Ans: Yes, adenine can only pair with thymine because of their

chemical structures.
Q37. Is there always going to be an equal number of guanine and
cytosine nucleotides in a molecule? Why?
Ans: Yes, guanine can only pair with cytosine because of their
chemical structures.

1. Pollutants dumped into the rivers and streams eventually find

their way to
Q9. How do the heart and the lungs work together? a. the ocean b. the atmosphere c. groundwater supplies
The heart pumps the blood that transports the inhaled oxygen to
every cell of the body. Carbon dioxide is given off in the process and 2. The average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere may rise as a
is carried by the blood to the lungs and is released through result of
exhalation. a. the greenhouse effect b. water pollution c. garbage dumping

Q10. What takes place when you inhale and exhale? 3. Many_______ energy sources are being developed to replace
Gas exchange happens when we inhale and exhale. We take in the fossil fuels.
oxygen, and emit carbon dioxide. a. non-renewable b. alternative c. expensive

Q11. What does blood deliver to every part of the body? The blood 4. Some endangered species of plants in tropical rain forests may be
delivers nutrients, oxygen, and other chemicals that are absorbed sources of
by the body a. fossil fuel b. medicine c. hazardous waste

Q12. Why is oxygen important to your body? 5. Humans are using_______ natural resources than they did 100
Oxygen is important to our body because it processes the nutrients years ago.
in the cell to make energy. a. fewer b. better c. more

Q13. Describe the sequence of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and blood

flow in your own words.
Oxygen enters the respiratory system through inhalation and then
it enters the blood stream to be circulated throughout the body.
Carbon dioxide from the tissues enter the blood, then to the lungs
where it is exhaled.

Q33. What are the common parts of a nucleotide? GLYCOLYSIS

Ans: Sugar and Phosphate Q27. In which part of the cell does the process take place?
Ans: Cytoplasm
Q34. What is the one part of the nucleotide that differs among the Q28. What is the raw material?
other different nucleotides? Ans: Glucose or Sugar
Ans: Base Q29. What are the products?
Ans: Pyruvate and ATP
Q35. List the different kinds of nitrogen Q30. How will you describe the flow of electrons?
bases___________________________ Ans: The electrons flow along the membrane and change to ATP.
Ans: Adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine Q31. What do you think is the importance of NADH and FADH2 in the
process?
Q36. Is there always going to be an equal number of adenine and Ans: NADH and FADH2 are high energy carriers that provides
thymine nucleotides in molecule? Why? electron for the synthesis of ATP.
Q32. What is the final acceptor of the electron in the process? 7. How many orbitals are in the third principal energy level?
Ans: The final acceptor of electron in the ETC is oxygen. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12
Q33. What compound is formed when the electron combines with
the last acceptor? 8. Which configuration is possible in an excited state of electron?
Ans: When electrons (hydrogen) combine with the last acceptor a. 2He : 1s2 b. 1H: 1d1
(oxygen) it forms water molecule. c. 11Na: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3d1 d. 10Ne: 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1

1. Who proposed the probability that electrons will be found in

certain locations around the nucleus of an atom?
a. Neil Bohr c. Ernest Rutherford
b. Erwin Schrodinger d. J.J Thomson

2. Which of the following statements is NOT true of the atomic model

of Bohr?
A. The hydrogen is made up of a positively charged nucleus
B. The electron revolves around the nucleus in a circular orbit.
C. The energy of the electron in a given orbit is not fixed.
D. An electron can absorb or emit a quantity of radiation.

3. Which orbital designation has the highest energy?

A. 2s B. 2p C. 3d D. 4s

4. Which statement is incorrect?

A. Orbital is a region in an atom where an electron can be found
B. An electron can absorb energy when it jumps to a higher energy
level.
C. An electron can emit energy when it jumps to a higher energy
level.
D. Filling of electrons in an atom starts from a low energy level to the
highest energy level.

1. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic 5. What occurs when an electron moves from high energy level to a
particle is present in the nucleus of an atom? low one?
a. proton and electron c. proton and neutron A. another electron goes from a low energy level to a high one
b. neutron and electron d. proton only B. the atom moves faster
C. colored light is given off
2. If the first and second energy levels of an atom are full, then what D. this process is not possible
would be the total number of electrons in the atom?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d.18 6. Which combination describes the flame color of the compound
when heated?
3. Which atomic model is proposed by Schrodinger? A. sodium chloride – orange C. potassium chloride – blue
a. nuclear model b. planetary model B. copper(II) sulfate – violet D. boric acid – red II
c. raisin bread model d. quantum mechanical model
B
4. Which electron transition results in the emission of energy?
a. 3p to 3s c. 2s to 2p b. 3p to 4p d. 1s to 2s

5. The symbol “n” in the Bohr Theory of atomic structure refers to 2. What kind of particle is produced after covalent bonding?
a. the energy of electron a. atom b. molecule c. ion d. electron
b. the total energy of the atom
c. the number of electron in an energy level 3. How does ionic bonding take place?
d. the orbit in which an electron is found. a. Two non-metallic elements of different kinds form strong forces of
attraction.
6. Which of the following sublevels is correctly designated? b. Two non-metallic element of the same kind form strong forces of
a. 1p5 b. 3f9 c. 2p6 d. 3d11 attraction.
c. A non-metallic element like fluorine is attracted to a metallic
element like sodium.
d. A metallic element like sodium transfers an electron to a non- Ans: Yes, after ionic bonding the participating atoms attain the
metallic element like fluorine. stable electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas.

