I.

Radiology:
Mark the correct answer:

1- X-ray glass tube is evacuated for the following reason:

A- The evacuation will help oxidation and burn out of the filaments.
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B- The evacuation will help for more production of electrons.
C- The evacuation will prevent oxidation and burn out of the filaments.
D- The evacuation will help for more production of X-ray.

2- Target of the X-ray tube anode is made of tungsten for the following reason:
A- It has a very high atomic number.
B- It is a good thermal conductor.
C- It prevent scattered radiation
D- It improves the quality of useful beam.

3- All of the following are properties of X-ray except:

A- They have a selective penetration, absorption power.
B- They affect photographic film’s emulsion.
C- They cause ionization of atoms.
D- They can be focused or collected by a lens.
E- They cannot be deviated by a magnet.
4- Soft radiation characterized by:
A- Short wavelength, increased frequency, increased energy accompanied with it
B- Long wavelength, increased frequency, increased energy accompanied with it.
C- Short wavelength, increased frequency, decreased energy accompanied with it.
D- Long wavelength, decreased frequency, increased energy accompanied with it.

5- X-rays cause biological damaging effects primarily by their property of:

A- Penetration absorption power.
B- Short wavelength.
C- Electromagnetic induction.
D- Ionization

6- Tungsten is used as cathode filament in X-ray tube because it has a:

A- High melting point.
B- High thermal conductor.
C- High coefficient of thermal expansion
D- High resistance allowing easier passage of electrons.

7- Tungsten is used as anode target in X-ray tube because it is a:

A- Low atomic number.
B- Poor thermal conductor.
C- Good resisted of thermal expansion.
D- Highly resistance allowing easier passage of electrons.

8- The object of X-ray beam collimation is:

A. To remove the highly penetrating X-rays.
B. To remove X-rays with short wavelength.
C. To remove X-rays with long wavelength.
D. To decrease the facial dose to the patient.
E. All of the above.
9- The object of X-ray beam filtration is:
A- To remove the highly penetrating X-rays.
B- To remove X-rays with short wavelength.
C- To remove X-rays with long wavelength.
D- To remove all types of radiation other than X-rays causes cell damage.
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E- All of the above

10- Radiopaque areas on radiographic film are seen as such because of:
B- Shining silver halides particles.
C- Removal of silver bromide crystals.
D- Reduced silver bromide crystals.
E- Dissolution of silver particles.
11- Radiolucent areas on radiographic film are seen as such because of:
A- Shining silver halides particles.
B- Removal of silver bromide crystals.
C- Dissolution silver bromide crystals.
D- Oxidization of silver particles.

12- To convert the latent image into visible one the radiographic film should be:
A- Protected from light and saliva.
B- Undergoes chemical processing
C- Opened in the dark room
D- Mounted on a viewer.

13- Focusing cup of the cathode is a:

A- Negatively charged concave reflector cup made of molybdenum.
B- Positively charged convex reflector made of molybdenum.
C- Neutrally charged concave reflector made of copper.
D- Negatively charged convex reflector made of molybdenum.

14- X-ray fixer contains all of the following except:

A- A clearing agent.
B- An antioxidant preservative.
C- An accelerator.
D- An acidifier.
E- A hardener.

15- X-ray developer contains all of the following except:

A- Developing agent.
B- An antioxidant preservative.
C- A clearing agent.
D- An accelerator.
E- A restrainer.

16- The main function of cone in X-ray machine is to:

A- Fix the target film distance.
B- Indicate the point of the entry.
C- Remove highly penetrating radiation.
D- 1 & 3
E- 1 & 2
17- Dental X-ray film emulsion is made of:
A- Copper bromide granules.
B- Silver bromide granules.
C- Gold bromide granules.
D- Silver oxide granules.
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18- Occlusal film could be used for:
A- Detection of interproximal caries.
B- Detection of salivery gland stone.
C- Detection of occlusal caries.
D- Detection of early periodontal bone loss.

19- The developer solution treats:

A- The exposed crystals of the film emulsion.
B- The unexposed particles of the film emulsion.
C- Both exposed & non-exposed portions.
D- Both exposed silver halides granules and adhesive layer.
E- None of the above.
20- The fixer solution treats:
A- The exposed crystals of the film emulsion.
B- The unexposed particles of the film emulsion.
C- Both exposed & non-exposed portions.
D- Both exposed silver halides granules and adhesive layer.
E- None of the above.

