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Which of the following circuit components opposes the 1.Resistances

change in the circuit voltage? 2.
Capacitors
3.
Inductors
4.Switch

Which of the following quantities the same in all parts of 1.

the parallel circuit? Current
2.
Voltage
3.
Power
4.
Resistance
Three resistances R1 , R2, and R3 are in series such that R1˃R2˃R3 1.
, Then Power
consumption in R1 will
be maximum (P=I^2*R)
2.
Power consumption in R2 will
be maximum
3.
Power consumption in R3 will
be maximum
4.
Power consumption in all the
resistors will be same
A delta connected system has three resistances of value 1.
RΩ each. The resistance in one of the three arms of the R/3
equivalent star system is 2.
3R

3.
R/2
4.
3R/2
A 2Ω resistor carrying 2A current will dissipate power equal 1.
to 4W
2.
5W
3.
8W
4.
16 W
Determine,No.of meshes ,No.of nodes and No.of branches for the 1.
following circuit. 3,4,5
2.
4,3,5
3.
4,5,3
4.
3,5,4

Find out voltage across 5 ohm for the following circuit 1.

1.9V
2.
-1.9V
3.
0.9V
4.
-0.9V

Determine Thevenin resistance across b-c terminals. 1.

5Ω
2.
3.21 Ω
3.
5.21 Ω
4.
9Ω
Find out voltage across 6 ohm for the following circuit 1.
11.9 V
2.
-11.9 V
3.
10.9 V
4.
8.9 V
Consider a circuit,which is energised by 10V and three 1.
resistors(R1 = 2,R2 =3 and R3) are connected in series with 2Ω
the source. Design the R3 such that it absorbs half of the 2.
power delivered by source. 3Ω
3.
4Ω
4.
5Ω
The KVL equation for the Figure is: 1.
10-2I -4I =8
2.
4I - 8 - 2I -10 =0
3.
2I+4I + 8 = -10
4.
2I + 4I =10 + 8
Write the equation for the super node given in the circuit using Kirchhoff’s 1.
voltage law v2 + 5 + v3 = 0
2.
-v2 + 5 + v3 = 0
3.
-v2 - 5 + v3 = 0
4.
-v2 + 5 - v3 = 0
Find the Norton’s equivalent resistance (across A & B) of the 1.
circuit shown in the Fig. 1/3
2.
1/2
3.
1/4
4.
3

The operating point of the amplifier represents--------- 1.

The values of IC and VCE when
signal is applied
2.
The magnitude of the signal
3.
Zero signal values of IC and
VCE
4.
Maximum values of IC and VCE
The stabilization of operating point in self -bias method is 1.

provided by Emitter resistor

2.
Collector resistor
3.
Base resistor
4.
Supply Voltage
A network’s Norton’s current and Thevenins resistance are 1.
0.025A and 200 Ω respectively, the current through the 500Ω 10 mA
load is 2.
7.14 mA
3.
-10 mA
4.
-7.14 mA
At saturation the value of VCE is nearly ________, and IC = 1.
____ zero, zero
2.
VCC, IC(sat)
3.
zero, I(sat)
4.
VCC, zero

The constraint for maximizing the power transfer from the 1.

source to the load is RTH < RL
2.
RTH > RL
3.
RTH =2 RL
4.
RTH = RL
In the voltage-divider biased npn transistor circuit, if R 1 opens, 1.
the transistor is saturated
2.
cutoff
3.
active
4.
Reverse active
A 2Ω resistor carrying 2A current will dissipate power equal 1.
to 4W
2.
8W
3.
16 W
4.
32 W
A common-emitter amplifier has ________ voltage gain and 1.
________ input impedance. High, low
2.
Low, high
3.
High, high
4.
Low, low
A network N is to be connected to load of 500 ohms. If 1.
2.5 mA
the Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and Norton’s
2.
equivalent current of N are 5 Volts and 10mA
5 mA
respectively, the current through the load will be
3.
7.5 mA
4.
10 mA

When the bypa capacitor is removed from a common source 1.

amplifier, the voltage gain increases
2.
decreases
3.
Has no effect
4.
Has very little effect
Norton’s resistance across the terminals ‘a’ and ‘b’ of the 1.
2 Ohms
circuit in Fig.
2.
4 Ohms
3.
22 Ohms
4.
12 Ohms

The input controlling variable for a ________ is a current level 1.BJT, FET
and a voltage level for a ________. 2.FET, BJT
3.SCR, FET
4.BJT, SCR
In the Fig., find the Thevenin’s resistance across the terminals A & B. 1.
R2=R3=10Ω, R5= R6 = 20 Ω. 6.66 Ω Ans is 40/3
2.
0 Ω
3.
15 Ω
4.
Infinite Ω
Which of the following is true? 1.
IB= β Ic
2.
IB = β + 1/ Ic
3.
IB = Ic/β
4.
IB = Ic/ β – 1
The frequency range of 1GHz to 30 GHz are referred to as 1.
Sound waves
2.
Microwaves
3.
Mini waves
4.
None of these
.The thermal runway is avoided in a self bias 1.
because_________ of its independence of β
2.
of the positive feedback
produced by the emitter resistor
3.
of the negative feedback
produced by the emitter resistor
4.
of its dependence of β
What is the unit of magnetic charge? 1.
A-m
2.
Coulomb
3.
Ampere
4.
A-m2
Which of the following is the fastest switching device? 1.
JFET
2.
BJT
3.
Triode
4.
MOSFET

One of the following is not a source of Magnetostatics field: 1.

A dc current in a wire:
2.
A permanent magnet
3.
An accelerated charge
4.
The electric field linearly
changing with time.

1.
100 mA
2.
10 mA
3.
50 mA
4.
5 mA
Calculate value of Ic
The equivalent resistance of the circuit in Fig. 1.
4kΩ
2.
7kΩ
3.
8kΩ
4.
9kΩ

To analyze the common-emitter amplifier, what must be done to 1.

determine the dc equivalent circuit? leave circuit unchanged
2.
Open circuit the coupling and
bypass capacitors
3.
Short circuit the coupling and
bypass capacitors
4.
replace VCC with ground
A transistor with β = 120 is biased to operate at a dc collector 1.
current of 1.2 mA. Find the value of gm 12mA/V
2.
24 mA/V
3.
36 mA/V
4.
48 mA/V

The signal to be amplified is current signal and the output 1.

desired is a voltage signal. Which of the following amplifier can Voltage amplifier
perform this task? 2.
Current amplifier
3.
Transconductance amplifier
4.
Transresistance amplifier
The value of R in Fig. 4 if V0 = 4V 1.
10 Ω
2.
11 Ω
3.
12 Ω
4.
14 Ω
The velocity of an EM wave 1.
Inversely proportional to β
2.
inversely proportional to α
3.
directly proportional to β
4.
Directly proportional to α

In Fig., Rs=25Ω & Vs= 50V. Find the maximum power delivered to the RL 1.
25 W
2.
50 W
3.
250 W
4.
125 W

The magnitude of the thermal voltage is given by 1.

k/Tq
2.
kT/q
3.
q/Kt
4.
Tk/q
For the Fig given below ‘abcdefa’ is 1.
loop
2.
mesh
3.
loop and mesh
4.
independent mesh

The major difference between ground and virtual ground is that 1.

virtual ground is only a voltage reference
2.
current reference
3.
power reference
4.
difference reference
In the Fig given below the current flowing through 4ohm resistor is 1.
Directly proportional to 10 Ω
resistor
2.
Indirectly proportional to 10 Ω
resistor
3.
Indirectly proportional to square
root of 10 Ω resistor
4.
Independent of 10 Ω resistor
With negative feedback, the returning signal 1.
aids the input signal
2.
is proportional to output current
3.
opposes the input signal
4.
is proportional to differential
voltage gain
In Fig. ,if R2=R5=10Ω, R3= R6 = 20 Ω maximum power will be 1.
10 Ω
2.
15 Ω
3.
20 Ω
4.
delivered to the load when 30 Ω

The direction of propagation of EM wave is obtained from 1.

2.

3.

4.

If ADM = 3500 and ACM = 0.35, the CMRR is ………. 1.

1225
2.
10000 [Adm/Acm]
3.
40dB
4.
50dB

The unit for Real power is 1.

kW

2.
VA
3.
KVA
4.
KWh
The expression to find three phase real power is 1.
√3 Vph Iph cosΦ
2.
√3 VL IL cosΦ
3.
√3 VL IL sinΦ
4.
√3 VL IL CosΦ SinΦ

If wet soil has σ = 10-2 mho/m, εr = 15, μr = 1, f = 60 Hz, 1.

good dielectric
it is a
2.
Good conductor
3.
semi- conductor
4.
magnetic material
The CC configuration has an input resistance_________ 1.
500kΩ
2.
750kΩ
3.
600kΩ
4.
400kΩ
Find the voltage across the 20 resistance shown in the fig. 1.
10 V
2.
15 V
3.
20 V
4.
30 V
The application of a CC configured transistor is_________ 1.
voltage multiplier
2.
level shifter
3.
Rectification
4.
impedance matching
The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on 1.
Temperature Doppler effect
2.
skin effect
3.
Relative permittivity of dielectric
4.
Doppler effect

In the parallel circuit of Fig.1, the value of is ……. volt. 1.

12 V
2.
-12 V
3.
0 V
4.
None of the options

What is the equivalent resistance in ohms between points A and B of fig. all 1.
resistances are in ohms. 12 Ω
2.
112 Ω
3.
212 Ω
4.
None of the options
Find the value of IE in the circuit 1.
2 mA
2.
4 mA
3.
5 mA
4.
6 mA

A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to 1.

average voltage
2.
peak voltage
3.
rms voltage
4.
exponential voltage
If an emitter bypass capacitor is installed, what would the new 1.
Av be? 4.96
2.
125
3.
398
4.
600
If two sine waves of the same frequency have a phase difference of π radians, then 1.
both will reach their minimum values at
the same instant
2.
both will reach their maximum values at
the same instant
3.
when one wave reaches its
maximum value, the other will
reach its minimum value
4.
when one wave reaches its
minimum value, the other will
reach its minimum value
 1.

2.

3.

4.

Consider the amplifier circuit shown below. The transistor is 1.

specified to have Vt = 0.4 V, kn = 0.4 mA/V2, W/L = 10 and λ = 0.08 mA
0. Also, let VDD = 1.8V, RD = 17.5kΩ, VGS = 0.6V and vgs = 0V. 2.
Find ID. 0.16 mA
3.
0.4 mA
4.
0.8 mA

The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase difference 1.
between the current and voltage is 180°
2.
90°
3.
45°

4.
360°
What is the frequency of the astable multivibrator with R A = 1 1.
kΩ, RB = 3 MΩ and C = 1nF 241 Hz
2.
178 Hz
3.
78 Hz
4.
8 Hz
Form Factor is the ratio of 1.
average value/r.m.s. value
2.
average value/peak value
3.
r.m.s. value/average value
4.
r.m.s. value/2*average value

An infinite length of uniform line charge has ρl = 10pC/m and 1.

it lies along the z-axis. Determine the electric field E at (4, 3, 3) 18 aρmV/m
2.
1.8 aρmV/m
3.
280 aρmV/m
4.
180 aρmV/m
Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to 1.
R/Z
2.
cosine of phase angle difference between
current and voltage
3.
kW/kVA
4.
all options are true
If the gain of a closed-loop inverting amplifier is 3.9, with an 1.
input resistor value of 1.6 kilohms, what value of feedback 6240 ohms
resistor is necessary? 2.
2.4 kilohms
3.
410 ohms
4.
0.62 kilohms

A point charge, Q = 10nC is at the origin. The estimated 1.

potential difference at A (1,0,0) with respect t6o B (2,0,0) is 45 V

2.
50 V
3.
30 V
4.
-45 V
Poor power factor reduces load handling capability of electrical system 1.
results in more power losses in the
electrical system
2.
results in low power losses in the electrical
system
3.
overloads alternators, transformers
and distribution lines
4.
results in more voltage drop in the line

Increase in collector emitter voltage from 5V to 8V causes 1.

increase in collector current from 5mA to 5.3mA. Determine 20kΩ

the dynamic output resistance. 2.
10kΩ [ ro=∆VCE/∆IC
=3/0.3m=10kΩ.]
3.
50kΩ
4.
60kΩ
What is the impedance of the circuit? 1.
12.2 kΩ
2.
14.5 kΩ
3.
20.3 kΩ
4.
33.3 kΩ

A change in 300mV in base emitter voltage causes a change 1.

of 10 µA in the base current. Determine the dynamic input 20kΩ

resistance. 2.
10kΩ
3.
30kΩ
4.
60kΩ
1.
α = 0.1 Np/m
2.
β = -2 rad/m
3.
ω = 106 rad/s
4.
The wave travels along ax
What is the voltage across R1, C1, and L1? 1.
VR = 156 V, Vc = 165 V, VL =
441 V
2.
VR = 178 V, Vc = 187 V, VL = 503 V
3.
VR = 219 V, Vc = 232 V, VL =
619 V
4.
VR = -219 V, Vc = -232 V, VL =
-619 V

In a bipolar – transistor at room temperature, if the emitter 1.

current is doubled, the voltage across its base – emitter Doubles

junction 2.
Halves
3.
Increases by about 20 mV
4.
Decreases by about 20 mV
Two sinusoidal currents are given by i1= 10 sin ( ωt + π/3 ) and i2 = 15 sin ( ωt - π/4 1.
). Phase difference between them is 150 o
2.
105 o
3.
135 o
4.
50 o

Stokes theorem relates ____ integral to a ______ 1.

integral. volume, surface

2.
surface, line
3.
line, surface
4.
Surface, volume
In any ac circuit always 1.
Apparent power is more than the actual
power
2.
Apparent power is equal to the actual
power
3.
Actual power is more than the
reactive power
4.
Reactive power is more than the
apparent power
Single-time-constant (STC) networks are those networks that 1.
are composed of, or can be reduced to One reactive component (L or
C) and a resistance (R)
2.
Only capacitive component (C)
and resistance (R)
3.
Only inductive component (L)
and resistance (R)
4.
Reactive components (L, C or
both L and C) and resistance
(R)
In an ac circuit, a low value of KVAR compared with KW indicates 1.
Maximum load current
2.
Low efficiency
3.
High p.f
4.
Low p.f
If the flux density is 10 Wb/ m2 and the area of the coil is 1.

2m2, the flux is 40 Wb

2.
10 Wb
3.
20 Wb [flux density=flux/area]
4.
1 Wb
In a purely inductive circuit 1.
Reactive power is zero
2.
Apparent power is zero
3.
Actual power is zero
4.
Actual power is unity

General representation of the frequency response curve is 1.

called Bode Plot

2.
Miller Plot
3.
Thevenin Plot
4.
Bandwidth Plot
What is the applied voltage for a series RLC circuit when I T = 3 1.
mA, VL = 30 V, VC = 18 V, and R = 1000 ohms? 3.00 V
2.
12.37 V
3.
-12.37 V
4.
34.98 V
Capacitive reactance is more when 1.
capacitance is less and frequency of
supply is less
2.
capacitance is less and frequency of
supply is more
3.
capacitance is more and frequency of
supply is less
4.
capacitance is more and frequency of
supply is more

What is the transfer function of the circuit? 1.

2.

3.

4.
Commented [1]: TF = R/(R+Ls+1/CS)

Maxwell’s fourth equation is given by 1.

2.

3.

4.

What is the level of the voltage between the input terminals of 1.

an op-amp? 0V
2.
5V
3.
5 mV
4.
0.5 V
Which of the following circuit components acts as open circuit 1.
to dc signal? Resistances
2.
Capacitors
3.
Inductors
4.
Capacitor and Inductors
The electric susceptibility of a dielectric is 4, its permittivity 1.
is 2.2610-9 F/m
2.
4.4210-7 F/m
3.
5 F/m
4.
1.2610-3 F/m
An op-amp has an open-loop gain of 75,000 and a cutoff 1.
frequency of 100 Hz. At 1 kHz the open-loop gain is down by 10 dB
2.
6 dB
3.
20 dB
4.
3 dB
What is the integral of dc step signal ? 1.
Step signal
2.
Ramp signal
3.
Pulse signal
4.
Parabolic signal
What is the transfer function of the system from the s-plane? 1.

2.

3.

4.

Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m2. The electric Field 1.

intensity at the origin is -10az V/m

2.
-18π az V/m
3.
-72π az V/m
4.
-360π az
The ________ amplifier configuration has the highest input 1.
impedance and the lowest output impedance of the four basic non-inverting
op-amp configurations. 2.
inverting
3.
voltage-follower
4.
differential
What is the filter type of the circuit? 1.
LPF

2.
HPF
3.
BPF
4.
BEF

If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes and phase angles 1.
are subtracted, the resultant is a sinusoid of the same frequency
2.
a sinusoid of half the original frequency
3.
a sinusoid of double the frequency
4.
a sinusoid of triple the frequency

What is the impedance function of the 2 H inductor? 1.

2.

3.

4.

The maximum rate of change of the output voltage in response 1.

to a step input voltage is the ________ of an op-amp. time constant
2.
maximum frequency
3.
slew rate
4.
static discharge
 1.
5.45 V
2.
-5.45 V
3.
12 V
4.
-12 V

What are the units of admittance? 1.

Ohms
2.
Henry
3.
Farads
4.
Siemens

What is the cutoff frequency of an op-amp if the unity-gain 1.

frequency is 1.5 MHz and the open-loop gain is 100,000? 5 Hz
2.
15 Hz
3.
10 Hz
4.
20 Hz
1.
3.33 V
2.
5V
3.
7V
4.
10 V Commented [2]: Voltage is same in parallel circuit
How many op-amps are required to implement this equation? 1.
1

2.
3
3.
2
4.
4

Voltage – current relations in different types of circuit 1.

elements are given below. Find out the wrong relation.
2.

3.

4.

In the Colpitts oscillator, the frequency is determined by _____ 1.

resistance only
2.
inductance only
3.
capacitance only
4.
both inductance and a capacitance

The voltage drop across a 5 μF capacitor is 100 V. What is 1.

the energy stored in the capacitor 0.025 Joules [½ CV^2]
2.
0.25 Joules
3.
2.5 Joules
4.
25 Joules
Of the following, the incorrect relation is 1.
D = εE
2.
B = μH
3.
J = σE
4.
B = μD

A Schmitt trigger is 1.
a comparator with only one
trigger point
2.
a comparator with hysteresis
3.
a comparator with three trigger
points
4.
a comparator without hysteresis
A feedback amplifier has a _____ upper 3-dB frequency and a _____ lower 1.
3-dB frequency compared to an amplifier without feedback. smaller, higher
2.
higher, smaller
3.
smaller, smaller
4.
higher, higher

A delta connected system has three resistances of value 1.

72 Ω each. The resistance in one of the three arms of the 12 Ω ANSWER is 24 Ohm
equivalent star system is 2.
92 Ω
3.
108 Ω
4.
216 Ω
What circuit produces an output that approximates the area 1.
under the curve of an input function? integrator
2.
differentiator
3.
summing amplifier
4.
comparator

Rectangular Waveguide behaves as 1.

Low pass filter
2.
All pass filter
3.
High pass filter
4.
Waveguide cant behave as filter
A 2 Ω resistor dissipates 8 W power. What is the current 1.
through the resistor? 4A
2.
3A
3.
2A

4.
1A

Voltage feedback connections tend to _____ the output impedance. 1.