4. What kind of chemical bond will form between two oxygen atoms? Q5. How can you tell that ionic bonding will take place between
a. ionic bond b. metallic bond metals and non-metals?
c. polar covalent bond d. nonpolar covalent bond Ans: Ionic bonding will take place between metal and non-metal
with electronegativity difference of greater than 1.9.
5. Which of the following type of bonds will have the highest electrical
and thermal conductivity? Q6. Will all combinations of metals and non-metals form ionic bond?
a. ionic bond b. metallic bond Why?
c. polar covalent bond d. nonpolar covalent bond Ans: Not all metal-nonmetal combinations will result in an ionic
bond. Only those with electronegativity difference of more than 1.9
6. Why can metals be hammered without breaking? will result to an ionic bond.
a. They are ductile. b. They are not brittle.
c. They are malleable. d. Its particles are strong. Q1. How do covalent bonds form between atoms?
Ans: Covalent bonds form between atoms due to the sharing of
7. When does covalent bonding take place? electrons to attain stability.
a. It takes place when atoms share electrons with one another.
b. It takes place when the attraction between atoms is strong. Q2. What kind of element usually forms covalent bond? Is it possible
c. It takes place when atoms collide with one another. for metals and non-metals to form nonpolar covalent bonds? Why?
d. It takes place when atoms attain stability. How about polar covalent bonds? Why?
Ans:

A
Q4. Differentiate polar covalent bond from nonpolar covalent bond.
Ans: Polar covalent bond involves unequal sharing of electrons while
nonpolar covalent bond involves equal sharing of electron.
D

Q1. What do you notice with the number of valence electrons,

electronegativity values, and ionization energies of the elements?
Ans: As the number of valence electron increases, electronegativity,
and ionization energy also increase.

Q2. What kind of element has the greatest tendency to attract

electrons? Why? Q1. What type of compound:
Ans: Non-metals have the greatest tendency to attract electrons A. Dissolves easily in water?
because they have high electronegativity. Ans: polar covalent and ionic compounds
b. conducts electricity in solution?
Q3. What kind of element requires high energy to remove its valence Ans: ionic compounds
electrons? Why? c. melts easily?
Ans: Non-metals have high energy requirement to pull its valence Ans: covalent compounds have low melting temperature
electrons.
Q2. Explain why salt and vetsin can conduct electricity in solution.
Q1. What kind of element forms cation after ionic bonding? Why? Ans: Ionic compounds, like salt and vetsin, give off positive (cations)
Ans: Metals form cations because they completely transfer or give and negative (anions) ions in solution that is why they can conduct
away electrons. electricity. Salt and vetsin release sodium cation (Na+). Salt also
releases chloride anion (Cl -) in aqueous solution while vetsin
Q2. What kind of element forms anion after ionic bonding? Why? releases glutamate anion.
Ans: Non-metals form anions because they attract electrons toward
themselves. Q3. Make a general statement about the properties of ionic and
covalent compounds.
Q3. Why do ions form after ionic bonding? Ans: Ionic compounds are water soluble, they have a high melting
Ans: Ions form after ionic bonding because this type of bond point, and can conduct electricity in solution. Covalent compounds
involves complete transfer of electrons. have a low melting point. Nonpolar covalent compounds are
insoluble in water, and poor conductors of heat and electricity.
Q4. Did the atoms attain stability after ionic bonding? Explain your
answer.
1. Element X belongs to Group 1. Which of the following best
describes element X? 7. A gasoline boy was being scolded by his store manager for smoking
a. high electronegativity b. high ionization energy in the vicinity of the gasoline station. Why do you think the manager
c. low electronegativity d. a non-metallic element scolded his employee?

2. What will most likely happen to a non-metallic atom after ionic A. because gasoline is volatile C. because gasoline is viscous
bonding? B. because gasoline is flammable D. all of the above
I. It forms a cation II. It forms an anion
III. It becomes stable IV. It becomes unstable
B
B

9. Which organic compound is used as a cleaning agent?

D A. gasoline
B. kerosene
C. liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)
C D. ethyl alcohol

10. Which hydrocarbon compound has a triple bond in the molecule?

6. Why do atoms react with one another to form chemical bonds? A. octane B. methane C. ethene D. ethyne
a. to attain stability b. to form compounds
c. to form molecules d. to produce ions

7. What kind of force is present in ionic bond?

a. repulsive force b. electrostatic force B
c. neutral force d. retentive force

8. Which of the following substances when dissolve in water will

conduct electricity?
a. glucose b. oil c. Gasoline d. muriatic acid

9. What bond holds the atoms of the elements in Groups 1and 2 of

the Periodic Table? C
a. nonpolar covalent bond b. polar covalent bond
c. metallic bond d. ionic bond
10. Which of the following sets of samples has metallic bond,
covalent bond and ionic bonding in this order?
a. bronze, paraffin wax, and salt
b. alloy, vetsin, and water
c. gold ring, baking soda, and starch C
d. coins, salt, and carbon dioxide

