Pmlect 2 B
Pmlect 2 B
Portfolio Theory
1. Introduction
Before discussing the portfolio, it is important to make sure the following concepts
are understood:
E¢cient Portfolios: That is when investors seek to maximize the expected
return from their investment given some level of risk they are willing to accept.
Risk Aversion: Individuals according to those theories are assumed to be
risk averse: is one who, when faced with two investments with the same expected
return but two di¤erent risks, will prefer the one with the lower risk.
Risky assets: Those are the ones which the return that will be realized in
the future is uncertain. Corporate bonds are riskier than public bonds, because
of the possibility of default, in‡ation and so on.
Assets in which the return that will be realized in the future is known with
certainty today are referred to as risk-free assets or riskless assets.
2
2. Expected Portfolio Return
The table provide forecasts of possible return of a stock of ABC during the
coming year. The forecasts are based on …ve equally-likely possible states of the
economy. A state of the economy might be a severe recession, or a depression,
or moderate growth in the economy. (Note it is by coincidence that Pri the
probability of state i is the same, but in general, di¤erent states will be attached
di¤erent probabilities. In case where we have equal weights for Pr’s, E (R) is
exactly calculated as in the case of the historical data).
Expected return is calculated as a weighted average of the possible returns.
Each possible return is multiplied (weighted) by its probability of occurrence.
Then the expected return will be:
E(R)= R = (Pr1 £ R1)+(Pr2 £ R2 ) + (Pr3 £ R3 ):::::::::::::::::::(PrT £ RT )
Where T is the number of possible states of the economy, Pr’s are the proba-
bilities of the respective states, and R’s are the possible rates of return. For the
above example, E(R) = 0.06
To calculate the variance of the data representing future possible rates of
return, we have to determine the squared deviations from the expected return.
Each possible squared deviation is multiplied by its probability of occurrence.
These are added; the sum is the variance. The standard variance is simply the
square root of the variance, or to say:
Var (R) = ¾2 = [Pr1 £(R1 ¡R)2]+[Pr2 £(R2 ¡R)2]+::::::::+[PrT £(RT ¡R)2]
3
Figure 2.1: Return distribution
4
”Red+Green” Zone = The assets actual return has approximately 95% prob-
ability of falling within this zone (i.e. within 2 standard deviations of the assets
expected return).
”Red+Green+Blue” Zone = The assets actual return has approximately 99%
probability of falling within this zone (i.e. within 3 standard deviations of the
assets expected return).
Asset A has an expected return of 22%, and a return volatility (standard
deviation) of 15%. With this information, we can infer the following:
Asset A has a 68% probability of achieving an actual return between 7% and
37% (i.e. one standard deviation below and above expected return On the graph,
this range is represented the red area).
Asset A has a 95% probability of achieving an actual return between -8%
and 52% (i.e. two standard deviations below and above expected return On the
graph, this range is represented the red+green area).
Asset A has a 99% probability of achieving an actual return between -23%
and 67% (i.e. three standard deviations below and above expected return On the
graph, this range is represented the red+green+blue area).
The important point here is that return volatility (standard deviation) can
have a tremendous impact on actual return. The oft-quoted cliché says, High risk,
high reward, but thats only half of the story. With an understanding of return
volatility, it’s clear that the cliché fails to mention that high risk also means the
potential for great loss.
When considering an asset for inclusion in a portfolio, it’s natural to look to
the upside associated with expected return. However, we also need to factor in
return volatility and decide whether or not we can live with the potential downside
associated it represents.
2.3. Portfolios
An investor’s portfolio of assets is the combination of assets the investor owns.
A portfolio consists of several assets. Therefore, an investor is more concerned
about the characteristics of the portfolio than the characteristics of the individual
assets which comprise the portfolio.
Portfolio Weights: the respective percentages of portfolio’s total value in-
vested in each of the assets in the portfolio are referred to as the portfolio
weights.
Example: An investor’s portfolio has a total value of $1000 and is com-
prised of three assets. The values of assets A, B and C are $450, $250 and $300
respectively. What are the portfolio weights for this portfolio.
