Sample MCQ’s Biotechnology Department

1) Which is the leading cause of blindness in children worldwide?

(a) Glaucoma
(b) Cataracts
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Vitamin A deficiency

2) Which of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of Niacin?

(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Pellagra
(d) Pernicious anaemia

3) Weakness in muscles and increase in the fragility of red blood cells is caused
due to the __________.
(a) Deficiency of vitamin E
(b) Deficiency of vitamin D
(c) Deficiency of vitamin C
(d) Deficiency of vitamin A

4) Name the disease caused by the deficiency of Niacin?

(a) Pellagra
(b) Rickets
(c) Scurvy
(d) Pernicious anemia

5) An example of a digestive hormone is

(a)Lipase
(b)Pepsin
(c)Amylase
(d)Gastrin
6) Which vitamin is required for calcium absorption from the small intestine?

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin K
7) The stimulus for producing insulin is __________.

a) low blood sugar level

b) low glycogen level
c) High blood sugar level
d) high glycogen level

8) Excess growth hormone would cause all the following EXCEPT

-------------
a) Suppression of cancer
b) Gigiantism in children
c) Acromegaly in adults
d) Dibetes

9) Insulin enhances the membrane glucose transport in all of the following

except ------------
a)Skeletal muscles
b)Adipose tissue
c) Brain
d) Myocardium

10) The secretions from which of these glands differs between males and
females?
a) Adrenal
b) Parathyroid
c) Gonadal
d) Pancreas

11) The posterior pituitary stores and releases:

a) Growth hormone and prolactin

b) Prolactin and oxytocin
c) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d) ADH and growth hormone
12)---------------hormone brings about contraction of uterine muscles during
childbirth
a) Oxytocin
b) Hcg
c) Prolactin
d)Oestrogen

13) which of the following is not peptide hormone

a) Onsulin
b) Growth hormone
c) prolactin
d) Oestrogen

14) --------------hormone is tested for confirmation of pregnancy

a) Prolactin
b) Hcg
c) Progesterone
d) Oestrogen

15) Group 1 hormone binds to -----------receptors

a)Cell surface
b)Extracellular
c) Intracellular
d) None of these

16) Which of the following hormones are responsible for the "fight-or-flight"
response?
a) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
b) Insulin and glucagon.
c) Esterogen and progesterone
d) Thyroxin and melatonin

17) The secretions from which of these glands differs between males and
females?
a) Adrenal
b) Parathyroid
c) Gonadal
d) Pancreas
18) ADH is also called as ---------
a) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
b) Growth hormone
c) Glucocorticoid hormone
c) Vasopressin

19) What is another name for Thyroxine

a)Tetraiodothyronine
b)Triidothyronine
c)Thyroid
d)Thymus

20) Vitamins of then acts as an

a) Cofactor
b) Holoenzyme
c) Coenzyme
d) Apoenzyme

21) Insulin enhances the membrane glucose transport in all of the

following except ------------
a)Skeletal muscles
b)Adipose tissue
c)Brain
d)myocardium

22) 1) Peptide bond is a _________

a)Covalent bond
b)Ionic bond
c)Metallic bond
d)Hydrogen bond

23) Which of the following bonds are not involved in tertiary type of protein
structure?
a) Disulfide bond
b)Hydrogen bonding
c)Salt bridges
d)Hydrophilic interactions
24) Which of the following is false about fibrous protein?
a) It is in rod or wire like shape
b)Keratin and collagen are the best examples
c)Hemoglobin is the best example
d)It provides structural support for cells and tissues

25) Which of the following is false?

a) Heme consists of a complex organic ring structure, protoporphyrin
b) Protoporphyrin is bound to a single iron atom in its Fe+3 state
c) Iron atom has 6 coordination bonds
d) Heme is found in a number of oxygen transporting proteins
26)Myoglobin and the subunits of hemoglobin have __________
a)Very different primary and tertiary structures
b)Very similar primary and tertiary structures
c)Very similar primary structures, but different tertiary structures
d)Very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures

27) Light band has which of the following filament protein?

a) Actin
b) Myosin
c) Actin and myosin
d) Tubulin

28) Which of the following allosterically activate glycogen phosphorylase

1) ATP
2) AMP
3) Glucose 6 phosphate
4) Glucose 1 phosphate

29) Which is the first intermediate in cholesterol synthesis?

