VIVEKANANDA SCHOOL OF LAW AND LEGAL STUDIES

LAW AND EMERGING TECHNOLOGY (LLB 405)

Multiple Choice Questions

Prepared by:
Ms. Upmashree
Ms. Ritika Chauhan
Ms. Ravneet Kaur

Q.1. Which article of the Constitution of

India lays the fundamental duty of the Q.5. The harmful effects of the technology
citizen to develop the scientific temper, cannot be disregarded for the sole reason
humanism and the spirit of inquiry and that it make our lives easier and
reform? comfortable. In the light of the above
a. 51A(b) statement, which of the following can be
b. 51A(h) termed as the negative impacts of
c. 51A(c) technology on our society?
d. 51A(g) A. Resource Depletion B. Environmental
pollution C. Automation in Industry and
Q.2. Whichphase of Industrial Revolution Household D. Effective Communication E.
is also known as Technological Mental Health issues
Revolution? a. A, B &D
a. First b. A, B, E & D
b. Second c. A,B,C,D,E
c. Third d. A,B& E
d. Fourth
Q.6. The inter-relation between Law,
Q.3. In a technological society, ethics and technology suggests that the
a. the society shapes technology purpose of law is to ensure safe and
b. Technology determines its own pace peaceful society where the rights of each
and shapes society individual are protected from the
c. both views are false destructive technology or technological
d. Both are true developments. This statement is
a. True
Q.4. Full Form of IN-CERT? b. Somewhat true
a. Indian Computer Emergency Resource c. Not true at all
Team d. Could be true in certain circumstances
b. Indian Cyber Emergency Response
Team Q.7. The role of a legal system in
c. Indian Computer Emergency Response technological innovation and development
Team is that of a
d. Indian Cyber Emergency Resource a. facilitator
Team b. constraint
c. facilitator as well as constraint Q.8.The central concept of technological
d. there is no relation between the two society is technique. Who gave this
theory?
a. Jürgen Habermas d. Peter chalk
b. Jacques Ellul
c. Hans Kelson Q. 12 According to the World Trade
d. John Wilkinson Report 2017, what are the two processes
involved in producing a new technology?
Q. 9. "Technology is transforming the a. Research and Development
legal profession, but it will not make the b. Invention and Innovation
professional judgment and expertise of c. Investment and Man force
lawyers obsolete. It will enable those who d. Demand and Supply
adopt, employ, and leverage it to provide
better and more cost-effective legal Q. 13 Emerging technologies are the
services and representation for their technologies that are
clients." Whether the statement is a. New
a. True b. Innovative
b. false c. Still in development and are expected to
c. Partly true and Partly False have a socio-economic impact
d. None of the above d. All of the above