1. Which of the following statements best describe organic

compounds?
A. Organic compounds are compounds that contain carbon and C
oxygen only
B. Organic compounds are compounds that are produced by living
things 15. What is the common use of methane?
C. Organic compounds are composed mainly of carbon and hydrogen
D. Organic compounds are compounds that contain carbon atoms A. disinfectant B. fertilizer C. artificial ripening agent D. fuel
only
16. Which are TRUE about the use of isopropyl alcohol?
2. How do carbon atoms form many organic compounds? I. cleaner III. disinfectant
II. fuel IV. fertilizer
B
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. I and IV only

17. Salvador has to remove the red paint in the paintbrush so that he
could still use it again next time. What organic compound should he
use to remove the paint in the paintbrush?
A. acetic acid B. lubricating oil C. kerosene D. formaldehyde

C
Ans: C

4. Emmanuel Juan, a fisher man, went home with some of his catch
and told his son to cook the fish. But his son said, “Father the stove
ran out of fuel already”. Then his father told him to buy some so that
they could start cooking the fish. Which organic compound do you
think the boy will buy?
A. kerosene C. lubricating oil
B. gasoline D. isopropyl alcohol Ans: B

5. Which of the following pairs of organic compounds is highly

flammable?
A. gasoline, acetone C. lubricating oil, isopropyl alcohol
B. water, ethyl alcohol D. liquefied petroleum gas, kerosene
Ans: B
6. Honey is applying something to the ball bearings of the wheels of
her bicycle so that friction will be minimized. Which of the following
material do you think she is using?
A. vinegar C. kerosene
B. isopropyl alcohol D. lubricating oil
1. Which are TRUE about organic compounds?
15. What is the common use of ethyne?
I. organic compounds contain calcium A. disinfectant C. artificial ripening agent
II. organic compounds contain carbon B. fertilizer D. antibiotic
III. organic compounds can be produced by living organisms
IV. organic compounds can be produced artificially 16. Which are TRUE about the use of ethyl alcohol?

A. I, II and III only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. II, III and IV only I. medicine II. Fuel III. Disinfectant IV. Fertilizer

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. I and IV only

C 17. Veronica wants to change her nail polish because it does not look
good with her new dress. What must she use to remove her fingers’
old nail polish?
A. acetic acid C. acetone
B. lubricating oil d. formaldehyde

3. How many types of bonds can a carbon atom form? A

A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

4. Marcy’s car stopped at the middle of the road. She found out that
her car has ran out of fuel. Which compound must she buy?
A. kerosene B. gasoline C. lubricating oil D. water

5. Juan Victor’s grandmother was cooking their supper when she

suddenly stopped and said, “Oh, the tank is already empty!” Then her
grandmother asked him to buy another tank. What did Victor’s
grandmother ask him to buy?
A. gasoline B. water C. lubricating oil D. liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) 19. Maria Paula wants to preserve a fish for her project in Biology
class. What kind of compound should she use to preserve the animal?
6. Juan Miguel wants to protect his bicycle’s parts from rusting fast.
Which of the following material do you think will Miguel use? A. acetic acid B. formaldehyde C. methyl alcohol D. acetone
A. vinegar B. isopropyl alcohol C. kerosene D. lubricating oil
20. Which alkene will most likely have the highest boiling point?
A. ethene B. propene C. pentene D. hexene.

B 1. Suppose you were asked to prepare a 250-g chocolate mousse

which is 35% chocolate, 30% cream, 20% milk, 10% sugar, and 5%
butter, how much cream are you going to use?
a. 75 g cream b. 60 g cream c. 73 g cream d. 62 g cream

2. Cheska measured the mass of 10 pieces of each of the following

B materials: marble, pebble, and ballpen cap. What will be her findings
based on the data she obtained? Ans: D

9. Why is it important to know the properties of common liquid

materials?
A. To know the uses of the liquids 3. The following are representative particles of matter: which among
B. To know possible danger from these kind of material them represents a covalent compound?
C. To know how these liquids affect people a. atom b. ion c. molecule d. particle unit
D. all of the above
4. A bag of NPK fertilizer marked 16-4-8 contains 16% nitrogen, 4%
10. Which hydrocarbon compound has a double bond in the phosphorous and 8% potassium, the other 72% is usually inert filler
molecule? material, such as clay pellets or granular limestone. What is the mass
A. ethane B. methane C. propene D. propyne of nitrogen present in 500g pack of NPK fertilizer?
a. 80g b. 40g c. 20g d. 10g
11. How many types of bonds are there in the following hydrocarbon
compound? 5. How many particles are equal to 1 mole?
a. 6.02 x 1022 particles
B b. 6.02 x 1023 particles
c. 6.02 x 1024 particles
d. 6.02 x 1025 particles

6. How can the knowledge about mole be useful for

environmentalists?
a. Mole concept can be used in environmental monitoring.
B b. It gives information on the most dangerous pollutant in the
atmosphere.
c. It gives a feedback on the kinds of pollutants present in the
atmosphere.
d. Mole concept can be used in quantifying the amount of pollutant-
particles released in the atmosphere.