Current feedback connections tend to _____ the output impedance. decrease, increase
2.
increase, decrease
3.
increase, increase
4.
decrease, decrease
In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is 1.
used in the feedback loop? Schottky
2.
junction
3.
zener
4.
varactor

Find out the wrong statement 1.

Current leads voltage in a capacitor
2.
Current leads voltage in an inductor
3.
Voltage leads current in an inductor

4.
Voltage and current are in
phase in a resistor
Transistors are biased in -------- for class B operation 1.
Active mode
2.
Reverse active mode
3.
Cut off

4.
saturation

Two resistors R1=30 Ohm and R2=10 Ohm are connected in series to a 1.
DC voltage source of 10 V. What is the voltage across R2? 10 V
2.
5V
3.
2.5 V
4.
-5 V
With most monostable multivibrators, what is the Q output when 1.
no input trigger has occurred? LOW
2.
+5 V
3.
SET
4.
HIGH
1.

2.

3.

4.

Consider a Class AB circuit with VCC=15V,IQ=2mA and 1.

RL=100Ω.Determine VBB given IS=10-13 A. 1.186 V Commented [3]: Vbb = 2*Vt*ln(Ip/Is) = 1.26V
2.
2.8 V
3.
5.3 V
4.
4.2 V

The RMS value of an alternating waveform v= 200Sin(314t – 1.

45o) is 127.2 V
2.
141.4 V
3.
282.8 V
4.
314.4 V
If the value of R1 decreases in the circuit, the voltage gain will 1.
________ and the input impedance will ________. increase, increase
2.
increase, decrease
3.
decrease, decrease
4.
decrease, increase

1.
54 C/m3
2.
54 mC/m3
3.
54 mC/m3
4.
54 nC/m3
An op-amp has an open-loop gain of 100,000 and a cutoff 1.
frequency of 40 Hz. Find the open-loop gain at a frequency of 800
30 Hz. 2.
8,000
3.
80,000
4.
100,000
An alternating current varying sinusoidally, with a frequency of 50 Hz, has 1.
an RMS value of 15 A. The time domain representation is 15 Sin(50t )
2.
15 Cos(314t )
3.
21.2 Cos(50t )
4.
21.2 Sin(314t )
Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current of 30az mA/m. At 1.

(1,10,-2), the magnetic field intensity is ______ -15ay mA/m

2.
15ax mA/m
3.
15ay mA/m
4.
-15ax mA/m
Calculate the efficiency of a class B amplifier for a supply voltage of VCC = 1.
20 V with peak output voltage of VL(p) = 18 V. Assume RL = 16Ω. 78.54%

2.
75%
3.
70.66%
4.
50%

Voltage v = 10 Sin (314t ) and current i = 10 Sin(314t ) in a 1.

load. What is the power consumed? 100 W
2.
50 W
3.
20 W
4.
12.5 W

The voltage across a circuit branch is given by v = 282.8 Sin 1.

314t and current through the branch is given by I = 14.14 Sin 19.97 Sin (314t – 60o )
(314t – 60o ) ; The impedance in the branch is 2.
20 Sin (314t +60o )
3.
20 Sin (314t )
4.
19.97 Sin (314t )
A dc input signal of –50 mV is applied to the circuit. You would 1.
measure ________ from the inverting input to ground. 50 mV
2.
1.05 V
3.
–1.05 V
4.
–50 mV

Emitter follower is a ……………….. circuit 1.

Voltage feedback
2.
Current feedback
3.
Both voltage and current feedback
4.
None of the above

1.
Along y-direction
2.
Along -y-direction
3.
Along z-direction
4.
Along -z-direction
The admittance of a circuit is (0.05 - j 0.08) Siemens. The impedance of 1.
the circuit is (5.6 – j 8.98) Ohm
2.
(5.6 + j 8.98) Ohm
3.
(20 – j 12.5) Ohm
4.
(20 +j 12.5) Ohm
What would be the computational value of feedback voltage in a negative 1.
feedback amplifier with A = 100, β = 0.03 and input signal voltage = 30 0.03 V
mV?
2.
0.06 V
3.
0.09 V
4.
0.15 V

Find the midrange gain of the amplifier circuit shown 1.

26.7
2.
–26.7 Commented [4]: Av= -R2/R1
3.
27.7
4.
–27.7

What is the slew rate of an op-amp if the output voltages change 1.

from 2 V to 3 V in 0.2 ms? 5 V/ms
2.
3 V/ms
3.
2 V/ms
4.
1 V/ms
For lossless line, 1.
α=0, β=0
2.
α=0, β≠0
3.
α≠0, β=0

4.
α≠0, β≠0
Which among the following is an output provided by transresistance 1.
amplifier? Output current proportional to signal
voltage
2.
Output voltage proportional to signal
current
3.
Output voltage proportional to input
voltage
4.
Output current proportional to signal
current

A series RLC circuit has R = 10 Ω, L = 0.5H and C = 50 μF . What is the 1.

resonant frequency 40 KHz
2.
33.3 KHz
3.
31.83 KHz [f=1/[2*π*√{L*C}]]
4.
99.99 Hz
The current through a series RLC circuit at resonance is 5A. 1.
The current at cut-off frequencies is 0A
2.
2.5 A
3.
3.53 A
4.
5A

Calculate the input voltage when Vo = 11 V. 1.

1.1 V
2.
-1.1 V
3.
1V
4.
-1 V
The input impedance of a λ/2 transformer is 1.
terminal impedance

2.
terminal admittance
3.
characteristics impedance
4.
Wave impedance

The quality factor of a series resonant circuit is 50. It is 1.

connected to an alternating source v= 10 Sin 314t . What is 50 V
the maximum voltage across the capacitor at resonance 2.
70.7 V
3.
500 V

4.
707 V

The characteristic impedance Z0 of a transmission line is given by, (where R, L, G, 1.

C are the unit length parameters) (R + jωL)/(G + jωC)
2.
(R + jωL)(G + jωC)
3.
(R+ jωL)2 / (G +jω C)
4.
[(R+ jωL)/ (G +jω C)]1/2

Quiescent power is the power dissipation of a transistor 1.

With no signal input
2.
With no load.
3.
Under full load.
4.
Along the dc load line.
Identify the pair which is not a dual, from the following : 1.
Current – Voltage
2.
Loop – Node
3.
Short circuit – Open circuit
4.
Resistance – Capacitance
A network graph contains 5 nodes and 8 branches. How 1.
2
many number of loop it contain?
2.
3
3.
4 [l = b – n + 1]
4.
5

The reflection coefficient over the normalized Zl 1.

(Zl - 1)/ (Zl +1 )
2.
(Zl + 1)/ (Zl -1 )
3.
(Zs - 1)/ (Zs +1 )
4.
none of these

Cross over distortion behaviour is characteristic of 1.

Class A output stage
2.
Class B output stage
3.
Class AB output stage
4.
Common base output stage
A 60 ohm resistive load is connected to a practical voltage 1.
source of 40 V. The source resistance can be tuned between 15 W Commented [5]: With 20ohm as internal resistance,
Pout = RL * i^2
20 ohm and 80 ohm. Calculate the maximum power delivered 2.
by the source. 13.33 W
3.
6.65 W
4.
3.5 W

Travel to length λg/2 over the line corresponds to rotation over smith chart by 1.
180°
2.
360°
3.
90°
4.
270°

If an op-amp comparator has a gain of 100,000, an input 1.

difference of 0.2 mV above reference, and a supply of 12 V, the
output will be 20 V
2.
12 V
3.
10 V
4.
15 V
What will be oscillator frequency, if phase shift network of RC phase shift 1.
oscillator contains a capacitor of 7nF and a resistance of 10k? 928 Hz
2.
1 kHz
3.
1.2 kHz
4.
895 Hz
What is the function of the comparators in the 555 timer circuit? 1.
to compare the output voltages
to the internal voltage divider
2.
to compare the input voltages to
the internal voltage divider
3.
to compare the output voltages
to the external voltage divider
4.
to compare the input voltages to
the external voltage divider

In circular waveguide the dominant mode is 1.

TE10
2.
TE11
3.
TE20
4.
TE21
What will be the oscillator frequency of Hartley oscillator if inductance L1, 1.
L2 are equal to 1 mH and 2 mH respectively and capacitor C is 10 nF. 50 kHz
(Neglect mutual inductance)
2.
57 kHz
3.
40 kHz
4.
1 MHz

Poynting vector gives 1.

Rate of energy flow
2.
direction of polarization
3.
electric field
4.
magnetic field.
The output of the astable circuit ________. 1.
constantly switches between two
states
2.
is LOW until a trigger is received
3.
is HIGH until a trigger is received
4.
floats until triggered
Low frequency oscillators have a frequency range of 1.
20 Hz-20 kHz
2.
20 Hz-100 kHz
3.
1 Hz-20 kHz
4.
50 Hz-100 kHz

Which mode of operation is being used when a 555 timer chip 1.

has two external resistors and an external capacitor? monostable
2.
pulse stretching
3.
Schmitt triggering
4.
astable
For a phase-shift oscillator, the gain of the amplifier stage must be greater 1.
than ________. 19
2.
29
3.
30
4.
1
An amplifier has an open loop gain of 100 and its upper and lower cut-off 1.
frequency of 100 Hz and 100 kHz respectively. A feedback network with a 10 Hz and 10 MHz.
feedback factor of 0.99 is connected to the amplifier. The new lower and
2.
upper cut-off frequencies are at ________ and ________.
1 Hz and 10 MHz.
3.
1 Hz and 100 MHz.
4.
1 Hz and 100 MHz.

What is the major factor for determining whether a medium is 1.

a free space, lossless dielectric, lossy dielectric or good Attenuation Constant
conductor? 2.
Complex permittivity
3.
Loss tangent
4.
Reflection Coefficient
Calculate the output voltage in the circuit shown, if R 1 = R2 = R3 1.
= 100 , Rf = 1 k , and V1 = V2 = V3 = 50 mV. –1.5 V
2.
1.5 V
3.
0.5 V
4.
–0.5 V

Two thin parallel wires are carrying current along the same 1.
direction. The force experienced by one due to other is Only open loop
2.
only closed loop
3.
both open and closed loop
4.
Back loop
The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding 1.
charges is equal to the amount of the charge enclosed". The Coulomb's square law
above statement is associated with 2.
Gauss's law
3.
Maxwell's first law
4.
Maxwell's second law
Calculate the output voltage for this circuit when V 1 = 2.5 V and 1.
V2 = 2.25 V. –5.25 V
2.
2.5 V
3.
2.25 V
4.
5.25 V

The thevenin impedance of a circuit is 5.47 cos(4t-85.4o) 1.

Ohms. The value of a pure resistive load for maximum power 5.45 ohm
transfer condition is : 2.
0.44 ohm
3.
0 Ohm
4.
5.47 ohm
Calculate the output voltage if V1 = 300 mV and V2 = 700 mV. 1.
0V
2.
-12 V
3.
12 V
4.
-4V

A 100μF capacitor (initially relaxed) is connected to a 10 V 1.

DC source with internal resistance of 2 ohm. The initial 10 A
current through the capacitor (immediately after the instant of 2.
connection) is 5A
3.
1A
4.
0.5 A

A capacitor of 100 μF (initially relaxed) is connected to a 1.

battery of 10 V at time t=0; The current through the capacitor 100 mSec
reaches the steady state value of 0 A in 100mS. What is the 2.
time constant of the circuit 50 msec

3.
30 msec
4.
20 sec It should be 20ms

What is the duty cycle of the waveform at the output of the 1.

circuit given below? 78%
2.
56%
3.
50%
4.
44%
Five resistors of equal value are connected in parallel to a 1.
12V battery. If one of the resistors is open circuited The current in individual
branches increase
2.
The currents in individual
branches decrease
3.
The total current drawn from
the battery increase
4.
The total current drawn from
the battery decrease
What is the difference output voltage of any signals applied to 1.
the input terminals? The differential gain times the
difference input voltage.
2.
The common-mode gain times
the common input voltage
3.
The sum of the differential gain
times the difference input voltage
and the common-mode gain
times the common input voltage.
4.
The difference of the differential
gain times the difference input
voltage and the common-mode
gain times the common input
voltage.

A potentiometer in series with a fixed resistance of value 100 1.

Ohm is connected to a DC voltage source of 5V. The current 4000 Ohm
in the resistor combination is 10 mA . The resistance setting 2.
of potentiometer is 400 Ohm
3.
40 Ohm
4.
4 Ohm
Which of these formulas is wrong 1.
B1n=B2n
2.

3.
H1=H1n + H2n
4.

At what input voltage level does the output voltage level become 1.
numerically equal to the value of the differential gain of the Vi1 = –Vi2 = 0.25 V
amplifier? 2.
V i1 = –V i2 = 0.50 V
3.
V i1 = –V i2 = 0.75 V
4.
V i1 = –Vi2 = 1.00 V

An alternating periodic waveform is sampled at equal time intervals over 1.

one period. The sampled values are 0, 2, 4, 6, 10, 12, 10, 6, 4, 2 5.6
respectively. What is the RMS value of the waveform is
2.
6.75
3.
7.11
4.
6.22

The op-amp has a unity-gain bandwidth of 3 MHz. Determine 1.

the BW of the circuit 3 MHz
2.
30 kHz Commented [6]: BW = Fc/Q-factor
=> BW = 3M/(80k/3k)
3. = 112.4kHz
112.4 kHz
4.
infinite in width
An inductive load draws 9A and 1 KW from a 220V, 60 Hz AC supply. 1.
What is the value of resistance in the load? 24.4 Ohms
2.
12.3 Ohms
3.
6.3 Ohms
4.
3 Ohms

What is the scale multiplier (factor) of a basic integrator? 1.

R/C
2.
C/R
3.
–RC
4.
–1 / RC

Consider the following statements on a network at resonance 1.

1. The impedance is maximum 1 and 3 are correct
2. The power factor of the network is unity irrespective of the 2.
network
1 and 2 are correct
3. The Q of the network is independent of R
3.
Of these statements
2 and 3 are correct Commented [7]: At resonance: XL=Xc and Znet=R
cos(phi) = 1 as phi=0
4. (neither leading nor lagging)
1 alone is correct
If an input signal of –0.5 V were applied, determine the output 1.
voltage. –5 V
2.
5V (Gain=Vin/Vout=-R2/R1)
3.
10 V
4.
–10 V

(Inverting Amp)
A 230 V 60 Hz supply is connected to a capacitor of value 1.
132.62 Ω
20 μF . The reactance of the capacitor is
2.
833.2 Ω
3.
7.54 mΩ
4.
1.2 mΩ

Calculate the input voltage if R1 = 100 , Rf = 1 k , and 1.

Vout = 550 mV –50 mV

2.
–5 mV
3.
550 mV
4.
50 mV

The impedance of a circuit is (20+j12.5) ohm. The power 1.

factor is 32o
2.
-32o
3.
0.848 (lag)
4.
0.848 (lead) Commented [8]: Pf = cos(phi) = R/Z
= 0.848 /_32.005 deg
An amplifier has an Rin = 1.2 kΩ. The coupling capacitor is 1.

1µF. Determine the approximate lower cutoff frequency. 133 Hz

2.
1.33 kHz
3.
13.3 kHz
4.
133 kHz
In an unbalanced star load ZR = 10 Ω ZY = j10 Ω AND ZB = 1.
5 Ω . ZRY in the equivalent delta circuit is 40 Ω
2.
(20 + j10) Ω
3.
(5 + j10/3) Ω
4.
(10 + j30) Ω

An amplifier has an output voltage of 7.6 V p-p at the 1.

midpoint of the frequency range. What is the output at fc? 3.8 V p-p
2.
3.8 Vrms
3.
5.4 Vrms
4.
5.4 V p-p
A 3-phase symmetrical star load consumes P watts of power from a 1.
balanced supply. If the same load is connected in delta to the same P
supply, the power consumption will be
2.
P√3
3.
3P
4.
2P

An infinite length of uniform line charge has ρl = 10pC/m and 1.

it lies along the z axis. Determine the electric field E at (4, 3, 18 aρmV/m
3) 2.
1.8 aρmV/m
3.
180 aρmV/m
4.
280 aρmV/m
An amplifier rated at 30-W output is connected to a 5Ω 1.

speaker. Calculate the input voltage for the rated output if the 1.225 mV
amplifier voltage gain is 20 dB. 2.
12.25 mV
3.
122.5 mV
4.

1.225
V

A filter attenuates all frequencies between 10 KHz and 1.

15KHz. It’s a Low pass filter
2.
High pass filter
3.
Band pass filter
4.
Band elimination filter

When a multistage amplifier is to amplify d.c. signal, 1.

then one must use …….. coupling RC

2.
Transformer
3.
Direct
4.
None of the above
Practical voltage sources differ from the ideal voltage source 1.
because of Low internal impedance in
parallel
2.
Low internal impedance in
series
3.
High internal impedance in
parallel
4.
High internal impedance in
series
If a three-stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 1.

