _____

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2

PART I-PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks   :      If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks     :     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks     :     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct options.
Partial Marks     :     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks   :   0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : In all other cases.
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case),
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in ‐2 marks.

Q.1 A particle of mass is initially at rest at the origin. It is subjected to a force and starts
moving along the -axis. Its kinetic energy changes with time as / , where
is a positive constant of appropriate dimensions. Which of the following statements is (are)
true?

(A) The force applied on the particle is constant

(B) The speed of the particle is proportional to time
(C) The distance of the particle from the origin increases linearly with time
(D) The force is conservative

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.2 Consider a thin square plate floating on a viscous liquid in a large tank. The height of the
liquid in the tank is much less than the width of the tank. The floating plate is pulled
horizontally with a constant velocity . Which of the following statements is (are) true?

(A) The resistive force of liquid on the plate is inversely proportional to

(B) The resistive force of liquid on the plate is independent of the area of the plate

(D) The tangential (shear) stress on the plate varies linearly with the viscosity of the liquid

Q.3 An infinitely long thin non-conducting wire is parallel to the -axis and carries a uniform
line charge density . It pierces a thin non-conducting spherical shell of radius in such a
way that the arc subtends an angle 120° at the centre of the spherical shell, as shown
in the figure. The permittivity of free space is . Which of the following statements is (are)
true?

(A) The electric flux through the shell is √3 /

(B) The -component of the electric field is zero at all the points on the surface of the shell

(C) The electric flux through the shell is √2 /

(D) The electric field is normal to the surface of the shell at all points

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Q.4 A wire is bent in the shape of a right angled triangle and is placed in front of a concave mirror
of focal length , as shown in the figure. Which of the figures shown in the four options
qualitatively represent(s) the shape of the image of the bent wire? (These figures are not to
scale.)

(A) (B)

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Q.5 In a radioactive decay chain, Th nucleus decays to Pb nucleus. Let and be the
number of and particles, respectively, emitted in this decay process. Which of the
following statements is (are) true?

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 4

Q.6 In an experiment to measure the speed of sound by a resonating air column, a tuning fork of
frequency 500 is used. The length of the air column is varied by changing the level of
water in the resonance tube. Two successive resonances are heard at air columns of length
50.7 and 83.9 . Which of the following statements is (are) true?

(A) The speed of sound determined from this experiment is 332

(B) The end correction in this experiment is 0.9
(C) The wavelength of the sound wave is 66.4
(D) The resonance at 50.7 corresponds to the fundamental harmonic

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)
 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.  The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to
the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30) using the mouse and the on‐
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks :   3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks :   0 In all other cases.

Q.7 A solid horizontal surface is covered with a thin layer of oil. A rectangular block of mass
0.4 is at rest on this surface. An impulse of 1.0 is applied to the block at time
/
0 so that it starts moving along the -axis with a velocity , where is a
constant and 4 . The displacement of the block, in , at is __________.
Take 0.37.

Q.8 A ball is projected from the ground at an angle of 45° with the horizontal surface. It reaches
a maximum height of 120 and returns to the ground. Upon hitting the ground for the first
time, it loses half of its kinetic energy. Immediately after the bounce, the velocity of the ball
makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal surface. The maximum height it reaches after the
bounce, in , is ___________.

Q.9 A particle, of mass 10 and charge 1.0 , is initially at rest. At time 0, the particle
comes under the influence of an electric field sin ̂, where 1.0 and
10 . Consider the effect of only the electrical force on the particle. Then the
maximum speed, in , attained by the particle at subsequent times is ____________.

Q.10 A moving coil galvanometer has 50 turns and each turn has an area 2 10 . The
magnetic field produced by the magnet inside the galvanometer is 0.02 . The torsional
constant of the suspension wire is 10 . When a current flows through the
galvanometer, a full scale deflection occurs if the coil rotates by 0.2 . The resistance of
the coil of the galvanometer is 50 . This galvanometer is to be converted into an ammeter
capable of measuring current in the range 0 1.0 . For this purpose, a shunt resistance is
to be added in parallel to the galvanometer. The value of this shunt resistance, in , is
__________.

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Q.11 A steel wire of diameter 0.5 and Young’s modulus 2 10 carries a load of
mass . The length of the wire with the load is 1.0 . A vernier scale with 10 divisions is
attached to the end of this wire. Next to the steel wire is a reference wire to which a main
scale, of least count 1.0 , is attached. The 10 divisions of the vernier scale correspond to
9 divisions of the main scale. Initially, the zero of vernier scale coincides with the zero of
main scale. If the load on the steel wire is increased by 1.2 , the vernier scale division
which coincides with a main scale division is __________. Take 10 and 3.2.

Q.12 One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion in which its volume
becomes eight times its initial value. If the initial temperature of the gas is 100 and the
universal gas constant 8.0 , the decrease in its internal energy, in ,
is__________.

Q.13 In a photoelectric experiment a parallel beam of monochromatic light with power of 200
is incident on a perfectly absorbing cathode of work function 6.25 . The frequency of
light is just above the threshold frequency so that the photoelectrons are emitted with
negligible kinetic energy. Assume that the photoelectron emission efficiency is 100%. A
potential difference of 500 is applied between the cathode and the anode. All the emitted
electrons are incident normally on the anode and are absorbed. The anode experiences a
force 10 due to the impact of the electrons. The value of is __________.
Mass of the electron 9 10 and 1.0 1.6 10 .

Q.14 Consider a hydrogen-like ionized atom with atomic number with a single electron. In the
emission spectrum of this atom, the photon emitted in the 2 to 1 transition has
energy 74.8 higher than the photon emitted in the 3 to 2 transition. The
ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 . The value of is __________.

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II.
 FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of
these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
 For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks           :    3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen.
      Zero Marks    :     0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
      Negative Marks  :   1   In all other cases.

Q.15 The electric field is measured at a point 0, 0, generated due to various charge
distributions and the dependence of on is found to be different for different charge
distributions. List-I contains different relations between E and . List-II describes
different electric charge distributions, along with their locations. Match the functions
in List-I with the related charge distributions in List-II.

LIST–I LIST–II

P. is independent of 1. A point charge at the origin

2. A small dipole with point charges at
Q. ∝ 0, 0, and – at 0, 0, .
Take 2 ≪
R. ∝ 3. An infinite line charge coincident with
the -axis, with uniform linear charge
S. ∝ density
4. Two infinite wires carrying uniform
linear charge density parallel to the
- axis. The one along 0,
has a charge density and the one
along 0, has a charge
density – . Take 2 ≪
5. Infinite plane charge coincident with the
-plane with uniform surface charge
density

(A) P → 5; Q → 3, 4; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 4; S→2
(C) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 2; S→4
(D) P → 4; Q → 2, 3; R → 1; S→5

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Q.16 A planet of mass , has two natural satellites with masses and . The radii of their
circular orbits are and respectively. Ignore the gravitational force between the
satellites. Define , , and to be, respectively, the orbital speed, angular momentum,
kinetic energy and time period of revolution of satellite 1; and , , and to be the
corresponding quantities of satellite 2. Given / 2 and / 1/4, match the
ratios in List-I to the numbers in List-II.

LIST–I LIST–II

P. 1.

2. 1
Q.
3. 2
4. 8
R.

(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S→3
(B) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→1
(C) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S→4
(D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1

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Q.17 One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes four thermodynamic processes as
shown schematically in the -diagram below. Among these four processes, one
is isobaric, one is isochoric, one is isothermal and one is adiabatic. Match the
processes mentioned in List-1 with the corresponding statements in List-II.

LIST–I LIST–II
P. In process I 1. Work done by the gas is zero
Q. In process II 2. Temperature of the gas remains unchanged
3. No heat is exchanged between the gas and
R. In process III
its surroundings
S. In process IV 4. Work done by the gas is 6

(A) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S→4
(C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(D) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S→1

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Q.18 In the List-I below, four different paths of a particle are given as functions of time. In these
functions, and are positive constants of appropriate dimensions and . In each case,
the force acting on the particle is either zero or conservative. In List-II, five physical
quantities of the particle are mentioned: is the linear momentum, is the angular
momentum about the origin, is the kinetic energy, is the potential energy and is the
total energy. Match each path in List-I with those quantities in List-II, which are conserved
for that path.

LIST–I LIST–II
P. ̂ ̂ 1.
Q. cos ̂ sin ̂ 2.
R. cos ̂ sin ̂ 3.
S. ̂ ̂ 4. U
5. E

(A) P → 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; Q → 2, 5; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S→5
(B) P → 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; Q → 3, 5; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S → 2, 5
(C) P → 2, 3, 4; Q → 5; R → 1, 2, 4; S → 2, 5
(D) P → 1, 2, 3, 5; Q → 2, 5; R →2, 3, 4, 5; S → 2, 5

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2

PART II-CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks   :      If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks     :     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks     :     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct options.
Partial Marks     :     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks   :   0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : In all other cases.
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case),
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in ‐2 marks.

Q.1 The correct option(s) regarding the complex [Co(en)(NH3)3(H2O)]3+

(en = H2NCH2CH2NH2) is (are)

(A) It has two geometrical isomers

(B) It will have three geometrical isomers if bidentate ‘en’ is replaced by
two cyanide ligands
(C) It is paramagnetic
(D) It absorbs light at longer wavelength as compared to [Co(en)(NH3)4]3+

Q.2 The correct option(s) to distinguish nitrate salts of Mn2+ and Cu2+ taken separately is (are)

(A) Mn2+ shows the characteristic green colour in the flame test
(B) Only Cu2+ shows the formation of precipitate by passing H2S in acidic medium
(C) Only Mn2+ shows the formation of precipitate by passing H2S in faintly basic medium
(D) Cu2+/Cu has higher reduction potential than Mn2+/Mn (measured under similar
conditions)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.3 Aniline reacts with mixed acid (conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4) at 288 K to give P (51 %),
Q (47%) and R (2%). The major product(s) of the following reaction sequence is (are)

(A) (B)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.4 The Fischer presentation of D-glucose is given below.

The correct structure(s) of β-L-glucopyranose is (are)

(A) (B)

(D)
(C)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.5 For a first order reaction A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) at constant volume and 300 K, the total
pressure at the beginning ( = 0) and at time are and , respectively. Initially, only A is
present with concentration [A]0, and 1/3 is the time required for the partial pressure of A to
reach 1/3rd of its initial value. The correct option(s) is (are)
(Assume that all these gases behave as ideal gases)

(A) (B)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.6 For a reaction, A ⇌ P, the plots of [A] and [P] with time at temperatures T1 and T2 are
given below.

If > , the correct statement(s) is (are)

(Assume ∆ Ɵ and ∆ Ɵ are independent of temperature and ratio of lnK at to lnK at is
greater than . Here H, S, G and K are enthalpy, entropy, Gibbs energy and equilibrium
constant, respectively.)

Ɵ Ɵ
(A) ∆ < 0, ∆ <0
Ɵ Ɵ
(B) ∆ < 0, ∆ >0
Ɵ Ɵ
(C) ∆ < 0, ∆ <0
Ɵ Ɵ
(D) ∆ < 0, ∆ >0

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.7 The total number of compounds having at least one bridging oxo group among the
molecules given below is ____.
N2O3, N2O5, P4O6, P4O7, H4P2O5, H5P3O10, H2S2O3, H2S2O5

Q.8 Galena (an ore) is partially oxidized by passing air through it at high temperature. After
some time, the passage of air is stopped, but the heating is continued in a closed furnace such
that the contents undergo self-reduction. The weight (in kg) of Pb produced per kg of O2
consumed is ____.
(Atomic weights in g mol1: O = 16, S = 32, Pb = 207)

Q.9 To measure the quantity of MnCl2 dissolved in an aqueous solution, it was completely
converted to KMnO4 using the reaction,
MnCl2 + K2S2O8 + H2O  KMnO4 + H2SO4 + HCl (equation not balanced).
Few drops of concentrated HCl were added to this solution and gently warmed. Further,
oxalic acid (225 mg) was added in portions till the colour of the permanganate ion
disappeared. The quantity of MnCl2 (in mg) present in the initial solution is ____.
(Atomic weights in g mol−1: Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.10 For the given compound X, the total number of optically active stereoisomers is ____.

Q.11 In the following reaction sequence, the amount of D (in g) formed from 10 moles of
acetophenone is ____.
(Atomic weights in g mol1: H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80. The yield (%)
corresponding to the product in each step is given in the parenthesis)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.12 The surface of copper gets tarnished by the formation of copper oxide. N2 gas was passed to
prevent the oxide formation during heating of copper at 1250 K. However, the N2 gas
contains 1 mole % of water vapour as impurity. The water vapour oxidises copper as per the
reaction given below:
2Cu(s) + H2O(g)  Cu2O(s) + H2(g)
is the minimum partial pressure of H2 (in bar) needed to prevent the oxidation at
1250 K. The value of ln is ____.
(Given: total pressure = 1 bar, R (universal gas constant) = 8 J K−1 mol−1, ln(10) = 2.3. Cu(s)
and Cu2O(s) are mutually immiscible.
Ɵ
At 1250 K: 2Cu(s) + ½ O2(g)  Cu2O(s); ∆ = − 78,000 J mol−1
Ɵ
H2(g) + ½ O2(g)  H2O(g); ∆ = − 1,78,000 J mol−1; G is the Gibbs energy)

Q.13 Consider the following reversible reaction,

A g B g ⇌ AB g .
The activation energy of the backward reaction exceeds that of the forward reaction by 2
(in J mol−1). If the pre-exponential factor of the forward reaction is 4 times that of the reverse
Ɵ
reaction, the absolute value of ∆ (in J mol−1) for the reaction at 300 K is ____.
(Given; ln(2) = 0.7, = 2500 J mol−1 at 300 K and G is the Gibbs energy)

Q.14 Consider an electrochemical cell: A(s) | An+ (aq, 2 M) || B2n+ (aq, 1 M) | B(s). The
Ɵ Ɵ
value of ∆ for the cell reaction is twice that of ∆ at 300 K. If the emf of the cell is zero,
Ɵ
the ∆ (in J K−1 mol−1) of the cell reaction per mole of B formed at 300 K is ____.
(Given: ln(2) = 0.7, (universal gas constant) = 8.3 J K−1 mol−1. H, S and G are enthalpy,
entropy and Gibbs energy, respectively.)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.15 Match each set of hybrid orbitals from LIST–I with complex(es) given in LIST–II.

LIST–I LIST–II

P. dsp2 1. [FeF6]4−

Q. sp3 2. [Ti(H2O)3Cl3]

R. sp3d2 3. [Cr(NH3)6]3+

S. d2sp3 4. [FeCl4]2−
5. Ni(CO)4
6. [Ni(CN)4]2−
The correct option is

(A) P → 5; Q → 4,6; R → 2,3; S → 1

(B) P → 5,6; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1,2
(C) P → 6; Q → 4,5; R → 1; S → 2,3
(D) P → 4,6; Q → 5,6; R → 1,2; S → 3

9/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.16 The desired product X can be prepared by reacting the major product of the reactions in
LIST-I with one or more appropriate reagents in LIST-II.
(given, order of migratory aptitude: aryl > alkyl > hydrogen)

The correct option is

(A) P → 1; Q → 2,3; R → 1,4; S → 2,4

(B) P → 1,5; Q → 3,4; R → 4,5; S → 3
(C) P → 1,5; Q → 3,4; R → 5; S → 2,4
(D) P → 1,5; Q → 2,3; R → 1,5; S → 2,3

10/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.17 LIST-I contains reactions and LIST-II contains major products.

Match each reaction in LIST-I with one or more products in LIST-II and choose the correct
option.

(A) P → 1,5; Q → 2; R → 3; S→4

(B) P → 1,4; Q → 2; R → 4; S→3
(C) P → 1,4; Q → 1,2; R → 3,4; S → 4
(D) P → 4,5; Q → 4; R → 4; S → 3,4

11/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.18 Dilution processes of different aqueous solutions, with water, are given in LIST-I. The
effects of dilution of the solutions on [H+] are given in LIST-II.
(Note: Degree of dissociation () of weak acid and weak base is << 1; degree of hydrolysis
of salt <<1; [H+] represents the concentration of H+ ions)

LIST–I LIST–II
P. (10 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 20 mL of 1. the value of [H+] does not change
0.1 M acetic acid) diluted to 60 mL on dilution
Q. (20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 20 mL of 2. the value of [H+] changes to half of
0.1 M acetic acid) diluted to 80 mL its initial value on dilution
R. (20 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 20 mL of 3. the value of [H+] changes to two
0.1 M ammonia solution) diluted to 80 mL times of its initial value on
S. 10 mL saturated solution of Ni(OH)2 in dilution
equilibrium with excess solid Ni(OH)2 is 4. the value of [H+] changes to
√
diluted to 20 mL (solid Ni(OH)2 is still
times of its initial value on
present after dilution).
dilution
5. the value of [H+] changes to √2
times of its initial value on dilution

Match each process given in LIST-I with one or more effect(s) in LIST-II. The correct
option is

(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 3
(C) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 3
(D) P → 1; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 1

12/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2

PART-III MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks   :      If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks     :     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks     :     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct options.
Partial Marks     :     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks   :   0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : In all other cases.
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case),
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in ‐2 marks.

Q.1 For any positive integer , define : 0, ∞ → as

∑ 1 tan for all ∈ 0, ∞ .

Here, the inverse trigonometric function tan assumes values in , .

Then, which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) ∑ tan 0 55
(B) ∑ 1 0 sec 0 10

(C) For any fixed positive integer , lim tan

→

(D) For any fixed positive integer , lim sec 1

→

1/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.2 Let be the line passing through the points 2, 7 and 2, 5 . Let be the set of all
pairs of circles , such that is tangent to at and tangent to at , and also such
that and touch each other at a point, say, . Let be the set representing the locus of
as the pair , varies in . Let the set of all straight line segments joining a pair of
distinct points of and passing through the point 1, 1 be . Let be the set of the
mid-points of the line segments in the set . Then, which of the following statement(s) is
(are) TRUE?

(A) The point 2, 7 lies in (B) The point , does NOT lie in

Q.3 Let be the set of all column matrices such that , , ∈ and the system of

equations (in real variables)

2 5
2 4 3
2 2
has at least one solution. Then, which of the following system(s) (in real variables) has

(have) at least one solution for each ∈ ?

(A) 2 3 , 4 5 and 2 6
(B) 3 , 5 2 6 and 2 3
(C) 2 5 , 2 4 10 and 2 5
(D) 2 5 , 2 3 and 4 5

2/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.4 Consider two straight lines, each of which is tangent to both the circle and the

parabola 4 . Let these lines intersect at the point . Consider the ellipse whose center
is at the origin 0,0 and whose semi-major axis is . If the length of the minor axis of
this ellipse is √2 , then which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) For the ellipse, the eccentricity is and the length of the latus rectum is 1
√

(B) For the ellipse, the eccentricity is and the length of the latus rectum is

2
√

(D) The area of the region bounded by the ellipse between the lines and 1 is
√

Q.5 Let , , be non-zero complex numbers and be the set of solutions

, ∈ , √ 1 of the equation ̅ 0, where ̅ . Then, which of
the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) If has exactly one element, then | | | |

(B) If | | | |, then has infinitely many elements
(C) The number of elements in ∩ ∶| 1 | 5 is at most 2
(D) If has more than one element, then has infinitely many elements

3/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.6 Let : 0, → be a twice differentiable function such that

lim sin for all ∈ 0, .
→

If , then which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A)
√

(B) for all ∈ 0,

(C) There exists ∈ 0, such that ′ 0

(D) 0

4/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

5/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.7 The value of the integral

1 √3

1 1
is _____ .

Q.8 Let be a matrix of order 3 3 such that all the entries in are from the set 1, 0, 1 . Then,
the maximum possible value of the determinant of is _____ .

Q.9 Let be a set with exactly 5 elements and be a set with exactly 7 elements. If is the number
of one-one functions from to and is the number of onto functions from to , then the
value of is _____ .
!

Q.10 Let : → be a differentiable function with 0 0. If satisfies the differential

equation
2 5 5 2 ,

then the value of lim is _____.

→

Q.11 Let : → be a differentiable function with 0 1 and satisfying the equation

for all , ∈ .
Then, the value of log 4 is _____.

Q.12 Let be a point in the first octant, whose image in the plane 3 (that is, the line
segment is perpendicular to the plane 3 and the mid-point of lies in the plane
3) lies on the -axis. Let the distance of from the -axis be 5. If is the image of
in the -plane, then the length of is _____ .

6/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.13 Consider the cube in the first octant with sides , and of length 1, along the -axis,

-axis and -axis, respectively, where 0,0,0 is the origin. Let , , be the centre of

the cube and be the vertex of the cube opposite to the origin such that lies on the diagonal
. If , , and , then the value of
is _____ .

Q.14 Let
10
C1 2 10
C2 3 10
C3 ⋯ 10 C10 ,
10

where 10
Cr , ∈ 1, 2, ⋯ , 10 denote binomial coefficients. Then, the value of

is _____ .

