Practice Quiz 1

1.True or False

Moisture created from the cleaning process or humidity can greatly effect the ability of the
penetrant to float onto the surface of the part and produce capillary action.
2.Vapor degreasing is used to remove organic contaminants such as:

1. Varnish.
2. Rust.
3. Grease.
4. All of the above.
3.True of False

Cleaning a part is performed in order to remove any contaminants that may compromise the
inspection process.
4.If the wrong cleaning material is used, the part may be damaged due to:

1. Rusting.
2. Residue on the surface.
3. Corrosion.
4. All of the above.
5.True of False

Inorganic contaminants are materials such as rust, dirt, mineral deposits, plastic, and salt.
6.When using shot or grit blasting, it is important to remember that the blasting operation may:

1. Peen over the metal.

2. Etch the metal.
3. Stress the metal allowing premature cracking.
4. Detect subsurface discontinuities.
7.True of False
Alkaline cleaners are detergents that remove certain types of organic contaminants. These
include most oil based contaminants.
8.True or False

Ultrasonic cleaning can only remove organic contaminants.

9.Paint removers are:

1. Chemical materials that will loosen the paint.

2. Materials that will leave some residue on the surface of the part.
3. Good at removing rust and scale.
4. Only 1 and 2.
10.True or False

It's important that the cleaning process should slightly etch the part.
11.True or False

Heavy scale or paint is not recommended when performing liquid penetrant testing.
12.Small holes or threaded parts may be plugged with a small amount of:

1. Varnish.
2. Penetrant.
3. Paint.
4. Nonferromagnetic material.
13.Steam cleaning is used to remove:

1. Loosely bound inorganic contaminants .

2. Organic contaminants.
3. Light machine oils.
4. All of the above.

14.True or False

Inorganic contaminants are materials such as oil, paint, varnish, and lubricants.
 Practice Quiz 2

15.True or False

Contaminants can take up space in a discontinuity and reduce the sensitivity of the penetrant
inspection.
16.The best pre-test on a part is performed:

1. On a small area of a part that will be placed into service.

2. On a part that will not be placed into service.
3. Prior to pre-cleaning the part.
4. Prior to post-cleaning the part.
17.What type of parts may have an adverse reaction when they come in contact with oils or
solvents?

1. Plastics.
2. Rubber.
3. Plexiglass.
4. All of the above.
18.True or False

Exposure to excessive heat or high temperature will create scale or oxides.

19.Partially burned petroleum products are examples of:

1. Paint.
2. Grease.
3. Varnish.
4. Heavy Oil.
20.True or False
Paint will prevent penetrant from entering any relevant discontinuities.

21.If any damage is identified on the test part, the penetrant inspection should:

1. Not be used.
2. Only be used on Class D parts.
3. Be replaced with a less corrosive penetrant.
4. Use a less sensitive penetrant.
22.Which type of surface may make cleaning more difficult?

1. Smooth surface.
2. Rough surface.
3. Etched surface.
4. Titanium alloy surface.
23.The most common contaminant in the cleaning method is:

1. Oils.
2. Paint.
3. Grease.
4. Water.
24.What type of contaminant can easily enter discontinuities?

1. Grease.
2. Light oils.
3. Varnish.
4. Dust.
25.True or False

Acids and alkalies could impede the wetting ability of a penetrant.

26.Contaminants and soils refer to any material on the surface of the part which is not part of
the:

1. Original material.
2. Welding material.
3. Cleaning material.
4. Penetrant material.
27.The removal of cleaners can be more difficult with:

1. Porous parts.
2. Complex shaped parts.
3. Rough surface parts.
4. All of the above.
28.True or False

Carbon and varnish contaminants require strong mechanical action from scrubbing or
pressure washing with a nitrogen based cleaner.
29.True or False

The treatment of a part before it is inspected influences the results of the liquid penetrant
inspection.
30.Which cleaning method could leave small particles in discontinuities?