Q.10. " Science ignored the ultimate Q. 14. What are the types of approaches to
purposes and looked at fact alone. It made emerging technologies?
the world jump forward with a leap, built a. Generic, Participatory and deliberative
up a glittering civilization, opened up ethical approach and Experimental.
innumerable avenues for the growth of b. Generic, Anticipatory, Exploratory and
knowledge, and added to the power of man Participatory and deliberative ethical
to such an extent that for the first time it approach
was possible to conceive that man could c. Generic, Anticipatory, Ethical risk
triumph over and shape his physical analysis, Participatory and deliberative
environment." Who quoted these words? ethical approach, Experimental.
a. Mahatma Gandhi d. Generic, Anticipatory, Ethical risk
b. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru analysis, Exploratory and Experimental
c. Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
d. Dr. Kailasavadivoo Sivan Q.15 What is the meant by Generic
Approach?
Q. 11. Who is the Director General of IN- a. It include the opinions, viewpoints, and
CERT? moral intuitions and judgments of different
a. Dr. Sanjay Bahl people in a way that could enrich ethical
b.Arvind Kumar assessments.
c. Rajiv Jain b. It combines ethical analysis with various
kinds of foresight, forecasting or futures
studies techniques, such as scenarios, trend
analysis, Delphi panels, horizontal
scanning, as well as various methods of
technology assessment.
c. It is a process of defining, assessing, features of the technology.
analyzing and managing risks.
d. It rest on conceptual analysis and Q.16 What is the meant by Anticipatory
empirical observations of the general Approach?
a. It include the opinions, viewpoints, and b. This generally involves borrowing
moral intuitions and judgments of different characteristics from human intelligence,
people in a way that could enrich ethical and applying them as algorithms in a
assessments. computer friendly way.
b. It combines ethical analysis with various c. Both are true
kinds of foresight, forecasting or futures d. a is false but b is true.
studies techniques, such as scenarios, trend
analysis, Delphi panels, horizontal Q.19. Where did the Industrial Revolution
scanning, as well as various methods of start?
technology assessment. a. Britain
c. It is a process of defining, assessing, b. Australia
analyzing and managing risks. c. France
d. It rest on conceptual analysis and d. America
empirical observations of the general
features of the technology. Q.20. Which phase of industrial revolution
is also known as Digital Revolution?
Q.17 What is Artificial Intelligence? a. First
a.It is the language of the universe and b. Second
system built to solve universal problems c. Third
would need to be proficient in it. d. Fourth
b.It is the study of how people make
choices according to their preferred Q. 21 Who used the phrase "Fourth
outcomes. Industrial Revolution" in 2016?
c. It translate all our theories and concepts a. Edward Snowden
into a machine-readable language so that it b.Elon Musk
can make its computations to produce an c. Klaus Schwab
output that we can understand. d. Louise Brown
d.It refers to the simulation of human
intelligence in machines that are Q. 22 According to Article 3 of UN
programmed to think and act like humans. Convention on Biodiversity,
a. States do not have the sovereign right to
Q.18Which of the following is true? exploit their own resources.
a. Artificial Intelligence (AI) is a branch of b. Each Contracting Party shall, as far as
Science which deals with helping possible and as appropriate, cooperate with
machines find solutions to complex other Contracting Parties, directly or,
problems in a more human-like fashion. where appropriate, through competent
international organizations, in respect of
areas beyond national jurisdiction and on
other matters of mutual interest, for the
conservation and sustainable use of
biological diversity.
c. Each Contracting Party shall Integrate,
as far as possible and as appropriate, the
conservation and sustainable use of
biological diversity into relevant sectoral d. States have the sovereign right to exploit
or cross-sectoral plans, programmes and their own resources pursuant to their own
policies. environmental policies, and the responsibility
to ensure that activities within their c. Facebook Inc. v. State of W.B. 2018
jurisdiction or control do not cause damage CriLJ 1575
to the environment of other States or of d. Tehseen S. Poonawalla v. Union of
areas beyond the limits of national India 2018 (6) SCC 72
jurisdiction.
Q. 27 Blue whale challenge game case?
Q.23 What are the major inventions that a. Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd)
took place in the Third Industrial v.Union of India (2017) 10 SCC 1
Revolution? b. Common Cause v.Union of India AIR
a.World wide web 2018 SC 1665
b. Electric telegraph c. Facebook Inc. v. State of W.B. 2018
c. Automobile CriLJ 1575
d. Textile Machinery d. SnehaKalita v. Union of India and
Another Writ Petition (Civil) No.943/2017
Q.24 What are the major issues faced in
digital revolution? Q. 28 Information ethics has been defined
a. Information sharing and Privacy as "the branch of ethics that focuses on the
b. Copyright and Trademark issues relationship between the creation,
c. Both organization, dissemination, and use of
d. None information, and the ethical standards and
Q. 25Which of the following sections of moral codes governing human conduct in
the Indian Penal Code was inserted by the society". What are the ethical issues
Information Technology (Amendment) involved in ICT?
Act 2008? a. Privacy
a. Section 4(1) b. Intellectual Freedom
b. Section 4(2) c. Security
c. Section 4(3) d. All of them
d. None of the above
Q. 29Under which statute the Rules for the
Q.26 Which of the following judgment the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and
apex court recognised a fundamental right Storage of Hazardous
to privacy of every individual guaranteed Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered
by the Constitution within Article 21 in Organisms or Cells 1989were notified?
particular and Part III on the whole? a. The Biological Diversity Act
a. Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) b. The Environment (Protection) Act
v.Union of India (2017) 10 SCC 1 c. The Protection of Plant Varieties and
b. Common Cause v.Union of India AIR farmer's right Act
2018 SC 1665 d. None of the above