a) Mevalonate
b)Isoprene
c)Squalene
d)Ethylene

30)Which of the following is the integral membrane protein of smooth ER?

a) Thiolase
b) HMG co-A synthase
c) HMG co-A reductase
d) Pyruvate kinase
31)Steroids have ___________
a) Sterol nucleus with two alkyl chain attached to the ring D of cholesterol
b) Sterol nucleus with two CH3 between C and D ring and A and B ring of
cholesterol
c) Sterol nucleus without CH3 between C ring and D ring of cholesterol
d) Sterol nucleus but lack the alkyl chain attached to the ring D of cholesterol

32)Which of the following is the major point of regulation on the pathway to

cholesterol?
a) Thiolase
b)HMG co-A synthase
c)HMG co-A reductase
d)Pyruvate kinase

33) Which compounds are responsible for the coordinated regulation of glucose
and glycogen metabolism?
a)NADH
b)NAD+
c)Acetyl co-A
d)Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate

34) The essential intermediates in the pathway from acetate to cholesterol are
___________
a) Acetic acid
b) Ethylene
c) Isoprene units
d) Methane
 PHARMACOLOGY
1) Molecular structure present on the cell surface ______

a) Receptor

b) RBC

c) WBC

d) Ca+

2) Chemical that interact with receptor and intruate cellular reaction _____

a) Receptor

b) Agonist

c) Antagonist

d) Substance

3) Neurotransmitter act as a _______

a) Receptor

b) Endogeneous substances

c) Exogeneous substances

d) Response

4) The combination of a drug and receptor results in a molecular change called

______

a) Response

b) Receptor

c) Mimic

d) Substance

5) The end plate region of skeletal muscle contain large number of _______

a) Sequence
b) Neurotransmitter

c) Zinc

d) Drug

6) When a number of open channel reaches a critical value Na+ enter to

distrub _____

a) RBC

b) WBC

c) Ionic Balance

d) Zinc

7) Depolarisation is also known as ________

a) Action potential

b) Receptor

c) Response

d) Drug

8) Nicotine receptor is a _______

a) Carbohydrate

b) Glycolipid

c) Glycoprotein

d) RNA

9) Bond formed between Antibiotic and cell _______

a) Covalent bond

b) Ionic bond

c) Hydrogen bond

d)Vander Waal's bond

10) The strength of this bond is 5Kcal/mol ____

a) Covalent bond

b) Ionic bond

c) Hydrogen bond

d) Vander Waal's bond

11) It plays an important role in determining the drug receptor capacity

_______

a) Covalent bond

b) Ionic bond

c) Hydrogen bond

d) Vander Waal's bond

12) The binding of drug and receptor depends upon ________

a) Density and concentration

b) Energy andconcentration

c) Weight and concentration

d) None

13) The response between the dose and quality od drug defined _________

a) Vander Waal's bond

b) Dose response curve

c) Magnitude

d) Pain killer

14) Pheno barbital control seizure so it is called as ______

a) Anticonvulsant

b) Protected

c) Enteric coated

d) Pain killer
15) Direct interaction between agonist and antagonist is called _______