C 7. How can you apply knowledge on percentage composition?

a. In maintaining the quality of food product.
b. In checking the amount of sugar present in the soft drink.
c. In identifying the correct amount of substance present in a sample.
14. What happens to the boiling point of hydrocarbon compounds d. all of the above
when the number of carbon atoms increases?
A. remains the same C. increases 8. How many percent of hydrogen (H) is present in water (H2O)?
B. decreases D. increases then decreases a. 12% b. 11% c. 13% d. 10%
 13. In cold areas, many fish and insects, including the common
housefly produce large amounts of glycerol (C3H8O3 Molar Mass =
C 92.11 g/mole) to lower the freezing point of their blood. How many
percent of oxygen is present in glycerol?
a. 52.11% b. 50.11% c. 51.11% d. 53.11%

14. Ethyl butanoate (C3H7COOC2H5) is the substance responsible for

C the aroma of pineapple. What is the molar mass of ethyl butanoate?
a. 118.00 g/mole b. 117.12 g/mole
c. 120.12 g/mole d. 116.18 g/mole

15. Calcium carbonate (CaCO3 Molar Mass = 100.09 g/mole) is an

antacid used to neutralize extra acid in the stomach. Lorie is
prescribed by the doctor to take 250mgtablet of CaCO3 three times a
A day. How many moles of CaCO3 will Lorie consume for 3 days?
a. 0.0252 moles b. 0.0225 moles c. 0.0242 moles d. 0.0235 moles

2. What is the representative particle of ionic compounds?

a. atom b. ion c. molecule d. formula unit

3. How many particles are there in one mole of any kind of substance?
a. 3.01 x 1023 b. 6.02 x 1023 c. 3.01 x 1024 d. 6.02 x 1024

4. Moth balls (paradichlorobenzene-C6H4Cl2) are used as cockroach

repellent. It is often placed inside the cabinet. If 1 piece of moth ball
weighs 5.0g and your mother put 3 pieces in your cabinet, how many
molecules of paradichlorobenzene-C6H4Cl2 (Molar Mass = 147.00
g/mol) will be circulating inside your cabinet considering all the moth
balls have sublimed?
a. 6.02 x 10 22 molecules of C6H4Cl2
b. 6.02 x 10 23 molecules of C6H4Cl2
c. 6.14 x 10 22 molecules of C6H4Cl2
d. 6.14 x 10 23 molecules of C6H4Cl2

5. Who among the following students describes the result of the

activity on counting by weighing correctly?
Ann – Different sets of materials having the same mass have different
number of pieces.
Dan – Different sets of materials have the same number of pieces and
the same mass.
Tom - The same sets of materials, have the same number of pieces
but different masses.
a. Ann b. Dan c. Tom d. none of them

6. The roots of the plants absorb the nutrients from the soil. For the
farmers, it is important to strengthen the root system of their plants
to ensure its growth. Potassium is the mineral responsible for a
healthy root system. If you were a farmer, which of the following 5. Which of the following is an active volcano in the Philippines?
fertilizers are you going to use? a. Apo in Davao b.Bud Datu in Sulu
a. K2SO4 b. K2O c. KCl d. K2CO3 c.Isarog in Camarines Sur d.Kanlaon in Negros Oriental

7. Methane (CH4Molar Mass = 16.04 g/mol) is one of the greenhouse

gases. If 32.08 g of CH4 is released in the atmosphere, how many
molecules of CH4 are added in the atmosphere?
a. 1.20 x 1024 b. 1.20 x 1023 c. 6.02 x 1024 d. 6.02 x 1023

8. The presence of SO2 in the atmosphere causes acid rain. How many
percent of sulfur is present in SO2 (Molar Mass = 64.07g/mole)?
a. 40.00% b. 49.95% c. 60.00% d. 50.05%

9. Arrange the following substances from the lightest to the heaviest:

Cl2; CH4; H2O; NH3; N2

a. H2O< NH3< N2< CH4< Cl2

b. CH4< NH3< H2O< N2< Cl2
c. N2< Cl2< H2O< CH4<NH3
d. NH3< CH4< Cl2< H2O< N2

10. Why is mole concept important?

a. It is useful when converting between grams and atoms or
molecules.
b. It gives us a convenient way to express large numbers
c. It can be applied to any type of particle representative
d. All of the above

11. Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3 Molar Mass = 80.06g/mole) is a

substance used to produce dinitrogen monoxide (N2O), a dental
anesthetic. Determine the mass percent of N in ammonium nitrate?
a. 35.00% b. 40.65% c. 39.50% d. 43.68%
8. Describe the shape of the volcanic cone formed from the
12. People usually use hydrogen peroxide (H2O2 Molar Mass = 34.02 following type of volcanic emission:
g/mole) to clean their wounds. If Cheska used 1.0 g of H2O2 to clean a. high temperature magma – wide base and almost flat slope
her wound, how many mole of H2O2 did she use? b. low amount of gas magma – wide base and almost flat slope
Ans: C c. high silica content magma – stratovolcano
1. How does the windward side differ from the leeward side of a high Q1. How much is the tilt of the earth’s axis?
land? Ans: 23.5 degrees
a. The windward receives more precipitation than the leeward. Q2. Which part of the earth receives most of the sun’s rays?
b. The leeward side has more vegetation than the windward side. Ans: Equator
c. The windwardside receives more heat than the leeward side. Q3. Why does the amount of heat receive by places far from the
d. The leeward side receives more precipitation than the equator become less?
windwardside. Ans: It is due to the tilting of the earth’s axis and the shape of the
earth.
2. What happens to the temperature of air when altitude increases? Q4. Why are the coldest places on earth found near the poles?
a. remains the same b. increases c. decreases d. varies Ans: They receive less amount of heat.
Q5. Why are places with high temperature found at the equator?
Ans: Due to the tilting of the earth’s axis, places near the equator
receive more heat making the air temperature higher.
Q6. How does latitude affect climate?
Ans: When the area is farther from the equator, the air temperature
is lower resulting in a cold climate. When the place is closer to the
equator, the air temperature is higher which results in a warm
climate.

Q1. What happens to water vapor as it rises over the mountain?

Ans: It condenses to form clouds.
Q2. Which side of the mountain experiences low temperature?
Ans: The windward side.
Q3. Which side of the mountain experiences high temperature?
Ans: The leeward side.
Q4.What happens when air becomes warmer and drier as it moves
down the leeward side?
6. Which of the following can cause global warming? Ans: It rises up the atmosphere
a. volcanic eruptions Q5. What dry region forms at the back of the mountain?
b. theincrease of the amount of rainfall Ans: Rain shadow
c. the rising of warm air into the atmosphere Q6. How does topography affect climate?
d. increase of the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere Ans: Moist wind coming from the sea flow up the mountain.
Because temperature falls with altitude, water vapor eventually
7. When does greenhouse effect happen? condenses and there is precipitation.
a. Greenhouse gases on the surface absorb heat from the
atmosphere. 1. Why do mountain climbers bring thick jackets when they go up the
b. Greenhouse gases on the surface absorb heat from the earth’s mountain?
interior. a. The temperature increases as the altitude increases.
c. Greenhouse gases in the upper atmosphere absorb heat from the b. The temperature decreases as the altitude increases.
outer space. c. The altitude increases as the temperature increases.
d. Greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere absorb heat from the d. The altitude decreases as the temperature increases.
earth’s surface.
2. What will happen if there is too much carbon dioxide in the
8. Which activity does not contribute to global warming? atmosphere?
a. reforestation c. mining activities a. Greenhouse effect occurs. c. Water vapor condenses.
b. illegal fishing d. incineration of garbage b. Temperature increases. d. Climate changes.

9. City A is surrounded by bodies of water and has a moderate climate. 3. Why does cloud formation disappear as the air moves slowly
It is located near the equator. What will most likely affect the climate towards the leeward side of a mountain?
of the city? a. The air condenses as it moves to the leeward side.
a. latitude c. topography b. altitude d. all of these b. The amount of water vapor is not enough.
c. The temperature becomes lower.
d. There is too much water vapor.

5. It refers to the atmospheric condition of a place over a long period

of time.
a. climate c. weather b. monsoon d. topography

6. Which side of the mountain often receives the most precipitation?

a. leeward side b. windward side c. rain shadow d. peak

7. Which is the best practice to reduce the effect of climate change?

a. livestock raising c. organic farming
b. burning fossil fuel d. car manufacturing

8. Which of the following shows the effect of climate change?

a. rising of sea level b. deforestation of the forest
c. coastal erosion in some places d. siltation of bodies of water

9. During summer, many people visit Baguio because of the cold

weather. What do you think makes Baguio cold?
a. The latitude c. The altitude
b. The topography d. The distance from the ocean

10. Why do places at the same latitude but different altitudes have
different climate?
a. Amount of heat received varies.
b. Amount of precipitation differs.
c. Higher altitudes have lower temperature.
d. Higher altitudes have higher temperature.
Ans: B

Ans: C

4. How do stars appear to move in the night sky?

A. From East to West B. From North to South A
C. From West to East D. From South to North B. motorcycle d. cannot be determined

5. Stars appear to move in the sky because 13. Two identical cars are travelling along EDSA. Which of the two cars
A. The Earth is rotating on its axis. B. The Universe is expanding. would have a greater momentum?
C. The night sky is rotating. D. New galaxies are formed. A. the slower car B. the faster car
C. both have the same momentum D. cannot be easily determined
6. If you are located at the North Pole, where will you see the Polaris?
A. Overhead B. Just above the horizon 14. A bus and a car are travelling along EDSA having the same velocity.
C. Around 45° from the horizon Which of the two vehicles would have a greater momentum?
D. Polaris will not be seen in the North Pole. A. the bus B. the car
C. both have the same momentum
7. Which constellation is prominently seen in the sky during summer? D. cannot be easily determined
A. Orion B. Pegasus C. Hercules D. Virgo
15. A 25-kg girl is riding a 5-kg with a velocity of 5 m/s the East. What
is the total momentum of a girl and a bike together?
A. 100 kg m/s B. 125 kg m/s C. 150 kg m/s D. 200 m