5
12000
10000
8000
6000
4000
2000
1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002
T S E 3 0 0
6
4
-2
-4
-6
-8
-10
1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002
R T S E 3 0 0
Figure 2.2: TSE 300 in levels and returns. Sample period is from 11/16/1987 to
11/14/2002
Suppose that an investor invests 60% of his money in Asset X and 40% in
Asset Y; that is the portfolio weights are 60% and 40%, respectively. For each
of the …ve possible states of he economy indicated in the example, the investor’s
6
return on his investment will be equal to a weighted average of the returns in
that state for the respective stocks. For example, in state 1, the portfolio return:
RP = (0:60 £0:10)+(0:40£0:03) = 0:072 = 7:2%: That says, if state 1 occurs,
then the rate of return for the portfolio will be 7.2%. The table below makes all
the calculation to derive at the expected return of the portfolio E(RP )
7
State Pr RX RY RP (RP ¡ E(R P ))2 [Pr £ (RP ¡ E(RP ))] 2
1 0.20 0.10 0.03 0.072 0.000064 0.0000128
2 0.20 0.04 -0.08 -0.008 0.005184 0.0010368
3 0.20 -0.09 0.07 -0.026 0.008100 0.0016200
4 0.20 0.20 0.12 0.168 0.010816 0.0021632
5 0.20 0.05 0.21 0.114 0.002500 0.0005000
Total 1.00 0.30 0.35 0.320 0.026664 0.0053328
¾2P = XA
2 2 2 2
¾A + XB ¾B + 2XAXB CorrA;B¾A¾B
8
where CorrA;B = Correlation betwee the returns of A and B and CorrA;B ¾A¾B
= Covariance between the returns of A and B. As long as the correlation is less
than 1.0, the standard deviation of a portfolio of two securites is less than the
weighted average of the standard deviation of the individual securities.
Combining securities or assets whose Corr is less than +1.0 o¤ers the investor
the opportunity to reduce portfolio risk as measured by the portfolio standard
deviation. This process is commonly known as diversi…cation. As investors
diversify their portfolios by adding securities that have correlation coe¢cients less
than 1.0, and continue to adjust the respective weights in these portfolios, the
many possible combinations can be respresented in a feasible set of the e¢cient
set of portfolio combinations.
To illustrate through an example, take a portfolio of two assets A, and B.
Suppose that each asset makes up 50% of the total value of the portfolio. The
expected return and standard deviation for Asset A are 10% and 0.30, and for
Asset B, 25% and 0.60, respectively.
Then, the expected return and variance on the portfolio are:
E(RP ) = 0.5(RA) + 0:5(RB ) = 0:5(0:1) + 0:5(0:25) = 0:175:
The standard deviation is derived from:
¾P = [XA 2 ¾ 2 + X 2 ¾2 + 2X X Corr 1=2 = [0:52 (0:3)2 + 0:52 (0:6)2 +
A B B A B A;B¾ A¾ B ]
1=2
2(0:5)(0:5)CorrA;B (0:3)(0:6)] =
=[0.1125 + 0.09CorrA;B]1=2
Now taking di¤erent values for CorrA;B = +1; 0; ¡1 we get the risk of returns
below:
9
Suppose that, in the above example, asset A is replaced by asset C with an
expected rate of return of 20% and a standard deviation of 0.40. The expected
return of the portfolio is now 22.5% rather than 17.5%, and the risk of returns,
(standard deviatioin ) becomes [0.13 + 0.12 CorrC;B ]1=2 : We can see from the
table that in case 3, risk of portfolio has been reduced.
When there are only two assets in a portfolio, we could get the variance of
this portfolio in the following manner:
N
X N X
X N
V ar(RP ) = w2i var(Ri ) + wi wj Cov(Ri; Rj ) for i 6= j (2.1)
i=1 i=1 j=1
The formula says that the variance of a portfolio is a weighted average of the
variances of the individual securities plus the covariance between each security
and every other security in the portfolio. If securities have zero correlation, and
hence zero covariance, the second term goes to zero, and the expression reduces
to:
10
N
X
V ar(RP ) = wi2var(Ri ) (2.2)
i=1
Assume for purposes of illustration that only securities with zero covariance
are available, that each security has the same variance, and that equal amounts
are invested in each security,
N
X
V ar(RP ) = (1=N )2 var(Ri) = N(1=N)2var(Ri ) = 1=N var(Ri) (2.3)
i=1
and
p
var(Ri ) S tan dard deviationR i
s tan dard deviationRP = p = p (2.4)
N N
Using this formula and assuming that the individual securities have standard
deviations of (0.4 percent), the data in the following table show how the risk
(standard deviation) of the portfolio declines as zero-correlated securities with
identical standard deviations are added to the portfolio. Risk is reduced to less
than 10 percent of that of a single-stock portfolio when 128 securities are in the
portfolio and to less than 2 percent of the original risk when 510 are included. As
the number of securities added becomes larger and larger (approaches in…nity, in
technical terms), the standard deviation of the portfolio approaches zero.