1. Acid pickling.
2. Abrasive cleaning.
3. Grit blasting.
4. All of the above.
31.The most important step in the liquid penetrant test is:

1. Post-cleaning.
2. Dwell time.
3. Development time.
4. Pre-cleaning.
32.Contaminants can:

1. Prevent penetrants from entering discontinuities.

2. Contaminate penetrants.
3. React chemically with the penetrant reducing its effectiveness.
4. All of the above.
33.Pre-testing should be performed:

1. When the technician suspects a potential problem.

2. On every part.
3. On plastic parts only.
4. On plexiglass parts only.
34.Moisture and water can also contaminate a part through:

1. Condensation.
2. Humidity.
3. Low temperatures.
4. All of the above.
35.What type of contaminants will fluoresce under a black light?

1. Light oils.
2. Heavy oils.
3. Dirt.
4. Only 1 and 2.
36.When pre-testing a part, how long should the technician run the dwell time?

1. The same as the dwell time used in the procedure.

2. Half the dwell time used in the procedure.
3. Twice the dwell time used in the procedure.
4. Three times the dwell time used in the procedure.
37.True or False

A single cleaning method will work for all types of parts.

38.True or False

Contaminants that are acid or alkaline based will not change the chemical composition of
penetrants.
39.What type of metal may become embrittled when an acid cleaner is used?

1. Aluminum.
2. Magnesium.
3. Carbon steels.
4. Heat treated steels.
40.True or False

When the carbon or varnish has dried, it will absorb moisture reducing the effectiveness of
the penetrant.
41.Titanium and high nickel alloys can be damaged by cleaning solutions containing:

1. Halogen and sulfur compounds.

2. Alkalies.
3. Saline based compounds.
4. Chromium based compounds.
 Practice Quiz 3

42.Which type of penetrant is visible dye?

1. Type I.
2. Type II.
3. Type III.
43.Emulsifiers used in liquid penetrant testing are:

1. Water based.
2. Oil based.
3. Solvent based.
4. Either water based or oil based.
44.Which type of penetrant is dual sensitive?

1. Type I.
2. Type II.
3. Type III.
45.A disadvantage of water washable penetrant is:

1. Overwashing.
2. Capillary action.
3. Adhesion.
4. Cohesion.
46.Which method is post-emulsified?

1. Method A.
2. Method B.
3. Method C.
47.Which type of emulsifier is supplied in concentrated form and requires dilusion with water?

1. Hydrophilic emulsifier.
2. Lipophilic emulsifier.
3. Solvent removable emulsifier.
4. Aqueous emulsifier.
48.Wetting ability is:

1. The ability of a penetrant to cover the surface of the part.

2. The ability of a liquid to enter a discontinuity.
3. The ability to hold surface molecules together.
4. The adhesion required to hold the penetrant in place.
49.Coating the surface of the part evenly is called:

1. Adhesion.
2. Surface wetting.
3. Wetting ability.
4. Cohesion.
50.Water washable penetrants:

1. Have water built into the penetrant.

2. Are the most difficult to remove from the surface of a part.
3. Have a built in emulsifier which allows it to be rinsed off with water.
4. Require an emulsifier.
51.Solvent removable penetrants require:

1. An emulsifier.
2. Solvent applied to a clean lint free cloth and wiped over the surface of the part.
3. A course water spray in order to remove the excess penetrant from the part surface.
4. All of the above may be used.
52.Which method is water washable?

1. Method A.
2. Method B.
3. Method C.
53.Visible dye penetrants can be seen under:

1. Black light.
2. Ultraviolet light.
3. White light.
4. Blue light.
54.The measure of a material's ability to resist change is called:

1. Cohesion.
2. Viscosity.
3. Wetting ability.
4. Adhesion.
55.Which method is solvent removable?

1. Method A.
2. Method B.
3. Method C.
56.The ability of a penetrant to enter a discontinuity due to surface tension is called:

1. Wetting ability.
2. Cohesion.
3. Adhesion.
4. Capillary action.
57.Which type of penetrant is fluorescent?

1. Type I.
2. Type II.
3. Type III.
58.Surface tension is:

1. The ability to remain wet.

2. The same as capillary action.
3. The ability to hold surface molecules together.
4. The ability of a discontinuity to hold penetrant.
59.What angle will allow a liquid to spread over the surface of a part?