a) Receptor

b) Chemical Antagonism

c) Functional Antagonism

d) Neurological

16) The interaction of two agonist that act independently _________

a) Receptor

b) Functional Antagonism

c) Chemical Antagonism

d) None

17) The bond formed in competitive Antagonism is ________

a) Ionic bond

b) Vander Waal's bond

c) Covalent bond

d) Hydrogen bond

18) In competitive Antagonism , Antagonist combine agonist at ______

a) Beyond of receptor

b) Lower of receptor

c) Same site of receptor

d) All

19) In Non competitive Antagonism, Antagonist combine agonist at _______

a) Beyond of Receptor

b) Lower of receptor

c) Same site of receptor

d) All

20) ED's stands for in therapeutic index _______

a) Early dose

b) Easy dose

c) Effective dose

d) Entry dose

21) LD stand for in therapeutic index _______

a) Late dose

b) Latent dose

c) Lag dose

d) Lethal dose

22) G protein involves in mechanism as _______

a) Primary messenger

b) Tertiary messenger

c) Secondary messenger

d) None

23) Antihypertensive drug deazoxide are useful ________

a) Competitive antagonist

b) Non competitive antagonist

c) Both

c) None

24) Chemical chelator in treatment of Mercury poison _______

a) Dimercaprol

b) Paracetamol
c) Pantaprazol

d) Phenobarbital

25) The graded response is a single animal given _______

a) Single dose

b) Graded dose

c) Higher dose

d) Lower dose

26) Drug absorption is more rapid in ______

a) Intermuscular

b) Intravenous

c) Subcutaneous

d) All

27) The most common mean of injection _______

a) Intramuscular

b) Intravenous

c) Subcutaneous

d) All

28) The best pharmacological effect is seen in ______

a) Intravenous

b) Intramuscular

c) Subcutaneous

d) All

29) The best mode of drug absorption in lung is _______

a) Interamuscular
b) Aerol

c) Oral

d) None

30) The best way to treat skin through application of ointment by ______

a) Aerol

b) Localised application

c) Oral

d) Injection

31) The partof the skin is well supplied by blood and lymph capillaries
________

a) Dermis

b) Epidermis

c) Hair Follicle

d) All

32) The gastric emptying time is __________

a) Rate of absorption of drug

b) Rate of stool passing

c) Rate of gastric juice flow

d) None

33) Drug Absorption in GIT can beinfluenced _____

a) Increased gastrointestinal motility

b) Decreased gastrointestinal motility

c) Swallowing fast

d) None

34) Tetracyclin combine with Ca++ions in membrane lead to ________

a) Increase in rate of absorption

b) Decrease in rate of adsorption

c) Partially adsorbed

d) None

35) Drug Administration in aqueous solution are adsorbed ________

a) Faster

b) Slower

c) None

d) All

36) The binding of drug to plasma protein will ________ effective plasma to
tissue concentration gradient .