7/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

and ∈ ∶ sin log is a real number .

Here, the inverse trigonometric function sin assumes values in , .

2 2
Let : → be the function defined by log

and : → be the function defined by sin log .

LIST–I LIST–II

P. The range of is 1. ∞, ∪ , ∞
Q. The range of contains
2. 0, 1
R. The domain of contains
3. ,
S. The domain of is
4. ∞, 0 ∪ 0, ∞

5. ∞,

6. ∞, 0 ∪ ,

The correct option is:

(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 1
(B) P → 3; Q → 3; R → 6; S → 5
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 6
(D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 6; S → 5

8/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.16 In a high school, a committee has to be formed from a group of 6 boys

, , , , , and 5 girls , , , , .
(i) Let be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such that
the committee has 5 members, having exactly 3 boys and 2 girls.
(ii) Let be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such that
the committee has at least 2 members, and having an equal number of boys and girls.
(iii) Let be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such that
the committee has 5 members, at least 2 of them being girls.
(iv) Let be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such that
the committee has 4 members, having at least 2 girls and such that both and
are NOT in the committee together.

LIST–I LIST–II
P. The value of is 1. 136
Q. The value of is 2. 189
R. The value of is 3. 192
S. The value of is 4. 200
5. 381
6. 461

The correct option is:

(A) P → 4; Q → 6; R → 2; S → 1
(B) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3
(C) P → 4; Q → 6; R → 5; S → 2
(D) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1

9/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.17 Let : 1, where 0, be a hyperbola in the -plane whose conjugate axis

subtends an angle of 60 at one of its vertices . Let the area of the triangle be
4√3.

LIST–I LIST–II

P. The length of the conjugate axis of is 1. 8

Q. The eccentricity of is 2.
√
R. The distance between the foci of is
3.
√
S. The length of the latus rectum of is
4. 4
The correct option is:
(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2
(C) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
(D) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1

10/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.18 Let : → , : , → , : 1, 2 → and : → be functions

defined by

(i) sin 1 ,
| |
(ii) if 0 , where the inverse trigonometric function tan
1 if 0
assumes values in , ,

(iii) sin log 2 , where, for ∈ , denotes the greatest integer

less than or equal to ,

sin if 0
(iv) .
0 if 0

LIST–I LIST–II

P. The function is 1. NOT continuous at 0

Q. The function is 2. continuous at 0 and NOT
R. The function is differentiable at 0
S. The function is 3. differentiable at 0 and its derivative
is NOT continuous at 0
4. differentiable at 0 and its derivative
is continuous at 0

The correct option is:

(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4
(B) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 3
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
(D) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 3

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

11/11
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 1

PART-I PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟒 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +𝟑 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +𝟐 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +𝟏 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −𝟐 In all other cases.
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case),
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in -2 marks.

Q.1 The potential energy of a particle of mass 𝑚 at a distance 𝑟 from a fixed point 𝑂 is given by
𝑉(𝑟) = 𝑘𝑟 2 /2, where 𝑘 is a positive constant of appropriate dimensions. This particle is
moving in a circular orbit of radius 𝑅 about the point 𝑂. If 𝑣 is the speed of the particle and
𝐿 is the magnitude of its angular momentum about 𝑂, which of the following statements is
(are) true?

𝑘
(A) 𝑣 = √2𝑚 𝑅

𝑘
(B) 𝑣 = √𝑚 𝑅

𝑚𝑘
(D) 𝐿 = √ 𝑅2
2

1/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.2 Consider a body of mass 1.0 𝑘𝑔 at rest at the origin at time 𝑡 = 0. A force 𝐹⃗ = (𝛼𝑡 𝑖̂ + 𝛽 𝑗̂)
is applied on the body, where 𝛼 = 1.0 𝑁𝑠 −1 and 𝛽 = 1.0 𝑁. The torque acting on the body
about the origin at time 𝑡 = 1.0 𝑠 is 𝜏⃗. Which of the following statements is (are) true?

1
(A) |𝜏⃗| = 3 𝑁 𝑚

(B) The torque 𝜏⃗ is in the direction of the unit vector + 𝑘̂

1
⃗⃗ = 2 (𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂) 𝑚 𝑠 −1
(C) The velocity of the body at 𝑡 = 1 𝑠 is v

1
(D) The magnitude of displacement of the body at 𝑡 = 1 𝑠 is 𝑚
6

Q.3 A uniform capillary tube of inner radius 𝑟 is dipped vertically into a beaker filled with water.
The water rises to a height ℎ in the capillary tube above the water surface in the beaker. The
surface tension of water is 𝜎. The angle of contact between water and the wall of the capillary
tube is 𝜃. Ignore the mass of water in the meniscus. Which of the following statements is
(are) true?

(A) For a given material of the capillary tube, ℎ decreases with increase in 𝑟
(B) For a given material of the capillary tube, ℎ is independent of 𝜎
(C) If this experiment is performed in a lift going up with a constant acceleration, then ℎ
decreases
(D) ℎ is proportional to contact angle 𝜃

2/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.4 In the figure below, the switches 𝑆1 and 𝑆2 are closed simultaneously at 𝑡 = 0 and a current
starts to flow in the circuit. Both the batteries have the same magnitude of the electromotive
force (emf) and the polarities are as indicated in the figure. Ignore mutual inductance between
the inductors. The current 𝐼 in the middle wire reaches its maximum magnitude 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 at time
𝑡 = 𝜏. Which of the following statements is (are) true?

𝑉 𝑉 𝐿 2𝐿
(A) 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 = (B) 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 = (C) 𝜏 = ln 2 (D) 𝜏 = ln 2
2𝑅 4𝑅 𝑅 𝑅

Q.5 Two infinitely long straight wires lie in the 𝑥𝑦-plane along the lines 𝑥 = ±𝑅. The wire
located at 𝑥 = +𝑅 carries a constant current 𝐼1 and the wire located at 𝑥 = −𝑅 carries a
constant current 𝐼2 . A circular loop of radius 𝑅 is suspended with its centre at (0, 0, √3𝑅)
and in a plane parallel to the 𝑥𝑦-plane. This loop carries a constant current 𝐼 in the clockwise
direction as seen from above the loop. The current in the wire is taken to be positive if it is
in the +𝑗̂ direction. Which of the following statements regarding the magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is (are)
true?

⃗⃗ cannot be equal to zero at the origin (0, 0, 0)

(A) If 𝐼1 = 𝐼2, then 𝐵

⃗⃗ can be equal to zero at the origin (0, 0, 0)

(B) If 𝐼1 > 0 and 𝐼2 < 0, then 𝐵

⃗⃗ can be equal to zero at the origin (0, 0, 0)

𝜇0 𝐼
(D) If 𝐼1 = 𝐼2, then the 𝑧-component of the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is (− )
2𝑅

3/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.6 One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure
(where V is the volume and T is the temperature). Which of the statements below is (are)
true?

(A) Process I is an isochoric process

(B) In process II, gas absorbs heat
(C) In process IV, gas releases heat
(D) Processes I and III are not isobaric

4/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)

 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to
the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) using the mouse and the on-
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.7 Two vectors 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵

⃗⃗ are defined as 𝐴⃗ = 𝑎 𝑖̂ and 𝐵
⃗⃗ = 𝑎 (cos 𝜔𝑡 𝑖̂ + sin 𝜔𝑡 𝑗̂), where 𝑎 is a
constant and 𝜔 = 𝜋/6 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1 . If |𝐴⃗ + 𝐵⃗⃗ | = √3|𝐴⃗ − 𝐵
⃗⃗ | at time 𝑡 = 𝜏 for the first time,
the value of 𝜏, in 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠, is __________.

Q.8 Two men are walking along a horizontal straight line in the same direction. The man in front
walks at a speed 1.0 𝑚 𝑠 −1 and the man behind walks at a speed 2.0 𝑚 𝑠 −1. A third man is
standing at a height 12 𝑚 above the same horizontal line such that all three men are in a
vertical plane. The two walking men are blowing identical whistles which emit a sound of
frequency 1430 𝐻𝑧. The speed of sound in air is 330 𝑚 𝑠 −1. At the instant, when the moving
men are 10 𝑚 apart, the stationary man is equidistant from them. The frequency of beats in
𝐻𝑧, heard by the stationary man at this instant, is __________.

Q.9 A ring and a disc are initially at rest, side by side, at the top of an inclined plane which makes
an angle 60° with the horizontal. They start to roll without slipping at the same instant of
time along the shortest path. If the time difference between their reaching the ground is
(2 − √3) /√10 𝑠, then the height of the top of the inclined plane, in 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠, is __________.
Take 𝑔 = 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 .

5/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.10 A spring-block system is resting on a frictionless floor as shown in the figure. The spring
constant is 2.0 𝑁 𝑚−1 and the mass of the block is 2.0 𝑘𝑔. Ignore the mass of the spring.
Initially the spring is in an unstretched condition. Another block of mass 1.0 𝑘𝑔 moving with
a speed of 2.0 𝑚 𝑠 −1collides elastically with the first block. The collision is such that the
2.0 𝑘𝑔 block does not hit the wall. The distance, in 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠, between the two blocks when
the spring returns to its unstretched position for the first time after the collision is _________.

Q.11 Three identical capacitors 𝐶1 , 𝐶2 and 𝐶3 have a capacitance of 1.0 𝜇𝐹 each and they are
uncharged initially. They are connected in a circuit as shown in the figure and 𝐶1 is then
filled completely with a dielectric material of relative permittivity 𝜖𝑟 . The cell electromotive
force (emf) 𝑉0 = 8 𝑉. First the switch 𝑆1 is closed while the switch 𝑆2 is kept open. When
the capacitor 𝐶3 is fully charged, 𝑆1 is opened and 𝑆2 is closed simultaneously. When all the
capacitors reach equilibrium, the charge on 𝐶3 is found to be 5 𝜇𝐶. The value of
𝜖𝑟 =____________.

6/12
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.12 In the 𝑥𝑦-plane, the region 𝑦 > 0 has a uniform magnetic field 𝐵1 𝑘̂ and the region 𝑦 < 0 has
another uniform magnetic field 𝐵2 𝑘̂. A positively charged particle is projected from the
origin along the positive 𝑦-axis with speed 𝑣0 = 𝜋 𝑚 𝑠 −1 at 𝑡 = 0, as shown in the figure.
Neglect gravity in this problem. Let 𝑡 = 𝑇 be the time when the particle crosses the 𝑥-axis
from below for the first time. If 𝐵2 = 4𝐵1 , the average speed of the particle, in 𝑚 𝑠 −1 , along
the 𝑥-axis in the time interval 𝑇 is __________.

Q.13 Sunlight of intensity 1.3 𝑘𝑊 𝑚−2 is incident normally on a thin convex lens of focal length
20 𝑐𝑚. Ignore the energy loss of light due to the lens and assume that the lens aperture size
is much smaller than its focal length. The average intensity of light, in 𝑘𝑊 𝑚−2, at a distance
22 𝑐𝑚 from the lens on the other side is __________.

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.14 Two conducting cylinders of equal length but different radii are connected in series between
two heat baths kept at temperatures 𝑇1 = 300 𝐾 and 𝑇2 = 100 𝐾, as shown in the figure.
The radius of the bigger cylinder is twice that of the smaller one and the thermal
conductivities of the materials of the smaller and the larger cylinders are 𝐾1 and 𝐾2
respectively. If the temperature at the junction of the two cylinders in the steady state is
200 𝐾, then 𝐾1 /𝐾2 =__________.

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

 This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to the correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

PARAGRAPH “X”
In electromagnetic theory, the electric and magnetic phenomena are related to each other.
Therefore, the dimensions of electric and magnetic quantities must also be related to each
other. In the questions below, [𝐸] and [𝐵] stand for dimensions of electric and magnetic
fields respectively, while [𝜖0 ] and [𝜇0 ] stand for dimensions of the permittivity and
permeability of free space respectively. [𝐿] and [𝑇] are dimensions of length and time
respectively. All the quantities are given in SI units.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “X”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.15 The relation between [𝐸] and [𝐵] is

(A) [𝐸] = [𝐵] [𝐿] [𝑇] (B) [𝐸] = [𝐵] [𝐿]−1 [𝑇]

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Q.16 The relation between [𝜖0 ] and [𝜇0 ] is

(A) [𝜇0 ] = [𝜖0 ] [𝐿]2 [𝑇]−2 (B) [𝜇0 ] = [𝜖0 ] [𝐿]−2 [𝑇]2

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PARAGRAPH “A”
If the measurement errors in all the independent quantities are known, then it is possible to
determine the error in any dependent quantity. This is done by the use of series expansion
and truncating the expansion at the first power of the error. For example, consider the relation
𝑧 = 𝑥/𝑦. If the errors in 𝑥, 𝑦 and 𝑧 are Δ𝑥, Δ𝑦 and Δ𝑧, respectively, then
𝑥±Δ𝑥 𝑥 Δ𝑥 Δ𝑦 −1
𝑧 ± Δ𝑧 = = (1 ± ) (1 ± ) .
𝑦±Δ𝑦 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦

Δ𝑦 −1
The series expansion for (1 ± ) , to first power in Δ𝑦/𝑦, is 1 ∓ (Δ𝑦/𝑦). The relative
𝑦
errors in independent variables are always added. So the error in 𝑧 will be
Δ𝑥 Δ𝑦
Δ𝑧 = 𝑧 ( 𝑥 + ).
𝑦
The above derivation makes the assumption that Δ𝑥/𝑥 ≪1, Δ𝑦/𝑦 ≪1. Therefore, the higher
powers of these quantities are neglected.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “A”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.17 (1−𝑎)
Consider the ratio 𝑟 = to be determined by measuring a dimensionless quantity 𝑎.
(1+𝑎)
If the error in the measurement of 𝑎 is Δ𝑎 (Δ𝑎/𝑎 ≪ 1) , then what is the error Δ𝑟 in
determining 𝑟?

Δ𝑎 2Δ𝑎
(A) (B)
(1+𝑎)2 (1+𝑎)2

2Δ𝑎 2𝑎Δ𝑎
(C) (D)
(1−𝑎2 ) (1−𝑎2 )

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Q.18 In an experiment the initial number of radioactive nuclei is 3000. It is found that 1000 ± 40
nuclei decayed in the first 1.0 𝑠. For |𝑥| ≪ 1, ln(1 + 𝑥) = 𝑥 up to first power in 𝑥. The error
Δ𝜆, in the determination of the decay constant 𝜆, in 𝑠 −1 , is

(A) 0.04 (B) 0.03 (C) 0.02 (D) 0.01

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 1

PART II-CHEMISTRY

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)

 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟒 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +𝟑 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +𝟐 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +𝟏 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −𝟐 In all other cases.
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case),
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in -2 marks.

Q.1 The compound(s) which generate(s) N2 gas upon thermal decomposition below 300C
is (are)

(A) NH4NO3
(B) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(C) Ba(N3)2
(D) Mg3N2

Q.2 The correct statement(s) regarding the binary transition metal carbonyl compounds is (are)
(Atomic numbers: Fe = 26, Ni = 28)

(A) Total number of valence shell electrons at metal centre in Fe(CO)5 or Ni(CO)4 is 16
(B) These are predominantly low spin in nature
(C) Metal–carbon bond strengthens when the oxidation state of the metal is lowered
(D) The carbonyl C−O bond weakens when the oxidation state of the metal is increased

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.3 Based on the compounds of group 15 elements, the correct statement(s) is (are)

(A) Bi2O5 is more basic than N2O5

(B) NF3 is more covalent than BiF3
(C) PH3 boils at lower temperature than NH3
(D) The N−N single bond is stronger than the P−P single bond

Q.4 In the following reaction sequence, the correct structure(s) of X is (are)

(A) (B)

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Q.5 The reaction(s) leading to the formation of 1,3,5-trimethylbenzene is (are)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.6 A reversible cyclic process for an ideal gas is shown below. Here, P, V, and T are pressure,
volume and temperature, respectively. The thermodynamic parameters q, w, H and U are
heat, work, enthalpy and internal energy, respectively.

The correct option(s) is (are)

(A) 𝑞𝐴𝐶 = ∆𝑈𝐵𝐶 and 𝑤𝐴𝐵 = 𝑃2 (𝑉2 − 𝑉1 )

(B) 𝑤𝐵𝐶 = 𝑃2 (𝑉2 − 𝑉1 ) and 𝑞𝐵𝐶 = ∆𝐻𝐴𝐶

(C) ∆𝐻𝐶𝐴 < ∆𝑈𝐶𝐴 and 𝑞𝐴𝐶 = ∆𝑈𝐵𝐶

(D) 𝑞𝐵𝐶 = ∆𝐻𝐴𝐶 and ∆𝐻𝐶𝐴 > ∆𝑈𝐶𝐴

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)

 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off
to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.7 Among the species given below, the total number of diamagnetic species is ___.

H atom, NO2 monomer, O2− (superoxide), dimeric sulphur in vapour phase,

Mn3O4, (NH4)2[FeCl4], (NH4)2[NiCl4], K2MnO4, K2CrO4

Q.8 The ammonia prepared by treating ammonium sulphate with calcium hydroxide is
completely used by NiCl2.6H2O to form a stable coordination compound. Assume that both
the reactions are 100% complete. If 1584 g of ammonium sulphate and 952 g of NiCl2.6H2O
are used in the preparation, the combined weight (in grams) of gypsum and the nickel-
ammonia coordination compound thus produced is ____.
(Atomic weights in g mol-1: H = 1, N = 14, O = 16, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca = 40, Ni = 59)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.9 Consider an ionic solid MX with NaCl structure. Construct a new structure (Z) whose unit
cell is constructed from the unit cell of MX following the sequential instructions given
below. Neglect the charge balance.

(i) Remove all the anions (X) except the central one
(ii) Replace all the face centered cations (M) by anions (X)
(iii) Remove all the corner cations (M)
(iv) Replace the central anion (X) with cation (M)

 number of anions 
The value of   in Z is ____.
 number of cations 

Q.10 For the electrochemical cell,

Mg(s)  Mg2+ (aq, 1 M)  Cu2+ (aq, 1 M)  Cu(s)
the standard emf of the cell is 2.70 V at 300 K. When the concentration of Mg2+ is changed
to 𝒙 M, the cell potential changes to 2.67 V at 300 K. The value of 𝒙 is ____.

𝐹
(given, = 11500 K V−1, where 𝐹 is the Faraday constant and 𝑅 is the gas constant,
𝑅

ln(10) = 2.30)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.11 A closed tank has two compartments A and B, both filled with oxygen (assumed to be ideal
gas). The partition separating the two compartments is fixed and is a perfect heat insulator
(Figure 1). If the old partition is replaced by a new partition which can slide and conduct heat
but does NOT allow the gas to leak across (Figure 2), the volume (in m3) of the compartment
A after the system attains equilibrium is ____.

Q.12 Liquids A and B form ideal solution over the entire range of composition. At temperature T,
equimolar binary solution of liquids A and B has vapour pressure 45 Torr. At the same
temperature, a new solution of A and B having mole fractions 𝑥𝐴 and 𝑥𝐵 , respectively, has
vapour pressure of 22.5 Torr. The value of 𝑥𝐴 /𝑥𝐵 in the new solution is ____.
(given that the vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 20 Torr at temperature T)

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Q.13 The solubility of a salt of weak acid (AB) at pH 3 is Y×103 mol L−1. The value of Y is ____.
(Given that the value of solubility product of AB (𝐾𝑠𝑝 ) = 2×1010 and the value of ionization
constant of HB (𝐾𝑎 ) = 1×108)

Q.14 The plot given below shows 𝑃 − 𝑇 curves (where P is the pressure and T is the temperature)
for two solvents X and Y and isomolal solutions of NaCl in these solvents. NaCl completely
dissociates in both the solvents.

On addition of equal number of moles of a non-volatile solute S in equal amount (in kg) of
these solvents, the elevation of boiling point of solvent X is three times that of solvent Y.
Solute S is known to undergo dimerization in these solvents. If the degree of dimerization is
0.7 in solvent Y, the degree of dimerization in solvent X is ____.

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

PARAGRAPH “X”
Treatment of benzene with CO/HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3/CuCl
followed by reaction with Ac2O/NaOAc gives compound X as the major product.
Compound X upon reaction with Br2/Na2CO3, followed by heating at 473 K with
moist KOH furnishes Y as the major product. Reaction of X with H2/Pd-C, followed
by H3PO4 treatment gives Z as the major product.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “X”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.15 The compound Y is

(A)
(B)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

PARAGRAPH “X”

Treatment of benzene with CO/HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3/CuCl

followed by reaction with Ac2O/NaOAc gives compound X as the major product.
Compound X upon reaction with Br2/Na2CO3, followed by heating at 473 K with
moist KOH furnishes Y as the major product. Reaction of X with H2/Pd-C, followed
by H3PO4 treatment gives Z as the major product.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “X”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.16 The compound Z is

(A) (B)

(D)
(C)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

PARAGRAPH “A”
An organic acid P (C11H12O2) can easily be oxidized to a dibasic acid which reacts with
ethyleneglycol to produce a polymer dacron. Upon ozonolysis, P gives an aliphatic
ketone as one of the products. P undergoes the following reaction sequences to furnish
R via Q. The compound P also undergoes another set of reactions to produce S.