The principle here is that if there are su¢cient numbers of securities with zero
correlation (zero covariance), the portfolio analyst can make the portfolio risk
arbitrarily small. This is the basis for insurance, which explains why insurance
companies attempt to write many individual policies and spread their coverage so
as to minimize overall risk. It also has direct relevance in providing a benchmark
for assessing the extent to which diversi…cation can be e¤ective in reducing risk
for equity investors.
11
Asset correlation measures the extent to which the returns on two assets
move together (i.e the extent to which those returns behave similarly in response
to market events or stimuli).How it works
Asset correlation ranges from a maximum of +1.00 to a minimum of -1.00. If
two assets have a perfect positive correlation (+1.00), their returns will tend to
move simultaneously in the same direction. With a perfect negative correlation
(-1.00), their returns will tend to move simultaneously in opposite directions. A
correlation of 0 indicates that there is no relationship at all between the price
movements of two assets.
Since few asset pairs will come anywhere close to perfect positive or negative
correlation, the following rules of thumb can be helpful:
High Correlation: Asset correlation greater than 0.75; implies that the two
assets respond very similarly to the market and that their prices will very often
move in the same direction.
Moderate Correlation: Asset correlation between 0.25 and 0.75; implies that
the two assets respond in somewhat similar ways to the market and that their
prices will move more or less in the same direction, depending on how strong the
correlation.
Low Correlation: Asset correlation between 0.00 and 0.25; implies that the
two assets respond fairly independently to the market and that their prices also
tend to move independently of one another.
Negative Correlation: Asset correlation below 0.00; implies that the two assets
respond fairly di¤erently to the market and that their prices will tend to move in
opposite directions.
An individual investor maintains a portfolio that includes shares of the fol-
lowing assets: Intel (INTC), AT&T (T), Walmart (WMT), Vanguard Wellington
Income Fund (VWELX), Janus Fund (JANSX), and Vanguard Total Interna-
tional Stock Index Fund (VGTSX). The matrix below shows how those assets
correlate to one another:
12
To illustrate the extent to which one asset can behave di¤erently from other
assets, the Vanguard Wellington Income Fund serves as a good example: This
fund has moderate or low/moderate correlation with the Intel, AT&T and Wal-
mart stocks, a negative correlation with the Janus Fund, and a high correlation
with the Vanguard Total International Stock Index Fund. While not precise, it is
generally true that the closer your median or average correlation is to +1.00, the
less diversi…ed your portfolio is likely to be. In this portfolio, VGTSX’s high cor-
relations with VWELX and JANSX suggest that this fund may be contributing
less to portfolio diversi…cation than the investor thinks.
Correlation is important because it serves as a checking mechanism on port-
folio diversi…cation. This is true because portfolio diversi…cation depends upon
both the number and weightings of portfolio assets, as well as their relative corre-
lations to one another. By including low-correlation asset pairs in your portfolio,
you can ”hedge” the risk of otherwise volatile assets, diversify, and possibly lower
your portfolio’s overall volatility.
Panel A
Expected Return Standard Deviation Correlation
Stock A 15% 24% +1.0, 0.0, +0.5
Stock B 125 18%
13
Panel B
WA 0 20 40 60 80 100
WB = (1 ¡ WA) 100 80 60 40 20 0
Expected return 12.0 12.6 13.2 13.8 14.4 15.0
Standard deviation
Corr=1.0 18.0 19.2 20.4 21.6 22.8 24.0
Corr=0.5 18.0 17.3 17.7 19.0 22.0 24.0
Corr=0.0 18.0 15.2 14.4 16.1 19.5 24.0
Panel B shows the calculated risk and return data for these portfolios where
the weight of stock A ranges in increments of 0.20 from 0 percent to 100 percent
with the corresponding weight of stock B ranging down from 100% to 0 percent.
The third row in the panel shows the expected return for the portfolio and indi-
cates that the portfolio consisting of 100 percent of stock A has the highest return
and the portfolio consisting of 100 percent of stock B has the lowest expected re-
turn. The bottom three rows show the calculated portfolio standard deviation
for each of the three correlations. This illustrates how portfolio variance changes
as the security weighting vary.