a) Increase

b) Decrease

c) Partially

d) wholly

37) The most important contributor to the drug binding _____

a) Albumin

b) Globulin

c) Platelets

d) None

38) Albumin has a net negative change at _________

a) Serum pH

b) Ionic pH

c) Acidic pH

d) Neutral
39) The binding of drug to plasma protein _______

a) Specific

b) Not specific

c) Partially specific

d) None

40) Drug penetrate tightly which _________

a) High lipid water partition

b) Low lipid water partition

c) Soluble

d) Insoluble

41) The blood vessel of the fetus and mother is separated by ______

a) Placental barrier

b) Vein

c) Tendons

d) None

42) Lipid soluble substance cross the barrier with relatively ________

a) Easily

b) Difficulty

c) Partially

d) None

43) Oral mucosa is ________

a) Highly vascularised

b) Low vascularised

c) No vascular system
d) Partially vascularised

44) The primary function of stomach is not _______

a) Adsorption

b) Gastric acidity

c) Gut microbiota

d) None

45) The epithelial lining of small intestine is _______

a) Double layer

b) Triple layer

c) Single layer

d) Many layers

46) Factors afecting drug distrubtion are ______

a) Capillary permeability

b) blood flow

c) Plasma Protein

d) All

47) Total intracellular waste is the sum of _________

a) Plasma and intestinal water

b) RBC & WBC

c) Platelets & Plasma

d) None

48) The drug distribution is depends on __________

a) Sex

b) Age
c) Weight

d) All

49) Anticoagulant dicumarol has a affinity for lipid water partition ______

a) High

b) Low

c) 50%

d) None

50) Adsorption of mostdrug is reduced by the presence of _______

a) Water in the gut

b) Food in the gut

c) Chocolate in the gut

d) Chemical substance

51) Study of adverse effect of chemical or physical agent on living organism

______

a) Chemicology

b) Paleantology

c) Physics

d) toxicology

52) Quantitative assessment of a potential effect on humans _____

a) Risk assessment

b) Communication

c) Pharmacology

d) Mechanism

53) It is concerned with identified and understanding toxic effect on humans

______
a) Mechanistics

b) Descriptive

c) Regulatory

d) All

54) Toxic effect of organophosphorous be preduted on the basis of inhibition

of acetylcholine is a work of ________

a) Mechanistics

b) Descriptive

c) Regulatory

d) All

55) Drug such as beta-mercaptopurine is used in the treatment of leukemia is

the work of ________

a) Mechanistic

b) Regulatory

c) Descriptive

d) All

56) Toxicologist provide information for safety evaluation _________

a) Mechanistic

b) Descriptive

c) Regulatory

d) All

57) Toxicologist provide information on chemical mechanism of action

______

a) Mechanistic

b) Descriptive
c) Regulatory

d) All

58) Toxicologist decide whether the drug possess risk to human or

animal_____

a) Mechanistic

b) Descriptive

c) Regulatory

d) All

59) EPA stands for _________

a) Environment Protection Agency

b) Environment Protection Act

c) Environment People Act

d) None

60) TSCA stands for ________

a) Toxic Substance Control Act

b) Toxic Substance Convention Agency

c) Toxic Stimulant Carcinogen Agency

d) None

61) RCRA stands for ________

a) Red Corner Responsible Agency

b) Red Conservation and Recovery Act

c) Reserve Conservation and Recovery Act

d) None

62) FIFRA stands for ________

a) Functional insttution of fungus rodent agency

b) Famous in full response act

c) Federal insecticide fungicide rodenticide Act

d)None

63) Alkylating agents are inhibitor of _______

a) Met haemoglobin

b) Carbohydrate

c) Protein

d) All

64) Anthropogenic activities are _______

a) Manmade

b) Calamities

c) Storm

d) None

65) Molds are responsible for producing toxicants such as _________

a) Zeralamone

b)Inhibitor

c) Creatinine

d) All

66) It is a reaction or interaction of drug with the point ________

a) Allergy

b) Immunity

c) Toxic

d) All

67) Type 1 Immunity ______

a) Ab- dependent

b) Immediate

c) Immune complex

d) Lymphocyte mediated

68) Type 2 Immunity _______

a) Ab-dependent

b) Immediate

c) Immune complex

d) Lymphocyte mediated

69) Type 3 Immunity ________

a) Ab-dependent

b) Immediate

c) Immune response

d) Lymphocyte mediated

70) Type 4 Immunity _________

a) Ab-dependent

b) Immediate

c) Immune response

d) Lymphocyte mediated

71) Allergy within a group of drug ______

a) Mixed Allergy

b) Second Allergy

c) Cross Allergy

d) Anti Allergy
72) The allergy to a particular drug is established and patient shows ______

a) Radiation

b) Eczema

c) Dehydration

d) All

73) The effect of prolonged administration of drug is shown ______

a) Hand

b) Ear

c) Organ

d) Foot

74) Tardive dyskinesias ______

a) Voluntary movement

b) Involuntary movement

c) Muscular movement

d) None

75) Polyneuritis is ______

a) Numbers infect and palm

b) Headache

c) Gastritis

d) All

76) Chloroquine can cause _______

a) Eczema

b) Dandruff

c) Cataract
d) Bluster

77) Thioredazine causes ______

a) Retinal injury

b) Hand injury

c) Leg injury

d) Head injury

78) Amiodazone may cause ______

a) Pulmonary fibrosis

b) Kidney failure

c) Headache

d) Memory loss

79) Vigabatrin causes ________

a) Memory loss

b) Visual field defect

c) Tumor

d) Palpitation

80) Long term use of estrogen in post menapause causes ________

a) Birth defect

b) Cancer

c) Epilepsy

d) None

81) Oral contaceptive causes ______

a) Organ defects

b) Gastric
c) Both

d) None

82) Drugs given during labour causes ________

a) Headache

b) Respiratory depression

c) Eczema

d) Acidity

83) Chelating agents are used for ________

a) Skin infection

b) Labour pain

c) Removing poison

d) None

84) Tobacco smoking causes ________

a) Anatomical abnormalities

b) Brain development

c) Reabsorption of water

d) Skin infection

85) Physical agents ______

a) X-ray

b) Flies

c) Rodents

d) Bats

86) Chemical agents are _______

a) Alkylating agent
b) Gamma rays

c) Virus

d) Bacteria

87) Organophosphorous causes inhibition of ________

a) Acetylcholine

b) Enzyme

c) Fat

d) Carbohydrate

88) Biological agents are _________

a) X-ray

b) Mutagen

c) Virus

d) Chlorine

89) Biochemical agents are __________

a) Gamma rays

b) Inhibitor

c) Virus

d) Chlorine

90) The regulated pathway is utilized for secretion of hormones and neuro
transmitter in response to _________