21- Automatic timer of X-ray machine is better than manual one because:
A. It is attached to the machine with a long cord.
B. It calculates the time of exposure automatically.
C. It can give the time of exposure in fraction of second.
D. It gives an enough period to operator to go away from radiation field.
22- The purpose of the adhesive used in intraoral films is to:
A- Glue the silver halide crystals together
B- Attach the emulsion to the film base.
C- Keep the black paper wrapper tight against the X-ray film
D- Allow you to handle the film with less chance of dropping it.
23- Weaker X-rays are filtered out of the X-ray beam by several different components of the X-
ray tube head. Which of the following is not involved in filtering the X-ray beam?
A- Copper head of the anode.
B- Oil contained in the tube-head.
C- Glass window of the X-ray tube.
D- Aluminum disks.
E- Metal housing of the tube-head.
24- Which of the following is not provided by the lead foil in a film packet?
A- Protect the film from backscatter radiation
B- Protect the film from saliva contamination
C- Reduce patient exposure on opposite side (beyond film)
D- Help strengthen the film packet
E- Identify when film is placed in backwards
25- The bitewing film would be an acceptable choice for:
A-Identifying apical pathology
B- Identifying interproximal caries
C- Locating an impacted premolar in the buccolingual direction
D-Identifying stones in salivary gland 4
26- Image magnification may be minimized by:
A- Using a short cone.
B- Placing the film as far from the tooth as possible.
C- Using a long cone.
D- Shortening the exposure time.

27- In bite-wing imaging of molars, the vertical angulation should set at:
A- +5 degrees
B- +10 degrees
C- +15 degrees
D- +20 degrees

28- In true maxillary occlusal projection, the central beam is directed with:
A- 65 degrees with the film.
B- 90 degrees with the film
C- 75 degrees with the film
D- None of the above.

29- In bisecting angle technique, the central beam is perpendicular to:

A- Long axis of the film.
B- Long axes of the tooth.
C- Bisector.
D- Both long axes of film and tooth.

30- Sharpness of an image could be increased by all of the following except:

A- Decreased film crystals size.
B- Decreased film-object distance.
C- Increased film- object distance
D- Increased source- object distance.

31- All the following are anatomical variations which might required using the bisecting angle
technique except:
A- A shallow palate.
B- A large palatal tours.
C- Shallow or tender floor of the mouth
D- A short labial frenum.

32- The image of coronoid process of the mandible often appears in the periapical radiograph of:
A- The incisor region of the mandible.
B- The last molar region of the mandible.
C- The incisor region of the maxilla.
D- The last molar region of the maxilla.
33- In relation to the area where films are unwrapped, safelights should be mounted no closer
than:
A- 1 foot
B- 2 feet
C- 3 feet
D- 4 feet 5
E- 6 feet

34- Shortening of the radiographic image is produced by:

A- Incorrect horizontal angulation.
B- High vertical angulation.
C- Low vertical angulation
D- Incorrect point of entry.

35- Apical ends of the teeth could be not showing in periapical radiographs due to:
A- Over bending of the film
B- Exposure the film twice
C- Flat vertical angulation
D- Identification dot placed apically.

36- Overlapping of the radiographic image is produced by:

A- Incorrect horizontal angulation.
B- Incorrect vertical angulation.
C- Either of the above
D- Incorrect point of entry.

37- Nasolacrimal duct is almost seen in the:

A- Periapical view of maxillary posterior area
B- Occlusal view of the maxilla
C- Panoramic view.
D- Occlusal view of mandible.
38- Genial Tubercles
A- Appear as a radiopaque circle that surrounds the mental foramen
B- Appear as a radiolucent circle that surrounds the lingual foramen
C- Appear as a radiopaque circle that surrounds the lingual foramen
D- Appear as a radiopaque circle that surrounds the mandibular foramen

39- All of the following are advantage of automatic processor except:

A- Rapid and easy method
B- Standardization of processing.
C- No need for dark room and its equipment.
D- Need for regular maintenance.