For ease of comparison, we show a plot of the varying risk-return trade-o¤ of
the two stock portfolios at each of the three assumed correlation levels. Note that
there is a direct linear trade-o¤ of risk and return when the assumed correlation
is perfectly positive. On the other hand, there is a curvilinear relationship and
a lesser level of risk for the portfolios when the correlation is zero and at 0.5.
This illustrates the general principle that there is productive diversi…cation and
risk reduction when correlation is less than perfectly positive. Correspondingly,
there is a more favorable risk-return trade-o¤ at a correlation of zero than at a
0.5 correlation level, again illustrating the potential gains from diversi…cation as
correlation is lower.
In general, investors will calculate the risk and expected return for each port-
folio. For the portfolios with the same level of risk, there will be a large number
of portfolios, each with a di¤erent expected return. The investor will choose the
portfolio with the greatest expected return for a given level of risk. This portfolio
is the Markowitz e¢cient portfolio. Any portfolio that can be created is
called a feasible portfolio. The collection of all the feasible portfolios is called the
feasible set of portfolios. The Markowitz e¢cient portfolio is that one that gives
the highest expected return of all feasible portfolios with the same risk. (it is
called also the mean-variance e¢cient portfolio).
14
15 Risk-Return Trade-off
0.05+Expected Return*E-2
10
5
1 2 3 4 5 6
0.04+Standard Deviation*E-2
Figure 2.3:
R = E(R) + U (2.5)
The di¤erence between R and E(R) is attributed to surprises re‡ected in the
unexpected return, U.
15
A systematic risk tends to a¤ect a large number of assets to a greater or
lesser degree; systematic risks are also called market risks. An unsystematic
risk a¤ects only a single asset or a small group of assets. Systematic risks arise
from uncertainty about economy-wide factors, such as in‡ation and interest rates,
whereas the possibility of a labor strike or lawsuit involving a single company is
an unsystematic or “idiosyncratic” risk.
We know that :
R = E(R) + U (2.6)
where U is the surprise component. The surprise component is in‡uenced by
two kinds of risk. So we write:
16
risks. So, investors are not paid for bearing unsystematic risks. In other words,
the reward for bearing risk depends only on the systematic risk of an investment.
Example 2.2. Suppose, two assets, A and B, with : ¯ A = 1:10; ¯ B = 0:70; and
xA = 0:40 and xB = 0:60
17
2.6.1. Beta and the Risk Premium
We take an example: Let asset A be an individual security with ¯ A =1.2 and
E(RA) = 16%: Assume that the risk-free rate (Rf ) = 5%: Note that beta for the
risk-free asset is zero. Since the risk-free asset does not have any risk, it clearly
does not have any systematic risk. If x is the percentage of the portfolio invested
in asset A, then (1-x) is invested in the risk-free asset. The expected return for a
portfolio is:
E(RP ) = [x £ E(RA )] + [(1 ¡ x) £ E(Rf )] = [x £ 16%] + [(1 ¡ x) £ 5%]
Beta for this portfolio is:
¯ P = [x £ ¯ A] + [(1 ¡ x) £ 0] = [x £ 1:2] + 0 = 1:2x
By selecting various values of x, and then computing the corresponding value
of E(RP ) and ¯ P we can plot expected returns and beta. This relationship be-
tween E(RP ) and ¯ P is a straight line through the point Rf and the point repre-
sented by ¯ A = 1:2 and E(RA )
The slope of the line, is called the reward-to-risk ratio. The slope of a straight
line can be computed between any two points on the line. Take ¯ A; E(RA);Rf to
…nd the slope:
Slope: = (E(RA) ¡ Rf ) = (¯ A ¡ 0) = 0:09167 = 9:167%
This can be regarded in the following manner: for each unit increase in sys-
tematic risk (an increase from beta =0 to beta = 1), an investor will increase her
expected return by 9.16%.
This reward-to-risk ratio can be explained as follow: assume an investor is
considering placing her entire investment portfolio in the risk-free asset. Prior
to making her decision, the investor might want to know what her compensation
would be for taking on risk. That is represented by the reward-to-risk ratio, for
each unit increase in the systematic risk, (Beta), she will increase her expected
rate of return by 9.16%.
Another example, say we have another asset B, with ¯ B = 0:6 and E(RB ) =
10%: Should an investor consider purchasing this asset?. In this case, we compare
asset B to a portfolio (P), comprised of asset A and the risk-free asset, with
¯ P = 0:6.