a) Chemical stimuli

b) Electrical stimuli

c) All

d) None

91) Many neurotransmitter are prolonged into __________

a) Organ

b) Tissue

c) Synaptic vesicles

d) All

92) At the end of neuron is _______

a) Dendrites

b) Axon

c) Cell body

d) All

93) Grey matter is present in _______

a) Cerebral Hemisphere

b) Pons

c) Medulla oblongata

d) Cortex

94) Brain stem consist of _________

a) Medulla Oblongata

b) Thalamus

c) Barrier

d) Choroid

95) The two cerebral hemisphere are connected by ________

a)Corpus callosum

b) Basal Ganglia

c) Hypothalamus

d) Choroid
96) Sensory neuron is _______

a) Efferent

b) Afferent

c) Both

d) None

97) Motor neuron is _________

a) Efferent

b) Afferent

c) Both

d) None

98) Somatic motor neuron operater________

a) Voluntary muscle

b) Involunatry muscle

c) Both

d) All

99) Chemical basis of nerve impulse is _______

a) Membrane

b) Action potential

c) Pleasure

d) All
 Marine biotech

1.The most commonly used vector and host for constructing ______ libarary.

A) metagenomic C) fosmids

B) vectors D)hosts

2. agar plate based screening have the ______ not requiring expensive dives.

A) advantage C) antibiotics

B) disadvantage D) gene

3. molecular screening involve the use of primers or ________

A) agar C) antibody

B) probes D) none of this

4. the marine environment a unique and prolific source of _______ nature

production

A) microbiology C) marine biotech

B) bioactive D) none of this

5. the field of marine nature products is now close to _______ year old.

A) 30 C)20

B) 40 D) 50

6. biological activity in different therapeutic setting has been discovered during

the _________ of decades.

A) last couple C) first couple

B) both A and B D) none of this

7. w-conotoxins are poisons produced by _________ snails

A) black B) red

B) piscivorouscone D) none of this

8. the venom this gastrod molecules is a combination of _______ peptide.

A) 200-400 C) 300-500

B) 100-200 D) 100-500

9. w- conotoxins MVIIA is linear 25 amino acid ___ peptide contain six

cysteine residuces.

A) polycationic C) many

B) long D) none of this

10. identification the _____ type vol.sensitive calcium channels (NUSCCs)

were its target site

A) N C) P

B) H D) B

11. w- conotoxin MVIIA from conus is commercially know as _____

A) phynotypic C) zinconotide

B) analysis D) none of this

12. marine alkaloid anticancer agents isolated from________ turbinate. A)

ecteinascidia C) ET-743

B) both A and B D) none of this

13. ET-743 also is named tra bactedin or goes under the trade name _______

A) yondlis C) mondlis

B) G2 lm D) none of this

14. analysis of the effect of _________ in vivo in vitro systems

A) bacteria C) virus

B) trabactedin D) algae

15. cytotoxin compound that inhibits ___________ polymerase

A) RNA C) DNA
 B) leukemia D) antiviral

16. ________ also know eribulin mesylate( E 7389)

A) halichondrin B C) lymphoblastics

B) cytotoxin B D) none of this

17. the bryozoan bugula neritna was obtained from the gulf of _________ in
1968

A) mexico C) USA

B) UIE D) London

18. ___________ is a water soluble aminosteroid

A) squalus B) acanthias

B) squalamine D) none of this

19. the potential of marine natural products to become new ______ raises the
question

A) pharmaceuticals C) biotechnological

B) indrustial D) marine biotech

20. __________ bind to palmitoyl protein thioesterase .

A) toxicity C) hemiasterlin

B) didemnin B D) none of this

21. the tripeptide antimitotic hemiasteslin was isolated from the _______

A) survival C) natural

B) marine D) glycoprotein

22. the limited supply or large scale exploitation can destroy the _______

A) city C) country

B) environment D) none of this

23._______ compound can be produced by micro organism.