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “A”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.17 The compound R is

(A)
(B)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “A”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.18 The compound S is

(B) (C) (D)

(A)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 1

PART-III MATHEMATICS

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)

 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is (are) correct option(s).
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟒 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +𝟑 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +𝟐 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +𝟏 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −𝟐 In all other cases.
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case),
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in -2 marks.

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.1 For a non-zero complex number 𝑧, let arg(𝑧) denote the principal argument with
− 𝜋 < arg(𝑧) ≤ 𝜋. Then, which of the following statement(s) is (are) FALSE?

𝜋
(A) arg(−1 − 𝑖) = , where 𝑖 = √−1
4

(B) The function 𝑓: ℝ → (−𝜋, 𝜋], defined by 𝑓(𝑡) = arg(−1 + 𝑖𝑡) for all 𝑡 ∈ ℝ, is
continuous at all points of ℝ, where 𝑖 = √−1

(C) For any two non-zero complex numbers 𝑧1 and 𝑧2 ,

𝑧
arg ( 1 ) − arg( 𝑧1 ) + arg( 𝑧2 )
𝑧2

is an integer multiple of 2𝜋

(D) For any three given distinct complex numbers 𝑧1 , 𝑧2 and 𝑧3 , the locus of the
point 𝑧 satisfying the condition
(𝑧−𝑧1 ) (𝑧2 −𝑧3 )
arg ( ) = 𝜋,
(𝑧−𝑧3 ) (𝑧2 −𝑧1 )

lies on a straight line

Q.2 In a triangle 𝑃𝑄𝑅, let ∠𝑃𝑄𝑅 = 30° and the sides 𝑃𝑄 and 𝑄𝑅 have lengths 10√3 and 10,
respectively. Then, which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 = 45°

(B) The area of the triangle 𝑃𝑄𝑅 is 25√3 and ∠𝑄𝑅𝑃 = 120°

(C) The radius of the incircle of the triangle 𝑃𝑄𝑅 is 10√3 − 15

(D) The area of the circumcircle of the triangle 𝑃𝑄𝑅 is 100 𝜋

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.3 Let 𝑃1 : 2𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 3 and 𝑃2 : 𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 = 2 be two planes. Then, which of the

following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) The line of intersection of 𝑃1 and 𝑃2 has direction ratios 1, 2, −1

(B) The line
3𝑥 − 4 1 − 3𝑦 𝑧
= =
9 9 3
is perpendicular to the line of intersection of 𝑃1 and 𝑃2

(C) The acute angle between 𝑃1 and 𝑃2 is 60°

(D) If 𝑃3 is the plane passing through the point (4, 2, −2) and perpendicular to the line
of intersection of 𝑃1 and 𝑃2 , then the distance of the point (2, 1, 1) from the plane
2
𝑃3 is
√3

Q.4 2
For every twice differentiable function 𝑓: ℝ → [−2, 2] with (𝑓(0))2 + (𝑓 ′ (0)) = 85,
which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) There exist 𝑟, 𝑠 ∈ ℝ, where 𝑟 < 𝑠, such that 𝑓 is one-one on the open interval (𝑟, 𝑠)

(B) There exists 𝑥0 ∈ (−4, 0) such that |𝑓 ′ (𝑥0 )| ≤ 1

(C) lim 𝑓(𝑥) = 1

𝑥→∞

(D) There exists 𝛼 ∈ (−4, 4) such that 𝑓(𝛼) + 𝑓 ′′ (𝛼) = 0 and 𝑓 ′ (𝛼) ≠ 0

Q.5 Let 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ and 𝑔: ℝ → ℝ be two non-constant differentiable functions. If

𝑓 ′ (𝑥) = (𝑒 (𝑓(𝑥)−𝑔(𝑥)) )𝑔′(𝑥) for all 𝑥 ∈ ℝ,

and 𝑓(1) = 𝑔(2) = 1, then which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) 𝑓(2) < 1 − log e 2 (B) 𝑓(2) > 1 − log e 2

(C) 𝑔(1) > 1 − log e 2 (D) 𝑔(1) < 1 − log e 2

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.6 Let 𝑓: [0, ∞) → ℝ be a continuous function such that

𝑥
𝑓(𝑥) = 1 − 2𝑥 + ∫ 𝑒 𝑥−𝑡 𝑓(𝑡)𝑑𝑡
0

for all 𝑥 ∈ [0, ∞). Then, which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) The curve 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥) passes through the point (1, 2)

(B) The curve 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥) passes through the point (2, −1)

𝜋−2
(C) The area of the region {(𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ [0, 1] × ℝ ∶ 𝑓(𝑥) ≤ 𝑦 ≤ √1 − 𝑥2 } is
4

𝜋−1
(D) The area of the region {(𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ [0,1] × ℝ ∶ 𝑓(𝑥) ≤ 𝑦 ≤ √1 − 𝑥2 } is
4

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)

 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off
to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.7 The value of

1 1
((log 2 9) 2 )log2 (log2 9) log4 7
× (√7)
is ______ .

Q.8 The number of 5 digit numbers which are divisible by 4, with digits from the set
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and the repetition of digits is allowed, is _____ .

Q.9 Let 𝑋 be the set consisting of the first 2018 terms of the arithmetic progression
1, 6, 11, … , and 𝑌 be the set consisting of the first 2018 terms of the arithmetic
progression 9, 16, 23, … . Then, the number of elements in the set 𝑋 ∪ 𝑌 is _____.

Q.10 The number of real solutions of the equation

∞ ∞ ∞ ∞
−1 𝑖+1
𝑥 𝑖 𝜋 𝑥 𝑖
sin (∑ 𝑥 − 𝑥 ∑ ( ) ) = − cos −1 (∑ (− ) − ∑(−𝑥)𝑖 )
2 2 2
𝑖=1 𝑖=1 𝑖=1 𝑖=1
1 1
lying in the interval (− 2 , 2) is _____ .
𝜋 𝜋
(Here, the inverse trigonometric functions sin−1 𝑥 and cos−1 𝑥 assume values in [− 2 , 2 ]

and [0, 𝜋], respectively.)

Q.11 For each positive integer 𝑛, let

1
1
𝑦𝑛 = ((𝑛 + 1)(𝑛 + 2) ⋯ (𝑛 + 𝑛)) . 𝑛
𝑛

For 𝑥 ∈ ℝ, let [𝑥] be the greatest integer less than or equal to 𝑥. If lim 𝑦𝑛 = 𝐿, then the
𝑛→∞

value of [𝐿] is _____ .

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

Q.12 Let 𝑎⃗ and 𝑏⃗⃗ be two unit vectors such that 𝑎⃗ ⋅ 𝑏⃗⃗ = 0. For some 𝑥, 𝑦 ∈ ℝ, let
𝑐⃗ = 𝑥 𝑎⃗ + 𝑦 𝑏⃗⃗ + (𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗). If |𝑐⃗| = 2 and the vector 𝑐⃗ is inclined at the same angle 𝛼 to

both 𝑎⃗ and 𝑏⃗⃗, then the value of 8 cos 2 𝛼 is _____ .

Q.13 Let 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 be three non-zero real numbers such that the equation
𝜋 𝜋
√3 𝑎 cos 𝑥 + 2 𝑏 sin 𝑥 = 𝑐, 𝑥 ∈ [− 2 , 2 ],

𝜋 𝑏
has two distinct real roots 𝛼 and 𝛽 with 𝛼 + 𝛽 = 3 . Then, the value of is _____ .
𝑎

Q.14 A farmer 𝐹1 has a land in the shape of a triangle with vertices at 𝑃(0, 0), 𝑄(1, 1) and
𝑅(2, 0). From this land, a neighbouring farmer 𝐹2 takes away the region which lies
between the side 𝑃𝑄 and a curve of the form 𝑦 = 𝑥 𝑛 (𝑛 > 1). If the area of the region
taken away by the farmer 𝐹2 is exactly 30% of the area of ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅, then the value of 𝑛 is
_____ .

6/8
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

PARAGRAPH “X”
Let 𝑆 be the circle in the 𝑥𝑦-plane defined by the equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 4.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “X”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.15 Let 𝐸1 𝐸2 and 𝐹1 𝐹2 be the chords of 𝑆 passing through the point 𝑃0 (1, 1) and parallel to the
x-axis and the y-axis, respectively. Let 𝐺1 𝐺2 be the chord of S passing through 𝑃0 and
having slope −1. Let the tangents to 𝑆 at 𝐸1 and 𝐸2 meet at 𝐸3 , the tangents to 𝑆 at 𝐹1 and
𝐹2 meet at 𝐹3 , and the tangents to 𝑆 at 𝐺1 and 𝐺2 meet at 𝐺3 . Then, the points 𝐸3 , 𝐹3 , and
𝐺3 lie on the curve

(A) 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4 (B) (𝑥 − 4)2 + (𝑦 − 4)2 = 16

Q.16 Let 𝑃 be a point on the circle 𝑆 with both coordinates being positive. Let the tangent to 𝑆 at
𝑃 intersect the coordinate axes at the points 𝑀 and 𝑁. Then, the mid-point of the line
segment 𝑀𝑁 must lie on the curve

(A) (𝑥 + 𝑦)2 = 3𝑥𝑦 (B) 𝑥 2/3 + 𝑦 2/3 = 24/3

7/8
JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 1

PARAGRAPH “A”
There are five students 𝑆1 , 𝑆2 , 𝑆3 , 𝑆4 and 𝑆5 in a music class and for them there are
five seats 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 , 𝑅3 , 𝑅4 and 𝑅5 arranged in a row, where initially the seat 𝑅𝑖 is
allotted to the student 𝑆𝑖 , 𝑖 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. But, on the examination day, the five
students are randomly allotted the five seats.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “A”, the question given below is one of them)
Q.17 The probability that, on the examination day, the student 𝑆1 gets the previously allotted seat
𝑅1 , and NONE of the remaining students gets the seat previously allotted to him/her is
3 1 7 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40 8 40 5

PARAGRAPH “A”
There are five students 𝑆1 , 𝑆2 , 𝑆3 , 𝑆4 and 𝑆5 in a music class and for them there are
five seats 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 , 𝑅3 , 𝑅4 and 𝑅5 arranged in a row, where initially the seat 𝑅𝑖 is
allotted to the student 𝑆𝑖 , 𝑖 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. But, on the examination day, the five
students are randomly allotted the five seats.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “A”, the question given below is one of them)
Q.18 For 𝑖 = 1, 2, 3, 4, let 𝑇𝑖 denote the event that the students 𝑆𝑖 and 𝑆𝑖+1 do NOT sit adjacent
to each other on the day of the examination. Then, the probability of the event
𝑇1 ∩ 𝑇2 ∩ 𝑇3 ∩ 𝑇4 is
1 1 7 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15 10 60 5

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

8/8
PART I : PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 21)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS

• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened
Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases

Q.1 Consider an expanding sphere of instantaneous radius 𝑅 whose total mass remains
constant. The expansion is such that the instantaneous density 𝜌 remains uniform
! !"
throughout the volume. The rate of fractional change in density ! !" is constant. The
velocity 𝑣 of any point on the surface of the expanding sphere is proportional to
!
[A] 𝑅 [B] 𝑅! [C] !
[D] 𝑅!/!

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.1: (A)

3/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.2 Consider regular polygons with number of sides 𝑛 = 3, 4, 5…… as shown in the figure.
The center of mass of all the polygons is at height ℎ from the ground. They roll on a
horizontal surface about the leading vertex without slipping and sliding as depicted. The
maximum increase in height of the locus of the center of mass for each polygon is ∆. Then
∆ depends on 𝑛 and ℎ as

h h h

! !
[A] ∆= ℎ sin! !
[B] ∆= ℎ ! −1
!"#
!

!! !
[C] ∆= ℎ sin !
[D] ∆= ℎ tan! !!

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.2: (B)

4/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.3 A photoelectric material having work-function 𝜙! is illuminated with light of wavelength
!!
𝜆 𝜆 < ! . The fastest photoelectron has a de Broglie wavelength 𝜆! . A change in
!
wavelength of the incident light by ∆𝜆 results in a change ∆𝜆! in 𝜆! . Then the ratio
∆𝜆! /∆𝜆 is proportional to

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.6: (B) Ans for Q.7: (B)

7/36 Paper-2 Code 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four options is(are) correct

• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s)
is(are) darkened
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option,
provided NO incorrect option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened
Negative Marks : -2 In all other cases

• For example, if [A], [C] and [D] are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these
three will get +4 marks; darkening only [A] and [D] will get +2 marks; and darkening [A]
and [B] will get -2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened

Space for rough work

8/36 Paper-2 Code 1

!!
Q.8 A uniform magnetic field 𝐵 exists in the region between 𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = ! (region 2 in the
figure) pointing normally into the plane of the paper. A particle with charge +𝑄 and
momentum 𝑝 directed along x-axis enters region 2 from region 1 at point 𝑃! (𝑦 = −𝑅).
Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?
y
Region 1 Region 2 Region 3
× × ×
B
× × ×

× × ×

× × ×

O × × ×
P
2 x
× × ×

+Q P 1 × × ×
(y = -R) × × ×

× × ×

3R/2
! !
[A] For 𝐵 > ! !" , the particle will re-enter region 1

! !
[B] For 𝐵 = !" !" , the particle will enter region 3 through the point 𝑃! on x-axis

[C] When the particle re-enters region 1 through the longest possible path in region 2,
the magnitude of the change in its linear momentum between point 𝑃! and the
farthest point from 𝑦-axis is 𝑝/ 2

[D] For a fixed 𝐵, particles of same charge 𝑄 and same velocity 𝑣, the distance between
the point 𝑃! and the point of re-entry into region 1 is inversely proportional to the
mass of the particle

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.8: (A) and (B)

9/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.9 The instantaneous voltages at three terminals marked 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 are given by

𝑉! = 𝑉! sin 𝜔𝑡,
!!
𝑉! = 𝑉! sin 𝜔𝑡 + ! and
4𝜋
𝑉! = 𝑉! sin 𝜔𝑡 + .
3
An ideal voltmeter is configured to read rms value of the potential difference between its
terminals. It is connected between points 𝑋 and 𝑌 and then between 𝑌 and 𝑍. The
reading(s) of the voltmeter will be
!"# !
[A] 𝑉!" = 𝑉! !

!"# !
[B] 𝑉!" = 𝑉! !

!"#
[C] 𝑉!" = 𝑉!
[D] independent of the choice of the two terminals

Q.10 A point charge +Q is placed just outside an imaginary hemispherical surface of radius R as
shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

[A] The electric flux passing through the curved surface of the hemisphere is
! !
− !! 1 − !
!

!
[B] Total flux through the curved and the flat surfaces is !
!

[C] The component of the electric field normal to the flat surface is constant over the
surface

[D] The circumference of the flat surface is an equipotential

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.9: (A) and (D) Ans for Q.10: (A) and (D)

10/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.11 Two coherent monochromatic point sources 𝑆! and 𝑆! of wavelength 𝜆 = 600 nm are
placed symmetrically on either side of the center of the circle as shown. The sources are
separated by a distance 𝑑 = 1.8 mm. This arrangement produces interference fringes
visible as alternate bright and dark spots on the circumference of the circle. The angular
separation between two consecutive bright spots is ∆𝜃. Which of the following options
is/are correct?

[A] A dark spot will be formed at the point 𝑃!

[B] At 𝑃! the order of the fringe will be maximum

[C] The total number of fringes produced between 𝑃! and 𝑃! in the first quadrant is close
to 3000

[D] The angular separation between two consecutive bright spots decreases as we move
from 𝑃! to 𝑃! along the first quadrant

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.11: (B) and (C)

11/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.12 A source of constant voltage 𝑉 is connected to a resistance 𝑅 and two ideal inductors 𝐿!
and 𝐿! through a switch 𝑆 as shown. There is no mutual inductance between the two
inductors. The switch 𝑆 is initially open. At 𝑡 = 0, the switch is closed and current begins
to flow. Which of the following options is/are correct?

! !!
[A] After a long time, the current through 𝐿! will be ! !! ! !!
! !!
[B] After a long time, the current through 𝐿! will be ! !! ! !!

[C] The ratio of the currents through 𝐿! and 𝐿! is fixed at all times (𝑡 > 0)
!
[D] At 𝑡 = 0, the current through the resistance 𝑅 is !

Q.13 A rigid uniform bar AB of length 𝐿 is slipping from its vertical position on a frictionless
floor (as shown in the figure). At some instant of time, the angle made by the bar with the
vertical is 𝜃. Which of the following statements about its motion is/are correct?

[A] The midpoint of the bar will fall vertically downward

[B] The trajectory of the point 𝐴 is a parabola
[C] Instantaneous torque about the point in contact with the floor is proportional to sin 𝜃
[D] When the bar makes an angle θ with the vertical, the displacement of its midpoint
from the initial position is proportional to (1 − cos 𝜃)

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.12: (A), (B), and (C) Ans for Q.13: (A), (C), and (D)

12/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.14 A wheel of radius 𝑅 and mass 𝑀 is placed at the bottom of a fixed step of height 𝑅 as
shown in the figure. A constant force is continuously applied on the surface of the wheel
so that it just climbs the step without slipping. Consider the torque 𝜏 about an axis normal
to the plane of the paper passing through the point 𝑄. Which of the following options is/are
correct?
S

P Q
R
X

[A] If the force is applied at point 𝑃 tangentially then 𝜏 decreases continuously as the
wheel climbs

[B] If the force is applied normal to the circumference at point 𝑋 then 𝜏 is constant
[C] If the force is applied normal to the circumference at point 𝑃 then 𝜏 is zero
[D] If the force is applied tangentially at point 𝑆 then 𝜏 ≠ 0 but the wheel never climbs
the step

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.14: {(C)} or {(C) and (D)}

13/36 Paper-2 Code 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This section contains TWO paragraphs

• Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C], and [D]. ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS

• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

Space for rough work

14/36 Paper-2 Code 1

PARAGRAPH 1

Consider a simple 𝑅𝐶 circuit as shown in Figure 1.

Process 1: In the circuit the switch 𝑆 is closed at 𝑡 = 0 and the capacitor is fully charged to
voltage 𝑉! (i.e., charging continues for time 𝑇 >> 𝑅𝐶). In the process some dissipation (𝐸! )
occurs across the resistance 𝑅. The amount of energy finally stored in the fully charged
capacitor is 𝐸! .
!!
Process 2: In a different process the voltage is first set to !
and maintained for a charging time
!!!
𝑇 >> 𝑅𝐶. Then the voltage is raised to ! without discharging the capacitor and again
maintained for a time 𝑇 >> 𝑅𝐶. The process is repeated one more time by raising the voltage
to 𝑉! and the capacitor is charged to the same final voltage 𝑉! as in Process 1.

These two processes are depicted in Figure 2.

V
Process 1
V0
S
2V0/3
Process 2
R T >> RC
V0/3
V C
T 2T t
Figure 1 Figure 2

Q.15 In Process 1, the energy stored in the capacitor 𝐸! and heat dissipated across resistance 𝐸!
are related by:

[A] 𝐸! = 𝐸! [B] 𝐸! = 𝐸! ln 2
!
[C] 𝐸! = ! 𝐸! [D] 𝐸! = 2𝐸!

Q.16 In Process 2, total energy dissipated across the resistance ED is:

! !
[A] 𝐸! = ! 𝐶𝑉!! [B] 𝐸! = 3 !
𝐶𝑉!!

! !
[C] 𝐸! = ! !
𝐶𝑉!! [D] 𝐸! = 3 𝐶𝑉!!

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.15: (A) Ans for Q.16: (C)

15/36 Paper-2 Code 1

PARAGRAPH 2

One twirls a circular ring (of mass 𝑀 and radius 𝑅) near the tip of one’s finger as shown in
Figure 1. In the process the finger never loses contact with the inner rim of the ring. The finger
traces out the surface of a cone, shown by the dotted line. The radius of the path traced out by
the point where the ring and the finger is in contact is 𝑟. The finger rotates with an angular
velocity 𝜔! . The rotating ring rolls without slipping on the outside of a smaller circle described
by the point where the ring and the finger is in contact (Figure 2). The coefficient of friction
between the ring and the finger is µ and the acceleration due to gravity is 𝑔.

Q.17 The total kinetic energy of the ring is

!
[A] 𝑀𝜔!! 𝑅! [B] !
𝑀𝜔!! (𝑅 − 𝑟)!

!
[C] 𝑀𝜔!! (𝑅 − 𝑟)! [D] !
𝑀𝜔!! (𝑅 − 𝑟)!

Q.18 The minimum value of 𝜔! below which the ring will drop down is

! !! !! !
[A] !(!!!)
[B] !(!!!)
[C] !!(!!!)
[D] !!(!!!)