10 dB, 5 dB and 12 dB, then total gain in dB is ………. 600 dB

2.
24 dB
3.
14 dB
4.
27dB
Two resistors R1(=10 Ohm) and R2(=5 Ohm) are connected 1.
in parallel to a 3A current source. What is the current through 1 A
R2 2.
2A
3.
2.5 A
4.
3A

A multistage amplifier employs five stages each of which has 1.

a power gain of 30. What is the total gain of the amplifier in 73.85 dB and 63.85 dB
db. If a negative feedback of 10 dB is employed, find the 2.
resultant gain 147.7 dB and 137.7 dB
3.
7.38 dB and 17.38 dB
4.
17.38 dB and 7.38 dB
Two coils with self inductance 4 H are connected in series (aiding). The 1.
mutual inductance is 2 H. What is the effective inductance of the series 8H
combination is
2.
10 H
3.
12 H
4.
6H
In an amplifier, the output power is 1.5 watts at 2 kHz and 0.3 1.
watt at 20 Hz,while the input power is constant at 10 mW. 3.2 dB
Calculate by how many decibels gain at 20 Hz is below 2.
4.5 dB
that at 2 kHz?
3.
6.99 dB
4.
7.2 dB
An amplifier has an open-circuit voltage gain of 70 dB and an 1.
output resistanceof 1.5 kΩ. Determine the minimum value of 4.65 Ω
load resistance so that voltage gain is not more than67dB. 2.
7.80 kΩ
3.
5.7 Ω
4.
3.65 kΩ
The voltage drop across a resistor is 112.5 V when a current 1.

of 1.62 A is passing through the resistor.The power 112.25 W

dissipation of the resistor is 2.
152.25 W
3.
182.25 W
4.
282.25 W
Rectangular Waveguide behaves as 1.
High pass filter
2.
Low pass filter
3.
All pass filter
4.
Waveguide cant behave as filter
Negative feedback in a closed loop system does not 1.
Reduce the overall gain
2.
Reduce bandwidth
3.
Improve disturbance rejection
4.
Reduce sensitivity to parameter
variation
In full sunlight, a solar cell has a short circuit current of 75 1.

mA and a current of 70 mA for a terminal voltage of 0.6 V 240 Ohms

with a given load. The Thevenin resistance of the solar cell is 2.
120 Ohms
3.
60 Ohms
4.
24 Ohms

An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50, input 1.

resistance of 1 kΩ and output resistance of 2.5 kΩ.The input 1/11 kΩ
resistance of the current-shunt negative feedback amplifier 2.
using the above amplifier with a feedback factor of 0.2 is 1/5 kΩ
3.
5 kΩ
4.
11 kΩ
A 100 Ω, 1 W resistor and a 800 Ω, 2 W resistor are 1.

connected in series . The maximum dc voltage that can be 40 V

applied continuously to the series circuit without exceeding 2.
45 V
the power limit of any of the resistor is
3.
80 V
4.
90 V
Introduction of feedback in an amplifier increases the input 1.

impedance from 1 kΩ to 40 kΩ.It is due to Positive feedback

2.
Shunt-current negative
feedback
3.
Series-current negative
feedback
4.
Shunt-voltage negative
feedback
Which statement is false for Admittance Smith chart. 1.
Left of the smith chart is open
circuit end
2.
Right of the smith chart is short
circuit end
3.
VSWR at centre of smith chart
is 2
4.
Reflection coefficient at centre
of smith chart is 1
An amplifier has a voltage gain of 1000 and an upper cut-off 1.
frequency of 160 kHz. Above its cut-off frequency the 16 dB
response falls at upto 6 decibels per octave. Negative 2.
feedback is applied to extend the bandwidth to 1 MHz. The 24 dB
new gain will be 3.
44 dB
4.
55 dB
The following circuit shown in the figure is 1.
Hartley Oscillator with fosc=
79.6 MHz
2.
Colpitts Oscillator with fosc=
79.6 MHz
3. Commented [9]: Actual ans is colpitts 50.32 but in
Hartley Oscillator with fosc= exam mark 159.2MHz
159.2 MHz
4. Fosc is 50.32 MHz Commented [10]: Ye sab kyu aata hai bhai tujhe?
Colpitts Oscillator with fosc=
159.2 MHz
Calculate the input power and output power of the amplifier 1.
circuit for an input voltage that results in a base current of 10 9.6 W and 6.25 W
mA peak. 2.
96 W and 6.25 W
3.
9.6 W and 625 W
4.
9.6 W and 0.625 W

Which mode is known as the dominant mode for Rectangular 1.TM10 and TE10
waveguide? 2. TM10
3. TM11
4.TE10
Which of these transmission line supports Quasi-TEM mode 1.
Strip line
2.
Parallel Plate waveguide
3.
Microstrip line and Stripline
Both
4.
Microstrip line
What is the theoretical range of VSWR (Voltage Standing 1.
Wave Ratio) - ∞ to + ∞
2.
0 to 1
3.

1 to ∞
4.
-1 to 1
What is the range of magnitude of the reflection coefficient 1.
due to passive load 1 to + ∞
2.
0.5 to 1
3.

0 to ∞
4.
-1 to 1
How many RC pairs will be present in a second order low pass filter? 1.
1
2.
2

3.
3
4.
4
Which of these transmission lines supports Quasi-TEM mode 1.
Microstrip line
2.
Strip line
3.
Microstrip line and Stripline
Both
4.
Parallel Plate waveguide
What is the band of frequencies where there is maximum attenuation of the 1.
signal? Pass band
2.
Transition band
3.
Transmission band
4.
Stop band

A distortion less line has 1.

Non vanishing attenuation
constant
2.
Constant velocity
3.
Constant real characteristic
impedance
4.
all of these
What is the other name of 3 dB frequency? 1.
Gain cross-over frequency
2.
Phase cross-over frequency
3.
Corner frequency
4.
Band pass frequency
The wavelength of a wave with a propagation constant = 0.1π 1.
+ j 0.2π 10 m
2.
(propagation constant= alpha +j beta, beta= 2*pi/lambda)
20 m
3.
30 m
4.
40 m
Both ε0 and χe are dimensionless: The statement is ________ 1.
and ______ respectively True and False
2.
False and True
3.
True and True
4.
False and False.
1.
The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a circular 8
coil of diameter 1 metre and carrying a current of 2 A is 2.
4
(Magnetic field intensity at centre of circular coil =
3.
I/2R.) 3
4.
2

Show the status of CY, AC and P flags after the addition of 9CH and 64H in the 1.
following instructions: CY =1, P=0, AC=1
MOV A, #9CH 2.
ADD A, #64H CY =1, P=1, AC=1
3.
CY =0, P=00, AC=1
4.
CY =1, P=0, AC=0
Find the period of the machine cycle when crystal frequency is 16 1.
MHz for 8051 1.085µs
2.0.75µs
3.
1.385µs
4.
1.25µs
For an 8051 system of 11.0592 MHz, how long does it take to 1.
execute the instruction -MUL AB 1.085µs
2.
2.17µs
3.
4.34µs
4.
3.36µs
Find the size of the delay in the following program if the crystal frequency is 1.
11.0592 MHz 236µs
DELAY: MOV R3, #200--------1 M/C 2.
HERE: DJNZ R3, HERE-------2 M/C 136µs
RET---------------------------------2M/C 3.
336µs
4.
436µs
What percentage of duty cycle is generated by the following code: 1.
SETB P1.3 25%
LCALL DELAY 2.
75%
LCALL DELAY
3.
CLR P1.3
66%
LCALL DELAY
4.
SJMP BACK 50%

What is the addressing mode for the following instruction: 1.

Indirect Mode
MOV R0, #40H
2.
Direct Mode
3.
Immediate Mode
4.
Index Mode
The internal RAM memory of the 8051 is: 1.
32 bytes
2.
64 bytes
3.
128 bytes
4.
256 bytes
This program code will be executed continuously: 1.
Yes
STAT: MOV A, #01H
2.
No
JNZ STAT
3.
Not enough information
4.
Not always
The 8051 has ________ 16-bit counter/timers. 1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
4
The 8051 can handle ________ interrupt sources. 1.
3
2.
4
3.
5
4.
6
MOV A, @ R1 will: 1.
copy R1 to the accumulator
2.
copy the accumulator to R1
3.
copy the contents of memory
whose address is in R1 to the
accumulator
4.
copy the accumulator to the
contents of memory whose address
is in R1

When the 8051 is reset and the line is HIGH, the program 1.

counter points to the first program instruction in the: Internal code memory
2.
External code memory
3.
Internal data memory
4.
External data memory
An alternate function of port pin P3.4 in the 8051 is: 1.
Timer 0
2.
Timer 1
3.
Interrupt 0
4.
Interrupt 1
The I/O ports that are used as address and data for external memory 1.
are: Ports 1 and 2
2.
Ports 1 and 3
3.
Ports 0 and 2
4.
Ports 0 and 3
The total external data memory that can be interfaced to the 8051 1.
is: 32K
2.
64K
3.
128K
4.
256K
Which of the following instructions will load the value 35H into the 1.
high byte of timer 0? MOV TH0, #35H
2.
MOV TH0, 35H
3.
MOV T0, #35H
4.
MOV T0, 35H
Bit-addressable memory locations are: 1.
10H through 1FH
2.
20H through 2FH
3.
30H through 3FH
4.
40H through 4FH
The contents of the accumulator after this operation 1.
MOV A,#0BH 11010111
ANL A,#2CH 2.
will be 11011010
3.
00001000
4.
00101000
The start-conversion on the ADC0804 is done by using the: 1.
WR
2.
CS line
3.
INTR line
4.
V ref/2 line
Which of the following commands will move the value at port 3 to 1.
register 2? MOV P2, R3
2.
MOV R3, P2
3.
MOV 3P, R2
4.
MOV R2, P3
The contents of the accumulator after this operation 1.
1BH
MOV A,#2BH
2.
ORL A,00H 2BH
will be 3.
3BH
4.
4BH
Which of the following commands will copy the contents of RAM 1.
whose address is in register 0 to port 1? MOV @ P1, R0
2.
MOV @ R0, P1
3.
MOV P1, @ R0
4.
MOV P1, R0
The ADC0804 has ________ resolution. 1.
4 bit
2.
8 bit
3.
16 bit
4.
32 bit
With XTAL = 11.0592MHz, find the TH1 value needed to have a 1.
baud rate of 9600 3
2.
12
3.
24
4.
6
If the crystal frequency is 22MHz, what will be the baud rate if 1.
TH1=-12 with SMOD=0 19,093
2.
38,156
3.
4,773
4.
9,546
Show the instructions to enable the serial interrupt, timer 0 interrupt 1.
and external hardware interrupt(EX1). MOV IE, #10011110 B
2.
MOV IE, #10110010 B
3.
MOV IE, #10000111 B
4.
MOV IE, #10010110 B
The correct value of TMOD to operate in Mode 1 Timer 1 is: 1.
10H
2.
01H
3.
20H
4.
02H
If we push data onto the stack then the stack pointer 1.
increases with every push
2.
decreases with every push
3.
none of the mentioned
4.
both of the mentioned
The E pin requires what kind of plus to latch in information at the 1.
data pins of the LCD. High
2.
Low
3.
Low to high
4.
High to low
In the given figure, to detect the key press, which of the following is grounded? 1.
All rows
2.
One row at a time
3.
All columns
4.
One column at a time
Consider the following registers: 1.
1 ,3 and 4
1. Accumulator and flag register
2.
2. B and C register
2 ,3 and 4
3. D and E register
3.
4. H and L register 1, 2 and 3
Which of these 8-bit registers of 8085 microprocessor can be 4.
paired together to make a 16-bit register? 1, 2 and 4

In an intel 8085A microprocessor, why is READY signal used? 1.

To indicate to user that the
microprocessor is working and is
ready for use.
2.
To provide proper WAIT states
when the microprocessor is
communicating with a slow
peripheral device.
3.
To slow down a fast peripheral
device so as to communicate at
the microprocessor’s device.
4.
None of the above.
consider the following 1.
(I) only
I) Sign flag II) Trap flag III) Parity flag IV) Auxiliary carry flag
2.
Which one of the above flags is/are present in 8085
(I) & (II)
microprocessor?
3.
(II) & (III)
4.
(I) ,(III) & (IV)
Consider the following statements: 1.
(I) only
In 8085 microprocessor, data-bus and address bus are
multiplexed in order to 2.
(II) only
I)Increase the speed of microprocessor.
3.
II)Reduce the number of pins.
(II) & (III)
III)Connect more peripheral chips.
4.
Which of these statements is/are correct? (I), (II) & (III)
ALU (Arithmetic and Logic Unit ) of 8085 microprocessor 1.
consists of Accumulator, temporary register,
arithmetic and logic circuits
2.
Accumulator, arithmetic, logic
circuits and five flags
3.
Accumulator, arithmetic and logic
circuits
4.
Accumulator, temporary register,
arithmetic, logic circuits and five
flags
In intel 8085A microprocessor ALE signal is made high to 1.
Enable the data bus to be used
as low order address bus
2.
To latch data D0-D7 from data
bus
3.
To disable data bus
4.
To achieve all the functions listed
above
Which of the following statements for Intel 8085 is correct? 1.
Program Counter (PC) specifies
the address of the instruction last
executed
2.
PC specifies the address of the
instruction being executed
3.
PC specifies the address of the
instruction to be executed
4.
PC specifies the number of
instructions executed so far
Processor status word of 8085 microprocessor has five flags. 1.
They are S, Z, AC, P, CY
2.
S, OV, AC, P, CY
3.
S, Z, OV, P, CY
4.
S, Z, AC, P, OV
In 8085 name of the 16 bit registers is 1.
stack pointer
2.
program counter
3.
both A and B
4.
none of these
Which instruction is required to rotate the content of accumulator 1.
one bit right along with carry? RLC
2.
RAL
3.
RRC
4.
RAR
Temporary registers in 8085 are 1.
B and C
2.
D and E
3.
H and L
4.
W and Z
The 16 bit flag of 8086 microprocessor is responsible to indicate 1.
___________. the condition of result of ALU
operation
2.
the condition of memory
3.
the result of addition
4.
 the result of subtraction

The register AX is formed by grouping ________. 1.

AH & AL
2.
BH & BL
3.
CH & CL
4.
DH & DL

8086 have___________ of segment registers 1.

2
2.
4
3.
6
4.
8
8086 can be operated in two modes:they are 1.

________ and _________. Minimum, Maximum

2.
External, internal
3.
Mode1, Mode2
4.
Data, address
If there are two operands, the _______ operand 1.

appears first. destination

2.
mnemonic
3.
source
4.
label
8086 processor has __________ address pins 1.

out of which _________ number of pins are used 16,8

as data pins 2.
16,14
3.
20,16
4.
20,8
Data storage in stack is designed in 1.

_______________method. First in first out

2.
last in last out
3.
first in last out
4.
last in first out
_________ flag is used in 8086 for string 1.

manipulation instructions DF
2.
AF
3.
OF
4.
PF
BHE of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to 1.

interface the Even bank memory

2.
Odd bank memory
3.
I/O
4.
DMA
In 8086 microprocessor one of the following 1.

statements is not true. Coprocessor is interfaced

in MAX mode
2.
Coprocessor is interfaced
in MIN mode
3.
I/O can be interfaced in
MAX / MIN mode
4.
Supports pipelining
In 8086 the overflow flag is set when 1.
The sum is more than 16
bits
2.
Signed numbers go out of
their range after an
arithmetic operation
3.
Carry and sign flags are
set
4.
During subtraction
What is the processor used by ARM7? 1.
8-bit CISC
2.
8-bit RISC
3.
32-bit CISC
4.
32-bit RISC
What is the instruction set used by ARM7? 1.
16-bit instruction set
2.
32-bit instruction set
3.
64-bit instruction set
4.
8-bit instruction set
How many registers are there in ARM7? 1.
35 register( 28 GPR and 7 SPR)
2.
37 registers(28 GPR and 9 SPR)
3.
37 registers(31 GPR and 6 SPR)
4.
35 register(30 GPR and 5 SPR)
ARM7DI operates in which mode? 1.
Big Endian
2.
Little Endian
3.
Both big and little Endian
4.
Neither big nor little Endian
In which of the following ARM processors virtual memory is 1.
present? ARM7DI
2.
ARM7TDMI-S
3.
ARM7TDMI
4.
ARM7EJ-S
In the ARM, PC is implemented using ____ 1.
Caches
2.
Heaps
3.
General purpose register
4.
Stack
The additional duplicate register used in ARM machines are 1.
called as _______ Copied-registers
2.
Banked registers
3.
EXtra registers
4.
Extential registers
The banked registers are used for ______ 1.
Switching between supervisor
and interrupt mode
2.
Extended storing
3.
Same as other general purpose
registers
4.
None of the mentioned

The simplest equation which implements the K-map shown 1.

X = AC+B
2.
X = AB’
3.
X = ABC’+ABC+AB’C
4.
X = AB+AB’
How many 1-of-16 decoders are required for decoding a 7-bit 1.
5
binary number?
2.
6
3.
7
4.
8

Convert BCD 0001 0111 to binary. 1.

10101
2.
10010
3.
10001

4.
11000

2’s complement representation of a 16 bit number (one 1.0

2.1
sign bit and 15 magnitude bits) is FFFF. Its magnitude in 3.65535
decimal representation is 4.32767

Find the output for the circuit given below 1.

X
2.
X’
3.
0
4.
1
The function in the following circuit is 1.
xy+z

2.
x+y+z
3.
x'z'+y'z‘
4.
x'+y'+z‘
Use Boolean algebra to find the most simplified SOP 1.

expression for F = ABD + CD +ACD + ABC + ABCD. F = ABD + ABC + CD

2.
F = CD + AD
3.
F = BC + AB
4.
F = AC + AD
1.AND Gate
2.NAND Gate
3.OR Gate
4.XOR Gate

Find OUT = ?
Determine the Boolean function implemented by the 8*1 1.

Digital switch ∑(0,2,5,6,7,8,9,10)

2.

∑(1,3,4,11,12,13,14,15)
3.

∑(1,3,5,7,9,11, 13,14,15)
4.
None of the above

Which of the following best describes how to construct a 1.

1-line to 8-line Connect the decoder input
select lines CBA to D
de-multiplexer from a 3-line to 8-line decoder:
2.
Note: CBA – inputs, D – data line, Y – output, W - Connect the decoder enable
enable input to D
3.Connect the decoder input
data lines to Di
4.
Connect the decoder output
to Di
Which of the following is not true about operators? 1.
A logical “or” is performed by
writing “C = A || B;”
2.
‘!’ performs logical negation
while ‘~’ performs bitwise
negation.
3.
The two types of “or” operators
are “logical” and “bitwise.”
4.
 The “shift right” (>>) operator
inserts zeros on the left end of
its argument.

(mi)' + Mi = ? 1.
1
2.
0
3.
Mi
4.
mi

A hexadecimal odometer displays F 52 F. The next reading 1.

will be F52E
2.
G52F
3.
F53F
4.
F53O
Digital Technologies being used now – a –days are 1.
DTL and EMOS
2.
TTL, ECL, CMOS, and RTL
3.
TTL, ECL and CMOS
4.
TTL,ECL, CMOS and DTL
STTL uses 1.
Multi Emitter transistors
2.
Multi Collector Transistor
3.
Multi Base Transistor
4.
asMulti Emitter or Collector
Transistor
As compared to TTL, CMOS logic has 1.
Higher speed of operation
2.
Higher power dissipation
3.
Smaller physical size
4.
All the above
In a 7 segment display the segments a,c,d,f,g are lit. the 1.
9
decimal number displayed will be
2.
5
3.
4
4.
2

What is the minimum number of gates required to 1.2

2.3
implement the Boolean function (AB+C) 3.4
4.5
if we have to use only 2-input NOR gates?
Give the minterms for the following circuit diagram 1.

∑m(0,1,3,4,8,9,15)
2.

∏M (0,1,3,4,8,9,15)
3.

∑m(0,1,2,4,8,10,12,16)
4.

∏M(0,1,2,4,8,10,12,16)

Which of the following respectively represent commutative 1.

law, Associative law and Distributive law ? I, III and II

2.
I. A.(B C)=(A.B).C
II,I and III
II. A.(B+C)=A.B+A.C 3.
III. A + B = B + A III, II and I
4.
CODES
III, I and II
A digital system is required to amplify a binary encoded audio 1.
8
signal. The user should be able to control the gain of the
amplifier from a minimum to a maximum in 100 increments. 2.
6
The minimum number of bits required to encode in a straight
3.
binary is 7
4.
5
Consider an eight-bit ripple-carry adder for computing the sum of A 1.
and B, where A and B are integers represented in 2’s complement -1
form. If the decimal value of A is one, the decimal value of B that 2.
leads to the longest latency for the sum to stabilize is 2
_____________
3.
-2
4.
1

The circuit shown below implements a 2-input NOR gate 1.1,0,B

using two 2-4 MUX (control signal 1 selects the upper input). 2.1,0,A
3.0,1,A
What are the values of signals x, y and z?
4.0,1,B

Consider a carry lookahead adder for adding two n-bit integers, 1.O(1)
2.O(log n)
built using gates of fan-in at most two. The time to perform addition
3.O(n)
using this adder is
4.O(√n)

Without any additional circuitry an 8:1 MUX can be used to obtain 1.