A) bioactive C) industrial

B) turbinated D) none of this

24. the sustainable biotechnology production of _________ important

metabolites

A) pharmacologically C) natural

B) economic D) phenotype

25. the term____________ which was first defined in 1949 by the international
society or medical.

A) peloid C) geological

B) physical D) sea water

1.Currentlt _________ generated high thout put auto matel methods
are being developed

A) second C) thired

B) first D) last

2. most of the strains able to grow on _______ dishers

A) food C) petri

B) mixture D) fish

3. the theory of ________ of dormant cells proposes.

A) biology C) chemical

B) scouting D) physical

4. Gene coding for key enzymes participating in different ______

A) envirometal C) oxidation

C) biodegradation D) hydrocarbon

5. functional gene have the potential to be used as _____ in assays

A) developed C) biomarkers

B) biotechnology D) molecular

6. one of the long standing goals of environmental is _______

A) microbiology C) marine biology

B) biotechnology D) food biotechnology

7. the most widely used method is DNA SIP in which DNA is
separated in ________-

A) sodiam chloride C) potassium chloride

B) caesium chloride D) none of this

8. microscopy provides infernation about _________ and physical

inteation of cell

A) spatialarrangement C) assemblage

C) complex D) symbiotic

9. the large scale study of genes is called ________

A) genomics C) microbiological

B) biotechnology D) marin biotech

10. the publication of the genome of the bacterium _______

influenza KD in 1995.

A) bacterial B) harmophilus

B) H1 N1 D) virus

11. institude created the initiative genomic _______ of bacteria and

archaea.

A) Gordon C) encyclopedia

B) microbiology D) marine habitats

12. _________ analysis of isolation can severely underestimated .

A) genotypic C) phynotypic

B) marine D) genetic
13. the mining for genes or gene ________ in microbioal genomes .

A) clusters C) heterologous

B) expression D) exploited

14. ecologically relevant micro organism isolated from diverse ____

habitats .

A) marine B) phynotypic

C) chemical D) genetic

15. the chemical structure of new compound by a combination of

______ and chemistry .

A) biotechnology C) bioinformatics

B) bioprospection D) genome

16.used a public database to identify a genome fragment from the

__________ strain.

A) vibrio spendidus C) algae

B) bacterial D) alginate

17. ________ production from macroalgae via a consolidated

process

A) methanol C) bioethanol

B) petrol D) biofuel

18. technological advance in the field of _______ spectrometry.

A) mass C) phenotype

B) gene D) molecular
19. ethanol sensitive of cyanobacteria currently restricts efferts to
increase _________ production level.

A) macroalae B) ethanol

B) molecular D) biofuel

20. the analysis of ______ cell is an approach with multiple

biotechnological application.

A) double C) single

C) triple D) compex

21. advantage and drowbacks of the different devices used for

_________ sorting .

A) cell C) mass

B) DNA D) RNA

22. __________ is considered powerful complement of both

cultivation and metagenomics

A) FCA C) HGA

B) SCG D) none of this

23. the direct analysis of the genomes contained in a_______

community.

A) biotech C) microbial

B) marine D) environmental

24. metabolic analyses typically start with the purification _______

A) RNA C) t-RNA

B) DNA D) r-RNA
25. two different strategies can be use for the screening of a
________ library.

A) metagenomic C) sequence

B) function D) probes
 Industrial Microbiology
1. fermentation to produce alcohol by yeast saccharomyces is due to