1. Less than 140 degrees.

2. Less than 120 degrees.
3. Less than 100 degrees.
4. Less than 90 degrees.
60.Which type of penetrant is harder to remove from the surface of the part?

1. Low viscosity penetrant.

2. High viscosity penetrant.
61.True or False

Emulsification times will vary from fifteen seconds to 5 minutes depending on the type of
emulsifier.
62.Which type of emulsifier works by dissolving the excess penetrant making it water washable?

1. Hydrophilic emulsifier.
2. Lipophilic emulsifier.
3. Solvent removable emulsifier.
4. Aqueous emulsifier.
63.Which type of penetrant leaves more penetrant on the surface of the part?

1. High viscosity penetrant.

2. Low viscosity penetrant.
64.Which type of penetrant is dual sensitive?

1. Type I.
2. Type II.
3. Type III.
65.What type of chemical is used to make penetrants water washable?

1. Emulsifiers.
2. Organic chemicals.
3. Hydrophilics.
4. Solvents.
66.The minimum temperature at which a liquid will ignite is called:

1. Ignition point.
2. Flash point.
3. Vapor point.
4. Fire point.
 Practice Quiz 4
67.The most common application of penetrant is by:

1. Dipping.
2. Spraying.
3. Swabbing.
4. Only 1 and 2.
68.True or False

The minimum penetrant dwell time is based on the established procedures.

69.True or False

If the part under inspection is too large for the penetrant tank, the spraying method can be
used.
70.Emulsification times can vary from:

1. 15 seconds to 5 minutes.
2. 5 to 10 minutes.
3. 5 seconds to 10 minutes.
4. 5 to 15 minutes.
71.If stress corrosion is suspected minimum Dwell Time:

1. A minimum of 10 minutes is recommended.

2. A minimum of 30 minutes is recommended.
3. A minimum of 1 hour is recommended.
4. A minimum of 4 hours is recommended

72.The more complicated the part:

1. The less time it will take to remove the excess penetrant

2. The more time it will take to remove the excess penetrant.
3. The shorter the dwell time needed in order for the penetrant to enter discontinuities.
4. The longer the dwell time needed in order for the penetrant to enter discontinuities.
73.Excessive removal of penetrant will:

1. Reduce the bleed-out from small discontinuities.

2. Require longer emulsification times.
3. Shorten the dwell time.
4. Reduce the brilliance of the indications resulting in small discontinuities missed.
74.Which application method results in the least amount of penetrant needed to cover a part?

1. Dipping.
2. Immersion.
3. Spraying.
4. Pouring.

75.True or False

A part may need to be rotated or redipped in order for the part to have complete coverage.
76.True or False

Hotter parts require a longer dwell time.

77.True or False

Once the penetrant has completely entered a discontinuity, a longer dwell time will not
improve the results.
78.If the penetrant dries on the surface of the part, it should be:

1. Re-cleaned and retested.

2. Retested without pre-cleaning.
3. Rejected.
4. Redipped in order to activate the penetrant.

79.Excessively short dwell times will:

1. Decrease the flow of penetrant over the surface of the part.

2. Not allow the penetrant to penetrate the discontinuity.
3. Allow more bleed-out to occur during the rinsing stage.
4. All of the above.
80.Penetrant will work more efficiently when the dwell time is completed:

1. While the part is immersed in the penetrant tank.

2. Out of the immersion tank.
3. After applying emulsifier.
4. Before applying emulsifier.
81.Smooth surfaces will hold a thin layer of penetrant and when post emulsified penetrant is
used:

1. It will not change emulsification time.

2. A shorter emulsification time is needed.
3. A longer emulsification time is needed.
 4. Less penetrant on the surface of the part will reduce sensitivity of indications.
82.If the technician is looking for service-related defects a penetrant dwell time of:

1. A minimum of 10 minutes is recommended.

2. A minimum of 30 minutes is recommended.
3. A minimum of 1 hour is recommended.
4. A minimum of 4 hours is recommended
83.True or False

If the penetrant is not allowed to penetrate a discontinuity completely more bleed-out will
occur.
84.Rough surfaces such as castings, will hold more penetrant. This will require:

1. No change in emulsification time.

2. A shorter emulsification time.
3. A longer emulsification time.
4. More penetrant on the surface of the part which reduces sensitivity of indications.
85.If an extended dwell time is used, its important that the penetrant is:

1. Allowed to dry into any relevant discontinuities.

2. Removed before it dries completely.
3. Mixed with emulsifier in order to prevent drying.
4. Not allowed to dry, evaporate or become tacky on the surface of the part.
86.True or False

Penetrant that has collected and pooled in some areas of the part will increase the penetrant
removal time.
87.True or False

A longer dwell time will not improve the indications obtained from tight narrow cracks or
discontinuities.
88.It is important to remove only penetrant:

1. Slightly below the surface of the part.

2. With solvent or emulsifier.
3. That has been trapped by relevant discontinuities.
4. Remaining on the surface of the part.

89.True or False

A rough porous surface may require a less detailed and shorter rinsing process.
90.True or False

After a time of 30 to 40 minutes, the application of fresh penetrant will improve the
penetration into discontinuities.
91.When testing complicated shaped parts, it is important to avoid:

1. Any trapped air pockets.

2. Excessive overwashing.
3. Pooling of penetrant.
4. All of the above.
92.A liquid penetrant test will work best when:

1. The part is left in the penetrant during its complete dwell time.
2. The parts are not touching one another.
3. A combination of fluorescent and visible dye penetrants are used.
4. Emulsifiers are added to the penetrant.
93.When the excess penetrant is draining off the surface of the part the lighter oil solvent
evaporates. This will:

1. Increase the dye concentration resulting in a high fluorescence.

2. Decrease the dye concentration which increases the sensitivity of the indication.
3. Increase the dye concentration which increases the sensitivity of the indication.
4. Reduce the dye concentration which increases the sensitivity of the indication.
94.Dwell times are based on the part and penetrant having a temperature of:

1. 30 to 60 degrees Fahrenheit.
2. 110 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit.
3. 60 to 100 degrees Celsius.
4. 60 to 100 degrees Fahrenheit.
95.True or False

If the penetrant is allowed to drip back into the penetrant tank, less waste will take place.
96.True or False

Colder parts require a longer dwell time.

97.Inadequate removal of penetrant will leave:

1. Excessive background fluorescence.

2. Inadequate bleed-out from discontinuities.
3. Excessive pooling in parts with a complicated geometry.
4. Low background fluorescence.
98.As emulsifier is used, it will:

1. Begin to evaporate.
2. Not become contaminated.
3. Become less fluorescent.
4. Lose its effectiveness.
 Practice Quiz-5

99.The disadvantage of drying a part in ambient temperature is:

1. The penetrant will dry before the part dries.

2. The drying time may be excessive.
3. Excessive bleed-out will occur before the application of the developer.
4. The slow drying time may create a light coating of rust on the surface of the part.

100.Parts are dipped into the water suspendable developer tank:

1. After washing off the excess penetrant from the surface of the part.
2. Before washing off the excess penetrant from the surface of the part.
3. After the part has been placed in the dryer.
4. Before applying penetrant.
101.The most cost effective method used to dry parts is a:

1. Warm air dryer.

2. Hand held air dryer.
3. Fan.
4. Hair dryer.
102.Excessive drying time or high temperatures will:

1. Dry wet developers too quickly which prevents bleed-out.

2. Prevent the emulsifier in the developer from performing reverse capillary action.
3. Speed up the time it takes to test the parts and are more cost effective.
4. Dry the penetrant in the discontinuities resulting in little or no bleed-out.
103.What determines the concentration of a water suspendable developer?

1. Experimentation.
2. Trial and error.
3. Procedures.
4. Manufacturer’s recommendations.
104.True or False

Bleed out creates an indication that is smaller than the discontinuity.