Some but not all Boolean
functions of 3 variables
2.
All function of 3 variables but none of 4
variables
3.
All functions of 3 variables and some
but not all of 4 variables
4.
All functions of 4 variables
What is the minimum number of NAND gates required 1.2
2.4
to implement a 2-input EXCLUSIVE-OR function without using any 3.5
other logic gate? 4.6

1.
One application of a digital multiplexer is to facilitate: Data Generation
2.
Code conversion
3.
Parallel to serial data
conversion
4.
Parity Checker
1.BCD matrix
A circuit that responds to a specific set of signals 2.Encoder
3.Display Driver
to produce a related digital signal output is called a(n): 4.Decoder

The time required for a pulse to change from 10 to 90 1.

percent of its maximum value is called Rise time
2.
Decay time
3.
Propagation time
4.
Operating speed

Which one of the following set of gates are best suited for 1.AND,OR , NOT Gates
'parity' checking and 'parity' generation 2.XOR and XNOR Gates
3.NAND Gates
4.NOR Gates
Which of the following adders can add three or more 1.
numbers at a time ? Ripple Carry Adder
2.
Carry Look Ahead Adder
3.
Carry Save Adder
4.
All the above
A basic S-R flip-flop can be constructed by cross-coupling of 1.
which basic logic gates? AND or OR gates
2.
XOR or XNOR gates
3.
NOR or NAND gates
4.
AND or NOR gates
Whose operations are faster among the following? 1.
Combinational circuits
2.
Sequential circuits
3.
Latches
4.
Flip-flops
The basic latch consist of 1.
Two comparators
2.
Two inverters
3.
Two amplifiers
4.
Two AND gates
When is a flip-flop said to be transparent? 1.
When the Q output is opposite
the input
2.
When the Q output follows the
input
3.
When you can see through the
IC packaging
4.
None of the Mentioned
According to Moore circuit, the output of synchronous 1.Past output
2.Next output
sequential circuit depend/s on ______ of flip flop
3.Present output
4.External inouts

In J-K flip-flop, “no change” condition appears when 1.

J = 1, K = 1
2.
J = 1, K = 0
3.
J = 0, K = 1
4.
J = 0, K = 0
S-R type flip-flop can be converted into D type flip-flop if S 1.
OR Gate
is connected to R through
2.
Inverter
3.
AND Gate
4.
XOR Gate
How can parallel data be taken out of a shift register 1.

simultaneously? Use the Q output of the first FF

2.
Use the Q output of the last FF
3.
Tie all of the Q outputs together
4.
Use the Q output of each FF
Which is not characteristic of a shift register? 1.
Serial in/parallel in
2.
Serial in/parallel out
3.
Parallel in/serial out
4.
Parallel in/parallel out
To operate correctly, starting a ring shift counter requires: 1.
Clearing all the flip-flops
2.
Presetting one flip-flop and
clearing all others
3.
Clearing one flip-flop and
presetting all others
4.
Presetting all the flip-flops
Once an up-/down-counter begins its count sequence, it 1.
Starts counting
2.
Can be reversed
3.
Can’t be reversed
4.
None of the Mentioned
What does the triangle on the clock input of a J-K flip-flop 1.

mean? Level enabled

2.
Edge triggered
3.
Both a & b
4.
Level triggered
What does the circle on the clock input of a J-K flip-flop 1.

mean? Level enabled

2.
Positive edge triggered
3.
negative edge triggered
4.
Level triggered
The terminal count of a typical modulus-10 binary counter is 1.
000
2.
1010
3.
1001
4.
1111

How many flip-flops are required to construct a decade 1.

4
counter?
2.
5
3.
8
4.
10
The characteristic equation of S-R latch is 1.
Q(n+1) = (S + Q(n))R’
2.
Q(n+1) = SR + Q(n)R
3.
Q(n+1) = S’R + Q(n)R
4.
Q(n+1) = S’R + Q'(n)R

In a counter Modulus refers to 1.Amethod used to fabricate

decade counter units
2.
The modulus of elasticity, or
the ability of a circuit to
be stretched from one mode
to another
3.An input on a counter that
is used to set the counter
state, such as UP/DOWN
4.The maximum number of
states in a counter sequence
Master slave flip flop is also referred to as 1.
Level triggered flip flop
2.
Edge triggered flip flop
3.
Pulse triggered flip flop
4.
None of the above
A sequence of equally spaced timing pulses may be easily 1.

generated by which type of counter circuit? Ring shift

2.
Clock
3.
Johnson
4.
Binary
Three cascaded decade counters will divide the input 1.
10
frequency by
2.
20
3.
100
4.
1000

In Moore machine, output is produced over the change of: 1.

transitions
2.
States
3.
Both
4.
None of the mentioned

The minimum number of states required to recognize 1.

1
an octal number divisible by 3 are/is 2.
3
3.
5
4.
7

The behaviour of synchronous sequential circuit can be 1.

predicted by defining the signals at ______. discrete instants of time

2.
continuous instants of time
3.
sampling instants of time
4.
at any instant of time
In a ripple counter 1.
whenever a flipflop sets to 1,
the next higher FF toggles
2.
whenever a flipflop sets to 0,
the next higher FF remains
unchanged
3.
whenever a flipflop sets to 1,
the next higher FF faces race
condition
4.
whenever a flipflop sets to 0,
the next higher FF faces race
condition
Which memory elements are utilized in an asynchronous & 1.

clocked sequential circuits respectively? Time- delay devices & registers

2.
Time- delay devices & flip-
flops
3.
Time- delay devices & counters
4.
Time-delay devices & latches
Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems 1.
input clock pulses are applied
encountered with asynchronous (ripple) counters because the: only to the last stage

2.
input clock pulses are applied
only to the first and last stages
3.
input clock pulses are applied
simultaneously to each stage
4.
input clock pulses are not used
to activate any of the counter
stages
One of the major drawbacks to the use of asynchronous 1.

counters is that: low-frequency applications are

limited because of internal
propagation delays
2.
Asynchronous counters do not
have major drawbacks
and are suitable for use in high-
and low-frequency counting
applications
3.
Asynchronous counters do not
have propagation delays, which
limits their use in high-
frequency applications.
4.
high-frequency applications are
limited because of internal
propagation delays
A ripple counter’s speed is limited by the propagation delay 1.

of: each flip-flop

2.
all flip-flops and gates
3.
the flip-flops only with gates
4.
only circuit gates
A J-K flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 has a 20 kHz clock input. 1.
Constantly LOW
The Q output is
2.
Constantly HIGH
3.
A 20 kHz square wave
4.
A 10 kHz square wave
On a positive edge-triggered S-R flip-flop, 1.
The clock pulse is LOW
the outputs reflect the input condition when ________
2.
The clock pulse is HIGH
3.
The clock pulse transitions
from LOW to HIGH
4.
The clock pulse transitions
from HIGH to LOW
Consider a serial in serial out (SISO) shift register with four 1.

flip flops. 0000

2.
The output fourth flip flop in the SISO is inverted and
0011
fed back as input of the first flip flop. 3.
Assume that initial state of all the flip flops are '0'. 0111
4.
What will be the output of each flip flop after 5 clock cycles
1111
The phenomenon of interpreting unwanted signals on J and K 1.
while clock pulse is HIGH is called Parity error checking
2.
Ones catching
3.
Digital discrimination
4.
Digital filtering
Four J-K flip-flops are cascaded with their J-K inputs tied 1.
1kHz
HIGH.
2.
If the input frequency (fin) to the first flip-flop is 32 kHz, 2kHz

the output frequency (fout) is ________ 3.

4kHz

4.
16kHz
With a 200 kHz clock frequency, eight bits can be serially 1.

entered into a shift register in 4 μs

2.
40 μs
3.
400 μs
4.
400 ms
A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1101. 1.
1101
Its input is HIGH. The nibble 1011 is waiting to be entered on
2.
the serial data-input line. 0111
After three clock pulses, the shift register is storing ________ 3.
0001
4.
1110
A 5-bit asynchronous binary counter is made up of five flip- 1.
flops, 12 ms
2.
each with a 12 ns propagation delay.
24 ns
The total propagation delay (tp(total)) is 3.
48 ns
4.
60 ns

The total number of states and transitions required 1.

3 and 6
to form a moore machine that will produce residue mod 3.
2.
3 and 5
3.
2 and 4
4.
2 and 5
A JK flip flop has tpd= 12 ns. The largest modulus 1.
16
of a ripple counter using these flip flops and operating at 10 2.
MHz is …….. 64
3.
128
4.
256

What is the maximum delay that can occur if four flip-flops 1.

15 ns
are connected as a ripple counter and each flip-flop
2.
has propagation delays of tPHL = 22 ns and tPLH = 15 ns? 22 ns
3.
60 ns
4.
88 ns
An 8-bit serial in/serial out shift register is used with a clock 1.
frequency of 150 kHz. What is the time delay between the 1.67 s
serial input and the Q3 output? 2.
26.67 s
3.
26.7 ms
4.
26.67 µs
Which digital system translates coded characters into a 1.
Decoder
more intelligible form?
2.
Encoder
3.
Counter
4.
Multiplxer
 1.
0.5 rad/sec
2.
0.707 rad/sec
3.
1.732 rad/sec
4.
2 rad/sec
The gain-phase plots of the open-loop transfer function of 1.

four different systems are shown in the following figure. The D, C, B, A

correct sequence of the increasing order of stability of these 2.
four systems will be A, B, C, D
3.
B, C, A, D
4.
A, D, B, C
Consider the gain-phase plot shown in the following 1.

figure. -2 dB, 40o

2.
2 dB, 40o
3.
2 dB, 140o
4.
-2 dB, 140o

Consider the gain-phase plot shown in the following figure, 1.

The gain crossover and phase crossover frequency are 10 rad/sec, 100 rad/sec
respectively. 2.
100 rad/sec, 10 rad/sec
3.
10 rad/sec, 2 rad/sec
4.
100 rad/sec, 2 rad/sec
Regarding the system consider the statements 1.
1 and 2
1. Open-loop system is stable
2.
2. Closed-loop system is unstable 1 and 3
3. One closed-loop poles is lying on the RHP 3.
only 2
The correct statements are
4.
All
1.
1.76 dB
2.3.5 dB 3.
-0.5 dB
4.
-1.76 dB
1.
-120o
2.
60o
3.
-60o
4.
120o
 1.

2.

3.

4.

A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin 1.

close to zero is highly stable

2.
oscillatory.
3.
relatively stable
4.
unstable.
1.
- 6 dB
2.
0 dB
3.
3.5dB
4.
-6 dB
A system is said to be_________________ if every state can be 1.
completely identified by measurements of the outputs at the Controllable
finite time interval. 2.
Observable
3.
Cannot be determined
4.
Controllable and observable

The type 2 system has ______ at the origin. 1.

No net pole
2.
net pole
3.
Two pole
4.
simple pole

Kalman’s test is for _______ 1.

Observability
2.Controllability
3.
Optimality
4.
Observability and controllability

The transient response, with feedback system 1.

rises slowly
2.
rises quickly
3.
decays slowly
4.decays quickly
Static error co- efficients are used as a measure of the 1.
effectiveness of closed loop system for specified _________input Acceleration
signal 2.
Velocity
3.
Position
4.
All of the above
State model representation is possible using _________ 1.
Physical variables

2.
Phase variables
3.
Canonical state variables
4.
All of the mentioned
Steady state accuracy specified in terms of: 1.
Steady state error
2.
Damping ratio
3.
The natural frequency of
damping
4.
All of the mentioned

State space analysis is applicable even if the initial conditions 1.

are _____ Zero
2.
Non-Zero
3.
Equal
4.
Not equal

Which point on root locus specifies the meeting or collision of 1.

two poles? Centroid
2.
Break away point
3.
Stability point
4.
Anti-break point
The output of a feedback control system must be a function of 1.
output and feedback signal
2.
reference and output
3.
reference and input
4.
input and feedback signal
A car is running at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the 1.
following is the feedback element for the driver Clutch
2.
Eyes
3.
Needle of the speedometer
4.
Steering wheel
The transfer function of a linear system is the 1.
ratio of the output, V0(t) and
input Vi(t).
2.
ratio of the derivatives of the
output and the input.
3.
ratio of the Laplace transform
of the output and that of the
input with all initial conditions
zeros.
4.
none of these
Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to 1.
charge
2.
Current
3.
Inductance
4.
resistance
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.

2.

3.

4.
13

Signal flow graphs: 1.

They apply to linear systems
2.
The equation obtained may or
may not be in the form of cause
or effect
3.
Arrows are not important in the
graph
4.
They cannot be converted back
to block diagram
Loop which do not possess any common node are said to be 1.
___________ loops. Forward gain
2.
Touching Loops
3.
Non Touching Loops
4.
Feedback gain
1.

2.

3.

4.
The Nyquist plot of an open-loop transfer function G( jω)H( 1.
jω) of a system encloses the (-1, j0) point. The gain margin of less than zero
the system is 2.
greater than zero
3.
Zero
4.
Infinity

If the gain margin of a certain feedback system is given as 20 1.

dB, the Nyquist plot will cross the negative real axis at the s = -0.05
point 2.
s = -0.2
3.
s= -0.1
4.
s= -0.01
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
68.3o
2.
90o
3.
0
4.
infinity
 1.
1.414 rad/sec, 0.57 rad/sec
2.
1.414 rad/sec, 1.38 rad/sec
3.
0.707 rad/sec, 0.57 rad/sec
4.
0.707 rad/sec, 1.38 rad/sec
1.
0.25

2.
0.4
3.
0
4.
infinity

The gain margin of the system 0 dB. It represents a 1.

Stable System
2.
Unstable System
3.
Conditionally Stable System
4.
Marginally Stable System
The Phase margin of the system 0o. It represents a 1.
Stable System
2.
Conditionally Stable System
3.
Unstable System
4.
Marginally Stable System
At gain cross over frequency 1.

2.

3.

4.

For second order linear system, setting time is 1.

1/4 of the time constant
2.
1/2 of the time constant
3.
4 of the time constant
4.
2 of the time constant
1.
1.5
2.
2
3.
3

4.
4

1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.

2.

3.
3
4.
6

1.

2.

3.

4.

The addition of open loop zero pulls the root loci towards: 1.
The left and therefore system
becomes more stable
2.
The right and therefore system
becomes unstable
3.
Imaginary axis and therefore
system becomes marginally
stable
4.
The left and therefore system
becomes unstable
A unit feedback system has open-loop poles at s =- 2 ± j 2 , s 1.
=- 1, and s = 0; and a zero at s =- 3. The angles made by the
root-locus asymptotes with the real axis, and the point of
intersection of the asymptotes are, respectively,
2.

3.

4.

1.
Zero steady state position error
2.
Zero steady state velocity error
3.
Steady state position error K/10
units
4.
Steady state velocity error K/10
units
1.

2.

3.

4.
A certain system exhibited an overshoot of 16% when 1.

subjected to an input of 2u(t) , where u (t ) is a step input. The (0.8, 0.0810)

damping ratio and decay ratio respectively are 2.
(0.5, 0.02256)
3.
(1.0, 0.1626)
4.
(1.1, 0.0089)
Despite the presence of negative feedback, control systems 1.

still have problems of instability because the Components used have non-
linearity.
2.
Dynamic equations of the
subsystems are not known
exactly.
3.
Mathematical analysis involves
approximations.
4.
System has large negative
phase angle at high frequencies.
1.
1, 2, 3 are correct
2.
1 & 2 are correct
3.
1 & 3 are correct
4.
3 alone is correct
Consider the following statements regarding advantages of 1.

closed loop negative feedback control systems over open loop 1 and 2
systems 2.
1 and 3
1. The overall reliability of the closed loop system is more
3.
than that of open loop system.
2 and 4
2. The transient response in a closed loop system decays
4.
more quickly than in open loop system. 1 and 4
3. In an open loop system, closing of the loop increases the
overall gain of the system.
4. In the closed loop system, the effect of variation of

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
Sensitive to perturbations in
G(s ) and H(s ).
2.
Sensitive to perturbations in
G(s ) but not to perturbations in
H(s).
3.
Sensitive to perturbation in H(s)
but not to perturbations in G(s).
4.
Insensitive to perturbations in
G(s) and H(s).
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

A transfer function has two zeroes at infinity. Then the relation 1.

between the numerator(N) and the denominator degree(M) of N=M+2
the transfer function is: 2.
N=M-2
3.
N=M+1
4.
N=M-2
 1.
2 dB, 8o
2.
2 dB, -172o
3.
4 dB, 8o
4.
4 dB, -172o

In the Bode-plot of a unity feedback control system, the value 1.

2
of magnitude of G( jw) at the phase crossover frequency is
2.
0.5. The gain margin is
0.5
3.
0.333
4.
3

1.
6 rad/sec
2.
2.46 rad/sec
3.
0.41 rad/sec
4.
3.23 rad/sec
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
-90o
2.
90o
3.
180o
4.
45o
1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.
1.
0.063
2.
0.179
3.
0.483
4.
0.639

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.
0 and 2
2.
0 and 1
3.
0 and -1
4.
1 and 2
1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.
-1.58
2.
-0.42 and -1.58
3.
-0.422
4.
-1.26

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
Controllable and observable
2.
Not controllable but observable
3.
Controllable but not observable

4.
Not controllable and not
observable
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2. Commented [11]: X=AX+BU

Y=CX+DU

Y
3.
- = C * [ I*s - A ] * B + D
U
Solve and get.

4.

1.
Controllable
2.
uncontrollable
3.
Observable
4.unstable
1.

2.

3.

4. Commented [12]: No. of Poles = 2 [-1,-1]

No. of Zeros = 1 [-2]
No. of branches = p-z = 1
location of RL => in between -2 and -1
Centroid = 0
Breakaway point = -1
intersection with jw =+- root(3)

1.

2.
Commented [13]: Charachterstic Equation:
D2 + 3D + 2 =0
=> D=-1,-2
=> Ae^(-t)+Be^(-2t)
3. After this form Particular Integral and find gen eq.

4.
 1.

2.

3.

4.

When deriving the transfer function of a linear element 1.

Both initial conditions and
loading are taken into account
2.
Initial conditions are taken into
account but the element is
assumed to be not loaded
3.
Initial conditions are assumed to
be zero but loading is taken into
account
4.
Initial conditions are assumed to
be zero and the element is
assumed to be not loaded
 1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
2.5
2.
5.5
3.
5
4.
10 Commented [14]: Self loop: S21/(1-S22)

The relationship between an input and output variable of a 1.

signal flow graph is given by the net gain between the input and Overall gain of the system
output node is known as the overall______________ 2.
Stability
3.
Bandwidth
4.
speed
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
-1
2.
0

3.
1
4.
infinity

1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.
0 Commented [15]: lim s->0 {s*R(s)/[1+G(s)*H(s)]}
2.
300
3.
Infinity
4.
10

Which one of the following is the most likely reason for large overshoot in a 1.
control system High gain in a system
2.
Presence of dead time delay in a
system
3.
High positive correcting torque
4.
High retarding torque

1.
Mean equals the variance
If the outcomes of a discrete random variable follow a
Poisson distribution, then their______. 2.
Mean equals the standard
deviation
3.
Median equals the variance
4.
Median equals the standard
deviation
1.
0
2.
1/3
3.
1/9
4.
1
Process in which trials are statistically independent and each 1.
trial of event has only two outcomes is classified as______. Bernoulli process
2.
Bayes process
3.
Functional process
4.
Independent limited process
.1

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.
50

2.

3.

4.
20

Which of the following signal is the example for deterministic 1.

step
signal?
2.
Exponential
3.
Thermal Noise
4.
Both (a) and (b)

What is the even component of a discrete-time signal? 1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.
YES

2.
NO
3.
Information is not sufficient to
Judge
4.
Neither energy nor power
signal
What is the fundamental frequency of discrete –time 1.

wave shown in fig a?