40- Blurred image could occur due to:

A- Movement of the film
B- Movement of the patient
C- Movement of the cone.
D- All of the above
E- None of the above.
41- Black crescent could be seen in dental radiograph due to:
A- Pressure from fingernail during handling
B- Fingerprints before processing
C- Pressure from patient finger during exposure.
D- Pressure from the dentist finger during exposure

42- Mental foramen appears in periapical radiograph as: 6

A- Well defined radiolucent area related to apices of lower premolars
B- Ill defined radiopaque area related to the apices of lower premolars
C- Ill defined radiolucent area related to the apices of upper premolars
D- Ill defined radiolucent area related to the apices of lower premolars.

43- The inverted Y shape in dental radiograph denoting a relationship between:

A- Floor of maxillary sinus and anterior border of nasal fossa.
B- Floor of nasal fossa and anterior border of zygomatic arch.
C- Floor of nasal fossa and anterior border of maxillary sinus.
D- Floor of maxillary sinus and floor of nasal fossa.

44- Periodontal membrane space appears in dental radiograph as:

A- Thin radiopaque line that lining the socket of the tooth
B- Thin radiolucent line that surrounding the root of the tooth
C- Thin radiolucent line in the midline of maxilla
D- Thin radiopaque line that surrounding the root of the tooth.

45- All the following are advantages of bisecting angel technique except:
A- More comfortable to the patient
B- No need for film holder.
C- No anatomical restrictions.
D- More distortion obtained.

46- When comparing the paralleling technique with the bisecting angle technique (using the
finger to hold the film), the paralleling technique:
A- Is usually more comfortable
B- Can be used in more anatomical situations
C- Requires a definite head position (can not be altered)
D- Produces less distorted images (better dimensional accuracy)
E- Makes it more difficult to standardize films from one visit to the next

47- Which of the following statements relating to the bisecting angle technique is correct?
A- The # 0 size film should be used for maxillary anterior periapical films
B- The midsagittal plane should be parallel to the floor
C- The right index finger should be used to holding the film for the upper premolar periapical
film
D- The thumb of either hand can be used to hold the maxillary incisor film
E- The maxillary molar periapical film should be centered on the first molar

48- Blank image may developed due to all the following except:
A- Put the film first in the fixer.
B- Put the film first in the developer.
C- Unexposed film is processed.
D- Very little time of exposure.
49- In which of the following groups do all the structures appear radiolucent on a radiograph?
A- Median suture, submandibular fossa, mental foramen.
B- Incisive canal, genial tubercles, nasal fossa.
C- Maxillary sinus, mylohyoid ridge, mental foramen.
D- Hamular process, nutrient canals, nasal cartilage.
50- The name of the “U” shaped radiopacity that appears over the roots of the teeth on a 7
periapical radiograph of the maxillary molar region is the:
A- Articular eminence
B- Maxillary tuberosity
C- Pterygomaxillary fissure
D- Zygomatic Process

51- Film fog can be caused by all of the following except:

A- Scatter radiation.
B- Improper safe lighting.
C- Excessive filtration.
D- Improper film storage.
E- Using film beyond its expiration date.

52- Which of the following is the name of the bony projection that arises from the sphenoid bone
and extends downward and slightly posteriorly?
A- Genial tubercles.
B- Hamular process.
C- Malar bone.
D- Zygomatic arch.

53- Fogged film could be happened due to all the following except:
A- Short distance between the film and safe light.
B- Prolonged exposure of the film to the safe light.
C- Decreased object film distance.
D- High temperature during film storage.
E- Dirty processing tanks.

54- Mandibular foramen appears as:

A- Radiolucent area upon the mandibular ramus.
B- Radiolucent area at the mandibular premolars area.
C- Radiolucent area at the mandibular molars area.
D- Radiolucent area at the mandibular anterior area.

55- Radio-opaque structure that extends distally and upward posterior to maxillary sinus is:
A- Coronoid process of the mandible
B- Maxillay tubrosity.
C- Zygomatic process
D- Septa of maxillary sinus

56- Median palatine suture appears in periapical radiograph as:

A- Vertically oriented radiolucent line between the roots of two maxillary central incisors.
B- Vertically oriented radioopaque line between the roots of two maxillary central incisors.
C- Vertically oriented radiolucent line between the roots of central and lateral incisors.
D- None of the above
 57- Which of the following is not a mandibular anatomical structure?
A- Incisive foramen.
B- Inferior dental canal.
C- Lingual foramen.
D- Coronoid process.
E- Mental foramen.
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II. Oral Diagnosis

58- Percussion is a technique of examination of:
A- Teeth.
B- Bone.
C- Floor of mouth
D- All of the above
E- None of the above.