105.Nonaqueous wet developer is applied by:

1. Dipping.
2. Flooding.
3. Spraying.
4. Pouring.
106.What can be added to water suspendable developer in order to provide even coverage over
the surface of the part?

1. Corrosion inhibitors.
2. Wetting agents.
3. Surfactants.
4. Chemical bonders.
107.White fluffy powder that can be applied to the surface of the part is called:

1. Wet developer.
2. Water soluable developer.
3. Water suspendable developer.
4. Dry developer.
108.Which developer requires the part to be dried before the application of the developer?

1. Water soluble developer.

2. Water suspendable developer.
3. Nonaqueous wet developer.
4. All of the above require the part to be dry before application.
109.Dry developer can be applied by:

1. Blowing.
2. Pouring.
3. Electrostatic spray gun.
4. All of the above.
110.Nonaqueous wet developers are supplied in:

1. Pressurized spray cans.

2. Five gallon containers.
3. Cans.
4. All of the above.
111.True or False

Adhesives are added to the developer in order to disperse the particles in the water.
112.When using a dryer it is important to remember that fluorescent penetrants will experience
loss of fluorescence at approximately:

1. 80 Degrees Fahrenheit.
2. 100 degrees Fahrenheit.
3. 120 degrees Fahrenheit.
4. 140 degrees Fahrenheit.
113.True or False

When applying a nonaqueous wet developer on the surface of the part, only a light fine
mist is needed.
114.Water suspendable developers consist of particles:

1. Suspended in water which will not dissolve.

2. Suspended in water which will dissolve.
3. Applied after the part is dried.
4. That remain suspended in a spray can.
115.Which drying method can be used on large parts?

1. Warm air blower.

2. Oven dryer.
3. Air hose.
4. Fans.
116.True or False

Developers help blot out the penetrant that has remained in any discontinuities and increase
the dispersion of the penetrant laterally.
117.True or False

High drying temperatures increase the evaporation of the penetrant thus preventing the
penetrant from coming in contact with the developer which results in an inability to detect
discontinuities.
118.The particles in water soluble developers:

1. Need to be mixed before dipping the part in the tank.

2. Are dissolved in water and will not settle to the bottom of the tank.
3. Should only be used with fluorescent particles.
4. Can be used in spray cans.
119.True or False
Surfactants and dispersants are used to help the nonaqueous wet developer coat the surface
of the part evenly when it is sprayed.
120.True or False

It's important that the developer is not shaken before use and that the spray nozzle is not
clogged.
121.Developers are used to:

1. Improve the capillary action of the penetrant.

2. Improve the contrast allowing a discontinuity to be easily identified.
3. Reduce the viscosity of the penetrant resulting in bleed-out from the discontinuity.
4. All of the above.
122.When drying complicated shaped parts, water may:

1. Evaporate before the small parts are dry.

2. Pool in complicated shaped parts.
3. Contaminate any discontinuities that were rinsed away.
4. Dilute the penetrant resulting in lost indications.
123.When does the development time begin with a water suspendable wet developer?

1. When the developer is first dipped into the tank.

2. After the penetrant has been rinsed off the part.
3. When the surface of the part is dry.
4. After drying the part and applying the developer.
 Practice Quiz 6
124.After an indication has been identified, the technician will have to:

1. Evaluate and interpret the indication.

2. Reject the part.
3. Accept the part.
4. Repair the part.
125.If the part is rejected, it may be:

1. Repaired.
2. Re-inspected.
3. Accepted.
4. All of the above.
126.Which type of discontinuity is the most harmful?

1. Rounded indications.
2. Subsurface rounded indications.
3. Fatigue cracks.
4. All of the above are equally harmful.
127.True or False

A discontinuity detected on the surface of the part is more harmful than a discontinuity of
the same size located below the surface of the part.
128.True or False

All discontinuities are rejectable.

129.The ability to determine what has caused an indication is called:.