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.
YES

2.
Some times
3.
Never
4.

1.
s
2.
1/s
3.
1
4.
Does not exist

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
Region of convergence
2.
Radius of divergence
3.
Feasible solution
4.
None of the mentioned
(radius of convergence)
1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
How does Fourier series make it easier to
represent periodic signals? Harmonically related
2.
Periodically related
3.
Sinusoidally related
4.
Exponentially related
1.
If the signal x(t) is real and odd, what will be the
Fourier series coefficients? Real and even
2.
Odd
3.
Even only
4.
real and even
 1.
What is the equation of the Fourier series
coefficient of non-periodic signal?

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
The convolution integral is given as

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

( I think ans=1st option)

3.

4.

1.
5
2.
6
3.
7
4.
11

1.

2.

3.

4.
 1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
Periodic signals are

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
2

2.
3
3.
1
4.
4

1.
1/3 Commented [16]: E= Integration -> (x(n))^2dt
2. E=Int->0.25^n
= a/(1-r)
2/3
Solve.
3.
4/3
4.
 1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
Systems with memory can be characterised by
Linear equation
2.
Differential Equation
3.
Difference Equation
4.
(b) and (c)
 1.
Which of the following is an invertible system

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.
Causal, Time invariant,
Memoryless, Linear
2.
Causal, Time variant,
Memoryless, Linear
3.
Non-causal, Time
invariant, memory, Linear
4.
Non causal, Time variant,
memoryless, Non Linear
 1.
An LTI system is said to be causal, if

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3. Commented [17]: Charachterstic Eq. = D^2+5D+6 = 0

D=-3,-2
Solve and get

4.

1.
No, cannot contain a pole
2.
Cannot contain a single
pole, but, can contain a
poles of multiple order
3.
Yes, if the poles are
complex
4.
None of the mentioned
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4. Commented [18]: Power = Summation(-N,N) |x(n)|^2

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.
Commented [19]: Laplace of exp(-at) = 1/(a+jw)

3.

4.
1.

2.
Commented [20]: I = -Inf-to-0 integral of (-1)*exp(-
jwt).dt
+
0-to-Inf integral of (1)*exp(-jwt).dt
3. Solve

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
1.

2.

3. Commented [21]: Page:2 of

http://metalab.uniten.edu.my/~zainul/images/Signals&S
ystems/lecture10b

4.

1. Commented [22]: Either 1 or 3, not sure.

2.

3.

4.
The number of layers in Internet protocol stack 1.
5

2.
6
3.
7
4.
3

This layer is an addition to OSI model when compared with 1.

TCP IP model Application layer
2.
Presentation layer
3.
Transport layer
4.
Session layer and presentation
layer
Application layer is implemented in 1.
NIC
2.
Ethernet
3.
End system
4.
None of the mentioned
The number of layers inISO OSI reference model 1.
5
2.
7
3.
6
4.
3
In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device 1.
B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is Application layer
2.
Transport layer
3.
Link layer
4.
Physical layer
In this topology there is a central controller 1.
mesh
2.
star
3.
bus
4.
ring
This topology requires multipoint connection 1.
mesh
2.
Star
3.
bus
4.
Ring

A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is 1.

called Protocol architecture
2.
Protocol stack
3.
Protocol suit
4.
None of the mentioned
Network congestion occurs 1.
when connection between any
node terminates
2.
when a system terminates
3.
when connection between two
nodes terminates
4.
in case of traffic overloading
Which one of the following extends a private network across 1.
public networks? local area network
2.
virtual private network
3.
enterprise private network
4.
storage area network
For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 1.
32
32bits, the transmission delay is (in milliseconds)
2.
3.2
3.
0.32
4.
0.24

In the transfer of file between server and client, if the 1.

transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 20Mbps
30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually 2.
40Mbps
3.
30Mbps
4.
10Mbps
If end to end delay is given by dend-end = N(dproc + dtrans + 1.
dprop) is a non congested network. The number of routers N/2
between source and destination is 2.
N
3.
N-1
4.
2N

In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and 1.

there was no earlier transmission, which of the following Propagation delay
delays could be zero 2.
Queuing delay
3.
Transmission delay
4.
Processing delay
The time required to examine the packet’s header and 1.
determine where to direct the packet is part of Propagation delay
2.
Queuing delay
3.
Transmission delay
4.
Processing delay
Which transmission media has the highest transmission 1.
speed in a network? coaxial cable
2.
Twisted pair cable
3.
Optical fibre cable
4.
UTP
Wireless transmission can be done via 1.
Radio waves
2.
microwaves
3.
Infrared waves
4.
All of the above mentioned
multiple access protocol 1.
CSMA/CD
2.
CSMA/CA
3.
CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
4.
none

Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is 1.

provided by logical link control sublayer
2.
media access control sublayer
3.
network interface control
sublayer
4.
PDU layer
Header of a frame generally contains 1.
synchronization bytes
2.
addresses
3.
frame identifier
4.
All of the above
Most packet switches use this principle 1.
Stop and wait
2.
Cut and plugin
3.
Store and forward
4.
None of the mentioned
As the resouces are reserved between two communicating 1.
end systems in circuit switching, this is achieved authentication
2.
guaranteed constant rate
3.
Store and forward
4.
Stop and wait
If there are N routers from source to destination, total end to 1.
end delay in sending packet P(L->number of bits in the N
packet R-> transmission rate) 2.
L/R
3.
(2N*L)/R
4.
(N*L)/R
The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing outgoing 1.
acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next piggybacking
outgoing data frame is called 2.
cyclic redundancy check
3.
fletcher’s checksum
4.
Haming codeword
Which one of the following task is not done by data link 1.
layer? framing
2.
error control
3.
flow control
4.
channel coding
Go back N ARQ protocol is working on Bandwidth(BW) 1.
10Mbps, Round trip time(RTT) is 50μsec and frame size 10 and 4
given 25bits then calculate window size and no.of sequence 2.
bits required? 20 and 5
3.
15 and 5
4.
15 and 4
Consider a wireless link, where the probability of packet error 1.
100
is 0.6. To transfer data across the links, Stop and Wait
protocol is used. The channel condition is assumed to be 2.
independent from transmission to transmission. The average 150

number of transmission attempts required to transfer x 3.

packets is 500. The value of x is 200 Commented [23]: P(error)=0.6
4. P(succ)=0.4
0.4*n (n=no.ofTx)
220
0.4*500 = 200

Mention the port number for HTTPs 1.

80
2.
84
3.
20
4.
88
Which of the following protocol uses loop free topology 1.
IEEE802.3a
2.
IEEE802.4d
3.
IEEE802.3c
4.
IEEE802.1d
What is the efficiency of Stop and Wait ARQ protocol, given 1.
that propagation time is 2 msec and transmission time is 2 50%
msec 2.
33%
3.
55%
4.
40%

The 4 byte IP address consists of 1.

network address
2.
host address
3.
both network address & host
address
4.
none

In virtual circuit network each packet contains 1.

full source and destination
address
2.
only source address
3.
only destination address
4.
a short VC number
Multidestination routing 1.
data is not sent by packets
2.
contains the list of all
destinations
3.
End system
4.
is same as broadcast routing
A subset of a network that includes all the routers but 1.
contains no loops is called spider structure
2.
spanning tree
3.
source routing
4.
spider tree
The network layer protocol of internet is 1.
hypertext transfer protocol
2.
ethernet
3.
internet protocol
4.
Hdlc protocol
First address in a block is used as network address that 1.
represents the Class Network
2.
Organization
3.
Codes
4.
Entity
Which of this is not a class of IP address? 1.
Class E
2.
Class A
3.
Class F
4.
ClassB
Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments? 1.
offset
2.
flag
3.
TTL
4.
Identifier
Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol? 1.
Connectionless
2.
Offer reliable service
3.
Offer unreliable service
4.
None of the mentioned
Network addresses are very important concepts of 1.
routing
2.
mask
3.
IP addressing
4.
Synchronization
If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, 1.
which subnet mask would you use? 255.255.255.252
2.
255.255.255.240
3.
255.255.255.224
4.
255.255.255.255
Which of the following is the broadcast address for a Class B 1.
network ID using the default subnet mask? 72.16.10.255
2.
255.255.255.255
3.
172.16.255.255
4.
172.255.255.255
_________ is another kind of fiber optic network with an 1.
active star for switching. S/NET
2.
SW/NET
3.
NET/SW
4.
FW/NET
You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 1.
255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0,
address, subnet address, and broadcast address? Broadcast address
172.16.13.127
2.
Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0,
Broadcast address
172.16.13.127
3.
Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0,
Broadcast address
172.16.13.255
4.
Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0,
Broadcast address
172.16.2=55.255
Mention the range of private IP address 1.
192.168.1.0
2.
127.1.12.0
3.
100.12.10.0
4.
224.200.100.0
ATM uses the 1.
asynchronous frequency
division multiplexing
2.
asynchronous time division
multiplexing
3.
asynchronous space division
multiplexing
4.
None of the mentioned
Frame relay has error detection at the 1.
data link layer
2.
physical layer
3.
network layer
4.
transport layer
ATM standard defines _______ layers. 1.
2
2.
4
3.
5
4.
3
Mention the port number for HTTP 1.
88

2.
8
3.
80
4.
888

Mention the port number for FTP 1.

25
2.
20
3.
60

4.
28

TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called 1.

segments
2.
packets
3.
frames
4.
Stack

In this topology there is a central controller or hub

In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement 1.
number field refers to Byte number
2.
Buffer number
3.
sequence number
4.
Ring number
The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines 1.
Number of previous bytes to
receive
2.
Number of next bytes to
receive
3.
Total number of bytes to
receive
4.
None of the mentioned
Default administrative distance of Static Route 1.
0
2.
2
3.
10
4.
1

Default administrative distance of RIP 1.

0
2.
120

3.
90
4.
110
Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 1.
bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What is the 10000
sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only 2.
one segment 10001
3.
100000
4.
11001

As a system administrator, you want to debug IGRP but are 1.

worried that the “debug IP IGRP transaction” command will Debug Int IGRP event
flood the console. What is the command that you should 2.
use? Debug IP IGRP events
3.
Debug IP summary
4.
debug Int IGRP- events
You are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you 1.
are runningNetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2
your router. What is the likely problem? encapsulation
2.
NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3
encapsulation
3.
NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2
encapsulation
4.
NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.3
encapsulation
Where we should use default routing 1.
Which have more than one exit
path out of the network
2.
On stub networks- which have
only one exit path out of the
network
3.
Minimum five exit paths out of
the network
4.
 Minimum four exit paths out of
the network

In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by 1.

sender
2.
all the connected devices to the
network
3.
receiver
4.
router
In cryptography, what is cipher? 1.
algorithm for performing
encryption and decryption
2.
encrypted message
3.
decrypted message
4.
None of the mentioned
What is data encryption standard 1.
block cipher
2.
bit cipher
3.
stream cipher
4.
Carvy cipher
Ethernet frame consists of 1.
IP address
2.
Port address
3.
Logical address
4.
Physical address
High speed ethernet works on 1.
coaxial cable
2.
utp
3.
optical fiber
4.
STP

Common gateway interface is used to 1.

stream videos
2.
generate executable files from
web content by web server
3.
stream audios
4.
none of the mentioned
URL stands for 1.
uniform resource locator
2.
uniform reference label
3.
unique resource locator
4.
unique reference label
IPsec is designed to provide the security at the 1.
Transport layer
2.
Network layer
3.
Access layer
4.
Session layer
Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in 1.
Browser security
2.
FTP security
3.
Email security
4.
HTTP security
The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is usually done 1.
by Bellman-ford algorithm
2.
Dijkstra’s algorithm
3.
Distance vector routing
4.
None of the mentioned
Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does 1.
an LSA wait before requiring an update? 60 minutes
2.
30 minutes
3.
40 seconds
4.
3 seconds
Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use? 1.
224.0.0.4
2.
224.0.0.7
3.
224.0.0.6
4.
224.0.0.5
Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is 1.
more than 17 hops? EIGRP
2.
RIPV1
3.
RIPV2
4.
IGRP

You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one 1.

router interface.How do you do this? Enable Novell-ether to run
multiple encapsulation types
2.
Assign two network numbers,
one for each encapsulation
type
3.
Both arpa and snap are
enabled by default so you don’t
have to configure anything
4.
The interface can handle
multiple encapsulation types
with no extra configuration
Which connector STP uses? 1.
RJ-45
2.
BNC
3.
RJ-59
4.
RJ-599
Dual-stack approach refers to 1.
Implementing Ipv4 with 2
stacks
2.
Node has both IPv4 and IPv6
support
3.
implementing Ipv6 with 2
stacks
4.
Ring stacks
IPv6 does not use _________ type of address 1.
Broadcast
2.
multicat
3.
unicast
4.
anycast

The size of IP address in IPv6 is 1.

4bytes
2.
44 bytes
3.
16bytes
4.
64 bytes
A DNS client is called 1.
DNS resolver
2.
DNS updater
3.
DNS handler
4.
None
The physical layer concerns with 1.
process to process delivery
2.
bit-by-bit delivery
3.
Node to node delivery
4.
application to application
delivery
In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer 1.
provides start and stop signalling
2.
flow control
3.
error control
4.
both start & stop signalling and
flow control
internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) has designed to 1.
compensate Error-correction
2.
Error-reporting
3.
Host and management queries
4.
All of the mentioned
Multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different 1.
carrier frequency FDM
2.
TDM
3.
WDM
4.
SDM
Data communication system spanning states, countries, or 1.
LAN
the whole world is
2.
WAN
3.
MAN
4.
GAN

The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices 1.

is called _________ Fully duplexing
2.
Both Fully duplexing and
Multiplexing
3.
Multiplexing
4.
Half duplexing
Which address identifies a process on a host? 1.
physical address
2.
Logical address
3.
IP address
4.
Port address
Which of the following is not applicable for IP? 1.
Handle addressing conventions
2.
Error reporting
3.
Packet handling
4.
Datagram format
A proxy firewall filters at? 1.
Application layer
2.
Presentation layer
3.
Transport layer
4.
Session layer and presentation
layer
If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address 1.
of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet address 172.16.255.0
of this host? 2.
172.16.0.0
3.
172.16.112.0
4.
172.16.192.0
You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with 1.
at least 16 hosts. Which classfull subnet mask would you use 255.255.255.192
2.
255.255.255.224
3.
255.255.255.240
4.
255.255.255.248

In uniform quantization process 1.

The step size remains same
2.
Step size varies according to the
values of the input signal
3.
The quantizer has linear
characteristics
4.
Both a and c are correct
The process of converting the analog sample into discrete 1.

form is called Modulation

2.
Multiplexing
3.
Quantization
4.
Sampling
The sequence of operations in which PCM is done is 1.
Sampling, quantizing, encoding
2.
Sampling, encoding, quantizing
3.
Quantizing, sampling, encoding
4.
None of the above
In Delta modulation, 1.
One bit per sample is
transmitted
2.
All the coded bits used for
sampling are transmitted
3.
The step size is fixed
4.
Both a and c are correct
In digital transmission, the modulation technique that requires 1.
minimum bandwidth is Delta modulation
2.
PCM
3.
DPCM

4.
PAM
Granular noise occurs when 1.
Step size is too small
2.
Step size is too large
3.
There is interference from the
adjacent channel
4.
Both a and b are correct
Polar coding is a technique in which 1.
1 is transmitted by a positive
pulse and 0 is transmitted by
negative pulse
2.
1 is transmitted by a positive
pulse and 0 is transmitted by
zero volts
3.
1 is transmitted by alternative
positive and negative pulse and
0 is transmitted by zero volt
4.

None of the above

Pseudo ternary signalling format is a technique in which 1.

1 is transmitted by a positive
pulse and 0 is transmitted by
negative pulse
2.
1 is transmitted by a positive
pulse and 0 is transmitted by
zero volts
3.
1 is transmitted by alternative
positive and negative pulse and
0 is transmitted by zero volt
4.
 None of the above

Orthonormal set is a set of all vectors that are 1.

Mutually orthonormal and are
of unit length
2.
Mutually orthonormal and of
null length
3.
Both a & b
4.
None of the above
In On-Off keying, the carrier signal is transmitted with signal 1.
value ‘1’ and ‘0’ indicates No carrier
2.
Half the carrier amplitude
3.
Amplitude of modulating signal
4.
All of the above
The probability of error of QPSK is ______________ than 1.

that of BPSK Higher

2.
Lower
3.
Same
4.
Equal
In Binary Phase Shift Keying system, the binary symbols 1 1.

and 0 are represented by carrier with phase shift of π/2

2.
π /4
3.
π
4.
2π
QPSK system modulates at the rate of 1.
1 bit/ symbol
2.
2 bit/ symbol
3.
3 bit/ symbol
4.
4 bit/ symbol
The binary waveform used to generate BPSK signal is 1.

encoded in Manchester coding

2.
Bipolar NRZ format
3.
Differential coding
4.
Polar NRZ format
The coherent modulation techniques are 1.
BPSK
2.
QPSK
3.
MSK
4.
All of the above
Antipodal signal sets are those vectors that can be illustrated 1.
as Two 90 opposing vector
2.
Two 180 opposing vector
3.
Two 360 opposing vector
4.
none

The data rate of QPSK is ___________ of BPSK. 1.

Thrice
2.
Four times
3.
Twice
4.
Same
QPSK system uses a phase shift of 1.
π/2
2.
π /4
3.
π
4.
π /8
The maximum bandwidth is occupied by 1.
BASK
2.
BPSK
3.
BFSK
4.
All of the above
The technique that may be used to reduce the side band power 1.
is MSK
2.
BPSK
3.
Gaussian minimum shift keying
4.
BFSK
In Alternate Mark Inversion (AMI) is 1.
0 is encoded as positive pulse
and 1 is encoded as negative
pulse
2.
0 is encoded as no pulse and 1
is encoded as negative pulse
3.
0 is encoded as negative pulse
and 1 is encoded as positive
pulse
4.
0 is encoded as no pulse and 1
is encoded as positive or
negative pulse
TDMA is a multiple access technique that has 1.
Different users in different time
slots
2.
Each user is assigned unique
frequency slots
3.
Each user is assigned a unique
code sequence
4.
Each signal is modulated with
frequency modulation
technique
TDMA allows the user to have 1.
Use of same frequency channel
for same time slot
2.
Use of same frequency channel
for different time slot
3.
Use of same time slot for
different frequency channel
4.
Use of different time slot for
different frequency channels
The number of bits of data transmitted per second is called 1.
Data signaling rate
2.
Modulation rate
3.
Coding
4.
All of the above
The signals which are obtained by encoding each quantized 1.

signal into a digital word is called as PAM signal

2.
PCM signal
3.
PPM signal
4.
DM

Quantization noise can be reduced by ________ the number 1.

of levels Increasing
2.
Decreasing
3.
Doubling
4.
unchanged
In PCM encoding, quantization level varies as a function of 1.