16. Which of the following is a necessary condition for the total

momentum of a system to be conserved?
A. Kinetic energy must not change.
9. Why do stars have colors? B. No net external force acts on the system.
A. It is because of the presence of oxygen. C. The system must be at rest.
B. It is because of the presence of carbon dioxide. D. Only the force of gravity acts on the system.
C. It is because of varied temperatures.
D. It is because of the different locations For numbers 17 and 18 the given data are: Two 0.5 kg balls approach
each other with the same speed of 1.0 m/s.
10. Stars can be found in large groups throughout the universe. What 17. What is the total momentum of the system before collision?
are these groups called? A. 0 B. 0.50 kg m/s C. 1.0 kg m/s D. -1.0 kg m/s
A. solar system B. comets C. constellations D. asteroids
18. If there is no external force acting on the system, what the total
momentum of the system after collision?
A. 0 B. 0.50 kg m/s C. 1.0 kg m/s D. -1.0 kg m/s

19. Two billiard balls approach each other with the same speed. If
they collide in a perfectly elastic collision, what would be their
velocities after collision?
A. Zero B. Same in magnitude and direction
C. Same in magnitude but opposite in direction
D. Different in magnitude and opposite in direction

20. A 50 kg astronaut ejects 100 g of gas from his propulsion pistol at

a velocity of 50 m/s. What is his resulting velocity?
A. -0.10 m/s B. -0.50 m/s C. 0 m/s D. -100 m/s

1. If a freely falling ball is somehow equipped with a speedometer, by

how much would its speed reading increase for every second?
6. The initial velocity of Manuel playing “luksong tinik” has horizontal A. 0 m/s B. 9.8 m/s C. 10 m/s D. 20 m/s
and vertical components that are equal in magnitude. What angle
does his velocity make with the horizontal? 2. A sepaktakraw ball is hit vertically upward by a player. What is its
A. 30° B. 45° C. 60° D. 90° acceleration after 1 second?
a. 0 b. 1 m/s2 c. 9.8 m/s2 d. -9.8m/s2
7. A sepak takraw that is kicked from a height of two meters follows a
path that is____________. 3. A volleyball is tossed vertically upward, with an initial velocity of 5
A. circular B. linear C. hyperbolic D. parabolic m/s and caught back at the same level as when it was thrown. What
is the velocity of the ball at that point?
8. A goalie made three soccer punts at 700, 500, and 300 with varying a. 0 m/s c b. -5 m/s . -9.8 m/s d. -9.8 m/s2
speeds – all reaching the same maximum heights. Which statement
is correct?
A. All punts have the same hang time
B.The punt at 70 degrees has the longest hang time
C. .The punt at 50 degrees has the longest hang time
D. .The punt at 30 degrees has the longest hang time
D 19. Two billiard balls approach each other at equal speed. If they
collide in a perfectly elastic collision, what would be their velocities
after collision?
A. Zero
B. Same in magnitude and direction
C. Same in magnitude but opposite in direction
A D. Different in magnitude and opposite in direction

20. A 50-kg astronaut ejects 100 g of gas from his propulsion pistol at
a velocity of 50 m/s. What is his resulting velocity?
a. -0.10 m/s b. -0.50 m/s c. 0 m/s d. -100
7. A ball is hit at an angle of 30o. At what point in its trajectory does
this projectile have the least speed?
a. Just after it was launched
b. At the highest point in its flight
c. Just before it hits the ground
d. halfway between the ground and the highest point

8. Suppose a ping pong ball is tossed. When the ball reaches the
highest point, which statement about the ball’s velocity and
acceleration is true?
a. Both its velocity and its acceleration are zero
b. Its velocity is zero and its acceleration is not zero
c. Its velocity is not zero and its acceleration is zero.
d. Neither its velocity nor its acceleration is zero.

9. At what angle should a water hose be aimed in order for the water
to land with the greatest horizontal range?
a. 0° b. 30° c. 45° d. 60°

10. A ball is hit at an angle of 30o and it reaches a distance of 50 m.

Given the same initial velocity, at what other angle should a ball be
hit to reach the same distance.
a. 15° b. 45° c. 60° d. 75o.

11. Which has more momentum, a heavy truck moving at 30 km/h or

a light truck moving at 30 km/h?
a. heavy truck b. light truck
c. Both have the same momentum d. Cannot be determined.

12. A moderate force will break an egg. However, an egg dropped on

the road usually breaks, while one dropped on the grass usually
doesn’t break. This is because for the egg dropped on the grass:
a. The change in momentum is greater.
b. The change in momentum is less.
c. The time interval for stopping is greater.
d. The time interval for stopping is less.