1. Interpretation.
2. Evaluation.
3. Clarification.
4. Translation.
130.Typical discontinuities which require interpretation are:

1. Porosity.
2. Cracks.
3. Laps.
4. All of the above.
131.Porosity, cracks, laps, bursts, and seams are called:

1. Non-relevant indications.
2. Relevant indications.
3. False indications.
4. Irrelevant indications.
132.Larger discontinuities will produce:

1. False indications.
2. Less bleed-out.
3. More bleed-out.
4. Irrelevant indications.
133.The depth of a discontinuity:

1. Cannot be determined by its bleed-out.

2. Can only be detected with fluorescent penetrant.
3. Can only be detected with visible dye penetrant.
4. Only 3 and 4

134.Bleed-out from a relevant indication can vary due to:

1. Type of penetrant.
2. Sensitivity level of the penetrant.
3. Temperature of the part.
4. All of the above.
135.Codes require the technician to measure a discontinuity based on:

1. The size of the penetrant bleed-out from a relevant indication.

2. The actual size of the discontinuity.
3. The type of penetrant used.
4. Only 1 or 2.
136.Penetrant bleed-out from a crack will look like a:

1. Rounded indication.
2. Continuous linear indication.
3. Elliptical indication.
4. Spherical indication.
137.True or False

Small cracks may show a linear indication that could be intermittent.

138.Rounded indications represent:

1. Porosity.
2. Gas holes.
3. Pin holes.
4. All of the above.
139.True or False

One way to determine if an indication is relevant is to spray a small amount of solvent on

the surface of the part and watch for repeated bleed-out.
140.Penetrant that has not been completely rinsed off the surface of the part will leave:

1. Little or no residual background.

2. Excessive bleed-out from discontinuities.
3. Excessive background that may mask relevant discontinuities.
4. All of the above.
141.True or False

The shape of the part will not create excess background masking discontinuities.

142.False indications are created by penetrant contaminating the surface of the part. This can
include:

1. Penetrant from the technician's hands or gloves.

2. Contaminated developer.
3. Bleed-out from one part dripping on another.
4. All of the above.
143.True or False

Parts that require assembly can also produce non-relevant indications that require
interpretation.
Practice Quiz 7

144.It is important that the black light intensity is tested:

1. At the beginning of each shift.

2. At the end of each shift.
3. Every 2 hours.
4. Every 4 hours.
145.Looking directly into the black light with a filter in place may result in:

1. Permanent loss of vision.

2. Loss of visual sensitivity.
3. Temporary cloudy vision.
4. Permanent cloudy vision.
146.True or False

Over the life of a black light, dust and dirt accumulate on the surface of the filter and reduce
its sensitivity.
147.Procedures for dark adaptation range from:

1. 15-20 minutes.
2. 30-40 minutes.
3. 1-5 minutes.
4. Any of the above will work.
148.The ability to identify relevant discontinuities is dependent on the ____ of the penetrant
system.

1. Quality
2. Quantity
3. Sensitivity
4. Productivity
149.True or False

Magnesium crack blocks are the most common test block used to evaluate penetrant
performance.
150.True or False

It is usually better to leave the black light turned on for an entire shift rather than turning it
on and off throughout the shift.
151.True or False

A penetrant system performance test panel may be used to test the washability of penetrant.
152.True or False

System performance test panels will not become contaminated and require replacement.
153.If the emulsifier is too weak:

1. Excessive background fluorescence will occur.

2. The penetrant will not fluoresce properly.
3. The emulsifier is wasted and over-removal of the penetrant may result.
4. All of the above may occur.
154.If fluctuations in power continue to extinguish the black light, a

1. Constant potential transformer can be used.

2. Constant potential regulator can be used.
3. Dual phase transformer can be used.
4. Self rectified transformer can be used.
155.True or False

Low pressure fluorescent bulbs are good for viewing the washing off the excess fluorescent
penetrant and for the final inspection.
156.In order to verify the loss of sensitivity, a

1. Penetrant quality test is required.

2. System performance test is required.
3. System evaluation test is required.
4. Penetrant evaluation test is required.
157.A black light will lose approximately ___ of life with every start up.