________ Frequency
2.
Amplitude
3.
Square of frequency
4.
Square of amplitude
Which is better for avoiding jamming? 1.
Direct sequence spread
spectrum
2.
Frequency hopping spread
spectrum
3.
Time hopping spread spectrum
4.
none

CDMA rejects 1.
Narrow band interference
2.
Wide band interference
3.
Narrow & Wide band
interference
4.
None of the mentioned
CDMA uses 1.
Hard hand off
2.
Soft hand off
3.
Hard & Soft hand off
4.
None of the mentioned
The properties used for pseudorandom sequence are 1.
Balance
2.
Run
3.
Correlation
4.
All of the mentioned

If the initial pulse of 1000 is fed to shift register, after how 1.

14
many clock pulses does the sequence repeat?
2.
15
3.
16

4.
17

For maximal length sequence, the sequence repetition clock 1.

pulses p is given by 2n-1

2.
2n+1
3.
2n
4.
2n-1
Which system makes the detection difficult for all users other 1.
than the intended users? Low probability of intercept
2.
Low probability of detection
3.
Low probability of intercept &
detection
4.
None of the above
FSK reception is 1.
Phase Coherent
2.
Phase Non Coherent
3.
Phase Coherent & non coherent
4.
None of the above
Matched filter is a _____ technique. 1.
Modulation
2.
Demodulation
3.
Modulation & Demodulation
4.
None of the above
Which is called as on-off keying? 1.
Amplitude shift keying
2.
Frequency shift keying
3.
Unipolar format
4.
Bipolar Format
QAM uses ______ as the dimensions. 1.
In phase
2.
Quadrature
3.
In phase & Quadrature
4.
biphase
Which has least probability of error 1.
BPSK
2.
BFSK
3.
BASK
4.
QPSK
signal which has gentle shift from one frequency level to 1.

another is called as ASK

2.
PSK
3.
FSK
4.
QPSK

The term heterodyning refers to 1.

Frequency conversion
2.
Frequency mixing
3.
Frequency conversion &
mixing
4.
None of the above
Uniform quantizer is also known as 1.
Low rise type
2.
Mid rise type
3.
High rise type
4.
None of the mentioned
1 bit quantizer is a 1.
Hard limiter
2.
Two level comparator
3.
Hard limiter & Two level
comparator
4.
None of the mentioned
Which helps in maintaining the step size? 1.
DPCM
2.
PCM
3.
delta modulation
4.
Adaptive delta modulation
If step size is increased _____ occurs. 1.
Slope overload distortion
2.
Granular noise
3.
Both of the mentioned
4.
None of the mentioned
The primary communication resource is 1.
Transmitted power
2.
Received power
3.
Efficiency
4.
None of the mentioned
The process of data conversion along with formatting the data 1.
is called as ______ Formatting
2.
Modulation
3.
Source coding
4.
Amplifying
The point at which the output signal power has fallen to 0.707 1.
of its peak value is called as _____ 3db point
2.
Half power point
3.
Both of the mentioned
4.
None of the mentioned
The measure of width of the main lobe is called as ________ 1.
Null to null bandwidth
2.
Half power bandwidth
3.
Normalized bandwidth
4.
Absolute bandwidth
SQNR can be improved by _______ sampling rate. 1.
Increasing
2.
Decreasing
3.
Does not depend
4.
None of the mentioned
The modulating frequency in frequency modulation is 1.
increased from 10 kHz to 20 kHz. The bandwidth is Doubled
2.
Halved
3.
Increased by 20 kHz
4.
Increase tremendously
A sinusoidal 400 Hz modulating signal of 2V amplitude 1.
frequency modulates a carrier and produces 70 kHz 140 kHz/V
frequency deviation. The frequency sensitivity is given 2.
110 kHz/V
3.
72 kHz/V
4.
35 kHz/V Commented [24]: Delta_f = kf*Ac
70=kf*2
In a double side-band (DSB) full carrier AM transmission 1.
1
system, if the modulation index is doubled, then what is the
factor that the ratio of total sideband power to the carrier 2.
power increases? 2
3.
4
4.
3

The maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is 1.

25%
2.
15%
3.
33%
4.
95%
A 4 GHz carrier is DSB-SC modulated by a low-pass 1.
message signal with maximum frequency of 2 MHz. The 4 MHz
resultant signal is to be ideally sampled. The minimum 2.
frequency of the sampling impulse train should be 8 MHz
3.
8 GHz
4.
8.004 GHz
Which of the following is true about the AM and FM systems? 1.
BW of FM < BW of AM; power
FM > power AM; noise FM <
noise AM
2.
BW of FM < BW of AM; power
FM < power AM; noise FM <
noise AM
3.
BW of FM > BW of AM; power
FM < power AM; noise FM <
noise AM
4.
BW of FM < BW of AM; power
FM > power AM; noise FM >
noise AM
With respect to the envelopes of the AM and FM signal, 1.
which of the following is true Both are of constant amplitude
2.
Both vary according to the
shape of the message signal
3.
Envelope of AM is constant,
FM is variable
4.
Envelope of AM varies and FM
envelope is constant
An FM station is operating at 100 MHz. Maximum frequency 1.
deviation is 75 kHz. If the highest modulating frequency is 10, 180kHz
limited to 15 kHz, find the modulation index and approximate 2.
bandwidth required by the system 5, 150kHz
3.
5, 180kHz
4.
10, 150kHz
In an FM system the deviation is 4 kHz where the modulating 1.
voltage is 3 V and modulating frequency is 400 Hz. If the remains the same
modulating frequency is increased to 1000 Hz and its 2.
amplitude to 5 V, then the modulation index will: increase
3.
decrease Commented [25]: mod_index=(freq_deviation)/(modul
ating freq)
4.
be indeterminate
The band width of the signal is:t(103π+200 cos 2t108 π) = 10 1.
cos [2t(xThe angle modulated signal is given by 200 kHz
2.
400 kHz
3.
600 kHz
4.
800 kHz
The maximum frequency deviation for the signal xc(t) = 10 1.
cos [1010 πt+10sin 2π(104t)] 600 kHz Commented [26]: Max. freq. deviation
2.
160 kHz
3.
60 kHz
4.
100 kHz
In commercial TV transmission in India, picture and speech 1.
signals are modulated respectively VSB and VSB
2.
VSB and SSB
3.
VSB and FM
4.
FM and VSB
If a carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is 1.
suppressed, the percentage power saving will be: 166.66
2.
36.66
3.
6.66
4.
66.66
The choice of the product RC in a simple envelope detector 1.
using a diode and an RC circuit is governed by both the lowest and the highest
modulation frequencies
2.
the depth of modulation and the
lowest modulation frequency
3.
the highest modulation
frequency and the depth of
modulation
4.
the carrier frequency
When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation 1.
index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains amplitude modulation
constant. The modulation system is 2.
phase modulation
3.
frequency modulation
4.
none
One of the following methods cannot be used to remove the 1.
unwanted sidebands in SSB, that is: filter system
2.
phase shift method
3.
third method
4.
balanced modulator
If the amplitude of the modulating signal applied to a phase 1.
Zero
modulator is constant, the output signal will be
2.
Above the carrier frequency
3.
The carrier frequency
4.
Below the carrier frequency

An FM wave uses a 2 – 5V amplitude and 1500Hz 1.

modulating frequency and has a modulation index of 10. 2500Hz
What is the frequency sensitivity when the amplitude of 2.
message is maximum? 500Hz
3.
50000Hz
4.
5000Hz
A FM signal has a carrier swing of 100 kHz when the 1.
modulating signal has a frequency of 8 kHz. The modulation 22.5
index is 2.
12.5
3.
7.5
4.
15.5
A carrier is frequency modulated with a sinusoidal signal of 8 1.
kHz, resulting in a maximum deviation of 20 kHz. If amplitude 320 kHz
of modulating sinusoid is increased by a factor 3 and its 2.
frequency is lowered to 1 kHz. The bandwidth of new 3.2 kHz
modulated signal is: 3.
32 kHz
4.
3200 kHz
Information rate basically gives an idea about the generated 1.
information per _____ by source. Second
2.
Minute
3.
Hour
4.
Year
If a noiseless channel bandlimited to 5 kHz is sampled every 1.
1msec, what will be the value of sampling frequency? 10 samples/sec
2.
10000 samples/sec
3.
100 samples/sec
4.
1000 samples/sec
Symbols 1 and 0 are represented by pulse of equal positive 1.
and negative amplitudes is called as NRZ- Polar
2.
RZ- Polar
3.
UNRZ- BiPolar
4.
RZ- Unipolar
Step size can be made smaller for smaller signals and larger 1.
PCM
for larger signals
2.
DPCM
3.
DM
4.
ADM

The output is zero for zero input, and the idle channel noise 1.
is correspondingly Zero Mid-tread
2.
Mid-riser
3.
Non Uniform
4.
Uniform

Which one of the following is used to detect the unknown 1.

16-PSK
signal
2.
PSK
3.
QPSK
4.
DPSK
QPSK requires ----------------transmission bandwidth of the 1.
BPSK ¼
2.
½
3.
1/3
4.
Twice
The Nyquist sampling rate for a signal band limited 5 kHz is 1.
100 kHz
2.
10 kHz
3.
2.5 kHz
4.
12.5 kHz
The peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the 1.
same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency PSK
2.
FSK
3.
ASK
4.
QPSK

Which of the following is the main advantage of PCM system 1.

Lower power
2.
Lower Bandwidth
3.
Lower noise
4.
High power
The constellation diagram of QPSK has 1.
2

2.
1
3.
8
4.
4

Which modulation technique transmits at higher data rate 1.

BPSK
2.
QPSK
3.
16 – PSK
4.
32 – PSK
How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK 1.
2
2.
1
3.
3
4.
4

Find the value of Quantization noise in Watts, in a Pulse code 1.

modulation system when a signal of 0-16 volts amplitude is 1/2 Commented [27]: sigma = V/(2^(bits-1) * root(12))
quantized using 3-bit quantization. 2.
1/3
3.
1/4
4.
1/5
Suppose we sample a signal at frequency Fs. If we collect 1.
300
1500 samples in 5 seconds, what is Fs in Hz?
2.
400
3.
500 Commented [28]: Sampling frequency =
4. No.OfSamples/Second
200

Typical human voice is centred around 1.

1400-6000Hz
2.
400-600Hz
3.
280-3000Hz
4.
1400-1800Hz
A signal has frequency components from 300 Hz to 1.8 KHz. 1.
The minimum possible rate at which the signal has to be 3600 samples
sampled is --- 2.
36000 samples
3.
360 samples
4.
36 samples
The pulse rate in Delta modulation (DM) system is 50,000 per 1.
sec. The input signal is 5cos (5000t) + 10 cos (2000t). The 0.4
minimum value of step size to avoid slop overload distortion. 2.
0.5
3.
0.44
4.
0.9
The process of converting the analog sample into discrete 1.
form is called Modulation
2.
Multiplexing
3.
Quantization
4.
Sampling
In PCM, the parameter varied in accordance with the 1.
Phase
amplitude of the modulating signal is
2.
Amplitude
3.
Frequency
4.
None

In which kind of waveform is the phase velocity defined 1.

Sinusoidal
2.
Rectangular
3.
Square
4.
Triangular
Under which conditions of charge does the radiation occur 1.
through wire antenna? For a charge with no motion
2.
For a charge moving with
uniform velocity with finite
straight wire
3.
For a charge oscillating in time
motion
4.
For a charge moving with
uniform velocity in infinite wire
Which antennas are renowned as patch antennas 1.
especially adopted for space craft applications? Aperture
2.
Microstrip
3.
Array
4.
Lens
If a half-wave dipole operates at 300 MHz with λ = 0.5m & 1.
D0 = 1.643, what will be its effective area? 0.032 m2
2.
0.047 m2
3.
0.057 m2
4.
0.067 m2
If the radius of loop is λ/ 20 in a free space medium, what 1.
will be the radiation resistance of 8-turn small circular 0.7883 Ω
loop? 2.
1203.17 Ω
3.
123.17 Ω
4.
223.17 Ω
What determines polarisation of antenna? 1.
The frequency of radiated wave
2.
The direction of magnetic field
vector
3.
The direction of magnetic field
vector
4.
The direction of electric field
vector
For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface 1.
conductivity, less is the __________ Attenuation
2.
Phase velocity
3.
Propagation constant
4.
Tilt angle
For a Hertz dipole antenna, the half power beam width 1.

(HPBW) in the E – plane is 190°

2.
90°
3.
180°
4.
45°
A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the 1.

radiation resistance 2 Ω. What would be the power 1800 kW

radiated by an antenna? 2.
190 kW
3.
180 kW
4.
1180 kW
If the maximum electron density for F-layer in ionosphere 1.
is 4 x 106electrons/cm3, then what will be the critical 180 MHz
frequency of EM wave for F-layer? 2.
1.8 MHz
3.
18 MHz
4.
18 GHz
If the path difference of two waves with single source 1.

traveling by different paths to arrive at the same point, is β x (λ/2)

λ/2, what would be the phase difference between them? 2.
β / (λ/2)
3.
β + (λ/2)
4.
β – (λ/2)
A rectangular horn antenna operating at 4GHz has the 1.
wavelength of 0.075m and gain of about 13dBi. What will 0.0149 m2
be its required capture area? 2.
0.1149 m2
3.
0.2149 m2
4.
0.4149 m2
Mention the range for C band 1.4-8 MHz
2.4-8 THz
3.4-8 GHz
4.2-4 MHZ

Which among the following is regarded as a condition of 1.

alpha lessthan beta*d
an ordinary endfire array?
2.
alpha greaterthan beta*d
3.
alpha equal to beta*d
4.
none of the above

For M equally likely messages, M>>1, if the rate of 1.

information R > C, the probability of erroris Arbitrarily small

2.
Close to unity
3.
Not predictable
4.
Arbitrarily large
A communication channel with AWGN operating at1.
C2=2C1
a signal at a signal to noise ratio SNR ≫1 and
2.
bandwidth B has capacity C1. If the SNR is C2=C1+B
doubled keeping B constant the resulting capacity3.
C2 is given by C2=C1+2B
4.
C2=C1+3B

Which of the following is reverseable and lossless 1.

compression technique Huffman Encoding

2.
JPEG Encoding
3.
Run Length Encoding
4.
Both a and b
The second derivative of the Entropy function, for its 1.

maximum is Equal to zero

2.
Greater than or equal to zero
3.
Less than zero
4.
None of the above
Lempel-Ziv algorithm is 1.
Variable to fixed length
algorithm
2.
Fixed to variable length
algorithm
3.
Fixed to fixed length algorithm
4.
Variable to variable length
algorithm
The rate of a block code is the ratio of 1.
Block length to message length
2.
Message length to block length
3.
Message weight to block length
4.
None of the above
The number of non-zero elements in the code-word is 1.

called as Size of the code-word

2.
Weight of the code-word
3.
Distance of the code-word
4.
Subspace of the code-word

Turbo codes are 1.

Forward error correction code
2.
Backward error correction code
3.
Error detection code
4.
Hamming code
Find the degree of (7,4) cyclic code 1.
2
2.
3
3.
4
4.
7
The capacity of a band-limited additive white 1.1.44
Gaussian (AWGN) channel is given by C= W log (1+ 2.1.144
p/σ2 W)bits per second(bps), where is the channel 3.0.44
bandwidth, P is the average power received and σ2 4.1.494
is the one-sided power spectral density of the
AWGN. For a fixed the channel capacity (in kbps)
with infinite bandwidth (𝑊→∞) is approximately

1.a3a2a3a1a3a2a1a2a1
Decode a Huffman encoded bit stream 2.a3a2a1a4a3a2a1a3a1
1001101111001100110 which follows the codes 3.a3a2a1a3a2a1a2a1
assignment as a1=110, a2=0, a3=10, a4=111.. The 4.a3a2a1a4a3a2a1a2a1
sequence of symbols is

If the receiver knows the message being transmitted, then 1.

1
amount of information is
2.
0
3.
0.5

4.
0.44

Which one of the following is not true for Huffman 1.

coding? No code word of an elementary

symbol is a prefix of another
elementary symbol.
2.
Each symbol has a one-to-one
mapping with its corresponding
codeword.
3.
The symbols are encoded as a
group, rather than encoding one
symbol at a time.
4.
Shorter code words are
assigned to more probable
symbols
Entropy of a source of symbols is dependent upon 1.
The number of source output
generated
2.
The average code-word length
3.
The probabilities of the source
symbol
4.
The order in which the source
outputs are generated
Which of the following must be ensured before assigning 1.
binary Huffman codes to a set of symbols? The channel is noiseless
2.
There must be exactly n
symbols to encode
3.
No two symbols should have
same probability
4.
The probabilities of the
symbols should be known a
priori
Which of the following is a high capacity switch, thus provides 1.
handover, cell configuration data, and control of radio frequency VLR
power levels 2.
BSC
3.
EIR
4.
HLR
The most important revolutionary step of GMS towards UMTS is 1.
HSPA
2.
W-CDMA
3.
EDGE
4.
GPRS
 1.
In GSM, the rate of voice transmission over TCH/F is 119.6 kbps
2.
19.6 kbps
3.
90.6 kbps
4.
9.6 kbps
In which domain separation is inversely proportional to the speed of 1.
the mobile station Time
2.
Frequency
3.
Space
4.
Angle
1.
Larger cells are more useful in
Lightly populated urban area

2.
Rural areas
3.
Densely populated urban areas
4.
Hilly areas

The propagation model that estimates radio coverage of a 1.

a) Large scale propagation model
transmitter is called as

2.
Small scale propagation model
3.
Fading model
4.
Okumura model
Which of the following do not undergo free space propagation? 1.
Satellite communication system

2.
Microwave line of sight radio links
3.
Wireless line of sight radio links

4.
Wired telephone systems

The free space model predicts that received signal decays as a 1.

function of Gain of transmitter antenna
2.
Transmitter-Receiver (T-R)
separation
3.
Power of transmitter antenna
4.
Effective aperture of the antenna
Free space propagation model is to predicts the 1.
Received signal strength
2.
Transmitted power
3.
Gain of transmitter

4.
Gain of receiver
Which leads to time dispersion and frequency selective fading? 1.
Doppler spread
2.
Multipath delay spread
3.
Time dispersive parameters
4.
Frequency delay spread
Flat fading channel is also known as 1.
Amplitude varying channel
2.
Wideband channel
3.
Phase varying channel
4.
Frequency varying channel
For fast fading channel, the coherence time of the channel is 1.
smaller than _______ of transmitted signal Doppler spread
2.
Bandwidth
3.
Symbol period
4.
Coherence bandwidth
How many users or voice channels are supported for each 200 KHz 1.
8
channel in GSM?
2.
12

3.
15
4.
16
Interference on voice channels causes 1.
Blocked calls
2.
Cross talk
3.
Queuing
4.
Missed calls
Adjacent channel interference occurs due to 1.
Power transmitted by Base station
2.
MSCs
3.
Same frequency of mobile users
4.
Imperfect receiver filters

ISM stands for 1.

Industrial
scientific
medical 2.
Industrial
social
mechanical 3.
Industrial scientific
mechanical 4.
Industrial social
medical
ISM band frequency is used by 1.
Bluetooth
2.
WiFi
3.
Zigbee

4.
All
________ is an application layer protocol for resource 1.
MQTT
constrained devices.
2.
CoAP
3.
HTTP
4.
TCP/IP

IPv6 has a larger address space of 1.