13. The impulse experienced by a body is equal to the change in its:

A. Velocity B. Kinetic energy C. Momentum D. Potential energy

14. In certain martial arts, people practice breaking a piece of wood

with the side of their bare hand. Use your understanding of impulse
to explain how this can be done without injury to the hand.
a. Given the same change in momentum, when the time interval is
smaller the impact force is bigger.
b. Given the same change in momentum, when the time interval is
bigger the impact force is bigger.
c. Given the same change in momentum, when the time interval is
smaller the impact force is smaller. 9. A torchlight fell from a watch tower. The potential energy of the
d. Given the same change in momentum, when the time interval is torchlight at the highest point compared to its kinetic energy at the
bigger the impact force is smaller. lowest point is _______
A. lesser. B. equal. C. greater. D. not related.
15. A lady tennis player hits an approaching ball with a force of 750 N
If she hits the ball in 0.002 s, how much impulse is imparted to the 10. The potential energy of a 1-kg object on top of a hill is 18 J. What
tennis ball? is its velocity in m/s just before it hits the bottom of the hill?
a. 0 N s b. 1.5 N s c. 3.0 N s d. 6.0 Ns A. 36 B. 18 C. 6 D. 3

16. Which is a necessary condition for the total momentum of a

system to be conserved?
A. Kinetic energy must not change.
B. No external force is present.
C. An object must be at rest.
D. Only the force of gravity acts on the system.

For numbers 17 and 18: Two 0.5 kg balls approach each other with
the same speed of 1.0 m/s.
17. What is the total momentum of the system before collision?
A. 0 B. 0.50 kg m/s C. 1.0 kg m/s D. -1.0 kg m/s

18. If there is no external force acting on the system, what the total
momentum of the system after collision?
A. 0 B. 0.50 kg m/s C. 1.0 kg m/s D. -1.0 kg m/s
 1. Francis stretched a rubber band five times. After that, he observed
that the rubber band felt warmth. Did the rubber band gain heat?
A. No, it is not evident.
B. Yes, the rubber band felt warmth means it gained heat
C. Yes, the rubber band felt warmth means it loss heat.
D. No, temperature is not related to a gain or loss of heat.

Beaker I, half-filled with water on hot plate for 2.5 minutes

Beaker II, half-filled with water on hot plate for10minutes
Beaker III, full of water on hot plate for 5 minutes
Beaker IV, full of water on hot plate for2.5 minutes

Four identical beakers, I, II, III, IV are placed on a large electrical

hotplate. I and II are half-full and III and IV are full of tap water at the
same initial temperature. I and IV are placed on the hot plate for
2.5minutes, III is left on for 5minutes, and II is left on 10minutes. The
water does not boil in any of the beakers.

2. Which one of the bakers of water will receive the most heat?
A. I B. II C.III D.IV

3. Which one of the beakers of water will have the lowest

temperature right after being heated?
A. I B.II C.III D.IV

4. Which two beakers of water will have almost the same final
temperature after being heated?
A. I and II B. I and III C. I and IV D. II and III

5. What is commonly used as refrigerant for most of the refrigerators?

A. Liquid that is easy to solidify.
B. Liquid that is hard to solidify.
C. Gas that is easy to liquefy.
D. Gas that is hard to liquefy.

1. The total kinetic and potential energy of all its particles is the
internal energy of a body.
2. The internal energy of a body increases when a) its temperature
increases and b) it changes from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas.
3. Heat is the energy transferred from one body to another as a result
of a temperature difference.
4. Heating is the process in which heat is transferred from one body
to another as a result of a temperature difference.
5. By doing work or by heating, internal energy can be increased.
6. Joule (J) is the unit to express internal energy.
7. Heat engine is a device that changes thermal energy into
mechanical work.
8 Internal combustion engines are engines that combustion takes
place inside the engine chamber. Examples are gasoline, diesel engine
and our human body. External combustion engines are engines
where the fuel combustion takes place outside the engine. Steam,
piston engine and the atmosphere are examples of external
combustion engine.
9 Thermal Pollution of the air can affect the weather; thermal
pollution of water can be harmful to aquatic animals.

1. The internal energy of a system is initially 35J. The system does 34J
of work. What is the system’s final internal energy when a total of 46J
of energy is added to the system by heat?
A. 47J B.26J C.37J D.36J