END OF PART I : PHYSICS

Answers for the above questions

Q.17: Due to internal review, all

candidates are awarded +3 marks. Ans for Q.18: (A)

16/36 Paper-2 Code 1

PART II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 21)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS

Q.19 Pure water freezes at 273 K and 1 bar. The addition of 34.5 g of ethanol to 500 g of water
changes the freezing point of the solution. Use the freezing point depression constant of
water as 2 K kg mol−1. The figures shown below represent plots of vapour pressure (V.P.)
versus temperature (T). [molecular weight of ethanol is 46 g mol−1]
Among the following, the option representing change in the freezing point is

[A] [B]

[C] [D]

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.19: (C)

17/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.20 For the following cell,
Zn(s) ZnSO4 (aq) CuSO4 (aq) Cu (s)
when the concentration of Zn 2 + is 10 times the concentration of Cu 2+ , the expression for
ΔG (in J mol−1) is
[F is Faraday constant; R is gas constant; T is temperature; E o (cell ) = 1.1 V ]

[A] 1.1F [B] 2.303RT − 2.2F

[C] 2.303RT + 1.1F [D] −2.2F

Q.21 The standard state Gibbs free energies of formation of C(graphite ) and C(diamond) at
T = 298 K are
Δ f G o [C(graphite)] = 0 kJ mol−1
Δ f G o [C(diamond)] = 2.9 kJ mol−1.
The standard state means that the pressure should be 1 bar, and substance should be pure at
a given temperature. The conversion of graphite [ C(graphite ) ] to diamond [ C(diamond) ]
reduces its volume by 2 × 10 −6 m3 mol−1. If C(graphite ) is converted to C(diamond)
isothermally at T = 298 K, the pressure at which C(graphite ) is in equilibrium with
C(diamond) , is
[Useful information: 1 J = 1 kg m2 s−2; 1 Pa = 1 kg m−1 s−2; 1 bar = 105 Pa]

[A] 14501 bar [B] 58001 bar [C] 1450 bar [D] 29001 bar

Q.22 Which of the following combination will produce H2 gas?

[A] Fe metal and conc. HNO3

[B] Cu metal and conc. HNO3
[C] Zn metal and NaOH(aq)
[D] Au metal and NaCN(aq) in the presence of air

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.20: (B) Ans for Q.21: (A) Ans for Q.22: (C)

18/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.23 The order of the oxidation state of the phosphorus atom in H3PO2, H3PO4, H3PO3, and
H4P2O6 is

[A] H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4 > H4P2O6 [B] H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6

[C] H3PO4 > H4P2O6 > H3PO3 > H3PO2 [D] H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 > H3PO4

Q.24 The major product of the following reaction is

[A] [B]

[C] [D]

Q.25 The order of basicity among the following compounds is

[A] II > I > IV > III [B] IV > II > III > I

[C] IV > I > II > III [D] I > IV > III > II

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.23: (C) Ans for Q.24: (C) Ans for Q.25: (C)

19/36 Paper-2 Code 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four options is(are) correct

• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

Q.26 The correct statement(s) about surface properties is(are)

[A] Adsorption is accompanied by decrease in enthalpy and decrease in entropy of the

system

[B] The critical temperatures of ethane and nitrogen are 563 K and 126 K, respectively.
The adsorption of ethane will be more than that of nitrogen on same amount of
activated charcoal at a given temperature

[C] Cloud is an emulsion type of colloid in which liquid is dispersed phase and gas is
dispersion medium

[D] Brownian motion of colloidal particles does not depend on the size of the particles
but depends on viscosity of the solution

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.26: (A) and (B)

20/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.27 For a reaction taking place in a container in equilibrium with its surroundings, the effect of
temperature on its equilibrium constant K in terms of change in entropy is described by

[A] With increase in temperature, the value of K for exothermic reaction decreases
because the entropy change of the system is positive

[B] With increase in temperature, the value of K for endothermic reaction increases
because unfavourable change in entropy of the surroundings decreases

[C] With increase in temperature, the value of K for endothermic reaction increases
because the entropy change of the system is negative

[D] With increase in temperature, the value of K for exothermic reaction decreases
because favourable change in entropy of the surroundings decreases

Q.28 In a bimolecular reaction, the steric factor P was experimentally determined to be 4.5. The
correct option(s) among the following is(are)

[A] The activation energy of the reaction is unaffected by the value of the steric factor

[B] Experimentally determined value of frequency factor is higher than that predicted by
Arrhenius equation

[C] Since P = 4.5, the reaction will not proceed unless an effective catalyst is used

[D] The value of frequency factor predicted by Arrhenius equation is higher than that
determined experimentally

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.27: (B) and (D) Ans for Q.28: (A) and (B)

21/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.29 For the following compounds, the correct statement(s) with respect to nucleophilic
substitution reactions is(are)

[A] I and III follow SN1 mechanism

[B] I and II follow SN2 mechanism
[C] Compound IV undergoes inversion of configuration
[D] The order of reactivity for I, III and IV is: IV > I > III

Q.30 Among the following, the correct statement(s) is(are)

[A] Al(CH3)3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure
[B] BH3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure
[C] AlCl3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure
[D] The Lewis acidity of BCl3 is greater than that of AlCl3

Q.31 The option(s) with only amphoteric oxides is(are)

[A] Cr2O3, BeO, SnO, SnO2 [B] Cr2O3, CrO, SnO, PbO

[C] NO, B2O3, PbO, SnO2 [D] ZnO, Al2O3, PbO, PbO2

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.29: {(A), (B), and (C)} or {(A), (B), (C), and (D)}

Ans for Q.30: (A), (B), and (D) Ans for Q.31: (A) and (D)

22/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.32 Compounds P and R upon ozonolysis produce Q and S, respectively. The molecular
formula of Q and S is C8H8O. Q undergoes Cannizzaro reaction but not haloform reaction,
whereas S undergoes haloform reaction but not Cannizzaro reaction.

The option(s) with suitable combination of P and R, respectively, is(are)

[A] [B]

[C] [D]

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.32: (A) and (B)

23/36 Paper-2 Code 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This section contains TWO paragraphs

• Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C], and [D]. ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS

• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

PARAGRAPH 1

Upon heating KClO3 in the presence of catalytic amount of MnO2, a gas W is formed. Excess
amount of W reacts with white phosphorus to give X. The reaction of X with pure HNO3 gives
Y and Z.

Q.33 W and X are, respectively

[A] O3 and P4O6 [B] O2 and P4O6

[C] O2 and P4O10 [D] O3 and P4O10

Q.34 Y and Z are, respectively

[A] N2O3 and H3PO4 [B] N2O5 and HPO3

[C] N2O4 and HPO3 [D] N2O4 and H3PO3

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.33: (C) Ans for Q.34: (B)

24/36 Paper-2 Code 1

PARAGRAPH 2

The reaction of compound P with CH3MgBr (excess) in (C2H5)2O followed by addition of H2O
gives Q. The compound Q on treatment with H2SO4 at 0°C gives R. The reaction of R with
CH3COCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 in CH2Cl2 followed by treatment with H2O
produces compound S. [Et in compound P is ethyl group]

Q.35 The product S is

[A] [B]

[C] [D]

Q.36 The reactions, Q to R and R to S, are

[A] Dehydration and Friedel-Crafts acylation

[B] Aromatic sulfonation and Friedel-Crafts acylation
[C] Friedel-Crafts alkylation, dehydration and Friedel-Crafts acylation
[D] Friedel-Crafts alkylation and Friedel-Crafts acylation
END OF PART II : CHEMISTRY

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.35: (A) Ans for Q.36: (D)

25/36 Paper-2 Code 1

PART III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 21)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS

Q.37 The equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 1, 1) and perpendicular to the
planes 2𝑥 + 𝑦 − 2𝑧 = 5 and 3𝑥 − 6𝑦 − 2𝑧 = 7, is

[A] 14𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 15𝑧 = 1 [B] 14𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 15𝑧 = 27

[C] 14𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 15𝑧 = 31 [D] −14𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 15𝑧 = 3

Q.38 Let 𝑂 be the origin and let 𝑃𝑄𝑅 be an arbitrary triangle. The point 𝑆 is such that

𝑂𝑃 ⋅ 𝑂𝑄 + 𝑂𝑅 ⋅ 𝑂𝑆 = 𝑂𝑅 ⋅ 𝑂𝑃 + 𝑂𝑄 ⋅ 𝑂𝑆 = 𝑂𝑄 ⋅ 𝑂𝑅 + 𝑂𝑃 ⋅ 𝑂𝑆

Then the triangle 𝑃𝑄𝑅 has 𝑆 as its

[A] centroid [B] circumcentre

[C] incentre [D] orthocenter

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.37: (C) Ans for Q.38: (D)

26/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.39 If 𝑦 = 𝑦(𝑥) satisfies the differential equation
−1

8 𝑥 9 + 𝑥 𝑑𝑦 = 4+ 9+ 𝑥 𝑑𝑥, 𝑥>0

and 𝑦 0 = 7, then 𝑦 256 =

[A] 3 [B] 9 [C] 16 [D] 80

Q.40 If 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ is a twice differentiable function such that 𝑓 !! 𝑥 > 0 for all 𝑥 ∈ ℝ, and
! !
𝑓 ! = !, 𝑓 1 = 1, then

!
[A] 𝑓 ! 1 ≤ 0 [B] 0 < 𝑓 ! 1 ≤ !

!
[C] < 𝑓! 1 ≤ 1 [D] 𝑓 ! 1 > 1
!

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.39: (A) Ans for Q.40: (D)

27/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.41 How many 3×3 matrices 𝑀 with entries from 0, 1, 2 are there, for which the sum of the
diagonal entries of 𝑀! 𝑀 is 5?

[A] 126 [B] 198 [C] 162 [D] 135

Q.42 Let 𝑆 = 1, 2, 3, … , 9 . For 𝑘 = 1, 2, … ,5, let 𝑁! be the number of subsets of 𝑆, each

containing five elements out of which exactly 𝑘 are odd. Then 𝑁! + 𝑁! + 𝑁! + 𝑁! + 𝑁! =

[A] 210 [B] 252 [C] 125 [D] 126

Q.43 Three randomly chosen nonnegative integers 𝑥, 𝑦 and 𝑧 are found to satisfy the equation
𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 10. Then the probability that 𝑧 is even, is
!" ! ! !
[A] !!
[B] !!
[C] !
[D] !!

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.41: (B) Ans for Q.42: (D) Ans for Q.43: (B)

28/36 Paper-2 Code 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four options is(are) correct

• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

!"#(!!)
Q.44 If 𝑔 𝑥 = !"# !
sin!! (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡, then

! !
[A] 𝑔! !
= −2𝜋 [B] 𝑔! − ! = 2𝜋

! !
[C] 𝑔! !
= 2𝜋 [D] 𝑔! − ! = −2𝜋

Q.45 Let 𝛼 and 𝛽 be nonzero real numbers such that 2 cos 𝛽 − cos 𝛼 + cos 𝛼 cos 𝛽 = 1. Then
which of the following is/are true?

! ! ! !
[A] tan !
+ 3 tan !
=0 [B] 3 tan !
+ tan !
=0

! ! ! !
[C] tan !
− 3 tan !
=0 [D] 3 tan !
− tan !
=0

Answers for the above questions

Q.44: Due to internal review, Q.45: Due to internal review,

all candidates are awarded all candidates are awarded
+4 marks. +4 marks.

29/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.46 If 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ is a differentiable function such that 𝑓′(𝑥) > 2𝑓(𝑥) for all 𝑥 ∈ ℝ, and
𝑓 0 = 1, then

[A] 𝑓(𝑥) is increasing in (0, ∞) [B] 𝑓 𝑥 is decreasing in 0, ∞

[C] 𝑓 𝑥 > 𝑒 !! in (0, ∞) [D] 𝑓′ 𝑥 < 𝑒 !! in (0, ∞)

!!! !!|!!!| !
Q.47 Let 𝑓 𝑥 = |!!!|
cos !!!
for 𝑥 ≠ 1. Then

[A] lim!→!! 𝑓 𝑥 = 0 [B] lim!→!! 𝑓 𝑥 does not exist

[C] lim!→!! 𝑓 𝑥 = 0 [D] lim!→!! 𝑓 𝑥 does not exist

cos(2𝑥) cos(2𝑥) sin(2𝑥)

Q.48 If 𝑓 𝑥 = − cos 𝑥 cos 𝑥 − sin 𝑥 , then
sin 𝑥 sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥

[A] 𝑓 ! 𝑥 = 0 at exactly three points in −𝜋, 𝜋

[B] 𝑓 ! 𝑥 = 0 at more than three points in −𝜋, 𝜋
[C] 𝑓 𝑥 attains its maximum at 𝑥 = 0
[D] 𝑓 𝑥 attains its minimum at 𝑥 = 0

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.46: (A) and (C) Ans for Q.47: (A) and (D)

Ans for Q.48: (B) and (C)

30/36 Paper-2 Code 1

Q.49 If the line 𝑥 = 𝛼 divides the area of region 𝑅 = { 𝑥, 𝑦 ∈ ℝ! : 𝑥 ! ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 𝑥, 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1} into
two equal parts, then
! !
[A] 0 < 𝛼 ≤ ! [B] !
<𝛼<1

[C] 2𝛼 ! − 4𝛼 ! + 1 = 0 [D] 𝛼 ! + 4𝛼 ! − 1 = 0

!"
!!! !!!
Q.50 If 𝐼 = ! !(!!!)
𝑑𝑥, then
!!!

[A] 𝐼 > log ! 99 [B] 𝐼 < log ! 99

!" !"
[C] 𝐼 < !" [D] 𝐼 > !"

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.49: (B) and (C) Ans for Q.50: (B) and (D)

31/36 Paper-2 Code 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This section contains TWO paragraphs

• Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C], and [D]. ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS

• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

PARAGRAPH 1

Let 𝑂 be the origin, and 𝑂𝑋, 𝑂𝑌, 𝑂𝑍 be three unit vectors in the directions of the sides 𝑄𝑅, 𝑅𝑃,
𝑃𝑄, respectively, of a triangle 𝑃𝑄𝑅.

Q.51 ∣ 𝑂𝑋×𝑂𝑌 ∣=

[A] sin(𝑃 + 𝑄) [B] sin 2𝑅 [C] sin(𝑃 + 𝑅) [D] sin(𝑄 + 𝑅)

Q.52 If the triangle 𝑃𝑄𝑅 varies, then the minimum value of

cos 𝑃 + 𝑄 +cos 𝑄 + 𝑅 +cos 𝑅 + 𝑃
is
! ! ! !
[A] − ! [B] − ! [C] ! [D] !

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.51: (A) Ans for Q.52: (B)

32/36 Paper-2 Code 1

PARAGRAPH 2

Let 𝑝, 𝑞 be integers and let 𝛼, 𝛽 be the roots of the equation, 𝑥 ! − 𝑥 − 1 = 0, where

𝛼 ≠ 𝛽. For 𝑛 = 0, 1, 2, … , let 𝑎! = 𝑝𝛼 ! + 𝑞𝛽 ! .

FACT: If 𝑎 and 𝑏 are rational numbers and 𝑎 + 𝑏 5 = 0, then 𝑎 = 0 = 𝑏.

Q.53 𝑎!" =

[A] 𝑎!! − 𝑎!" [B] 𝑎!! + 𝑎!" [C] 2𝑎!! + 𝑎!" [D] 𝑎!! + 2𝑎!"

Q.54 If 𝑎! = 28, then 𝑝 + 2𝑞 =

[A] 21 [B] 14 [C] 7 [D] 12

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.53: (B) Ans for Q.54: (D)

33/36 Paper-2 Code 1

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

34/36 Paper-2 Code 1

PART I : PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four options is(are) correct

• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

Q.1 A flat plate is moving normal to its plane through a gas under the action of a constant force
F. The gas is kept at a very low pressure. The speed of the plate v is much less than the
average speed u of the gas molecules. Which of the following options is/are true?

[A] The pressure difference between the leading and trailing faces of the plate is
proportional to uv
[B] The resistive force experienced by the plate is proportional to v
[C] The plate will continue to move with constant non-zero acceleration, at all times
[D] At a later time the external force F balances the resistive force

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.1: (A), (B), and (D)

3/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.2 A block of mass M has a circular cut with a frictionless surface as shown. The block rests
on the horizontal frictionless surface of a fixed table. Initially the right edge of the block is
at x = 0, in a co-ordinate system fixed to the table. A point mass m is released from rest at
the topmost point of the path as shown and it slides down. When the mass loses contact
with the block, its position is x and the velocity is v. At that instant, which of the following
options is/are correct?

!"
[A] The position of the point mass m is: 𝑥 = − 2 !!!
!!"
[B] The velocity of the point mass m is: 𝑣 = !
!!
!

!"
[C] The x component of displacement of the center of mass of the block M is: − !!!
!
[D] The velocity of the block M is: 𝑉 = − ! 2𝑔𝑅

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.2: (B) and (C)

4/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.3 A block M hangs vertically at the bottom end of a uniform rope of constant mass per unit
length. The top end of the rope is attached to a fixed rigid support at O. A transverse wave
pulse (Pulse 1) of wavelength λ0 is produced at point O on the rope. The pulse takes time
TOA to reach point A. If the wave pulse of wavelength λ0 is produced at point A (Pulse 2)
without disturbing the position of M it takes time TAO to reach point O. Which of the
following options is/are correct?

O Pulse 1

Pulse 2
A M

[A] The time TAO = TOA

[B] The velocities of the two pulses (Pulse 1 and Pulse 2) are the same at the midpoint of
rope

[C] The wavelength of Pulse 1 becomes longer when it reaches point A

[D] The velocity of any pulse along the rope is independent of its frequency and
wavelength

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.3: (A) and (D)

5/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.4 A human body has a surface area of approximately 1 m! . The normal body temperature is
10 K above the surrounding room temperature 𝑇! . Take the room temperature to be
𝑇! = 300 K. For 𝑇! = 300 K, the value of 𝜎𝑇!! = 460 Wm!! (where 𝜎 is the Stefan-
Boltzmann constant). Which of the following options is/are correct?

[A] The amount of energy radiated by the body in 1 second is close to 60 Joules

[B] If the surrounding temperature reduces by a small amount ∆𝑇! ≪ 𝑇! , then to

maintain the same body temperature the same (living) human being needs to radiate
∆𝑊 = 4𝜎𝑇!! ∆𝑇! more energy per unit time

[C] Reducing the exposed surface area of the body (e.g. by curling up) allows humans to
maintain the same body temperature while reducing the energy lost by radiation

[D] If the body temperature rises significantly then the peak in the spectrum of
electromagnetic radiation emitted by the body would shift to longer wavelengths

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.4: (C)

6/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.5 A circular insulated copper wire loop is twisted to form two loops of area 𝐴 and 2𝐴 as
shown in the figure. At the point of crossing the wires remain electrically insulated from
each other. The entire loop lies in the plane (of the paper). A uniform magnetic field 𝐵
points into the plane of the paper. At 𝑡 = 0, the loop starts rotating about the common
diameter as axis with a constant angular velocity ω in the magnetic field. Which of the
following options is/are correct?

[A] The emf induced in the loop is proportional to the sum of the areas of the two loops

[B] The amplitude of the maximum net emf induced due to both the loops is equal to the
amplitude of maximum emf induced in the smaller loop alone

[C] The net emf induced due to both the loops is proportional to cos ωt

[D] The rate of change of the flux is maximum when the plane of the loops is
perpendicular to plane of the paper

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.5: (B) and (D)

7/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.6 In the circuit shown, 𝐿 = 1 𝜇H, 𝐶 = 1 𝜇F and 𝑅 = 1 𝑘Ω. They are connected in series with
an a.c. source 𝑉 = 𝑉! sin 𝜔𝑡 as shown. Which of the following options is/are correct?
L = 1 µH C = 1 µF R = 1 kΩ

V0 sin ω t

[A] The current will be in phase with the voltage if 𝜔 = 10! rad. s !!
[B] The frequency at which the current will be in phase with the voltage is independent
of 𝑅
[C] At 𝜔~0 the current flowing through the circuit becomes nearly zero
[D] At 𝜔 ≫ 10! rad. s !! , the circuit behaves like a capacitor

Q.7 For an isosceles prism of angle 𝐴 and refractive index µ, it is found that the angle of
minimum deviation 𝛿! = 𝐴. Which of the following options is/are correct?

[A] For the angle of incidence 𝑖! = 𝐴, the ray inside the prism is parallel to the base of
the prism

[B] For this prism, the refractive index µ and the angle of prism 𝐴 are related as
! !
𝐴 = ! cos !! !