16
2.
128
3.
132

4.
256

Microphone is 1.
sensor
2.
Actuator
3.
Both
4.
None

Camera in Smartphone is 1.
Sensor
2.
Edge Device
3.
Processor
4.
None
IoT includes 1.
cloud

2.
edge
3.
sensor
4.
all

_______ enables seamless integration of LoWPAN devices 1.

with internet leveraging. IETF 6LoWPAN

2.IEFT CoAP
3.
RFID
4.
IEEE 802.5

________ enables open application layer for constrained 1.

nodes. IETF 6LoWPAN

2.
IETF CoAP
3.
RFID/NFC
4.
IEEE 802.15.4.LoWPAN
________ specifications define the PHY and MAC layer of 1.

low power devices IETF 6LoWPAN

2.
IEFT CoAP
3.
RFID/NFC
4.
IEEE 802.15.4.LoWPAN
6LoWPAN Adaption layer contains 1.
Header compression
2.
Fragmentation
3.
Header compression,
Fragmentation, and Layer 2
forwarding
4.
Layer 2 forwarding
Dotted-decimal notation of 10000001 00001011 00001011 1.

11101111 193.131.27.255
2.
129.11.11.239
3.
192.168.10.9
4.
172.16.11.3
In 6LOWPAN header compression , which field can’t be 1.

compressible Traffic class

2.
Flow label
3.
Hop Limit
4.
Destination address

Which protocol is used to link all the devices in the IoT 1.

TCP/IP

2.
HTTP
3.
UDP
4.
FTP
ETSI standards are for 1.
Machine to machine
communication
2.
Machine to human
communication
3.
Networking standards
4.
Optical standards

___________ is necessary when the sender wants to use IPv6, 1.

but the receiver does not understand IPv6. Dual stack
2.
Header translation
3.
Conversion
4.
Tunnelling
IP Sec is designed to provide the security at the 1.
transport layer
2.
network layer
3.
application layer
4.
session layer

When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information 1.

from a host that has no authority of giving that information, DNS lookup
then it is called 2.
DNS hijacking
3.
DNS Spoofing
4.
None of the mentioned
The size of IP address in IPv6 is 1.
4 bytes
2.
128 bits
3.
8 bytes
4.
100 bits

RAD stands for 1.

Relative Application
Development
2.
Rapid Application
Development
3.
Relative AutoML Document
4.
None of the mentioned
SDLC for a DevOP is 1.
Software Development Life
Cycle
2.
System Development Life cycle
3.
Software Design Life Cycle
4.
System Design Life Cycle
Submit a product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost 1.
Waterfall
barriers, which model would you select?
2.
spiral
3.
RAD
4.
Incremental
Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the 1.
spiral
development team have less experience on similar projects?
2.
waterfall
3.
RAD
4.
Iterative

Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early 1.Waterfall & RAD
in the cycle? 2.
Prototype & spiral
3.
Prototype & RAD
4.
Waterfall & spiral

A company is developing an advance version of their current 1.

RAD
software , what model approach would they prefer
2.
Iterative
3.
spiral
4.
waterfall

Activity and sequence diagram are 1.

behavior diagarm

2.
structural diagram
3.
Flowchart
4.
state chart
The order of events in a sequence diagram is determined by 1.
order of events

2.
sequence number
3.
position of events
4.
all of the above

UML stands for 1.

Unified Machine Learning
2.
Union Modelling and Learning
3.
Unified Modelling Language

4.
Un-supervised machine learning

Generalization in use case diagram is 1.

Inheritance of a class
2.
Actor in use case
3.
State in use case
4.
None of the above
_________ allows us to control electronic components 1.
API
2.
HTTP
3.
UDP
4.
TCP
MQTT stands for _____________ 1.
MQ Telemetry Things
2.
MQ Telemetry Transport
3.
MQ Transport Things
4.
MQ Telemetry Transmisssion
Standard port number for secure MQTT is 1.
8883
2.
8088
3.
8888
4.
1888

Terms SSL stand for 1.

Session socket layer
2.
Secure socket layer
3.
Standard socket layer
4.
Socket session layer
Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology 1.
BLE
2.
HTTP Commented [29]: HTTP is a web-Application Layer
protocol
3.
ISM
4.
TCP
TLS stand for 1.
Transport Layer Session
2.
Transport Level Session
3.
Transport Layer Session
4.
Transport Layer Security
Where should the computer be connected to join with internet 1.
ISP
2.
Processor
3.
Device
4.
Peripherals

Which transport layer protocols is used by DHCP 1.

RSVP
2.
DCCP
3.
TCP
4.
UDP

Which layer is called a port layer in OSI model 1.

Transport
2.
session
3.
application
4.
all
What is a firewall in computer network 1.
system designed to prevent
unauthorized access
2.
web browser
3.
physical boundary of network
4.
Network Operating System
Router operate at ............ layer of OSI reference model 1.
Data link
2.
Network
3.
Physical
4.
Transport

What is Secure Shell (SSH) 1.

router
2.
Firewall
3.
Protocol
4.
Python shell

What is Inter Integrated Communication(I2C) 1.

application layer protocol
2.
networking communication
protocol for multi-master
support
3.
OS for distributed network
communication
4.
cellular communication
protocol
What does LTE stand for 1.
Long Term Errors
2.
Long Term Evolution
3.
Lengthy Terminal Estimation
4.
Long Term Estimates
Which one out of these is not LPWAN technologies 1.
SigFox

2.
WiFi
3.
LoRA
4.
NB-IoT

________ involves predicting a response with meaningful 1.

magnitude, such as quantity sold, stock price, or return on Summarization

2.
investment.
Clustering
3.
All of the above

4.
Regression

The method by which companies analyse customer data is 1.

referred to as Customer management

2.
Data mining
3.
Data digging
4.
All
Which one of this is not a networking device 1.
Router

2.
Switch
3.
Bridge
4.
Traffic Analyzer

What is the standard length of MAC address: 1.

16 Bits
2.
32 Bits
3.
48 Bits

4.
64 Bits

Which of the following language is preferred for IoT 1.

Python
analytics ?
2.
S
3.
R
4.
All

Which one is simplest form of analytics 1.

Predictive
2.
Descriptive
3.
All of the above mentioned
4.
Prescriptive
A collection of lines that connects several devices is called 1.
Bus
..............
2.
Driver
3.
Cable
4.
Transmission line

HTTP resources are located by 1.

unique resource locator
2.
unique resource identifier
3.
none of the mentioned
4.
uniform resource locator
A Denial of Service attack is: 1.Connection flooding
2.Bandwidth flooding
3.All of the mentioned
4.Vulnerability attack

IPSec provides security at 1.

Physical layer
2.
Network layer
3.
Session Layer
4.
Transport layer
Raspbian is 1.
OS
2.
Compiler
3.
Language
4.
Assembler
MQTT is 1.
client-server architecture
2.
publish-subscribe architecture
3.
ARM architecture
4.
Cloud architecture
Which cloud service has the highest level of security 1.
SAAS

2.
PAAS
3.
All
4.
IAAS

AWS Lambda Service is 1.

Virtual machine
2.
Serverless computing
3.
Bigdata

4.
Application

Which service of AWS provides granular permissions 1.

Bigdata
2.
AWS IAM
3.
Console
4.
Database
Map reduce algorithm is for 1.
sensors

2.
Network
3.
WiFi
4.
Bigdata

How is memory accessed in RISC architecture? 1.

load and store instruction
2.
opcode instruction
3.
memory instruction
4.
bus instruction
1.

Which of the shared bus between the

following program memory and data
statements are memory
true for von 2.
Neumann separate bus between the
architecture? program memory and data
memory
3.
external bus for program
memory and data memory
4.
external bus for data memory
only
1.

What content-addressable memory

is 2.
CAM complex addressable memory
? 3.
computing addressable
memory
4.
 concurrently addressable
memory

Who coined the term RISC? 1.

David Patterson
2.
von Neumann
3.
Michael J Flynn
4.
Harvard
Which of the following enables the user to utilize the system efficiently? 1.
kernel
2.
operating system
3.
software
4.
hardware
What is the first stage of the compilation process? 1.
pre-processing
2.
post-processing
3.
compilation
4.
linking
Which file is converted to an object file? 1.
hex file
2.
decoded file
3.
coded file
4.
assembly file
Which one of the following offers CPUs as integrated 1.

memory or peripheral interfaces? Microcontroller

2.
Microprocessor
3.
Embedded system
4.
Memory system
Main approaches for development during edit-test-debug 1.
cycle are in sequence of (i) Use an IDE or prototype tool ii, i, iv and vii
(ii) use RTOS (iii) Uses a simulator without any hardware 2.
(iv) use emulator (v) Uses processor only at the target i, iii, v and vii
system and uses an in-between ICE (In-Circuit-Emulator) 3.
(vi) use locator (vii) Use target system at last stage (viii) viii, i, iii and v
Use target system at first stage. 4.
ii, vi, i and iii
1.

I An on-line bus ticketing

d system
e 2.
n
t Printing of annual report of a
i company’s annual report Commented [30]: Q.> Identify which of these are real-
f time applications scenarios.
3. Ans: http://www.waseian.com/2018/05/real-time-
y
Reconciling a day’s operating-systems-multiple.html

w transactions in an account
h book of a small company
i
4.
c
h An aircrafts’ yaw control
o system
f
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s
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e

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Which characteristics involve the facility the thing to 1.

respond in an intelligent way to a particular situation? Intelligence

2.
Connectivity
3.
Dynamic Nature
4.
Enormous Scale
________ empowers IoT by bringing together everyday 1.

objects Intelligence
2.
Connectivity
3.
Dynamic Nature
4.
Enormous Scale
The collection of data is achieved with ________ changes. 1.
Intelligence
2.
Connectivity
3.
Dynamic Nature
4.
Enormous Scale
The number of devices that need to be managed and that 1.
communicate with each other will be much larger. Intelligence
2.
Connectivity
3.
Dynamic Nature
4.
Enormous Scale
________ Provide the means to create capability 1.

that reflects true awareness of the physical world Sensors

and people. 2.
Heterogeneity
3.
Security
4.
Connectivity
________ in IoT as one of the key characteristics, devices 1.
have different hardware platforms and networks. Sensors
2.
Heterogeneity
3.
Security
4.
Connectivity
IoT devices are naturally vulnerable to ________ threats. 1.
Sensors
2.
Heterogeneity
3.
Security
4.
Connectivity
Which challenge comes under IoT devices, reliable 1.

bidirectional signalling. Signalling

2.
Security
3.
Presence detection
4.
Power consumption
 1.

Whi Signalling
2.
Security
3.
Presence detection
4.
Power consumption
1.

_ Signalling
_ 2.
_ Security
_ 3.
_ Presence detection Commented [31]: Q.> ______ gives an exact, up to
the second state of all devices on a network
_ 4. Ans: https://www.sanfoundry.com/iot-questions-
_ Power consumption answers-online-quiz/
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Which challenge comes when we use many devices on the 1.
same network? Signalling
2.
Security
3.
Presence detection
4.
Power consumption
________ a cellular network is expensive, especially with 1.

many IoT devices. Signalling

2.
Security
3.
Bandwidth
4.
Power consumption
Which of the following issues are considered in IoT? 1.

Secur
ity
Issue

2.
Reliablity Issue
3.
Standard Issue
4.
All issues
IoT is a paradigm that involves ubiquitous presence in the 1.
environment. True
2.
False
3.
Partially true
4.
No idea
The availability of ________ is the cloud services provider 1.
who will host video and data for end users. Devices
2.
Memory
3.
Security system
4.
Objects

With physical security, the stakes are incredibly 1.

Very high
2.
Low
3.
Very low
4.
High
Issue with connecting to data stored have anything to do 1.
True
with data centers.
2.
False
3.
Partially true
4.
No idea

The most likely culprit is ________ 1.

Things
2.
Device
3.
Network
4.
Internet connectivity
 1.

_ Physical walls
_ 2.
_ Logical firewalls
_ 3.
_ Both Physical and logical
_ 4.
_ Neither physical nor logical
_
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r
s
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Communication between ________ and ________ is 1.

encrypted for security. Cloud and device

2.
End user and data center
3.
Network and device
4.
Cloud and Network
________ phase starts with the construction of spanning 1.

tree for ordinary routing information. Initialization

2.
Message Relaying
3.
Selective recovery
4.
Lost message detection
In which phase packets are forwarded hop by hop to get 1.

closer to the sink? Initialization

2.
Message Relaying
3.
Selective recovery
4.
Lost message detection
________ is achieved using over hearing mechanism. 1.
Initialization
2.
Message Relaying
3.
Selective recovery
4.
Lost message detection
What is the last step in algorithm for reliable data 1.

transfer? Initialization
2.
Message Relaying
3.
Selective recovery
4.
Lost message detection
IIOT stands for? 1.
Industrial Internet of Things
2.
Internet Internet of Things
3.
Intelligence Internet of
Things
4.
Internal Internet of Things
IIoT is sophisticated? 1.
True
2.
False
3.
Partially true
4.
No idea
What does design provide? 1.
Technology
2.
Ecosystem
3.
Technology and ecosystem
4.
Digital revolution
Which possibility ensures load balancing and peak 1.

levelling of energy consumption? Transportation and logistics

2.
Energy and utilities
3.
Automotive
4.
Connected supply chain
Which possibility automatically communicates 1.
Transportation and logistics
2.
Energy and utilities
3.
Automotive
4.
Connected supply chain
Which possibility connects the production line to 1.

suppliers? Transportation and logistics

2.
Energy and utilities
3.
Automotive
4.
Connected supply chain
Which possibility provides inter connectivity between 1.

shop floor and top floor? Transportation and logistics

2.
Energy and utilities
3.
Plant control flow operation
4.
Connected supply chain
Which possibility is the highest contributor to cost 1.

overhead for manufacturing facilities? Transportation and logistics

2.
Energy and utilities
3.
Plant control flow operation
4.
Energy management and
resource optimization
The Number of elemens in open IoT architecture? 1.
6 elements
2.
8 elements
3.
7 elements
4.
3 elements
Gloal Sensor network is built for? 1.
Reducing cost and time for
development
2.
Reducing cost and increasing
time for development
3.
Increasing cost and increasing
time for development
4.
Increasing cost and
decreasing time for
development
Internet of Things needs a lot of network connection. 1.

What is the proposed “white Space” radio standard Bluetooth

called? 2.
WiMAX
3.
Weightless
4.
Zigbee
What is the sensor/protocol used in GSN? 1.
HTTP protocol
2.
CoAP protocol
3.
MQTT protocol
4.
XMPP protocol
Open IoT ontology is extending the W3C SSN ontology 1.

which supports the description of the physical and True

processing structure of sensors. 2.
False
3.
Partially true
4.
No idea

Which environment does Global Sensor Network work 1.C++

2.
on? Java
3.
HTML
4.
C
_________ provides a middleware and application 1.

container for IoT gateway. Eclipse Kura

2.
Red Hat
3.
Inter cloud
4.
Bot 2 Bot
What happens when service providers change their 1.

operating system and communication protocols? Inoperability and complexity

arises
2.
Only complexity arises
3.
Only In-operability arises
4.
Nothing arises
API enables services portability between ____________ 1.
Systems
2.
Devices
3.
Networks
4.
Services
API architecture not only includes critical elements but 1.

also caters for _________ System

2.
Devices
3.
Network
4.
Multi homing
All portals are embedded into a single supercomputer, 1.
Network
known as _________
2.
Web
3.
Internet
4.
system

Web is a mesh of computers, so too is _________ 1.

IoT
2.
Bigdata
3.
Cloud

4.
Internet

Without _________ computers embedded in house keys 1.

Data
are worthless.
2.
Services
3.
Both data and services
4.
Neither data nor services

_________ Services are the way in which the IoT is 1.

connected to data. Cloud

2.
Big data
3.
Internet
4.
Network
_________ are the inter connectors. 1.
web

2.
internet
3.
network
4.
API

1.

W Store data
h 2.
a Manage data
t 3.
Collect data
i
s 4.

t Security
h
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o
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 r
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o
f
I
o
T
?

What is the role of Bigdata in smart grid architecture of 1.

IoT? Store data

2.
Manage data
3.
Collect data
4.
security

A temperature sensitive transducer when subjected to sudden 1.

temperature change takes 9 seconds to reach equilibrium 2 sec and 1.06 sec respectively
conditions (3 time constants). Calculate the time constant and 2.
the time taken by the transducer to read half of the 3 sec and 2.08 sec respectively
temperature difference. 3.
4 sec and 4.06 sec respectively
4.
3 sec and 4.06 sec respectively
A Non-linear variation between Capacitance and 1.

displacement is observed for Capacitive type of transducers Variable overlapping area

involving between the plates
2.
Variable distance between the
plates
3.
Variable dielectric constant
4.
None of the above
Which type bridge configuration of Strain gauge produces a 1.

non-linear output? Full Bridge configuration

2.
Half Bridge configuration
3.
Quarter Bridge configuration
4.
None of the above
Low resistance measurements are used in which of the 1.

following applications? Armatures winding of machines

2.
Resistors employed in
electronic circuits
3.
Insulation measurement
4.
None of the above
The primary and secondary coils in an LVDT are connected 1.

in which configuration? In series but 180° out of phase

either side of the primary
2.
In parallel but 180° out of phase
either side of the primary
3.
In series but 90° out of phase
either side of the primary
4.
 In parallel but 90° out of phase
either side of the primary

A thermocouple works on which principle? 1.

Joule effect
2.
Thompson effect
3.
Peltier effect
4.
Seebeck effect
Which of the following sensors provide electrical voltage as 1.

the primary output? Pressure measurement using

strain gauge
2.
Temperature measurement
using thermocouple
3.
Gas sensors
4.
None of the above
Which temperature sensor has the highest sensitivity among 1.

the following? Thermocouple

2.
RTD
3.
Thermistor
4.
Thermometer
For a Strain gauge with negligible piezoresistive effect, the 1.
1
maximum Gauge factor for metals can be
2.
0.5
3.
2
4.
can't be calculated

Which type of sensors develops an electric charge due to 1.

thermally induced stress upon exposure to heat Piezoelectric sensors

energy/radiation? 2.
Pyroelectric sensors
3.
Thermoelectric sensors
4.
Photoelectric sensors
Hall Effect sensors are used in 1.
Flow meter
2.
Fuel level indicator
3.
Both (A) and (B)
4.
None of the above
Inductive proximity sensors can be effective only 1.

when the objects are of _____ materials. Ferro magnetic

2.
Dia magnetic
3.
Para magnetic
4.
All of the above
Following acts as detector in Optical sensor 1.
Light emitting diode
2.
Photo diode
3.
Transistor
4.
All of the above

A piezo-electrical crystal generates voltage when subjected to 1.