1. 2-3 days
2. 2-3 minutes
3. 2-3 hours
4. 4-5 hours
158.The black and white light meter intensity is:

1. Only required with fluorescent penetrant.

2. Measured but does not need to be recorded in a log book
3. Recorded in a daily log book.
4. Only required with visible dye penetrant.
159.True or False

When the "TAM" panel is tested, the number of star cracks that can be identified is used to
determine the fluorescence of the penetrant.
160.True or False
 The best identification of discontinuities occurs when a maximum of 4 ft candles of white
light or background light is present.
161.A crack block can be used as a comparison test in order to determine:

1. Contamination of the emulsifier.

2. Emulsifier washability.
3. Fluorescence of penetrant.
4. All of the above.
162.True or False

The transformer used with black lights will help regulate the line voltage variations.
163.True or False

Ultraviolet light has a wavelength just below visible light.

164.True or False

The temperature of the black light housing and the filter can become very hot.
165.What can be used to test the concentration of hydrophilic emulsifier?

1. A black light.
2. A TAM panel.
3. A aluminum crack block.
4. An optical refractometer.
166.The intensity of new light bulbs should be approximately 1000 microwatts/cm2 at a distance
of:

1. 10 inches from the face of the filter.

2. 15 inches from the face of the filter.
3. 20 inches from the face of the filter.
4. 25 inches from the face of the filter.

167.True or False

TAM panels have two distinct sides. The rough side is used to determine the washability
of the penetrant.
168.True or False

Black light intensity will vary with line voltage.

169.In a darkened area your eyes will:

1. Become Less sensitive.

 2. Become more sensitive.
3. Fluoresce.
4. Not change in sensitivity.
170.The black light will not operate when the line voltage dips below:

1. 150 Volts.
2. 120 Volts.
3. 100 Volts.
4. 90 Volts.
171.A hydrophilic emulsifier needs to be mixed with water. If the emulsifier is too strong:

1. Excessive background fluorescence will occur.

2. The penetrant will not fluoresce properly.
3. The emulsifier is wasted and over-removal of the penetrant may result.
4. All of the above may occur.
172.The water temperature and water pressure gauges require periodic:

1. Maintenance.
2. Calibration.
3. Removal.
4. Flushing.
173.Black light filters:

1. Do not require cleaning.

2. Require periodic cleaning.
3. Should be adjusted to the proper wavelength.
4. Will rarely become hot.
174.Typically, the temperature of the rinse water is between:

1. 60-85 degrees Fahrenheit.

2. 60-85 degrees Celsius.
3. 20- 80 degrees Fahrenheit.
4. Any temperature will work as long at the penetrant can be removed.
175.True or False

Always operate a black light without the filter in place.

176.Black light bulbs can vary as much as ___ percent in their intensity.

1. 100
2. 75
3. 50
4. 25
 Practice Quiz 8
177.Which of the following represents a health hazard.

1. W - White
2. 2 - Yellow
3. 3 - Blue
4. 4 - Red
178.Which of the following represents a flammability hazard.

1. W - White
2. 2 - Yellow
3. 3 - Blue
4. 4 - Red
179.Which of the following represents a reactivity hazard.

1. W - White
2. 2 - Yellow
3. 3 - Blue
4. 4 - Red
180."OSHA" stands for:

1. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

2. Occupational Health and Safety Association
3. Operational Health and Safety Association
4. Operational Health and Safety Administration

181.The Hazard Communication Standard which assures the safe handling of hazardous
chemicals in the work place and how to protect yourself is issued by the:

1. Hazardous Chemical and Safety Administration.

2. Hazardous Safety and Resource Administration.
3. Hazard Communication Standard.
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
182."MSDS" stands for:

1. Material Safety Distribution Sheet.

2. Material Systems Data Sheet.
3. Material Safety Data Sheet.
4. Material Safety Disclosure Sheet.
183.Which section contains information on who makes the chemical, address, emergency phone
numbers, trade names, and the formula?

1. Section 1.
2. Section 2.
3. Section 3.
4. Section 4.