[C] At minimum deviation, the incident angle 𝑖! and the refracting angle 𝑟! at the first
refracting surface are related by 𝑟! = (𝑖! /2)

[D] For this prism, the emergent ray at the second surface will be tangential to the
surface when the angle of incidence at the first surface is
!
𝑖! = sin!! sin 𝐴 4 cos ! ! − 1 − cos 𝐴

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.6: (B) and (C) Ans for Q.7: (A), (C) and (D)

8/36 Paper-1 Code 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 15)

• This section contains FIVE questions

• The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both
inclusive

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

!.!
Q.8 A drop of liquid of radius R = 10!! m having surface tension S = !" Nm!! divides itself
into 𝐾 identical drops. In this process the total change in the surface energy ∆𝑈 = 10!! J.
If 𝐾 = 10! then the value of α is

Q.9 An electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from an orbit with quantum number
𝑛! to another with quantum number 𝑛! . 𝑉! and 𝑉! are respectively the initial and final
!!
potential energies of the electron. If !!
= 6.25, then the smallest possible 𝑛! is

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.8: (6) Ans for Q.9: (5)

9/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.10 A monochromatic light is travelling in a medium of refractive index 𝑛 = 1.6. It enters a
stack of glass layers from the bottom side at an angle 𝜃 = 30! . The interfaces of the glass
layers are parallel to each other. The refractive indices of different glass layers are
monotonically decreasing as nm = n – mΔn, where nm is the refractive index of the mth slab
and Δn = 0.1 (see the figure). The ray is refracted out parallel to the interface between the
(m – 1)th and mth slabs from the right side of the stack. What is the value of m?

m n – mΔn
m-1 n – (m-1)Δn

≈ ≈

3 n - 3Δn
2 n - 2Δn
1 n - Δn
n
θ

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.10: (8)

10/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.11 A stationary source emits sound of frequency 𝑓! = 492 Hz. The sound is reflected by a
large car approaching the source with a speed of 2 ms !! . The reflected signal is received
by the source and superposed with the original. What will be the beat frequency of the
resulting signal in Hz? (Given that the speed of sound in air is 330 ms !! and the car
reflects the sound at the frequency it has received).

131
Q.12 I is an isotope of Iodine that β decays to an isotope of Xenon with a half-life of 8 days.
A small amount of a serum labelled with 131I is injected into the blood of a person. The
activity of the amount of 131I injected was 2.4 ×10! Becquerel (Bq). It is known that the
injected serum will get distributed uniformly in the blood stream in less than half an hour.
After 11.5 hours, 2.5 ml of blood is drawn from the person’s body, and gives an activity of
115 Bq. The total volume of blood in the person’s body, in liters is approximately
(you may use 𝑒 ! ≈ 1 + 𝑥 for 𝑥 ≪ 1 and ln 2 ≈ 0.7).

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.11: (6) Ans for Q.12: (5)

11/36 Paper-1 Code 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 18)

• This section contains SIX questions of matching type

• This section contains TWO tables (each having 3 columns and 4 rows)

• Based on each table, there are THREE questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C], and [D]. ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS

Space for rough work

12/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.15 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.

A charged particle (electron or proton) is introduced at the origin (𝑥 = 0, 𝑦 = 0, 𝑧 = 0) with a

given initial velocity 𝑣. A uniform electric field 𝐸 and a uniform magnetic field 𝐵 exist
everywhere. The velocity 𝑣, electric field 𝐸 and magnetic field 𝐵 are given in columns 1, 2 and
3, respectively. The quantities 𝐸! , 𝐵! are positive in magnitude.
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
(I) Electron with 𝑣 = 2 𝑥 ! !
(i) 𝐸 = 𝐸! 𝑧 (P) 𝐵 = −𝐵! 𝑥
! !

(II) Electron with 𝑣 = !! 𝑦 (ii) 𝐸 = −𝐸! 𝑦 (Q) 𝐵 = 𝐵! 𝑥

! !

(III) Proton with 𝑣 = 0 (iii) 𝐸 = −𝐸! 𝑥 (R) 𝐵 = 𝐵! 𝑦

(IV) Proton with 𝑣 = 2 !! 𝑥 (iv) 𝐸 = 𝐸! 𝑥 (S) 𝐵 = 𝐵! 𝑧

! !

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.16: (D) Ans for Q.17: (B) Ans for Q.18: (D)

15/36 Paper-1 Code 1

PART II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four options is(are) correct

• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

Q.19 An ideal gas is expanded from (p1, V1, T1) to (p2, V2, T2) under different conditions. The
correct statement(s) among the following is(are)

[A] The work done on the gas is maximum when it is compressed irreversibly from
(p2, V2) to (p1, V1) against constant pressure p1

[B] If the expansion is carried out freely, it is simultaneously both isothermal as well as
adiabatic

[C] The work done by the gas is less when it is expanded reversibly from V1 to V2 under
adiabatic conditions as compared to that when expanded reversibly from V1 to V2
under isothermal conditions

[D] The change in internal energy of the gas is (i) zero, if it is expanded reversibly with
T1 = T2, and (ii) positive, if it is expanded reversibly under adiabatic conditions with
T1 ≠ T2

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.19: (A), (B), and (C)
16/36 Paper-1 Code 1
Q.20 For a solution formed by mixing liquids L and M, the vapour pressure of L plotted against
the mole fraction of M in solution is shown in the following figure. Here xL and xM
represent mole fractions of L and M, respectively, in the solution. The correct statement(s)
applicable to this system is(are)

[A] The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid M and Raoult’s law is obeyed
from xL = 0 to xL = 1

[B] The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid L and Raoult’s law is obeyed
when xL à 1

[C] The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid M and Raoult’s law is obeyed
when xL à 0

[D] Attractive intermolecular interactions between L-L in pure liquid L and M-M in
pure liquid M are stronger than those between L-M when mixed in solution

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.20: (B) and (D)

17/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.21 The correct statement(s) about the oxoacids, HClO4 and HClO, is(are)

[A] The central atom in both HClO4 and HClO is sp3 hybridized
[B] HClO4 is more acidic than HClO because of the resonance stabilization of its anion
[C] HClO4 is formed in the reaction between Cl2 and H2O
[D] The conjugate base of HClO4 is weaker base than H2O

Q.22 The colour of the X2 molecules of group 17 elements changes gradually from yellow to
violet down the group. This is due to

[A] the physical state of X2 at room temperature changes from gas to solid down the
group
[B] decrease in ionization energy down the group
[C] decrease in π*-σ* gap down the group
[D] decrease in HOMO-LUMO gap down the group

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.21: (A), (B), and (D) Ans for Q.22: (C) and (D)

18/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.23 Addition of excess aqueous ammonia to a pink coloured aqueous solution of MCl2·6H2O
(X) and NH4Cl gives an octahedral complex Y in the presence of air. In aqueous solution,
complex Y behaves as 1:3 electrolyte. The reaction of X with excess HCl at room
temperature results in the formation of a blue coloured complex Z. The calculated spin
only magnetic moment of X and Z is 3.87 B.M., whereas it is zero for complex Y.
Among the following options, which statement(s) is(are) correct?

[A] Addition of silver nitrate to Y gives only two equivalents of silver chloride
[B] The hybridization of the central metal ion in Y is d2sp3
[C] Z is a tetrahedral complex
[D] When X and Z are in equilibrium at 0°C, the colour of the solution is pink

Q.24 The IUPAC name(s) of the following compound is(are)

[A] 1-chloro-4-methylbenzene [B] 4-chlorotoluene

[C] 4-methylchlorobenzene [D] 1-methyl-4-chlorobenzene

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.23: (B), (C), and (D) Ans for Q.24: (A) and (B)

19/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.25 The correct statement(s) for the following addition reactions is(are)

[A] O and P are identical molecules

[B] (M and O) and (N and P) are two pairs of diastereomers
[C] (M and O) and (N and P) are two pairs of enantiomers
[D] Bromination proceeds through trans-addition in both the reactions

Space for rough work

Answer for the above question

Ans for Q.25: (B) and (D)

20/36 Paper-1 Code 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 15)

• This section contains FIVE questions

• The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both
inclusive

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

Q.26 A crystalline solid of a pure substance has a face-centred cubic structure with a cell edge of
400 pm. If the density of the substance in the crystal is 8 g cm−3, then the number of atoms
present in 256 g of the crystal is N × 10 24 . The value of N is

Q.27 The conductance of a 0.0015 M aqueous solution of a weak monobasic acid was
determined by using a conductivity cell consisting of platinized Pt electrodes. The distance
between the electrodes is 120 cm with an area of cross section of 1 cm2. The conductance
of this solution was found to be 5 × 10 −7 S. The pH of the solution is 4. The value of
( )
o
limiting molar conductivity Λ m of this weak monobasic acid in aqueous solution is
−1 −1
Z × 10 2 S cm mol . The value of Z is

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.26: (2) Ans for Q.27: (6)

21/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.28 The sum of the number of lone pairs of electrons on each central atom in the following
species is
[TeBr6]2−, [BrF2]+, SNF3, and [XeF3]−
(Atomic numbers: N = 7, F = 9, S = 16, Br = 35, Te = 52, Xe = 54)

Q.29 Among H2, He2+, Li2, Be2, B2, C2, N2, O2−, and F2, the number of diamagnetic species is
(Atomic numbers: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9)

Q.30 Among the following, the number of aromatic compound(s) is

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.28: (6) Ans for Q.30: (5)

Due to printing inconsistency in Q.29 in Code1 of Paper1

(and the corresponding question in all other codes), +3
marks will be awarded to all candidates for this question.

22/36 Paper-1 Code 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 18)

• This section contains SIX questions of matching type

• This section contains TWO tables (each having 3 columns and 4 rows)

• Based on each table, there are THREE questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C], and [D]. ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS

Space for rough work

23/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Answer Q.31, Q.32 and Q.33 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.

The wave function, ψ n ,l ,ml is a mathematical function whose value depends upon spherical
polar coordinates ( r , θ , φ ) of the electron and characterized by the quantum numbers n, l and
ml . Here r is distance from nucleus, θ is colatitude and φ is azimuth. In the mathematical
functions given in the Table, Z is atomic number and ao is Bohr radius.
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
(I) 1s orbital 3
⎛ Zr ⎞ (P)
⎛ Z ⎞ 2 − ⎜⎜⎝ ao ⎟⎟⎠
(i) ψ n,l ,ml ∝ ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ e
⎝ ao ⎠

(II) 2s orbital (ii) One radial node (Q) Probability density at nucleus
1
∝ 3
ao
(III) 2pz orbital 5
⎛ Zr ⎞ (R) Probability density is maximum
⎛ Z ⎞ 2 − ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ at nucleus
(iii) ψ n,l ,ml ∝ ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ re ⎝ 2 ao ⎠ cosθ
⎝ ao ⎠
(IV) 3dz2 orbital (iv) xy-plane is a nodal plane (S) Energy needed to excite
electron from n = 2 state to n =
27
4 state is times the energy
32
needed to excite electron from
n = 2 state to n = 6 state

Q.31 For the given orbital in Column 1, the only CORRECT combination for any hydrogen-like
species is
[A] (I) (ii) (S) [B] (IV) (iv) (R) [C] (II) (ii) (P) [D] (III) (iii) (P)

Q.32 For hydrogen atom, the only CORRECT combination is

[A] (I) (i) (S) [B] (II) (i) (Q) [C] (I) (i) (P) [D] (I) (iv) (R)

Q.33 For He+ ion, the only INCORRECT combination is

[A] (I) (i) (R) [B] (II) (ii) (Q) [C] (I) (iii) (R) [D] (I) (i) (S)

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.31: (C) Ans for Q.32: (A) Ans for Q.33: (C)
24/36 Paper-1 Code 1
Answer Q.34, Q.35 and Q.36 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.

Columns 1, 2 and 3 contain starting materials, reaction conditions, and type of reactions,
respectively.
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
(I) Toluene (i) NaOH/ Br2 (P) Condensation
(II) Acetophenone (ii) Br2/ hν (Q) Carboxylation
(III) Benzaldehyde (iii) (CH3CO)2O/ CH3COOK (R) Substitution
(IV) Phenol (iv) NaOH/ CO2 (S) Haloform

Q.34 For the synthesis of benzoic acid, the only CORRECT combination is

[A] (II) (i) (S) [B] (IV) (ii) (P) [C] (I) (iv) (Q) [D] (III) (iv) (R)

Q.35 The only CORRECT combination that gives two different carboxylic acids is

[A] (II) (iv) (R) [B] (IV) (iii) (Q) [C] (III) (iii) (P) [D] (I) (i) (S)

Q.36 The only CORRECT combination in which the reaction proceeds through radical
mechanism is

[A] (III) (ii) (P) [B] (IV) (i) (Q) [C] (II) (iii) (R) [D] (I) (ii) (R)

END OF PART II : CHEMISTRY

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.34: (A) Ans for Q.35: (C) Ans for Q.36: (D)

25/36 Paper-1 Code 1

PART III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)

• This section contains SEVEN questions

• Each question has FOUR options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four options is(are) correct

• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

!! !!
Q.37 If 2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 1 = 0 is a tangent to the hyperbola !!
− !" = 1, then which of the following
CANNOT be sides of a right angled triangle?

[A] a, 4, 1 [B] a, 4, 2 [C] 2a, 8, 1 [D] 2a, 4, 1

Q.38 If a chord, which is not a tangent, of the parabola 𝑦 ! = 16𝑥 has the equation 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑝,
and midpoint (ℎ, 𝑘), then which of the following is(are) possible value(s) of 𝑝, ℎ and 𝑘?

[A] 𝑝 = −2, ℎ = 2, 𝑘 = −4 [B] 𝑝 = −1, ℎ = 1, 𝑘 = −3

[C] 𝑝 = 2, ℎ = 3, 𝑘 = −4 [D] 𝑝 = 5, ℎ = 4, 𝑘 = −3

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.37: (A), (B), and (C) Ans for Q.38: (C)

26/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.39 Let [𝑥] be the greatest integer less than or equals to 𝑥. Then, at which of the following
point(s) the function 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 cos(𝜋(𝑥 + [𝑥])) is discontinuous?

[A] 𝑥 = −1 [B] 𝑥 = 0 [C] 𝑥 = 1 [D] 𝑥 = 2

Q.40 Let 𝑓: ℝ → (0, 1) be a continuous function. Then, which of the following function(s)
has(have) the value zero at some point in the interval (0, 1)?
!
! !!
[A] 𝑥 − 𝑓(𝑥) [B] 𝑥 − !
!
𝑓 𝑡 cos 𝑡 𝑑𝑡

!
!
[C] 𝑒 ! − !
𝑓 𝑡 sin 𝑡 𝑑𝑡 [D] 𝑓 𝑥 + !
! 𝑓 𝑡 sin 𝑡 𝑑𝑡

Q.41 Which of the following is(are) NOT the square of a 3×3 matrix with real entries?

1 0 0 1 0 0
[A] 0 1 0 [B] 0 1 0
0 0 1 0 0 −1
1 0 0 −1 0 0
[C] 0 −1 0 [D] 0 −1 0
0 0 −1 0 0 −1

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Due to printing inconsistency in Q.39 in Code1 of Paper1
(and the corresponding question in all other codes), +4
marks will be awarded to all candidates for this question.

Ans for Q.40: (A) and (B) Ans for Q.41: (B) and (D)

27/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Q.42 Let 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑥 and 𝑦 be real numbers such that 𝑎 − 𝑏 = 1 and 𝑦 ≠ 0. If the complex number
!"!!
𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑖𝑦 satisfies Im !!! = y, then which of the following is(are) possible value(s) of
𝑥?

[A] −1 + 1 − 𝑦 ! [B] −1 − 1 − 𝑦 !

[C] 1 + 1 + 𝑦 ! [D] 1 − 1 + 𝑦 !

! ! !
Q.43 Let 𝑋 and 𝑌 be two events such that 𝑃 𝑋 = !, 𝑃 𝑋|𝑌 = ! and 𝑃 𝑌|𝑋 = !. Then

! !
[A] 𝑃 𝑌 = !" [B] 𝑃 𝑋 ! |𝑌 = !

! !
[C] 𝑃 𝑋 ∩ 𝑌 = ! [D] 𝑃 𝑋 ∪ 𝑌 = !

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.42: (A) and (B) Ans for Q.43: (A) and (B)

28/36 Paper-1 Code 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 15)

• This section contains FIVE questions

• The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both
inclusive

• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

Q.44 For how many values of 𝑝, the circle 𝑥 ! + 𝑦 ! + 2𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 𝑝 = 0 and the coordinate axes
have exactly three common points?

31/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Answer Q.49, Q.50 and Q.51 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.

Columns 1, 2 and 3 contain conics, equations of tangents to the conics and points of contact,
respectively.
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3

! !!
(I) 𝑥 ! + 𝑦 ! = 𝑎! (i) 𝑚𝑦 = 𝑚! 𝑥 + 𝑎 (P) !!
,!

!!" !
(II) 𝑥 ! + 𝑎! 𝑦 ! = 𝑎! (ii) 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑎 𝑚! + 1 (Q)
!! !!
,
!! !!

!! ! ! !
(III) 𝑦 ! = 4𝑎𝑥 (iii) 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑎! 𝑚! − 1 (R) ,
! ! !! !! ! ! !! !!

!! ! ! !!
(IV) 𝑥 ! − 𝑎! 𝑦 ! = 𝑎! (iv) 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑎! 𝑚! + 1 (S) ,
! ! !! !! ! ! !! !!

Q.49 For 𝑎 = 2, if a tangent is drawn to a suitable conic (Column 1) at the point of contact
(−1, 1), then which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination for
obtaining its equation?

[A] (I) (i) (P) [B] (I) (ii) (Q) [C] (II) (ii) (Q) [D] (III) (i) (P)

Q.50 If a tangent to a suitable conic (Column 1) is found to be 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 8 and its point of contact
is (8, 16), then which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination?

[A] (I) (ii) (Q) [B] (II) (iv) (R) [C] (III) (i) (P) [D] (III) (ii) (Q)

!
Q.51 The tangent to a suitable conic (Column 1) at ( 3, !) is found to be 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 4, then
which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination?

[A] (IV) (iii) (S) [B] (IV) (iv) (S) [C] (II) (iii) (R) [D] (II) (iv) (R)

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.49: (B) Ans for Q.50: (C) Ans for Q.51: (D)

32/36 Paper-1 Code 1

Answer Q.52, Q.53 and Q.54 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.

Let 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 + log ! 𝑥 − 𝑥 log ! 𝑥, 𝑥 ∈ (0, ∞).

• Column 1 contains information about zeros of 𝑓 𝑥 , 𝑓 ! 𝑥 and 𝑓 !! (𝑥).
• Column 2 contains information about the limiting behavior of 𝑓 𝑥 , 𝑓 ! 𝑥 and 𝑓 !! (𝑥) at infinity.
• Column 3 contains information about increasing/decreasing nature of 𝑓 𝑥 and 𝑓 ! 𝑥 .
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
(I) 𝑓 𝑥 = 0 for some 𝑥 ∈ (1, 𝑒 ! ) (i) lim!→! 𝑓 𝑥 = 0 (P) 𝑓 is increasing in (0, 1)

(II) 𝑓 ! 𝑥 = 0 for some 𝑥 ∈ (1, 𝑒) (ii) lim!→! 𝑓 𝑥 = −∞ (Q) 𝑓 is decreasing in (𝑒, 𝑒 ! )

(III) 𝑓 ! 𝑥 = 0 for some 𝑥 ∈ (0, 1) (iii) lim!→! 𝑓 ! 𝑥 = −∞ (R) 𝑓 ! is increasing in (0, 1)

(IV) 𝑓 !! 𝑥 = 0 for some 𝑥 ∈ (1, 𝑒) (iv) lim!→! 𝑓 !! 𝑥 = 0 (S) 𝑓 ! is decreasing in (𝑒, 𝑒 ! )

Q.52 Which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination?

[A] (I) (i) (P) [B] (II) (ii) (Q) [C] (III) (iii) (R) [D] (IV) (iv) (S)

Q.53 Which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination?

[A] (I) (ii) (R) [B] (II) (iii) (S) [C] (III) (iv) (P) [D] (IV) (i) (S)

Q.54 Which of the following options is the only INCORRECT combination?

[A] (I) (iii) (P) [B] (II) (iv) (Q) [C] (III) (i) (R) [D] (II) (iii) (P)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Space for rough work

Answers for the above questions

Ans for Q.52: (B) Ans for Q.53: (B) Ans for Q.54: (C)

33/36 Paper-1 Code 1

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

34/36 Paper-1 Code 1

JEE(ADVANCED) – 2014 PAPER-2 Code-1

Questions with Answers

PART-1 PHYSICS

SECTION -1 (Only One Option Correct Type)

This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four
choices (A), B), (C) and (D) out of which only one option is correct.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1. A tennis ball is dropped on a horizontal smooth surface. It bounces back to its original
position after hitting the surface. The force on the ball during the collision is proportional to the
length of compression of the ball. Which one of the following sketches describes the variation of
its kinetic energy 𝐾𝐾 with time𝑡𝑡 most appropriately? The figures are only illustrative and not to
the scale.