____ force. Electrical
2.
Mechanical
3.
Gravity
4.
All of the above
Which of the following is an analog transducer? 1.
Encoders
2.
Strain gauge
3.
Digital tachometers
4.
Limit switches
What is the principle of operation of LVDT? 1.
Mutual inductance
2.
Self-inductance
3.
Permanence
4.
Reluctance
For a material capacitance increases with _____________ 1.
Decrease in area of plates, all
other factors constant
2.
Increase in distance between
plates, all other factors constant
3.
Decrease in distance between
plates, all other factors constant
4.
None of the mentioned
Which of the following device is used for measuring relative 1.
humidity? Capacitive pressure transducer
2.
Hygrometer
3.
Capacitive strain transducer
4.
Capacitive moisture transducer
At equilibrium Lorentz forces will be ____________ of force 1.
due to Electric field. Double Commented [32]: Fe = Fb (Electric force = Mag.
Force)
2. LorentzF= Fe+Fb
Half
3.
Equal
4.
No proportionality
Which of the following represents correct conversion for 1.

magnetostrictive transducers? Mechanical energy to magnetic

energy
2.
Mechanical energy to electrical
energy
3.
Magnetic energy to electrical
energy
4.
 Mechanical energy to acoustic
energy

Which of the following materials shows an increase in 1.

permeability with increase in tensile stress? Negative magnetostriction

materials
2.
Non magnetostriction materials
3.
Positive magnetostriction
materials
4.
None of the mentioned
Which of the following represents the output of Hall Effect 1.

transducer? Hall potential

2.
Emf
3.
Applied voltage
4.
Lorentz Voltage

What will happen to resistance, if the length of the conductor 1.

is increased? Decreases
2.
No change
3.
Increases
4.
Doubles
What will happen for resistivity metal and semiconductor if 1.

the temperature is increased? Increases

2.
Decreases
3.
For metal increases and for
semiconductor decreases
4.
For metal decreases and for
semiconductor increases
A metal with temperature coefficient of resistance has a value 1.
200/°C, its initial resistance is given by 40Ω. For an increase 40 KΩ
in 300 °C to350 °C. What will be the final resistance value? 2.
4 KΩ
3.
40 Ω
4.
400 Ω
Thermocouple is a ______________ 1.
Primary device
2.
Secondary transducer
3.
Tertiary transducer
4.
None of the mentioned
______________ describes current flow between two 1.

junctions formed by two different metals. Peltier effect

2.
Thomson effect
3.
Seebeck effect
4.
None of the mentioned
Analogous quantities of heat flow and temperature in 1.

electrical are _____________ and _______________ Potential and current

2.
Current and potential
3.
Power and potential
4.
Current and power
LDR’s are also called _______________ 1.
Photo voltaic cell
2.
Photo resistive cell
3.
Photo emissive cell
4.
All of the mentioned
Which of the following materials can be used as 1.

photoconductive transducer? Selenium

2.
Silicon
3.
Germanium
4.
All of the mentioned
Which of the following are used to form photo transistors? 1.
Two photo diodes
2.
Three photo diodes
3.
Normal diodes
4.
None of the mentioned
Which of the following is true for a charge-mode 1.

accelerometers? There is no in-built signal

conditioning circuit
2.
They use ordinary two-wire or
coaxial cables
3.
Both a & b
4.
Neither a nor b
Ceramic materials are made piezoelectric by polarizing them 1.
using a process called Polling
2.
Fluxgate effect
3.
Polishing and grinding
4.
Annealing
In flexure mode piezoelectric accelerometer, the seismic mass 1.
is A beam shaped bar which is
suspended on a pivot
2.
Is sandwiched between and
outer ring and a piezo disk
3.
Simply sits/compresses a piezo
disk
4.
None of the above
Which mode of piezo accelerometers are used for low 1.

gravitational (g) acceleration applications Shear Mode

2.
Flexural beam mode
3.
Compression mode
4.
None of the above
Which mode of piezo accelerometers are used for testing 1.

high-g shock level applications Shear Mode Commented [33]: Low Noise output
Low Amplitude vibration testing
2. High Amplitude shock testing
Flexural beam mode Excellent linearity over dynamic range

3.
Compression mode
4.
None of the above
Which sensor among the following is used in a quasi-static 1.

application? Piezoelectric
2.
Thermocouple
3.
Magnetostrictive
4.
Hall effect
A Multi hot wire anemometer can sense 1.
Only flow velocity of the fluid
2.
Direction of velocity of fluid
3.
Both flow velocity and
direction of flow
4.
None of the above
Which among the following flow sensors is a differential 1.

pressure (d/p) flowmeter? Pitot tube

2.
Hot wire anemometer
3.
Laser Doppler Anemometer
4.
Doppler sensors
Static pressure is measured in a Pitot tube 1.
Along the flow direction
2.
In a void space along the flow
3.
Right angles to the flow
direction
4.
None of the above
Which one among the following is the most expensive 1.

differential type pressure sensor? Mass Flowmeters

2.
Pitot tube
3.
Concentric orifice plate
4.
Venturi tubes
Coriolis effect is used for flow detection in which type of 1.

flow meters? Venturi tubes

2.
Pitot tube
3.
Mass flow meters
4.
Ultrasonic Flow sensors
"Hot-wire anemometers" are differential pressure 1.

measurement type of Flow sensors. True

2.
False
3.
Not always true (depends upon
single or multi type)
4.
Always true (depends upon
single or multi type)
Which type of inertial force forms the basis of mass 1.

flowmeters? Centrifugal force

2.
Frictional force
3.
Gravitational force
4.
Coriolis force
If the absolute pressure at any place is 5 bar, what is the gauge 1.
pressure at that place? Can't be measured
2.
6 bar
3.
4 bar
4.
1 bar
For a piezoelectric sensor, the sensor’s discharge time 1.

constant (DTC) is generally determined by product of Maximum resistance

path and total capacitance of the
system
2.
product of lowest insulation
resistance path and total
capacitance of the system
3.
addition of lowest insulation
resistance path and total
capacitance of the system
4.
addition of Maximum
resistance path and total
capacitance of the system
In a Voltage Mode, Low-Impedance Piezoelectric Force 1.

Sensor, the connecting cables must be: ordinary cables/wires

2.
low noise cables Not Sure Commented [34]: A low noise output is equired at the
receiving end
3.
No cable connection is required
at all
4.
Thick and highly insulating
cable
Doppler type ultrasonic sensors measure the flow through: 1.
Frequency shift caused by flow
2.
Amplitude shift caused by flow
velocity
3.
Time shift caused by flow
velocity
4.
None of the above
The Bragg Cell in a LDA is used for: 1.
Splitting the laser beam
2.
Merging the splitted laser
beams
3.
Creates the fringe patters
4.
None of the above
In a capacitive type level sensor which among the following is 1.
generally the variable quantity? Surface area between the
electrodes
2.
Distance between the electrodes
3.
Dielectric constant of the
material
4.
 None of the above

The functional phase in Screen printing consists of: 1.

metal and/or metal-oxide
powders
2.
inorganic binder materials
3.
Liquid that suspends the
inorganic constituents
4.
No functional phase is present
A parallel plate capacitive transducer uses plates of area 300 mm2 which are 1.
separated by 0.2 mm distance in air. Determine: 13.275 F
i) Original capacitance of the transducer with permittivity of 2.
air as 8.85 x 10-12 F/m. 13.275 pF
3.
13.275 nF
4.
1.3275 pF
A parallel plate capacitive transducer uses plates of area 300 mm2 which are 1.
separated by 0.2 mm distance in air. Determine: 1.475 pF
ii) Change in capacitance if a linear displacement reduces the 2.
distance between the plates to 0.18 mm. 1.475 nF
3.
1.475 F
4.
14.75 pF
Several thermocouples connected together in series, such that 1.
all the reference junctions are at the same cold temperature Thermopile
and all the hot junctions are exposed to the temperature being 2.
measured is called a: Thermometer
3.
Pyroelectric
4.
Piezoelectric
In Pyroelectric effect, output voltage due to induced stress is 1.
caused by: external mechanical pressure
2.
external magnetic field
3.
external torque
4.
external thermal radiation
In GMR sensors a higher Resistance is obtained when: 1.
The magnetization of adjacent
ferromagnetic layers is parallel
to each other.
2.
The magnetization of adjacent
ferromagnetic layers is anti-
parallel to each other.
3.
Independent of the
magnetization of the
ferromagnetic layers.
4.
GMR sensors don’t show a high
resistance.
What is the Common Mode Rejection Ratio? 1.
Output of a differential
amplifier
2.
Ability of an amplifier to reject
common mode signals
3.
Ability of an amplifier to accept
common mode signals
4.
None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal op- 1.
amp? Zero slew rate
2.
Infinite bandwidth
3.
Infinite input impedance
4.
Zero output impedance
For an inverting amplifier positive terminal of input is 1.

connected to __________ of 741 IC. Pin number 3

2.
Pin number 2
3.
Pin number 1
4.
Pin number 7
In 741 IC, pin number 4 is represented by __________ 1.
Offset null
2.
Positive input
3.
Negative input
4.
Negative supply
Which of the following cannot be treated as a requirement of 1.
the instrumentation amplifier? Low drift
2.
Low input impedance
3.
High linearity
4.
High CMRR
Amplifier with power supply and output circuits galvanically 1.
isolated are called ______________ Differential amplifier
2.
Isolation amplifier
3.
Inverting amplifier
4.
None of the mentioned
Voltage follower is also known as ___________ 1.
Unity gain amplifier
2.
Differential amplifier
3.
Comparator
4.
None of the mentioned
Which configuration of op-amp is used for filter circuit? 1.
Differential
2.
Non-inverting
3.
Inverting
4.
None of the mentioned
For an ideal op-amp, zero input results in output 1.
Zero
2.
Positive
3.
Negative
4.
Differential
What is the purpose of a differential amplifier in voltmeter? 1.
Elimination of unwanted
signals
2.
To find difference of voltages
3.
To eliminate DC components
4.
To set a certain voltage level
Which of the following are used in DAC? 1.
Ladder network
2.
Successive approximation
technique
3.
Both Ladder and successive
approximation technique
4.
None of the mentioned
Which of the following is an indication by settling time? 1.
Accuracy of conversion
2.
Speed of conversion
3.
Precision in conversion
4.
All of the mentioned
Which of the following is a binary weighted DAC? 1.
R-2R ladder DAC
2.
PWM DAC
3.
Switched resistor DAC
4.
Sampling DAC
Which of the following method is employed for ADC? 1.
Ladder network
2.
Successive approximation type
3.
PWM type
4.
None of the mentioned
Which of the following device is similar to analog 1.

comparator? Analog switch

2.
MCB
3.
Energy meter
4.
Digital switch
Which of the following can act as a comparator? 1.
Op-amp with negative feedback
2.
Op-amp with positive feedback
3.
Op-amp without feedback
4.
None of the mentioned
Zero crossing detector has ____________ as reference 1.

voltage. +ve Vcc

2.
-ve Vcc
3.
0V

4.
5V

Which of the following detect the presence of a voltage 1.

between two voltages? Zero crossing detector

2.
Differential comparator
3.
Window comparator
4.
None of the mentioned
Difference between levels on input that causes transition in 1.

Schmitt trigger is ___________ Hysteresis

2.
Threshold
3.
Cut-off value
4.
Peak value
Threshold voltage for switching in Schmitt trigger is 1.

determined by _______________ Resistor R1

2.
Resistor R2
3.
Both resistors
4.
None of the mentioned
Which of the following is converted to square wave in 1.

Schmitt trigger? Sine wave

2.
Triangular wave
3.
Pulse wave
4.
All of the mentioned
For a particular op-amp hysteresis is governed by 1.

_______________ Resistor R1
2.
Resistor R2
3.
Both resistors R1 and R2
4.
Op-amp parameters
Motion of fast moving systems may be timed ad studied by 1.

means of Stroboscope
2.
Piezoelectric crystal
3.
Electronic timer
4.
Photovoltaic cell
Which effect is useful in measuring rapidly varying forces? 1.
Piezoelectric
2.
Photovoltaic
3.
Strain gauge
4.
Change of capacitance
Hysteresis error in Bourdon tube can be minimized by 1.
Using proper tube material
2.
Using proper diameter and
thickness of tube
3.
Avoiding temperature cycling
4.
Using it well within the
designed pressure range
Pick up false statement about pressure measurements: 1.
Low pressure is normally
measure by manometers
2.
Medium pressure by
diaphragms or bellows
3.
Medium and high pressure by
Bourdon gauge
4.
Absolute pressure by
piezoelectric crystal
Which type of device is suitable for dynamic force 1.

measurement? Spring balance

2.
Lever balance
3.
Piezoelectric transducer
4.
Proving ring
Thermal expansion of a solid is employed in: 1.
Thermocouple
2.
Resistance thermometer
3.
Bulb thermometer
4.
Bimetal element
Pick up the false statement 1.
Copper constantan
thermocouple is used as a
reference standard for
calibration purposes
2.
Iron- constantan thermocouple
suffers from oxidation attack on
iron wire, if exposed
3.
Both wires of chromel-alumel
thermocouples are prone to
damage by sulphurous gases
4.
Iron- constantan thermocouple
is a stable couple resistant to
both oxidizing and reducing
atmosphere, but needs
protection from acidic vapours
To prevent self-heating errors becoming too great, the current 1.
through platinum element (100 ohm) is kept at a very small 1 mA
value: 2.
5 mA
3.
20 mA
4.
50 mA
Local velocity is measured by a_________ 1.
Pitot tube
2.
Venture tube
3.
Orifice plate
4.
Nozzle
For measuring air flow, _______ is used 1.
Vane type anemometer
2.
Electromagnetic flowmeter
3.
Ultrasonic flowmeter
4.
Vortex shedding meter
Paramagnetic analyser is used to measure following gas 1.

sample in air Oxygen

2.
Nitrogen
3.
Hydrocarbons
4.
Carbon
The error caused in vibration measuring equipment due to 1.

non- compliance of bond made between sensor and the Cross-coupling

surface it is mounted is called: 2.
Coupling compliance
3.
Influence error
4.
Subject loading by sensor
Chromatographic analyser is used to measure the 1.
Oxygen content in a sample
2.
CO2 content in a sample
3.
CO content in a sample
4.
Amount of individual gases in a
sample
All pH measurements are made with a 1.
Glass electrode
2.
Solid state electrode
3.
Liquid ion exchange electrode
4.
Redox electrode
Which measurement is a good guide to the quality of water 1.
pH
2.
conductivity
3.
dissolved O2 content
4.
turbidity
Mass-spring seismic sensors measure directly the 1.
Displacement
2.
Velocity
3.
Acceleration
4.
Shock
Determine the wavelength of ultrasound travelling in water 1.
1.58
with a velocity of 1480m/s and a frequency of 1MHz
2.
1.62
3.
1.48
4.
1.34
Consider a 1 cm thick specimen in which the acoustic power 1.
emerging is one half of that entering. Determine the -4dB/cm
attenuation coefficient of the medium 2.
-3.01dB/cm Commented [35]: Attenuation = log(Pout/Pin)
Pout= 0.5Pin (Given in Q.)
3.
-3.7dB/cm
4.
-3.98dB/cm
If the velocities of ultrasound in soft tissue and bone are 1500 1.
and 1400m/s, respectively, the critical angle of incidence is 22 deg Commented [36]: V=c/u;
Snell's Law: u1sin(theta1)=const
given by 2. Theta_c = sin_inverse(ur/ui)
30 deg Solve and get

3.
28 deg
4.
38 deg
Mercury in rubber strain gauge was wrapped around the 1.
4
forearm of a subject and it covers 6 cm of length. Venous
2.
occlusion was applied at time t=0 and the circumference of
3
the forearm was increased by 0.5 cm in 64 secs. The initial
3.
limb circumference was 25.3 cm. the perfusion is ________ 4.5
mL/min per 100mL of tissue.
4.
3.7 Commented [37]: Page-48, First Para, Last Line.

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If 25 g of a liquid occupies 20 cm3 in a measuring cylinder, 1. g=PA48&lpg=PA48&dq=perfusion+in+rubber+strain+g
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3.
1.25 g cm-3
4.
5 g cm-3
Dipsticks are used for 1.
Pressure measurement
2.
Flow measurement
3.
Displacement measurement
4.
Level measurement
In ultrasonic level gauge, the ultrasonic source is placed at the 1.
Bottom of the vessel containing
the liquid
2.
Top of the vessel containing the
liquid
3.
Middle of the vessel containing
the liquid
4.
Far from the vessel containing
the liquid
In radiation methods, the detector system is located 1.
The top of the liquid filled tank
2.
The bottom of liquid filled tank
3.
Middle of the liquid filled tank
4.
Outside a liquid filled tank
A vibrating level sensors consists of 1.
One piezoelectric oscillators
2.
Two piezoelectric oscillators
3.
Three piezoelectric oscillators
4.
Four piezoelectric oscillators
To produce a change in deflection of 1.5 mm of the 1.

galvanometer of Wheatstone bridge, a change of 5Ω in the 0.2 mm/ Ω

unknown arm of bridge is required. The sensitivity is 2.
0.3 mm/ Ω
3.
0.4 mm/ Ω
4.
0.5 mm/ Ω
The smallest change which can be measured by the transducer 1.
of the range of 0 to 150 N force and resolution of 0.1% of full 0.1 N
scale is 2.
0.15 N
3.
0.3 N
4.
0.35 N

A zero order system is the one in which output changes 1.

instantaneously as the input changes. The example of zero Potentiometer

order system is 2.
Liquid-in-glass thermometer
3.
Accelerometer
4.
Transducer
If a balloon is equipped with temperature and altitude 1.

measuring instruments, then the order of the temperature Zero order, first order
measuring and altitude measuring instruments are 2.
Both are first order instruments
3.
Both are zero order instruments
4.
First order, zero order
Accelerometer is an example of which order instrument? 1.
First order instrument
2.
zero order instrument
3.
second order instrument
4.
third order instrument
While going through a heap of junk in her garage, Jackie 1.

found an uncalibrated mercury thermometer. After a few 46 °C

experiments, she succeeded in calibrating it. Her notes show 2.
that ice point of thermometer corresponds to 3 cm while 44 °C
steam point corresponds to 30 cm of mercury. If Jackies 3.
calculations are fine then length = 15 cm would correspond 42 °C
to: 4.
40 °C
In a resistance thermometer, a metal wire shows a resistance 1.
of 500 Ω at ice point and 550 Ω at steam point, calculate 60 °C
temperature that corresponds to resistance of 535 Ω. 2.
65 °C
3.
70 °C
4.
75 °C
A car covers a distance of 5 km in 5 mins, its average speed is 1.
equal to 1 km⁄h
2.
25 km⁄h
3.
60 km⁄h
4.
50 km/h
Compressions are formed where air pressure is 1.
Higher
2.

lower
3.
normal
4.
zero
Average angular velocity of body rotating at angle of 30° 1.

during time interval 5 seconds will be: 6 rad⁄s

2.
7 rad⁄s
3.
8 rad⁄s
4.
10 rad⁄s
A girl with a mass of 40 kg wears heels with an area of 1 cm2 1.
in contact with ground, pressure on ground is (take earth's 4 x 10-5
gravitational field strength) 2.
4 x 104
3.
4 x 105
4.
40 x 105
The purpose of compensation for a thermocouple is 1.
to increase voltage output
2.
to decrease temperature
sensitivity
3.
to cancel unwanted voltage
output of a thermocouple
4.
used for high-temperature
circuits
In sound, reflection coefficient of 1 means 1.
all incident energy is
transmitted
2.
none of the incident energy is
transmitted
3.
1% of energy is reflected
4.
1% of energy is transmitted
Which one among the following is used as a reference 1.

electrode? platinum electrode

2.
calomel electrode
3.
glass electrode
4.
hydrogen electrode
The commonly used unit of conductivity is 1.
Mho
2.
m ohm/m
3.
n mho/cm
4.
ohm/m
LEACH stands for 1.
● Low Energy Adaptive
Clustering Hierarchy
2.
Low Energy Agglomerative
Clustering Hypothesis
3.
Low Energy Aggregate
Channel Hypothesis
4.
Low Energy Aggregate
Channel Hierarchy