59- The main advantage of closed end question is :

A- Answers are specific.
B- Calm the anxious patient.
C- Increase the patients’ confidence.
D- Proper for indecisive patients.

60- All the following are factors that govern shaping of chief complaint except:
A- Age of the patient
B- Education of the patient
C- Language of the patient
D- General appraisal of the patient
E- Memory of the patient.

61- Subjective symptoms are:

A- Diagnosis that described by the patient.
B- Finding which discovered by the examiner.
C- Complains that described by the patient
D- All of the above

62- Tentative diagnosis :

A- Is a possibility of occurrence of a condition due to two or more diseases
B- Is a primary diagnosis drowns before all diagnostic data are assembled.
C- Is the rapid immediate diagnosis of a diseases based on minimal data
D- Is the final diagnosis based on accurate complete data

63- Spot diagnosis:

A- Is the rapid immediate diagnosis based on minimal data
B- Is the rapid diagnosis to manage a chief complaint that requires immediate attention
C- Is the final diagnosis based on an accurate complete data?
D- Is a primary diagnosis drowns before all diagnostic data are assembled.

64- Emergency diagnosis:

A- Is the rapid immediate diagnosis based on minimal data
B- Is the rapid diagnosis to manage a chief complaint that requires immediate attention
C- Is the final diagnosis based on accurate complete data
D- Is a primary diagnosis drowns before all diagnostic data are assembled.
65- Diagnosis of oral ulcer could accomplished by:
A- Spot diagnosis.
B- Emergency diagnosis
C- Differential diagnosis
D- None of the above.

66- The main disadvantage of direct patient interview is : 9

A- Being time consuming
B- Ability to ask in depth.
C- Broad in scope.
D- Personal and fixable method.

67- The main advantage of printed questioner is :

A- Being time consuming
B- Ability to ask in depth.
C- Broad in scope.
D- Personal and fixable method.

68- The main disadvantage of open end question is :

A- The patient may feel that the interview is cold.
B- Time consuming.
C- Patient may feel trapped
D- Negative attitude by patients towards the rest of question

69- Objective symptoms are:

A- Findings that discovered by the patient
B- Finding which discovered by the examiner.
C- Symptoms that described by the patient
D- All of the above

70- Lancinating, stabbing, electric shock –like pain is a character of:

A- Dental caries pain
B- Psychogenic pain
C- Neurogenic pain
D- Somatic pain.

71- Half an inch finger sign could be noticed in:

A- Trigeminal neuralgia.
B- Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome
C- Sinusitis.
D- Addison disease.
72- All of the following are causes of bleeding from the mouth, except:
A- Gingivitis.
B- Inflammatory hyperplastic lesions.
C- Trauma.
D- Recurrent aphthous ulcer

73- In exacerbation & remission lesion:

A- Same lesion is present but signs and symptoms appear & reappear.
B- The same lesion disappears then reappears in the same site.
C- One lesion heals and a similar one appears in the same site or another site.
D- Lesion is present all the time with change in its symptoms from time to time.
74- All of the following are causes of Xerostomia, except:
A- Inflammation of salivary glands
B- Dehydration state.
C- Insertion of new denture.
D- Antihistaminic drugs.

75- Bidigital palpation means: 10

A- Manipulation of the tissue by two hands
B- Manipulation of the tissue by two fingers of one hand
C- Manipulation of the tissue by two fingers from both hands
D- Manipulation of the tissue of the symmetrical structures
E- 1&3

76- Bimanual palpation means:

A- Manipulation of the tissue by two hands
B- Manipulation of the tissue by two fingers of one hand
C- Manipulation of the tissue by two fingers from both hands
D- Manipulation of the tissue of the symmetrical structures
E- 1&3

77- In recurrent lesion:

A- Same lesion is present but signs and symptoms appear & reappear.
B- The same lesion disappears then reappears in the same site.
C- One lesion heals and a similar one appears in the same site or another site.
D- Lesion is present all the time with change in its symptoms from time to time.