2. While a gas does 400J of work on its surroundings, 900J of heat is

added to the gas. What is the change in the internal energy of the gas?
A. 500J B.400J C. 900J D.300J
3. If 500 calories of heat are added to a gas, and the gas expands doing 1. In which of the following units is electrical consumption measured
500J of work on its surroundings, what is the change in the internal by electric companies for our household consumption in our homes?
energy of the gas? Answer: kilowatt hour
A. 1555J B. 5915J C. 5159J D.1595J 2. In power stations generating electricity, power is measured in
_________. Answer: megawatt
For numbers 4-5, consider this situation: A beaker containing 400g of 3. Why do power stations generate AC, and not DC?
water has 1200J of work done on it by stirring and 200cal of heat Answer: It is easier to generate, safer and more economical to
added to it from a hot plate. transmit AC than DC.
4. Transformers are used to raise the voltage along substations and
4. What is the change in the internal energy of the water in joules? lower it for residential consumption. What kind of transformers is
A.2038J B.3028J C.2308J D.3820J used to raise the voltage?
Answer: Step-up
5. Determine the change in the internal energy of the water in 5. Shayne turned on a lamp switch in her room. Which of the following
calories? is the correct path of electrical power that can be traced back to the
A. 684calories B.486calories C.648calories D.846calories source?
Answer: power plant -- transmission substations -- distribution
6. An ideal gas is compressed without allowing any heat to flow into substations -- residences
or out of the gas. What will happen to the temperature of the gas in 6. Who among the following scientists discovered the relationship
this process? between electricity and magnetism? Answer: Michael Faraday
A. The temperature increases since no heat flows during the 7. You made an electric motor in school. When you tested it in using
process. 4 dry cells, the armature turned very fast. What should you do to
B. The temperature decreases since heat flows during the process. make it turn slower?
C. The temperature remains the same since heat flows in and out on Answer: remove one of the dry cells
the process. 8. What energy transformation takes place in a generator?
D. The temperature could not be determined since heat is absorbed Answer: Mechanical to electrical
during the process. 9. In which case will electric current be induced in a coil of wire?
Answer: When a magnet is rapidly inserted into and out of the coil
7. Is it possible to change the temperature of a glass of water by 10. If a 100 W light bulb is lit for 8 hours each day for 20 days in a
stirring the water, even though the glass is insulated from its month. How many kilowatt-hours will the bulb consume? Answer: 16
surroundings?
A. No, stirring will not affect the temperature of the water. 1. Last month, Ms. Alcantara’s electric meter reads 8765 kWh. How
B. No, insulation prevents the change of temperature of the water. much will she pay for power generation if the charge of electric
C. Yes, stirring the water increases its internal energy causing the company per kWh is 6.88 pesos and her electric meter reads 9975 this
increase of its temperature. month?
D. Yes, stirring the water decreases its internal energy causing the A. ₱ 8765.00 B. ₱ 8324.80 C. ₱ 1210.00 D. ₱ 3457.42
decrease of its temperature. 2. Jaypeth paid ₱1250.00 for electric bill. How much energy (in kWh)
is consumed if the electric company charges ₱6.88/kWh?
8. Mang Fermin, a carpenter, is planning a piece of wood with his A. 186.81 B. 181.69 C. 188.61 D. 181.8
planar. After how many minutes, he observed that it is hot. What is 3. In buying an appliance, which of the following efficiency guide
the evidence that there is heat transfer? would you consider?
A. It is not evident.
B. Hotness means there is an increase in the temperature.
C. Yes, hotness means there is a decrease in the temperature
D. No, hotness is not related to a change in temperature

9. How does can water from the deep well move upward?
A. It occurs naturally.
B. It uses water heat pump.
C. It is a spontaneous process. A B C D
D. It flows from higher temperature to cooler temperature.
4. How is the energy efficiency ratio (EEF) related to the operating
10. Given the following mechanisms, which best describes correct cost?
sequence of the refrigeration cycle? a. the higher the EEF, the higher the operating cost
1. Compression 3.expansion b. the higher the EEF, the lower the operating cost
2. Condensation 4. Evaporation c. the lower the EEF, the higher the operating cost
d. the lower the EEF, the lower the operating cost
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,1 C. 3,4,1,2 D.4, 3, 1, 2 5. Gemma wanted to improve the lighting condition of her room by
buying a lamp. What suggestions can you give her and why?
11. How can air conditioning unit functions as heater during cold days a. Buy an incandescent bulb because it gives off more light.
and cooler during hot days? b. Buy a compact fluorescent lamp (CFL) or LED lamp because it is
1. It cools the inside of the house and heats the outside. more energy efficient.
2. It takes heat from the air outside to warm the inside. c. Buy a fluorescent lamp because it is brighter than an incandescent
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. None of them bulb.
d. Buy an incandescent bulb because it is cheaper.
12. What is the function of a heat engine? 6. A 60 watt bulb is connected to 120V plug. What is the current in
A. It converts chemical energy to mechanical energy. the lighted bulb?
B. It converts thermal energy to mechanical energy. a. 0.25A b. 0.5A c. 2 A d. 4 A
C. It converts mechanical energy to chemical energy. 7. To reduce your electric bill
D. It converts thermal energy into chemical energy. a. make use of limited appliances
b. put off appliances when not in use
13. What is the correct sequence of four cycle-stroke of gasoline c. put off main switch during the day d. connect appliances in series
engine? 8. What is produced if the magnet and the conductor move relative
1. Intake 2. Power 3. Exhaust 4. Compression to each other?
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,4,2,3 C. 2,3,4,1 D. 1, 3, 4, 2 a. voltage b. magnetic field c. Resistance d. current
9. When there is a change in the magnetic field in a closed loop of
14. Why is heat engine not 100% efficient? wire,
A. Because all mixture of gases is converted into work. a. a voltage is induced in the wire.
B. Because engine needs to be cooled down. b. current is made to flow in the loop of wire.
C. All of the gases are used up by the engine. c. electromagnetic induction occurs.
D. Some of the gases is taken up in the piston. d. all of these
. 10. All of the following power plants use steam to drive the turbines
15. What causes thermal pollution? to produce electricity except
A. Exhaust of different vehicles. a. hydropower b. geothermal c. coal-fired d. nuclear
B. Exhaust from different industrial engines.
C. Degradation of water. D. All of them