We know earlier that, ¯ P = 1:2x; so x must be 0.5, then:
E(RP ) = (0:5 £ 16%) + (0:5 £ 5%) = 10:5%
18
For the same risk, portfolio P has a higher expected return than does asset
B, so that P is preferable to B.
B is inferior to A, and that can be demonstrated through the reward-to-risk
ration, that is:
Slope = (E(RB) ¡ Rf )=(¯ B ¡ 0) = 0:0833 = 8:33%:
8.33% is less than 9.167%, then, an investor would not consider buying asset
B.
25
20
15
10
5
-15 -10 -5 0 5 10 15
x
19
³ ´ ³ ´
E(RM ) ¡ ¯ f =(¯ M ¡ 0) = E(RM ) ¡ ¯ f =(1 ¡ 0) = E(RM ) ¡ ¯ f
Since this slope is the excess return on the market over the risk-free rate, it
is often called market risk premium, and the equation for the SML becomes:
E(Ri) = Rf + [E(RM ) ¡ ¯ f ] £ ¯ i
where, E(Ri ) and ¯ i are the expected return and beta for any asset. This
equation is referred to as the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), and it
indicates the expected return for any asset for a given level of systematic risk.
20
line RS V shows combinations of the risk-free asset with the V portfolio of risky
assets on the e¢cient frontier. At RS on the line only the risk-free asset is held,
while at V only the V portfolio of risky assets is held. In between, as we move
along the ling from RS to V, increasingly less of the investor’s given funds are
held in the risk-free asset and more are held in the V portfolio of risky assets.
An investor can go behind the broken portion of the line by borrowing at the
risk-free rate.
Combined portfolios along the straight line running from RS to V are inef-
…cient portfolios relative to those lying on a similar line drawn through RS but
intersecting the e¢cient frontier above V. This is because higher expected return
can be obtained at the same risk. Rotating the RS V line upward until it is just
tangent to the e¢cient frontier produces the optimum portfolio of risky assets
to be combined with the riskless asset. This optimum portfolio of risky asset is
shown at point M. The optimum portfolio M is called the market portfolio of
risky assets, or simply the market portfolio. The straight line RS MC is called
the capital market line (CML), which is the e¢cient frontier of combined
portfolios.
If all investors have the same expectations about asset returns and risk, each
will want to hold a combined portfolio lying along the capital market line. No
investor will want to hold any portfolio or risky assets other than the market
portfolio.
21
E(RA) = RF + ¯ 1F1 + ¯ 2F2 + ::::::::::::::::: + ¯ K FK (2.11)
where E(RA) is the expected return on an individual asset, RF is the risk-
free rate of return, F1; F2; ::::::FK are systematic risk factors (in‡ation, interest
rates, industrial production, ...), and ¯ 1; ¯ 2; ::::::::¯ K indicate the sensitivity of
the asset’s expected return to the respective factors.
Preliminary …ndings suggest that APT is better at explaining the historical
data than the CAPM, but that may be the result of the empirical methods and
tests employed by di¤erent researchers.
22
What about the risk
Var(RP ) =w2f var(Rf )+w2M var(RM )+2wM wf std(Rf )std(RM )corr(Rf ; RM )
we know that var(Rf ) = 0, also corr(Rf ; RM ) = 0 this is because the risk-free
asset has no variability and therefore does not move at all with the return on the
market portfolio which is a risky asset. So the portfolio variance becomes:
Var(RP ) =w2M var(RM (RM )
or to say:
Std (RP ) =wM Std(RM )
and therefore: wM =Std (RP )=Std(RM )
Now let us use the equation for the expected return:
E(RP ) = Rf +wM (E(R M ) ¡ Rf ) = Rf + [Std (RP )=Std(RM )](E(RM ) ¡ Rf )
This is the equation for the Capital Market Line. The numerator is the
expected return on the market beyond the risk-free return. It is a measure of the
risk premium or the reward for holding the risky market portfolio rather than the
risk-free asset. The denominator is the risk of the market portfolio. Thus, the
slope measures the reward per unit of market risk. Since the CML represents the
return o¤ered to compensate for a perceived level of risk, each point on the line
is a balanced market condition, or equilibrium. The slope is also referred to as
the market price of risk.
According to capital market theory, the risk premium is equal to the market
price of risk times the quantity of risk for the portfolio (as measured by the
standard deviation of the portfolio), that is:
E(RP ) = Rf + Market price of risk £ Amount of portfolio risk
23
Taking the derivative of the equation for ¾2P with respect to wa and setting it
equal to zero, and solving for wa
we get:
24