78- Trigeminal neuralgia is an example for:

A- Intermittent lesion
B- Recurrent lesion
C- Progressive lesion
D- Exacerbation and remission lesion.

79- All of the following diseases could lead to serious complications during dental appointment
except:
A- Leukemia.
B- Hemophilia
C- Peptic ulcer
D- Hyperthyroidism

80- Blue sclera is seen in:

A- Osteogenisis imperfecta
B- Congenital syphilis
C- Cushing syndrome
D- Hyperthyroidism
E- Acromegaly

81- All of the following are causes of halitosis, except:

A- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
B- Caries
C- Nasal, sinus and pharyngeal infections e.g. tonsillitis
D- Operculum on 3rd molar
E- Uncontrolled diabetes
82- Moon face is seen in:
A- Cushing syndrome
B- Hyperthyroidism
C- Hypothyroidism
D- Scleroderma
E- Cooley’s anemia
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83- Mask face with restricted mouth opening is seen in:
A- Cushing syndrome
B- Hyperthyroidism
C- Hypothyroidism
D- Scleroderma
E- Cooley’s anemia

84- Prominent forehead could be found in:

A- Cushing syndrome
B- Hyperthyroidism
C- Dentinogenisis imperfecta
D- Scleroderma
E- Cooley’s anemia

85- Yellow conjunctiva is seen in:

A- Renal diseases.
B- Hyperthyroidism
C- Jaundice
D- Cooley’s anemia

86- Lymph nodes could be examined by:

A- Inspection and palpation
B- Inspection and auscultation
C- Palpation and olfaction
D- Palpation and percussion.

87- Facial asymmetry could occur due to all the following causes except:
A- Salivary gland diseases.
B- Hyperplasia of the ramus of the mandible
C- Fracture of zygomatic arch
D- Ectodermal dysplasia

88- Periorbital edema is seen in:

A- Moon face.
B- Nephrotic face.
C- Mask face.
D- Acromegaly face.
E- Facial asymmetry.

89- Saddle nose could be seen in:

A- Sickle cell anemia
B- Congenital syphilis
C- Infantile myexodema
D- All of the above
E- None of the above.
90- All of the following are outer circle of precervical lymph nodes except:
A- Submental lymph nodes
B- Submandibular lymph nodes
C- Parotid lymph nodes.
D- Pharyngeal lymph nodes
E- Occipital lymph nodes.
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91- Redness of the tip of the nose could be observed in all the following except:
A- Chronic alcoholism
B- Liver cirrhosis
C- Lupus erythematosus
D- Congenital syphilis

92- Scaly skin could be observed in:

A- Erythema multiform.
B- Lupus erythematosus.
C- Pellagra.
D- Bronze diabetes.

93- Submandibular lymph nodes drainage all the following except:

A- Nasal, cheek, & upper lip skin cover
B- Gingival of lower jaw
C- All upper & lower teeth
D- Floor of mouth
E- Middle portion of lower lip

94- All pre-cervical and superficial cervical lymph nodes are draining into:
A- Anterior cervical lymph nodes
B- Pre-auricular lymph nodes
C- Deep cervical lymph nodes
D- Supraclavicular lymph nodes
E- None of the above

95- Butterfly rash of the skin could be observed in

A- Erythema multiform.
B- Lupus erythematosus.
C- Pellagra.
D- Bronze diabetes.

96- Superficial Cervical lymph nodes drain

A- External ear and angle of the jaw.
B- Larynx and thyroid gland
C- Maxillary gingiva and hard palate
D- Posterior third of the tongue.

97- All the following are causes of generalized lymph nodes enlargement except:
A- Infectious mononucleosis
B- Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
C- Hodgkin's disease
D- Lymphosarcoma.
98- All the following are causes of localized lymph nodes enlargement except:
A- Secondary stage of syphilis.
B- Dento-alveolar abscess.
C- Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
D- Tuberculosis

99- Waldyer ring of lymph nodes includes: 13

A- Occipital, pharyngeal and parotid
B- Palatine, pharyngeal and lingual tonsils
C- Palatine, occipital and mastoid
D- Occipital, mastoid and parotid

100- Tempromandibular joint could be examined by:

A- Inspection, palpation and olfaction.
B- Inspection, Auscultation and olfaction
C- Palpation, Inspection and auscultation.
D- Palpation, inspection and percussion.