(A) (B)

K K

t
t

K
t

Answer (B)
2. A wire, whichpasses through the hole in a small bead, is bent in the form of quarter of a circle.
The wire is fixed vertically on ground as shown in the figure. The bead is released from near the
top of the wire and it slides along the wire without friction. As the bead moves from A to B, the
force it applies on the wire is

90°
B
(A)always radially outwards.

(B)always radially inwards.

(C)radially outwards initially and radially inwards later.

(D)radially inwards initially and radially outwards later.

Answer (D)
3. During an experiment with ametre bridge, the galvanometer shows a null point when the
jockey is pressed at 40.0 𝑐𝑐𝑚𝑚 using a standard resistance of 90 𝛺𝛺,as shown in the figure. The least
count of the scale used in the metre bridge is1 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚. The unknown resistance is

R 90 Ω

40.0 cm
(A)60 ± 0.15Ω

(B)135 ± 0.56Ω

(D)135 ± 0.23Ω

Answer (C)
4.Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of
radii R/2, R and 2R, respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric fields at point
P at a distance R from the center of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are E1, E2 and E3respectively, then

P P P
R R R
Q 2Q 4Q
R/2
2R
Sphere 1 Sphere 2 Sphere 3

(A) E1>E2>E3

(B) E3>E1>E2

(D) E3>E2>E1

Answer (C)

5. A point source S is placed at the bottom of a transparent block of height 10 mm and refractive
index 2.72. It is immersed in a lower refractive index liquid as shown in the figure. It is found
that the light emerging from the block to the liquid forms a circular bright spot of diameter 11.54
mm on the top of the block. The refractive index of the liquid is

Liquid

Block
S
(A)1.21

(B)1.30

(D)1.42

Answer (C)
rays of light of intensity 𝐼𝐼 = 912 𝑊𝑊𝑚𝑚−2 are incident on a spherical black body kept in
6. Parallel
surroundings of temperature 300 K. Take Stefan-Boltzmann constant
−8 −2 −4
𝜎𝜎 = 5.7 × 10 𝑊𝑊𝑚𝑚 𝐾𝐾 and assume that the energy exchange with the surroundingsis only
through radiation. The final steady state temperature of the black body is close to

(A) 330 K

(B) 660 K

(D) 1550 K

Answer (A)
7. A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different wavelengths 248nm and 310 nm. The
maximum speeds of the photoelectrons corresponding to these wavelengths areu1 and
u2,respectively. If the ratio 𝑢𝑢1 : 𝑢𝑢2 = 2: 1and hc = 1240 eV nm, the work function of the metal is
nearly

(A) 3.7 eV

(B) 3.2 eV

(D) 2.5eV

Answer (A)
8. If 𝜆𝜆𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 is the wavelength of 𝐾𝐾𝛼𝛼 X-ray line of copper (atomic number 29) and 𝜆𝜆𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 is the
wavelength of the 𝐾𝐾𝛼𝛼 X-ray line of molybdenum (atomic number 42), then the ratio 𝜆𝜆𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 /𝜆𝜆𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 is
close to

(A) 1.99

(B) 2.14

(D) 0.48

Answer (B)
1
9. A planet of radius 𝑅𝑅 = 10 × (radius of Earth) has the same mass density as Earth. Scientists
𝑅𝑅
dig a well of depth on it and lower a wire of the same length and of linear mass density
5
−3 −1
10 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑚𝑚 into it. If the wire is not touching anywhere, the force applied at the top of the wire
by a person holding it in place is (take the radius of Earth = 6 × 106 𝑚𝑚 and the acceleration due
to gravity on Earth is 10 ms ̶ 2)

(A) 96 N

(B) 108 N

(D) 150 N

Answer (B)
10. A glass capillary tube is of the shape of a truncated cone with an apex angle 𝛼𝛼so that its two
ends have cross sections of different radii. When dipped in water vertically, water rises in it to a
height h, where the radius of its cross section is 𝑏𝑏. If the surface tension of water is S, its density
is ρ, and its contact angle with glass is 𝜃𝜃, the value of h will be (g is the acceleration due to
gravity)

2𝑆𝑆
(A) cos(𝜃𝜃 − 𝛼𝛼)
𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏

2𝑆𝑆
(B) cos(𝜃𝜃 + 𝛼𝛼)
𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏

2𝑆𝑆
(C) cos(𝜃𝜃 − 𝛼𝛼⁄2)
𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏

2𝑆𝑆
(D) cos(𝜃𝜃 + 𝛼𝛼⁄2)
𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏

Answer (D)
Section -2 Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 paragraphs each describing theory, experiments, data etc. Six questions
relate to the three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question has only one
correct answer among the four given options (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Paragraph For Questions 11 & 12

In the figure a container is shown to have a movable (without friction) piston on top. The
container and the piston are all made of perfectly insulating material allowing no heat transfer
between outside and inside the container. The container is divided into two compartments by a
rigid partition made of a thermally conducting material that allows slow transfer of heat. The
lower compartment of the container is filled with 2 moles of an ideal monatomic gas at 700 K
and the upper compartment is filled with 2 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at 400 K. The heat
3 5
capacities per mole of an ideal monatomic gas are𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉 = 2 𝑅𝑅, 𝐶𝐶𝑃𝑃 = 2 𝑅𝑅, and those for an ideal
5 7
diatomic gas are 𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉 = 2 𝑅𝑅,𝐶𝐶𝑃𝑃 = 2 𝑅𝑅.

11. Consider the partition to be rigidly fixed so that it does not move. When equilibrium is
achieved, the final temperature of the gases will be

(A) 550 K (B) 525 K (C) 513 K (D) 490 K

Answer (D)
12.Now consider the partition to be free to move without friction so that the pressure of gases in
both compartments is the same. Then total work done by the gases till the time they achieve
equilibrium will be

(A) 250 R (B) 200 R (C)100 R (D) −100R

Answer (D)
Paragraph For Questions 13 & 14

A spray gun is shown in the figure where a piston pushes air out of a nozzle. A thin tube of
uniform cross section is connected to the nozzle. The other end of the tube is in a small liquid
container. As the piston pushes air through the nozzle, the liquid from the container rises into
the nozzle and is sprayed out. For the spray gun shown, the radii of the piston and the nozzle are
20 mm and 1mm, respectively. The upper end of the container is open to the atmosphere.

13. If the piston is pushed at a speed of 5 mms ̶ 1, the air comes out of the nozzle with a speed of

(A)0.1 ms ̶ 1 (B)1 ms ̶ 1 (C)2 ms ̶ 1 (D)8 ms ̶ 1

Answer (C)

14. If the density of air is 𝜌𝜌𝑎𝑎 and that of the liquid 𝜌𝜌ℓ , then for a given piston speed the rate
(volume per unit time) at which the liquid is sprayed will be proportional to

𝜌𝜌 𝑎𝑎
(A)�
𝜌𝜌 ℓ

(B)�𝜌𝜌𝑎𝑎 𝜌𝜌ℓ

𝜌𝜌 ℓ
(C)�
𝜌𝜌 𝑎𝑎

(D)𝜌𝜌ℓ

Answer (A)
Paragraph For Questions 15 & 16

The figure shows a circular loop of radius a with two long parallel wires (numbered 1 and 2) all
in the plane of the paper. The distance of each wire from the centre of the loop is d. The loop and
the wires are carrying the same currentI. The current in the loop is in the counterclockwise
direction if seen from above.

Q S
d

Wire1 a Wire2

P R

15. When d≈a but wires are not touching the loop, it is found that the net magnetic field on the
axis of the loop is zero at a height h above the loop. In that case

(A)current in wire 1 and wire 2 is the direction PQ and RS, respectively and ℎ ≈ 𝑎𝑎

(B) current in wire 1 and wire 2 is the direction PQ and SR, respectively and ℎ ≈ 𝑎𝑎

(C)current in wire 1 and wire 2 is the direction PQ and SR, respectively and ℎ ≈ 1.2𝑎𝑎

(D)current in wire 1 and wire 2 is the direction PQ and RS, respectively and ℎ ≈ 1.2𝑎𝑎

Answer (C)
16. Consider 𝑑𝑑 ≫ 𝑎𝑎, and the loop is rotated about its diameter parallel to the wires by 30° from
the position shown in the figure. If the currents in the wires are in the opposite directions, the
torque on the loop at its new position will be (assume that the net field due to the wires is
constant over the loop)

𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 2 𝑎𝑎 2 𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 2 𝑎𝑎 2 √3𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 2 𝑎𝑎 2 √3𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 2 𝑎𝑎 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
𝑑𝑑 2𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑 2𝑑𝑑
Answer (B)
Section – 3 (Matching List Type)

This section contains four questions, each having two matching lists. Choices for the correct
combination of elements from List-I and List-II are given as options (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which one is correct.

17. Four charges Q1, Q2, Q3 and Q4 of same magnitude are fixed along the x axis at 𝑥𝑥 = −2𝑎𝑎,
−𝑎𝑎, +𝑎𝑎 and +2𝑎𝑎, respectively. A positive charge q is placed on the positive y axis at a distance
𝑏𝑏 > 0. Four options of the signs of these charges are given in List I. The direction of the forces
on the charge q is given in List II. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists.
q (0, b)

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4

( ̶2a, 0) ( ̶a, 0) (+a,0) (+2a,0)

List I List II
P.𝑄𝑄1 , 𝑄𝑄2 , 𝑄𝑄3 , 𝑄𝑄4 all positive 1.+𝑥𝑥

Q.𝑄𝑄1 , 𝑄𝑄2 positive; 𝑄𝑄3 , 𝑄𝑄4 negative 2.−𝑥𝑥

R.𝑄𝑄1 , 𝑄𝑄4 positive; 𝑄𝑄2 , 𝑄𝑄3 negative 3.+𝑦𝑦

S.𝑄𝑄1 , 𝑄𝑄3 positive; 𝑄𝑄2 , 𝑄𝑄4 negative 4.−𝑦𝑦

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

Answer (A)
18. Four combinations of two thin lenses are given in List I. The radius of curvature of all
curved surfaces is r and the refractive index of all the lenses is 1.5. Match lens combinations in
List I with their focal length in List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists.

List I List II
P.
1.2𝑟𝑟

2.𝑟𝑟/2

R.
3.−𝑟𝑟

S.
4. 𝑟𝑟

Choices:
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Answer (B)
19. A block of mass m1 = 1 kg another mass m2 = 2 kg, are placed together (see figure) on an
inclined plane with angle of inclination θ. Various values of θ are given in List I. The coefficient
of friction between the block m1 and the plane is always zero. The coefficient of static and
dynamic friction between the block m2 and the plane are equal to µ = 0.3. In List II expressions
for the friction on block m2 are given. Match the correct expression of the friction in List II with
the angles given in List I, and choose the correct option. The acceleration due to gravity is
denoted by g.

[Useful information :tan(5.5o ) ≈ 0.1; tan(11.5o ) ≈ 0.2; tan(16.5o ) ≈ 0.3]

m1
m2

List I
List II
P. θ = 5o 1.𝑚𝑚2 𝑔𝑔 sin𝜃𝜃

Q.θ = 10o 2.(𝑚𝑚1 + 𝑚𝑚2 )𝑔𝑔 sin𝜃𝜃

R.θ = 15o 3.𝜇𝜇𝑚𝑚2 𝑔𝑔 cos𝜃𝜃

4.𝜇𝜇(𝑚𝑚1 + 𝑚𝑚2 )𝑔𝑔 cos𝜃𝜃

S.θ = 20o

Choices:
(A) P-1, Q-1, R-1, S-3
(B) P-2, Q-2, R-2, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-2, R-2, S-4
(D) P-2, Q-2, R-3, S-3

Answer (D)
20. A person in a lift is holding a water jar, which has a small hole at the lower end of its side.
When the lift is at rest, the water jet coming out of the hole hits the floor of the lift at a distance
of 1.2 m from the person. In the following, state of the lift’s motion is given in List I and the
distance where the water jet hits the floor of the lift is given in List II. Match the statements from
List I with those in List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.

List I List II
P. Lift is accelerating vertically up. 1. 𝑑𝑑 = 1.2 m

Q. Lift is accelerating vertically down with an 2. 𝑑𝑑 > 1.2 m

acceleration less than the gravitational acceleration.

R. Lift is moving vertically up with constant speed. 3. 𝑑𝑑 < 1.2 m

S. Lift is falling freely. 4.No water leaks out of the jar

(A) P-2 Q-3 R-2 S-4

(B) P-2 Q -3 R-1 S-4

(C)P-1 Q-1 R-1 S-4

(D)P-2 Q-3 R-1 S-1

Answer (C)
PART-2 CHEMISTRY

SECTION -1 (Only One Option Correct Type)

This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four
choices (A), B), (C) and (D) out of which only one option is correct.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

21. The acidic hydrolysis of ether (X) shown below is fastest when

[Figure]

(A) one phenyl group is replaced by a methyl group.

(B) one phenyl group is replaced by a para-methoxyphenyl group.

(C) two phenyl groups are replaced by two para-methoxyphenyl groups.

(D) no structural change is made to X.

Answer (C)
22. Isomers of hexane, based on their branching, can be divided into three distinct
classes as shown in the figure.

[Figure]

The correct order of their boiling point is

(A) I > II > III

(B) III > II > I

(C) II > III > I

(D) III > I > II

Answer (B)
23. The major product in the following reaction is
[Figure]

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer (D)
24. Hydrogen peroxide in its reaction with KIO4 and NH2OH respectively, is acting as a

(A) reducing agent, oxidising agent

(B) reducing agent, reducing agent

(C) oxidising agent, oxidising agent

(D) oxidising agent, reducing agent

Answer (A)
25. The product formed in the reaction of SOCl2 with white phosphorous is

(A) PCl3

(B) SO2Cl2

(D) POCl3

Answer (A)

26. Under ambient conditions, the total number of gases released as products in the final
step of the reaction scheme shown below is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) 3

Answer (C)
27. For the identification of β-naphthol using dye test, it is necessary to use

(A) dichloromethane solution of β-naphthol.

(B) acidic solution of β-naphthol.

(C) neutral solution of β-naphthol.

(D) alkaline solution of β-naphthol.

Answer (D)
28.For the elementary reaction M → N, the rate of disappearance of M increases by a
factor of 8 upon doubling the concentration of M. The order of the reaction with respect
to M is

(A) 4

(B) 3

(D) 1

Answer (B)

29. For the process

H2O (l) → H2O (g)

at T = 100°C and 1 atmosphere pressure, the correct choice is

(A) ∆Ssystem > 0 and ∆Ssurroundings > 0

(B) ∆Ssystem > 0 and ∆Ssurroundings < 0

(C) ∆Ssystem < 0 and ∆Ssurroundings > 0

(D) ∆Ssystem < 0 and ∆Ssurroundings < 0

Answer (B)
30. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is NOT operative, the paramagnetic species among the
following is

(A) Be2

(B) B2

(D) N2

Answer (C)
Section -2 Comprehension Type

Paragraph For Question 31 and 32

Schemes 1 and 2 describe sequential transformation of alkynes M and N. Consider only

the major products formed in each step for both the schemes.

31. The product X is

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Answer (A)

32. The correct statement with respect to product Y is

(A) It gives a positive Tollens test and is a functional isomer of X.

(B) It gives a positive Tollens test and is a geometrical isomer of X.

(C) It gives a positive iodoform test and is a functional isomer of X.

(D) It gives a positive iodoform test and is a geometrical isomer of X.

Answer (C)
Paragraph For Question 33 and 34

An aqueous solution of metal ion M1 reacts separately with reagents Q and R in excess
to give tetrahedral and square planar complexes, respectively. An aqueous solution of
another metal ion M2 always forms tetrahedral complexes with these reagents.
Aqueous solution of M2 on reaction with reagent S gives white precipitate which
dissolves in excess of S. The reactions are summarized in the scheme given below:

33. M1, Q and R, respectively are

(A) Zn2+, KCN and HCl

(B) Ni2+, HCl and KCN

(C) Cd2+, KCN and HCl

(D) Co2+, HCl, and KCN

Answer (B)
34. Reagent S is

(A) K4[Fe(CN)6]

(B) Na2HPO4

(D) KOH

Answer (D)
Paragraph For Question 35 and 36

X and Y are two volatile liquids with molar weights of 10 g mol-1 and 40 g mol-1
respectively. Two cotton plugs, one soaked in X and the other soaked in Y, are
simultaneously placed at the ends of a tube of length L = 24 cm, as shown in the figure.
The tube is filled with an inert gas at 1 atmosphere pressure and a temperature of 300
K. Vapours of X and Y react to form a product which is first observed at a distance d cm
from the plug soaked in X. Take X and Y to have equal molecular diameters and
assume ideal behaviour for the inert gas and the two vapours.

35. The value of d in cm (shown in the figure), as estimated from Graham’s law, is

(A) 8

(B) 12

(D) 20

Answer (C)
36.The experimental value of d is found to be smaller than the estimate obtained using
Graham’s law. This is due to

(A) larger mean free path for X as compared to that of Y.

(B) larger mean free path for Y as compared to that of X.

(D) increased collision frequency of X with the inert gas as compared to that of Y with
the inert gas.

Answer (D)
Section – 3 (Matching List Type)

37. Differentpossible thermal decomposition pathways for peroxyesters are shown

below. Match each pathway from List I with an appropriate structure from List II and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

P. Pathway P

Q. Pathway Q

R. Pathway R

S. Pathway S

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4

Answer (A)
38. Match the four starting materials (P, Q, R, S) given in List I with the corresponding
reaction schemes (I, II, III, IV) provided in List II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists.
List-I List-II

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 3 2

Answer (C)
39. Match each coordination compound in List-I with an appropriate pair of
characteristics from List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists.
{en = H2NCH2CH2NH2; atomic numbers: Ti = 22; Cr = 24; Co = 27; Pt = 78}

List-I List-II

P. [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl 1. Paramagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism

Q. [Ti(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2 2. Diamagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism

R. [Pt(en)(NH3)Cl]NO3 3. Paramagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism

S. [Co(NH3)4(NO3)2]NO3 4. Diamagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 3 4 2

Answer (B)
40. Matchthe orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the description given in List-II
and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

1. p─d π antibonding

2. d─d σ bonding

3. p─d π bonding

4. d─d σ antibonding

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2

Answer (C)
PART-3 MATHEMATICS

SECTION -1 (Only One Option Correct Type)

This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four
choices (A), B), (C) and (D) out of which only one option is correct.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

41. The function 𝑦𝑦 = 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) is the solution of the differential equation

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 4 + 2𝑥𝑥

+ 2 =
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑥𝑥 − 1 √1 − 𝑥𝑥 2

in (−1, 1) satisfying 𝑓𝑓(0) = 0. Then

√3
2

� 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
√3
−
2

𝜋𝜋 √3 𝜋𝜋 √3 𝜋𝜋 √3 𝜋𝜋 √3
(A) − (B) − (C) − (D) −
3 2 3 4 6 4 6 2

Answer (B)

42. The following integral

𝜋𝜋
2

�(2 cosec 𝑥𝑥)17 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

𝜋𝜋
4

is equal to

log (1+√2 )
(A) ∫0 2(𝑒𝑒 𝑢𝑢 + 𝑒𝑒 −𝑢𝑢 )16 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

log (1+√2 )
(B) ∫0 (𝑒𝑒 𝑢𝑢 + 𝑒𝑒 −𝑢𝑢 )17 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

lo g(1+√2 )
(C) ∫0 (𝑒𝑒 𝑢𝑢 − 𝑒𝑒 −𝑢𝑢 )17 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

log (1+√2 )
(D) ∫0 2(𝑒𝑒 𝑢𝑢 − 𝑒𝑒 −𝑢𝑢 )16 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

Answer (A)
43. Coefficient of 𝑥𝑥 11 in the expansion of (1 + 𝑥𝑥 2 )4 (1 + 𝑥𝑥 3 )7 (1 + 𝑥𝑥 4 )12 is

(A) 1051

(B) 1106

(D) 1120

Answer (C)

44. Let 𝑓𝑓: [0, 2] → ℝ be a function which is continuous on [0, 2] and is differentiable on (0, 2) with 𝑓𝑓(0) =
1. Let

𝑥𝑥 2

𝐹𝐹(𝑥𝑥) = � 𝑓𝑓(√𝑡𝑡 ) 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

for 𝑥𝑥 ∈ [0, 2]. If 𝐹𝐹 ′ (𝑥𝑥) = 𝑓𝑓 ′ (𝑥𝑥) for all 𝑥𝑥 ∈ (0, 2), then 𝐹𝐹(2) equals

(A) 𝑒𝑒 2 − 1

(B) 𝑒𝑒 4 − 1

(D) 𝑒𝑒 4

Answer (B)

45. The common tangents to the circle 𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑦𝑦 2 = 2 and the parabola 𝑦𝑦 2 = 8𝑥𝑥 touch the circle at the points
𝑃𝑃, 𝑄𝑄 and the parabola at the points 𝑅𝑅, 𝑆𝑆. Then the area of the quadrilateral 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 is

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 15

Answer (D)
46. For 𝑥𝑥 ∈ (0, 𝜋𝜋), the equation sin 𝑥𝑥 + 2 sin 2𝑥𝑥 − sin 3𝑥𝑥 = 3 has

(A) infinitely many solutions

(B) three solutions

(C) one solution

(D) no solution

Answer (D)
47. In a triangle the sum of two sides is 𝑥𝑥 and the product of the same two sides is 𝑦𝑦. If 𝑥𝑥 2 − 𝑐𝑐 2 = 𝑦𝑦,
where 𝑐𝑐 is the third side of the triangle, then the ratio of the in-radius to the circum-radius of the triangle is

𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑
(A)
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐(𝒙𝒙+𝒄𝒄)

𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑
(B)
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐(𝒙𝒙+𝒄𝒄)

𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑
(C)
𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒(𝒙𝒙+𝒄𝒄)

𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑
(D)
𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒(𝒙𝒙+𝒄𝒄)

Answer (B)

48. Six cards and six envelopes are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and cards are to be placed in envelopes so
that each envelope contains exactly one card and no card is placed in the envelope bearing the same
number and moreover the card numbered 1 is always placed in envelope numbered 2. Then the number
of ways it can be done is

(A) 264

(B) 265

(D) 67

Answer (C)
49. Three boys and two girls stand in a queue. The probability, that the number of boys ahead of every
girl is at least one more than the number of girls ahead of her, is

𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏 𝟐𝟐 𝟑𝟑
(A) (B) (C) (D)
𝟐𝟐 𝟑𝟑 𝟑𝟑 𝟒𝟒

Answer (A)
50. The quadratic equation 𝑝𝑝(𝑥𝑥) = 0 with real coefficients has purely imaginary roots. Then the equation

𝑝𝑝�𝑝𝑝(𝑥𝑥)� = 0

has

(A) only purely imaginary roots

(B) all real roots

(C) two real and two purely imaginary roots

(D) neither real nor purely imaginary roots

Answer (D)
Section -2 Comprehension Type

Paragraph For Questions 51 and 52

Let 𝑎𝑎, 𝑟𝑟, 𝑠𝑠, 𝑡𝑡 be nonzero real numbers. Let 𝑃𝑃(𝑎𝑎𝑡𝑡 2 , 2𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎), 𝑄𝑄, 𝑅𝑅(𝑎𝑎𝑟𝑟 2 , 2𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎) and 𝑆𝑆(𝑎𝑎𝑠𝑠 2 , 2𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎) be distinct points on
the parabola 𝑦𝑦 2 = 4𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎. Suppose that 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 is the focal chord and lines 𝑄𝑄𝑄𝑄 and 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 are parallel, where 𝐾𝐾 is
the point (2𝑎𝑎, 0).