A) zymase C) galactose

B) trysaccharide D) saccharide

2. yeast can not br ferment starch and complex cabohydrates

because they

A) drug C) lack zymase

B) lack diastase D) lack lipase

3. source of riboflavin is

A) ashby yeast C) environmental

B) aquatic D) fungi

4. yeast grows abundantly on __________

A) organic matter rich in sugar C) nectar

B) fungi D) virus

5. citric acid is produced by

A) mucor C) aspergillus

B) rhizopus D) erythrocytes

6. gluconic acid is produced by fungi___________

A) aspergillus niger C) antigen

B) both A and B D) none of this

7. an amylase enzyme is produced by fungus

A) A. niger C) aspergillus oryzae

B) trichodema D) toxins

8. citric acid find application in __________

A) ink making C) printing

B) soft drinks D) none of these

9. farmyard manure and compost are prepared by bacterial action

from farm_______

A) pseudomonas C) gabage

B) animal excreta D) all of these

10. an antifungal drug is obtained from_________

A) P. grisefulvum C) R. camemberti

B) R. roqueforti D) P. notatum

11. fungus used in prepration of soya souce shoyu is _____

A) penicillium glaucum B) mucor javanicus

C) aspergillus oryzae D) rhizopus oryzae

12. saccharomyces cervisiae is used in _______

A) tanning brewing B) brewing

B) baking D) both A and B

13.the bacterium which is used in preparation vitamin riboflavin is

A) leuconostoc C) clostridium butylicum

B) lactobacillus D) none of this

14. lactic acid is used in__________

A) preservation C) tanning

B) plastic making D) all of these

15. vitamin B2 is produced by

A) propionic bacterium C) ashbye gooyphi

B) saccharomyces D) rhizopus

16. heat killing of all mic-organism is done in the process called

______-

A) immunization B) sterilization

B) pasteurisation D) none of these

17. during alcoholic fermentation , conversion of sugar into alcohol is

due to direct action

A) temperature C) PH

B) concentration of sugar D) zymase enzyme

18. curd cheese and butter are produced by

A) yeast C) penicillium

B) streptococcus D) none of these

19. anaerobic respiration of yeast produces

A) alcohol C) carbon dioxide

C) alcohol,carbon dioxide and other D) none of the above

Beverages
20.dosa and idli are prepared by the action of ________

A) L.bacillus C) S. cervisae

B) B. subtilis D) R. orzyae

21. sausages are fermented

A) vegetables C) meats

B) milk D) sauce

22. passage of effuents into oxidation tank is for

A) primary treatment C) secondary treatment

B) both A and B D) tertiary treatment

23. the firsrt antibiotic was discovered by

A) R Koch C) Louis Pasteur

B) A fleming D) w fleming

24. an enzyme produced commercially from saccharose _________

A) lactase C) invertase

B) amylase D) maltase

25. streptomycin is prepared from _______

A) streptomyces antibiotics C) streptomyces

B) streptomyces nodosus D) streptomyses ri

 Environment USBT-604

1 . A Descriptive ________ is concentrated directly with toxicity

testing.

A) toxicologist C) both a and b

B) mechanistic D) none of this

2. _______ produced by a mold is a toxic

A) nicotine C) zeralanone

B) mixture D) pesticide

3. The ______ is also responsible for enforcing the CERCI act.

A) FDA C) RCRA

B) EPA D) TSCA

4. _________ is specialized area within environmental toxicology

that focus on ecosystem.

A) ecotoxicology C) oxidation

C) biodegradation D) descriptive

5. A molecule that must combine with an endogenous protein to

elicit reaction is called ______

A) antibody C) hapten

B) biotechnology D) molecule

6. Binding of certain ________ to the protein initiates degeneration

of long axons.

A) organophosphates C) succinylcholine

B) molecule D) indiosyncreasy
7. ________ is concentrated in adipose tissue but produces no .know
toxic effects in tissue.

A) NTE C) potassium chloride

B) DDT D) none of this

8. ________ antagonism occurs when two chemicals counterbalance

each other by producing opposite effect.

A) functional C) receptor

C) complex D) chemical

9. _______ exposure is defined as exposure to a chemical for less

than 24 hours

A) acute C) subacute

B) biotechnology D) chroni

10. The bell shaped curve in the middle protion of close range is
known as _______

A) bacterial B) normal frequency distribution

B) resistant D) virus

11. On a normally distributed population the mean ISD represents

______ of the population

A) 50% C) 68.3%

B) 99.7% D) 45%
12. The region of dose response relationship for esentiol nutrient is
commonly referred as_____