51. The value of 𝑟𝑟 is

Choices:
1
(A) −
𝑡𝑡

𝑡𝑡 2 +1
(B)
𝑡𝑡

1
(C)
𝑡𝑡

𝑡𝑡 2 −1
(D)
𝑡𝑡

Answer (D)
52. If 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 1, then the tangent at 𝑃𝑃 and the normal at 𝑆𝑆 to the parabola meet at a point whose ordinate is

(𝑡𝑡 2 +1 )2
(A)
2𝑡𝑡 3

𝑎𝑎(𝑡𝑡 2 +1 )2
(B)
2𝑡𝑡 3

𝑎𝑎(𝑡𝑡 2 +1 )2
(C)
𝑡𝑡 3

𝑎𝑎(𝑡𝑡 2 +2 )2
(D)
𝑡𝑡 3

Answer (B)
Paragraph For Question 53 and 54

Given that for each 𝑎𝑎 ∈ (0, 1),

1−ℎ

lim � 𝑡𝑡 −𝑎𝑎 (1 − 𝑡𝑡)𝑎𝑎−1 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

ℎ→ 0 +
ℎ

exists. Let this limit be 𝑔𝑔(𝑎𝑎). In addition, it is given that the function 𝑔𝑔(𝑎𝑎) is differentiable on (0, 1).

1
53. The value of 𝑔𝑔 � � is
2

(A) 𝜋𝜋

(B) 2𝜋𝜋

𝜋𝜋
(C)
2

𝜋𝜋
(D)
4

Answer (A)

1
54. The value of 𝑔𝑔′ � � is
2

𝜋𝜋
(A)
2

(B) 𝜋𝜋
𝜋𝜋
(C) −2

(D) 0

Answer (D)
Paragraph For Questions 55 and 56

Box 1 contains three cards bearing numbers 1, 2, 3; box 2 contains five cards bearing numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5;
and box 3 contains seven cards bearing numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7. A card is drawn from each of the boxes.
Let 𝑥𝑥𝑖𝑖 be the number on the card drawn from the 𝑖𝑖 𝑡𝑡ℎ box, 𝑖𝑖 = 1,2,3.

55. The probability that 𝑥𝑥1 + 𝑥𝑥2 + 𝑥𝑥3 is odd, is

29
(A)
105

53
(B)
105

57
(C)
105

1
(D)
2

Answer (B)

56. The probability that 𝑥𝑥1 , 𝑥𝑥2 , 𝑥𝑥3 are in an arithmetic progression, is

9
(A)
105

10
(B)
105

11
(C)
105

7
(D)
105

Answer (C)
Section – 3 (Matching List Type)

2kπ 2𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
57. Let 𝑧𝑧𝑘𝑘 = cos � � + 𝑖𝑖 sin � �; 𝑘𝑘 = 1, 2, … ,9.
10 10

List I List II

P. For each 𝑧𝑧𝑘𝑘 there exists a 𝑧𝑧𝑗𝑗 such that 𝑧𝑧𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑧𝑧𝑗𝑗 1. True

Q. There exists a 𝑘𝑘 ∈ {1,2, … , 9} such that 𝑧𝑧1 ∙ 𝑧𝑧 = 2. False

𝑧𝑧𝑘𝑘 has no solution 𝑧𝑧 in the set of complex numbers.

|1−𝑧𝑧 1 ||1−𝑧𝑧 2 | ⋯|1−𝑧𝑧 9 | 3. 1

R. equals
10

2𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
S. 1 − ∑9𝑘𝑘=1 cos � � equals 4. 2
10

PQRS
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 3 4

(D) 2 1 4 3

Answer (C)
58.

List I List II
P. The number of polynomials 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) with non-negative integer coefficients 1. 8
1
of degree ≤ 2, satisfying 𝑓𝑓(0) = 0 and ∫0 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥)𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥 = 1, is
Q. The number of points in the interval [−√13, �13] at which 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 2. 2
sin(𝑥𝑥 2 ) + cos(𝑥𝑥 2 ) attains its maximum value, is
2 3𝑥𝑥 2 3. 4
R. ∫−2 (1+𝑒𝑒 𝑥𝑥 )
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 equals
1 4. 0
1+𝑥𝑥
�∫2 1 cos 2𝑥𝑥 log � � 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 �
− 1−𝑥𝑥
2
S. 1 equals
2 1+𝑥𝑥
�∫0 cos 2𝑥𝑥 log � � 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 �
1−𝑥𝑥

P QR S
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 2 3 4 1

(D) 2 3 1 4

Answer (D)
59.

List I List II
−1 √3 1 2 1. 1
P. Let 𝑦𝑦(𝑥𝑥) = cos(3 cos 𝑥𝑥) , 𝑥𝑥 ∈ [−1,1], 𝑥𝑥 ≠ ± . Then �(𝑥𝑥 −
2 𝑦𝑦 (𝑥𝑥)
𝑑𝑑 2 𝑦𝑦(𝑥𝑥) 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 (𝑥𝑥)
1) + 𝑥𝑥 � equals
𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥 2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
Q. Let 𝐴𝐴1 , 𝐴𝐴2 , … , 𝐴𝐴𝑛𝑛 (𝑛𝑛 > 2) be the vertices of a regular polygon of 𝑛𝑛 sides 2. 2
with its centre at the origin. Let ��⃗ 𝑎𝑎𝑘𝑘 be the position vector of the point
𝐴𝐴𝑘𝑘 , 𝑘𝑘 = 1,2, … , 𝑛𝑛. If |∑𝑛𝑛−1
𝑘𝑘=1 ( 𝑎𝑎
��⃗
𝑘𝑘 × 𝑎𝑎
��⃗ 𝑛𝑛−1
𝑘𝑘+1 )| = |∑𝑘𝑘=1 ( ��⃗
𝑎𝑎𝑘𝑘 ∙ ��⃗
𝑎𝑎𝑘𝑘+1 )|, then the
minimum value of 𝑛𝑛 is
𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2 3. 8
R. If the normal from the point 𝑃𝑃(ℎ, 1) on the ellipse + = 1 is
6 3
perpendicular to the line 𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 = 8, then the value of ℎ is
S. Number of positive solutions satisfying the equation 4. 9

1 1 2
tan−1 � � + tan−1 � � = tan−1 � 2 � is
2𝑥𝑥+1 4𝑥𝑥+1 𝑥𝑥

PQ RS
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 2 4 3 1

(D) 2 4 1 3

Answer (A)
60. Let 𝑓𝑓1 : ℝ → ℝ , 𝑓𝑓2 : [0, ∞) → ℝ, 𝑓𝑓3 : ℝ → ℝ and 𝑓𝑓4 : ℝ → [0, ∞) be defined by

|𝑥𝑥| if 𝑥𝑥 < 0,
𝑓𝑓1 (𝑥𝑥) = � 𝑥𝑥
𝑒𝑒 if 𝑥𝑥 ≥ 0;

𝑓𝑓2 (𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥 2 ;

sin 𝑥𝑥 if 𝑥𝑥 < 0,
𝑓𝑓3 (𝑥𝑥) = �
𝑥𝑥 if 𝑥𝑥 ≥ 0

and

𝑓𝑓2 �𝑓𝑓1 (𝑥𝑥)� if 𝑥𝑥 < 0,

𝑓𝑓4 (𝑥𝑥) = �
𝑓𝑓2 �𝑓𝑓1 (𝑥𝑥)� − 1 if 𝑥𝑥 ≥ 0.

List II List I
P. 𝑓𝑓4 is 1. onto but not one-one

Q. 𝑓𝑓3 is 2. neither continuous nor one-one

R. 𝑓𝑓2 𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑓1 is 3. differentiable but not one-one

S. 𝑓𝑓2 is 4. continuous and one-one

P Q RS
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 1 3 4 2

(D) 1 3 2 4

Answer (D)
JEE(ADVANCED) – 2014 PAPER-1 Code-1

Questions with Answers

PART – 1 PHYSICS

SECTION – 1 (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 10 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.

1. At time 𝑡𝑡 = 0, terminal A in the circuit shown in the figure is connected to B by a keyand an

(𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔), with 𝐼𝐼0 = 1Aand ω = 500 rad s-1 starts flowing in it with
alternating current 𝐼𝐼(𝑡𝑡) = 𝐼𝐼0 cos⁡
7𝜋𝜋
the initial direction shown in the figure. At t = , the key is switched from B to D. Now
6𝜔𝜔
onwards only A and D are connected. A total charge Q flows from the battery to charge the
capacitor fully. If C=20µF, R= 10 Ω and the battery is ideal with emf of 50V, identify the correct
statement (s).

B D

A
50 V
C=20 µF

R=10 Ω
7𝜋𝜋
(A) Magnitude of the maximum charge on the capacitor before 𝑡𝑡 = 6𝜔𝜔 is 1 × 10−3 C.
7𝜋𝜋
(B) The current in the left part of the circuit just before 𝑡𝑡 = 6𝜔𝜔is clockwise.
(C) Immediately after A is connected to D, the current in R is 10A.
(D) Q = 2 × 10−3 C.

Answer (C) and (D)

2. A light source, which emits two wavelengths 𝜆𝜆1 = 400 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 and 𝜆𝜆2 = 600 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛, is used in a
Young’s double slit experiment. If recorded fringe widths for 𝜆𝜆1 and𝜆𝜆2 are𝛽𝛽1 and𝛽𝛽2 © number of
fringes for them within a distance yon one side of the central maximum are m1 and m2,
respectively, then

(A)𝛽𝛽2 > 𝛽𝛽1

(B)𝑚𝑚1 > 𝑚𝑚2
(C) From the central maximum, 3rdmaximum of λ2 overlaps with 5th minimum of λ1
(D)The angular separation of fringes for λ1 is greater than λ2

Answer: (A), (B) and (C)

3. One end of a taut string of length 3m along the x axis is fixed at x=0.The speed of the waves in
the string is 100 𝑚𝑚𝑠𝑠 −1 . The other end of the string is vibrating in the y direction so that
stationary waves are set up in the string. The possible waveform(s) of these stationary waves
is(are)
𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 50𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
(A)𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝐴𝐴 sin cos
6 3
𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 100𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
(B)𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝐴𝐴 sin cos
3 3
5𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 250𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
(C) 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝐴𝐴 sin cos 3
6
5𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
(D) 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝐴𝐴 sin cos 250𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
2

Answer: (A) , (C) and (D)

4. A parallel plate capacitor has a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K between its plates that
covers 1/3 of the area of its plates, as shown in the figure. The total capacitance of the capacitor
is C while that of the portion with dielectric in between is C1. When the capacitor is charged, the
plate area covered by the dielectric gets charge Q1 and the rest of the area gets charge Q2. The
electric field in the dielectric is E1 and that in the other portion is E2. Choose the correct
option/options, ignoring edge effects.

Q1 E1

Q2 E2

𝐸𝐸1
(A) =1
𝐸𝐸2
𝐸𝐸1 1
(B) =
𝐸𝐸2 𝐾𝐾
𝑄𝑄1 3
(C) =
𝑄𝑄2 𝐾𝐾
𝐶𝐶 2+𝐾𝐾
(D) =
𝐶𝐶1 𝐾𝐾

Answer: (A) and (D)

5. Let𝐸𝐸1 (𝑟𝑟), 𝐸𝐸2 (𝑟𝑟) and 𝐸𝐸3 (𝑟𝑟) be the respective electric fields at a distance r from a point charge
Q, an infinitely long wire with constant linear charge density λ, and an infinite plane with
uniform surface charge density σ. If 𝐸𝐸1 (𝑟𝑟0 ) = 𝐸𝐸2 (𝑟𝑟0 ) = 𝐸𝐸3 (𝑟𝑟0 ) at a given distance r0, then

(A)𝑄𝑄 = 4𝜎𝜎𝜎𝜎𝑟𝑟02
𝜆𝜆
(B)𝑟𝑟0 =
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
(C) 𝐸𝐸1 (𝑟𝑟0 ⁄2)= 2𝐸𝐸2 (𝑟𝑟0 ⁄2)

(D)𝐸𝐸2 (𝑟𝑟0 ⁄2)=4𝐸𝐸3 (𝑟𝑟0 ⁄2)

Answer: (C)
6. A student is performing an experiment using a resonance column and a tuning fork of
frequency 244𝑠𝑠 −1 . He is told that the air in the tube has been replaced by another gas (assume
that the column remains filled with the gas). If the minimum height at which resonance occurs is
(0.350 ± 0.005) 𝑚𝑚, the gas in the tube is

⁄ ⁄
(Useful information:√167𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 = 640 𝐽𝐽1⁄2 mole−1 2 ;√140𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 = 590 𝐽𝐽1⁄2 mole−1 2 .The molar
10
masses Min grams are given in the options. Take the values of � for each gas as given there.)
𝑀𝑀

10 7
(
(A)Neon 𝑀𝑀 = 20, �
20
=
10
)
10 3
(
(B) Nitrogen 𝑀𝑀 = 28,�
28
=
5
)
10 9
(
(C) Oxygen 𝑀𝑀 = 32, �
32
=
16
)
10 17
(
(D)Argon 𝑀𝑀 = 36, �
36
=
32
)
Answer: (D)
7. Heater of an electric kettle is made of a wire of length L and diameter d. It takes 4 minutes to
raise the temperature of 0.5kgwater by 40K. This heater is replaced by a new heater having two
wires of the same material, each of length L and diameter 2d.The way these wires are connected
is given in the options. How much time in minutes will it take to raise the temperature of the
same amount of water by 40 K?

(A)4 if wires are in parallel

(B) 2 if wires are in series
(C)1 if wires are in series
(D)0.5 if wires are in parallel

Answer : (B) and (D)

8. In the figure, a ladder of mass m is shown leaning against a wall. It is in static equilibrium
making an angle θ with the horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between the wall and the
ladder is 𝜇𝜇1 and that between the floor and the ladder is 𝜇𝜇2 . The normal reaction of the wall on
the ladder is N1 and that of the floor is N2. If the ladder is about to slip, then

µ1

µ2
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
(A)𝜇𝜇1 = 0 𝜇𝜇2 ≠ 0and𝑁𝑁2 tan𝜃𝜃 =
2
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
(B) 𝜇𝜇1 ≠ 0 𝜇𝜇2 = 0and𝑁𝑁1 tan𝜃𝜃 =
2
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
(C)𝜇𝜇1 ≠ 0 𝜇𝜇2 ≠ 0and𝑁𝑁2 =
1+𝜇𝜇1 𝜇𝜇2
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
(D)𝜇𝜇1 = 0 𝜇𝜇2 ≠ 0and𝑁𝑁1 tan𝜃𝜃 =
2

Answer: (C) and (D)

9. A transparent thin film of uniform thickness and refractive index n1= 1.4 is coated on the
convex spherical surface of radius Rat one end of a long solid glass cylinder of refractive index
n2 = 1.5, as shown in the figure. Rays of light parallel to the axis of the cylinder traversing
through the film from air to glass get focused at distance f1 from the film, while rays of light
traversing from glass to air get focused at distance f2 from the film. Then

Air n2

(A) |𝑓𝑓1 | =3R

(B)|𝑓𝑓1 | = 2.8R
(C)|𝑓𝑓2 | =2R
(D)|𝑓𝑓2 | = 1.4R

Answer: (A) and (C)

10. Two ideal batteries of emfV1 and V2 and three resistancesR1, R2 andR3 are connected as
shown in the figure. The current in resistanceR2 would be zero if

V1 R1
R2

V2
R3

(A)𝑉𝑉1 = 𝑉𝑉2 and𝑅𝑅1 = 𝑅𝑅2 = 𝑅𝑅3

(B) 𝑉𝑉1 = 𝑉𝑉2 and𝑅𝑅1 = 2𝑅𝑅2 = 𝑅𝑅3
(C) 𝑉𝑉1 = 2𝑉𝑉2 and 2𝑅𝑅1 = 2𝑅𝑅2 = 𝑅𝑅3
(D)2𝑉𝑉1 = 𝑉𝑉2 and2𝑅𝑅1 = 𝑅𝑅2 = 𝑅𝑅3

Answer: (A), (B) and (D)

SECTION – 2 (One Integer Value Correct Type)

This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in
one integer from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

11. Airplanes A and B are flying with constant velocity in the same vertical plane at angles 30°
and 60° with respect to the horizontal respectively as shown in figure. The speed of A is
100√3 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 −1 . At time 𝑡𝑡 = 0 𝑠𝑠, an observer in A finds B at a distance of 500 m. This observer
sees B moving with a constant velocity perpendicular to the line of motion of A. If at 𝑡𝑡 = 𝑡𝑡0 , A
just escapes being hit by B, 𝑡𝑡0 in seconds is

30o 60o

Answer: 5

12. During Searle’s experiment, zero of the Vernier scale lies between 3.20 × 10−2 𝑚𝑚 and
3.25 × 10−2 𝑚𝑚 of the main scale. The 20th division of the Vernier scale exactly coincides with
one of the main scale divisions. When an additional load of 2 kg is applied to the wire, the zero
of the Vernier scale still lies between 3.20 × 10−2 𝑚𝑚 and 3.25 × 10−2 𝑚𝑚 of the main scale but
now the 45th division of Vernier scale coincides with one of the main scale divisions. The length
of the thin metallic wire is 2 m and its cross-sectional area is 8 × 10−7 𝑚𝑚2 . The least count of the
Vernier scale is 1.0 × 10−5 𝑚𝑚. The maximum percentage error in the Young’s modulus of the
wire is

Answer: 4
13. A uniform circular disc of mass 1.5 kg and radius 0.5 m is initially at rest on a horizontal
frictionless surface. Three forces of equal magnitude F = 0.5 N are applied simultaneously along
the three sides of an equilateral triangle XYZ with its vertices on the perimeter of the disc (see
figure). One second after applying the forces, the angular speed of the disc in 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑠𝑠 −1 is

F
X

o
Y
F
Z
F

Answer: 2

14. Two parallel wires in the plane of the paper are distance X0 apart. A point charge is moving
with speed u between the wires in the same plane at a distance X1 from one of the wires. When
the wires carry current of magnitude I in the same direction, the radius of curvature of the path of
the point charge is R1. In contrast, if the currents I in the two wires have directions opposite to
𝑋𝑋0 𝑅𝑅1
each other, the radius of curvature of the path is R2. If = 3, the value of is
𝑋𝑋1 𝑅𝑅2