A) genotypic C) deficiency

B) toxicity D) response

13. The ________ is not a biological constant

A) LD50 C) LD 80

B) LD60 D) LD 10

14. _____ combines with anide to from cyanocobalamin and is

excreted by kidney

A) glucose B) dimethylcysteine

C) penicillamin D) none of this

15. ____ ____ is used as a part of sewerage systems

A) marox C) primox

B) vitox D) none of this

16. There are _______ metals with a density above 5-4 g/cm
Reported as heavy metals

A) 53 C) 54

B) 50 D) 87

17. ________ in association With lipid and protein represent the

main constitute of fungal cell wall

A) methanol C) polysaccharides

B) rhizopus D) biofuel
18. ________ are also found to be associated with mental Binding

A) protein C) hydroxyl

B) phosphate D) molecular

19. ________ has been used for accumulation of uranium and

thorium

A) macroalae B) aspergillus niger

B) stretovertcillum D) rhizopus
arrhizus

20. In _______ phosphate residue was suggested to be the primary

continent responsible for uranium Binding

A) bacillus subtilis C) streptomycin longwoodensi

C) zooglea ramigera D) compex

21. By __________ solar energy can be converted into biomass

which in turn can be stored and used as fuel.

A) photosynthesis C) mass

B) hydrogen D) gassification

22. energy concept is not viable in the

A) U.K C) india

B) china D) none of this

23.___________ is not a barrier in methano genesis process.

A) spectrum C) CO2

B) lignin D) none of this

24.__________ is a major gas centrifbrtes in biogas

A) Co2 C) H2O

B) methane D) O2

25. __________ is a non- biological process

A) entrepiction C) gasification

B) biomass D) none of this

1. The hydrothermal vents were discovered in______ year.

A)1977 C)1999

B)1800 D)2000

2.The oceans encompass habitats from______ and sedimentary

habitats.

A) land sea C) Deep ocean

B) rocky D) non of this

3. the use of marine ________ in folk medicine is very restricted.

A) organisam C) bacteria

B) virus D) fungus

4.marine macroalgae or seaweeds as they are more generally knows

have been used as ________

A) drug C)crude oil

B) medicine D) food

5.__________ atropurpurea has been used in Hawaii to dress

wounds.

A) gynaecology C) porphyra

B) seaweed D) cystoseira

6.terpenes are derived from_________ carbon isoprene.

A) five C) two

B) three D) ten
7. marine have been studied as a source of ________ active
substance.

A) micro-biologically C) biologically

B) 800 mg/L D) none of this

8. energy concept is not viable in the

A) U.K C) india

B) china D) none of this

9.___________ is not a barrier in methano genesis process.

A) spectrum C) CO2

B) lignin D) none of this

10.__________ is a major gas centrifbrtes in biogas

A) Co2 C) H2O

B) methane D) O2

11. __________ is a non- biological process

A) entrepiction C) gasification

B) biomass D) none of this

12. fermentation to produce alcohol by yeast saccharomyces is due

to

A) zymase C) galactose

B) trysaccharide D) saccharide
13 yeast can not br ferment starch and complex cabohydrates
because they

A) drug C) lack zymase

B) lack diastase D) lack lipase

14 Biofuel production is _________ conversions process.

A) Biological C) physical
B) None of this D) chemical

15.A biodiesel fuel _____ can be used straight or in blend with

petrol.

A) REF C) IRF
B) RES D) RSS

16.________ is not considered as green house gas

A) Methane C) O2
B) Co2 D) all of this

17.algae is grown in a vessel known as ________

A) Biocoil C) biopass
B) Biological D) chemical
18..hydroge gas is produced by anarobic bacteria ______

A) Lactone C) clostridia
B) Alkaloid D) none of this
19. Which digester is not used for biogas production _____

A) Two blade reater C) anarobic

B) fluid D) PFR
 20. ________ process must achieve close to 10% solar energy

A) organophosphate C) thermolysis

B) biophotolysis D) all of this

21. Pyrogen is produced by_________

A) gram -ve bacteria C) gram +ve bacteria

B) fungus D) yeast

22. When pyrogen is introduce in the body it eauses

A) fever C) none of this

B) nausea D) both A and B

23.. LAL stands for

A) lemulus amebocytes lysate C) lead ameboucytes

B) lysogenic D) none

24.. The positive results of LAL obtained in the form of

A) machine C) acidic reaction

B) gel clot D) basic reaction

25.in pyrogen testing of rabbit the sample infected by ____

A) Intramuscular C) progenomic

B) earvein D) none of this