Answer: 3
15. To find the distance d over which a signal can be seen clearly in foggy conditions, a railways
engineer uses dimensional analysis and assumes that the distance depends on the mass density ρ
of the fog, intensity (power/area) 𝑆𝑆 of the light from the signal and its frequency f. The engineer
finds that 𝑑𝑑isproportionalto𝑆𝑆 1⁄𝑛𝑛 . The value of 𝑛𝑛 is

Answer: 3
16. A galvanometer gives full scale deflection with 0.006 A current. By connecting it to a 4990
2𝑛𝑛
Ω resistance, it can be converted into a voltmeter of range 0 – 30 V. If connected to a Ω
249
resistance, it becomes an ammeter of range 0 – 1.5 A. The value of𝑛𝑛 is

Answer: 5
17. Consider an elliptically shaped rail PQ in the vertical plane with OP = 3 m and OQ = 4 m. A
block of mass 1 kg is pulled along the rail from P to Q with a force of 18 N, which is always
parallel to line PQ (see the figure given). Assuming no frictional losses, the kinetic energy of the
block when it reaches Q is (𝑛𝑛 × 10)Joules. The value of n is (take acceleration due to gravity =
10 𝑚𝑚𝑠𝑠 −2 )

90o
O 3m P

Answer : 5
18. A rocket is moving in a gravity free space with a constant acceleration of 2 𝑚𝑚𝑠𝑠 −2 along +x
direction (see figure). The length of a chamber inside the rocket is 4 m. A ball is thrown from the
left end of the chamber in +x direction with a speed of 0.3 𝑚𝑚𝑠𝑠 −1 relative to the rocket. At the
same time, another ball is thrown in –x direction with a speed of 0.2 𝑚𝑚𝑠𝑠 −1 from its right end
relative to the rocket. The time in seconds when the two balls hit each other is

a = 2 ms ̶ 2
0.3 ms ̶ 1 0.2 ms ̶ 1 x

Answer : 2 OR 8
19. A horizontal circular platform of radius 0.5 m and mass 0.45 kg is free to rotate about its
axis. Two massless spring toy-guns, each carrying a steel ball of mass 0.05 kg are attached to the
platform at a distance 0.25 m from the centre on its either sides along its diameter (see figure).
Each gun simultaneously fires the balls horizontally and perpendicular to the diameter in
opposite directions. After leaving the platform, the balls have horizontal speed of 9 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 −1 with
respect to the ground. The rotational speed of the platform in𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑠𝑠 −1 after the balls leave the
platform is

Answer: 4
20. A thermodynamic system is taken from an initial state i with internal energy 𝑈𝑈𝑖𝑖 = 100 𝐽𝐽 to
the final state f along two different paths iaf and ibf, as schematically shown in the figure. The
work done by the system along the paths af, ib and bf are 𝑊𝑊𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 200 𝐽𝐽, 𝑊𝑊𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 50 𝐽𝐽 and 𝑊𝑊𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 =
100 𝐽𝐽 respectively. The heat supplied to the system along the path iaf, ib and bf are 𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 , 𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 and
𝑄𝑄𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 respectively. If the internal energy of the system in the state b is 𝑈𝑈𝑏𝑏 = 200 𝐽𝐽 and 𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 =
500 𝐽𝐽, the ratio 𝑄𝑄𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 /𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 is

a f
P

i b

Answer : 2
PART – 2 CHEMISTRY

SECTION – 1 (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 10 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.

21. The correct combination of names for isomeric alcohols with molecular formula
C4H10O is/are

(A) tert-butanol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol

(B) tert-butanol and 1, 1-dimethylethan-1-ol

(C) n-butanol and butan-1-ol

(D) isobutyl alcohol and 2-methylpropan-1-ol

Answer: (A), (C) and (D)

22.he reactivity of compound Z with different halogens under appropriate conditions is
given below:

The observed pattern of electrophilic substitution can be explained by

(A) the steric effect of the halogen

(B) the steric effect of the tert-butyl group

(C) the electronic effect of the phenolic group

(D) the electronic effect of the tert-butyl group

Answer: (A), (B) and (C)

23. In the reaction shown below, the major product(s) formed is/are

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer : (A)
24.An ideal gas in a thermally insulated vessel at internal pressure = P1, volume = V1
and absolute temperature = T1 expands irreversibly against zero external pressure, as
shown in the diagram. The final internal pressure, volume and absolute temperature of
the gas are P2, V2 and T2, respectively. For this expansion,

(A) q=0

(B) T2 = T1

(C) P2V2 = P1V1

γ γ
(D) P2V2 = P1V1

Answer (A), (B) and (C)

25. Hydrogen bonding plays a central role in the following phenomena:

(A) Ice floats in water.

(B) Higher Lewis basicity of primary amines than tertiary amines in aqueous solutions.

(C) Formic acid is more acidic than acetic acid.

(D) Dimerisation of acetic acid in benzene.

Answer : (A), (B) and (D)

26. In a galvanic cell, the salt bridge

(A) does not participate chemically in the cell reaction.

(B) stops the diffusion of ions from one electrode to another.

(C) is necessary for the occurrence of the cell reaction.

(D) ensures mixing of the two electrolytic solutions.

Answer: (A) and (C) or only (A)

27. Upon heating with Cu2S, the reagent(s) that give copper metal is/are

(A) CuFeS2

(B) CuO

(D) CuSO4

Answer: (B), (C) and (D)

28. The correct statement(s) for orthoboric acid is/are

(A) It behaves as a weak acid in water due to self ionization.

(B) Acidity of its aqueous solution increases upon addition of ethylene glycol.

(C) It has a three dimensional structure due to hydrogen bonding.

(D) It is a weak electrolyte in water.

Answer: (B) and (D)

29. For the reaction:

I – + ClO3– + H2SO4 → Cl – + HSO4– + I2

The correct statement(s) in the balanced equation is/are:

(A) Stoichiometric coefficient of HSO4– is 6.

(B) Iodide is oxidized.

(C) Sulphur is reduced.

(D) H2O is one of the products.

Answer: (A), (B) and (D) OR (A) and (D)*

*- Due to a minor error in option (B) in the Hindi Version, Answer (A) and (D) will also be accepted
as correct.

30. The pair(s) of reagents that yield paramagnetic species is/are

(A) Na and excess of NH3

(B) K and excess of O2

(C) Cu and dilute HNO3

(D) O2 and 2-ethylanthraquinol

Answer : (A), (B) and (C)

31.Consider all possible isomeric ketones, including stereoisomers, of MW = 100. All
these isomers are independently reacted with NaBH4 (NOTE: stereoisomers are also
reacted separately). The total number of ketones that give a racemic product(s) is/are

Answer: 5

32. A list of species having the formula XZ4 is given below.

XeF4, SF4, SiF4, BF4–, BrF4–, [Cu(NH3)4]2+, [FeCl4]2–, [CoCl4]2– and [PtCl4]2–.

Defining shape on the basis of the location of X and Z atoms, the total number of
species having a square planar shape is

Answer: 4

Among PbS, CuS, HgS, MnS, Ag2S, NiS, CoS, Bi2S3 and SnS2, the total number of
33.
BLACK coloured sulfides is

Answer: 6 OR 7

34. The total number(s) of stable conformers with non-zero dipole moment for the
following compound is (are)

Answer: 3
35. Consider the following list of reagents:

Acidified K2Cr2O7, alkaline KMnO4, CuSO4, H2O2, Cl2, O3, FeCl3, HNO3 and Na2S2O3.

The total number of reagents that can oxidise aqueous iodide to iodine is

Answer: 7

36.The total number of distinct naturally occurring amino acids obtained by

complete acidic hydrolysis of the peptide shown below is

Answer: 1

37.In an atom, the total number of electrons having quantum numbers 𝑛𝑛 = 4, |𝑚𝑚𝑙𝑙 | =
1 and 𝑚𝑚𝑠𝑠 = − 1�2 is

Answer: 6

38.If the value of Avogadro number is 6.023 × 1023 mol–1 and the value of Boltzmann
constant is 1.380 × 10–23J K–1, then the number of significant digits in the calculated
value of the universal gas constant is
Answer: 4

39. Acompound H2X with molar weight of 80 g is dissolved in a solvent having density of
0.4 g ml –1. Assuming no change in volume upon dissolution, the molality of a 3.2
molar solution is

Answer: 8

40. MX2 dissociates into M2+ and X– ions in an aqueous solution, with a degree of
dissociation (α) of 0.5. The ratio of the observed depression of freezing point of the
aqueous solution to the value of the depression of freezing point in the absence of ionic
dissociation is

Answer: 2
PART – 3 MATHEMATICS

SECTION – 1 (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 10 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.

41. Let 𝑀𝑀 and 𝑁𝑁 be two 3 × 3 matrices such that 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 = 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁. Further, if 𝑀𝑀 ≠ 𝑁𝑁 2 and 𝑀𝑀2 = 𝑁𝑁 4 , then

(A) determinant of (𝑀𝑀2 + 𝑀𝑀𝑁𝑁 2 ) is 0

(B) there is a 3 × 3 non-zero matrix 𝑈𝑈 such that (𝑀𝑀2 + 𝑀𝑀𝑁𝑁 2 )𝑈𝑈 is the zero matrix

(C) determinant of (𝑀𝑀2 + 𝑀𝑀𝑁𝑁 2 ) ≥ 1

(D) for a 3 × 3 matrix 𝑈𝑈, if (𝑀𝑀2 + 𝑀𝑀𝑁𝑁 2 )𝑈𝑈 equals the zero matrix then 𝑈𝑈 is the zero matrix

Answer: (A), (B)

42. For every pair of continuous functions 𝑓𝑓, 𝑔𝑔: [0, 1] → ℝ such that

max {𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥): 𝑥𝑥 ∈ [0,1]} = max {𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥): 𝑥𝑥 ∈ [0,1]},

the correct statement(s) is(are) :

(A) (𝑓𝑓(𝑐𝑐)) 2 + 3𝑓𝑓(𝑐𝑐) = (𝑔𝑔(𝑐𝑐)) 2 + 3𝑔𝑔(𝑐𝑐) for some 𝑐𝑐 ∈ [0, 1]

(B) (𝑓𝑓(𝑐𝑐)) 2 + 𝑓𝑓(𝑐𝑐) = (𝑔𝑔(𝑐𝑐)) 2 + 3𝑔𝑔(𝑐𝑐) for some 𝑐𝑐 ∈ [0, 1]

(C) (𝑓𝑓(𝑐𝑐)) 2 + 3𝑓𝑓(𝑐𝑐) = (𝑔𝑔(𝑐𝑐)) 2 + 𝑔𝑔(𝑐𝑐) for some 𝑐𝑐 ∈ [0, 1]

(D) (𝑓𝑓(𝑐𝑐)) 2 = (𝑔𝑔(𝑐𝑐)) 2 for some 𝑐𝑐 ∈ [0, 1]

Answer: (A), (D)

43. Let 𝑓𝑓: (0, ∞) → ℝ be given by

𝑥𝑥
1 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = � 𝑒𝑒 −�𝑡𝑡+ 𝑡𝑡 � .
1 𝑡𝑡
𝑥𝑥

Then

(A) 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) is monotonically increasing on [1, ∞)

(B) 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) is monotonically decreasing on (0, 1)

1
(C) 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) + 𝑓𝑓 � � = 0, for all 𝑥𝑥 ∈ (0, ∞)
𝑥𝑥

(D) 𝑓𝑓(2𝑥𝑥 ) is an odd function of 𝑥𝑥 on ℝ

Answer: (A), (C), (D)

44. Let 𝑎𝑎 ∈ ℝ and let 𝑓𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be given by

(A) √2

(B) 1

(D) −√2

Answer: (C)

𝜋𝜋
48. Let 𝑥𝑥⃗, 𝑦𝑦⃗ and 𝑧𝑧⃗ be three vectors each of magnitude √2 and the angle between each pair of them is .
3
If 𝑎𝑎⃗ is a nonzero vector perpendicular to 𝑥𝑥⃗ and 𝑦𝑦⃗ × 𝑧𝑧⃗ and 𝑏𝑏�⃗ is a nonzero vector perpendicular to 𝑦𝑦⃗ and
𝑧𝑧⃗ × 𝑥𝑥⃗, then

(A) 𝑏𝑏�⃗ = (𝑏𝑏�⃗ ∙ 𝑧𝑧⃗)(𝑧𝑧⃗ − 𝑥𝑥⃗)

(B) 𝑎𝑎⃗ = (𝑎𝑎⃗ ∙ 𝑦𝑦⃗)(𝑦𝑦⃗ − 𝑧𝑧⃗)
(C) 𝑎𝑎⃗ ∙ 𝑏𝑏�⃗ = − (𝑎𝑎⃗ ∙ 𝑦𝑦⃗) (𝑏𝑏�⃗ ∙ 𝑧𝑧⃗)
(D) 𝑎𝑎⃗ = (𝑎𝑎⃗ ∙ 𝑦𝑦⃗)(𝑧𝑧⃗ − 𝑦𝑦⃗)

Answer: (A), (B) and (C)

49. A circle 𝑆𝑆 passes through the point (0, 1) and is orthogonal to the circles (𝑥𝑥 − 1)2 + 𝑦𝑦 2 = 16 and

𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑦𝑦 2 = 1. Then

(A) radius of 𝑆𝑆 is 8

(B) radius of 𝑆𝑆 is 7

(C) centre of 𝑆𝑆 is (−7, 1)

(D) centre of 𝑆𝑆 is (−8, 1)

Answer: (B), (C)

50. Let 𝑀𝑀 be a 2 × 2 symmetric matrix with integer entries. Then 𝑀𝑀 is invertible if

(A) the first column of 𝑀𝑀 is the transpose of the second row of 𝑀𝑀

(B) the second row of 𝑀𝑀 is the transpose of the first column of 𝑀𝑀

(C) 𝑀𝑀 is a diagonal matrix with nonzero entries in the main diagonal

(D) the product of entries in the main diagonal of 𝑀𝑀 is not the square of an integer

Answer: (C), (D)

𝑏𝑏
51. Let 𝑎𝑎, 𝑏𝑏, 𝑐𝑐 be positive integers such that is an integer. If 𝑎𝑎, 𝑏𝑏, 𝑐𝑐 are in geometric progression and the
𝑎𝑎
arithmetic mean of 𝑎𝑎, 𝑏𝑏, 𝑐𝑐 is 𝑏𝑏 + 2, then the value of

𝑎𝑎2 + 𝑎𝑎 − 14
𝑎𝑎 + 1

Answer: 4

52. Let 𝑛𝑛 ≥ 2 be an integer. Take 𝑛𝑛 distinct points on a circle and join each pair of points by a line
segment. Colour the line segment joining every pair of adjacent points by blue and the rest by red. If the
number of red and blue line segments are equal, then the value of 𝑛𝑛 is

Answer: 5

53. Let 𝑛𝑛1 < 𝑛𝑛2 < 𝑛𝑛3 < 𝑛𝑛4 < 𝑛𝑛5 be positive integers such that 𝑛𝑛1 + 𝑛𝑛2 + 𝑛𝑛3 + 𝑛𝑛4 + 𝑛𝑛5 = 20. Then
the number of such distinct arrangements (𝑛𝑛1 , 𝑛𝑛2 , 𝑛𝑛3 , 𝑛𝑛4 , 𝑛𝑛5 ) is

Answer: 7
54. Let 𝑓𝑓: ℝ → ℝ and 𝑔𝑔: ℝ → ℝ be respectively given by 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = |𝑥𝑥| + 1 and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥 2 + 1. Define
ℎ: ℝ → ℝ by

max {𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥), 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥)} if 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 0,

ℎ(𝑥𝑥) = �
min {𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥), 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥)} if 𝑥𝑥 > 0.

The number of points at which ℎ(𝑥𝑥) is not differentiable is

Answer: 3

55. The value of

1
𝑑𝑑 2
� 4𝑥𝑥 3 � 2 (1 − 𝑥𝑥 2 )5 � 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥
0

Answer: 2

56. The slope of the tangent to the curve (𝑦𝑦 − 𝑥𝑥 5 )2 = 𝑥𝑥(1 + 𝑥𝑥 2 )2 at the point (1, 3) is

Answer: 8

57. The largest value of the nonnegative integer 𝑎𝑎 for which

1−𝑥𝑥
−𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 + sin(𝑥𝑥 − 1) + 𝑎𝑎 1−√𝑥𝑥 1
lim � � =
𝑥𝑥→1 𝑥𝑥 + sin(𝑥𝑥 − 1) − 1 4

Answer: 0 (zero)
58. Let 𝑓𝑓: [0, 4𝜋𝜋] → [0, 𝜋𝜋] be defined by 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = cos −1 (cos 𝑥𝑥). The number of points 𝑥𝑥 ∈ [0, 4𝜋𝜋] satisfying
the equation

10 − 𝑥𝑥
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) =
10

Answer: 3

59. For a point 𝑃𝑃 in the plane, let 𝑑𝑑1 (𝑃𝑃) and 𝑑𝑑2 (𝑃𝑃) be the distances of the point 𝑃𝑃 from the lines

𝑥𝑥 − 𝑦𝑦 = 0 and 𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 = 0 respectively. The area of the region 𝑅𝑅 consisting of all points 𝑃𝑃 lying in the first
quadrant of the plane and satisfying 2 ≤ 𝑑𝑑1 (𝑃𝑃) + 𝑑𝑑2 (𝑃𝑃) ≤ 4 , is

Answer: 6

𝜋𝜋
60. Let 𝑎𝑎, ��⃗ and ��⃗
��⃗ 𝑏𝑏, 𝑐𝑐 be three non-coplanar unit vectors such that the angle between every pair of them is
3
𝑝𝑝 2 + 2𝑞𝑞 2 + 𝑟𝑟 2
. If 𝑎𝑎 ��⃗ + 𝑏𝑏�⃗ × ��⃗
��⃗ × 𝑏𝑏 ��⃗ + 𝑞𝑞𝑏𝑏�⃗ + 𝑟𝑟𝑐𝑐��⃗, where 𝑝𝑝, 𝑞𝑞 and 𝑟𝑟 are scalars, then the value of
𝑐𝑐 = 𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑎 is
𝑞𝑞 2

Answer: 4
ANSWER: B

ANSWER: D

ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: 6

ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: 2

ANSWER: 7
ANSWER: 2
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B

ANSWER: C

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: A: r and s
B: t
C: p and q
D: r
ANSWER: A: p and s
B: p and q and r and t
C: p and q
D: p

ANSWER: D

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B

ANSWER: A

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: C
ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: 1

ANSWER: 0
ANSWER: 4

ANSWER: C

ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B

ANSWER: D

ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: A: q and r
B: p
C: p and s and t
D: q and r and s and t
ANSWER: A: t
B: p and r
C: either q or (q and s)
D: r
ANSWER: D

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: 4

ANSWER: 2

ANSWER: 3
ANSWER: 6

ANSWER: 8

ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B

ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A: p and r
B: q and s and t
C: p and r and t
D: q and s
ANSWER: A: r and s and t
B: q and r and s and t
C: p and q
D: q and r and s and t

********************************************
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B

ANSWER: A and C

ANSWER: B and D

ANSWER: A and B
ANSWER: C and D

ANSWER: A

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: C
ANSWER: 2

ANSWER: 5

ANSWER: 1

ANSWER: 4
ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: either 0 or 8

ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: 0

ANSWER: 4
ANSWER: D

ANSWER: C

ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C and D

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: A and C and D

ANSWER: B and C

ANSWER: A

ANSWER: D

ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: A

ANSWER: 3
ANSWER: 2

ANSWER: 5

ANSWER: 2

ANSWER: 6

ANSWER: 4

ANSWER: 1
ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: 9
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: D

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: A and D

ANSWER: A and C
.
ANSWER: A and C

ANSWER: A and B and C

ANSWER: A and B and C and D

ANSWER: B or C or (B and C)
Option C implies option B.

ANSWER: B

ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: B
ANSWER: 6

ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: 4

ANSWER: 9

ANSWER: 5
ANSWER: 4

ANSWER: 6

ANSWER: 3

ANSWER: 8

ANSWER: 7
********************************************
JEE 2009
Paper II

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t
Answer p q r s t

A p q r s t

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t

Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t
Answer p q r s t

A p q r s t

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t

Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t
Answer p q r s t

A p q r s t

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t
Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
JEE 2009
Paper I

C p q r s t

D p q r s t
Answer p q r s t

A p q r s t

B p q r s t

Answer p q r s t

A p q r s t

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t

Answer p q r s t

A p q r s t

Answer p q r s t

A p q r s t

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t
Answer p q r s t

A p q r s t

B p q r s t

C p q r s t

D p q r s t
JEE-2008
Paper II

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer
Answer
Answer
Answer

Answer
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Answer

Answer
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Answer

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Answer
JEE-2008
Paper I

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

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Answer

Answer
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Answer

Answer
Answer

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JEE-2007
Paper 2

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

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Answer
Answer
Answer
Answer

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Answer

Answer

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Answer

Answer

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JEE-2007
Paper I

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

Answer
Answer
Answer
Answer

Answer

Answer
Answer

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Answer

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