Q. 30 In which chapter of The Protection

of Plant Varieties and farmer's right Act,
the Farmer's Rights are defined?
a. IV
b. V
c. VI Q.31 What type of varieties can be registered
d. VII under Section 14 of the Protection of Plant
Varieties and farmer's right Act, the Farmer's
Rights Act 2001? Q.35Which section of the Plant Variety
a. Such genera and species as notified by Act 2001 deals with compulsory licence?
Central Government. a. 47
b. An extant variety b. 48
c. A farmers’ variety. c. 49
d. All of the above d. 50

Q. 32 On what ground, the Central Q. 36 Which authority under The

Government may delete any genera or Biological Diversity Act is empowered to
species from the list of genera or species advise the Central Government on matters
specified in a notification issued under relating to the conservation of biodiversity,
sub-section (2) of Section 29? sustainable use of its components and
a. in the public interest equitable sharing of benefits arising out of
b. species is harmful the utilisation of biological resources?
c. Both a. State Biodiversity Board
d. No such power is there b. Biodiversity Management Committee
c. National Biodiversity Authority
Q.33 Who may apply for registration of d. National Green Tribunal
plant variety under Section 16 of the
Protection of Plant Varieties and farmer's Q. 37Which section of the biological
right Act, the Farmer's Rights Act 2001? diversity Act deals with the determination
a. any person claiming to be the breeder of of equitable benefit sharing by National
the variety Biodiversity Authority?
b. Farmer claiming to be the breeder of the a.22
variety b. 21
c. any successor of the breeder of the c. 23
variety d. 20
d. All of the above
Q.38 Who is not required to seek previous
Q.34The certificate of registration issued approval of National Biodiversity
under the Plant Variety Act 2001 shall be Authority under Section 3 of the biological
valid in case of trees and vines for diversity act?
a. 9 a. Non-Resident Indian
b. 6 b. Citizen of India
c. 12 c. Non Citizen
d. 10 d. Body corporate registered outside India

Q. 39 As per Section 2(c)of the biological

diversity act, biological resources include
a. Plants
b. Organisms
c. Micro-organisms
d. All of the above
Q. 40 Genetic Engineering includes heritable material
a. Insertion of one cell into another d. All of the above
b. Modification of organism
c. Deletion and removal of parts of Q. 41Which of the following authorities
function as a body under the Department
of Environment Forests and Wildlife for Q. 43 Which rule of the Manufacture, Use,
approval of activities involving large scale Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous
use of hazardous microorganisms and Micro-Organisms Genetically Engineered
recombinants in research and industrial Organisms or Cell Rules, 1989 establishes
production from the environmental angle that the production in which genetically
under the Manufacture, Use, Import, engineered organisms or cells or
Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro- microorganisms are generated or used
Organisms Genetically Engineered shall not be commenced except with the
Organisms or Cell Rules, 1989? consent of Genetic Engineering Approval
a. Review Committee on Genetic Committee with respect of discharge of
Manipulation genetically engineered organisms or cells
b. Institutional Biosafety Committee into the environment.
c. Genetic Engineering Approval a. 8
Committee b. 9
d. Recombinant DNA Advisory c. 10
Committee d. 11

Q. 42 Which of the following authorities Q. 44Which of the following is the

function in the Department of Farmer's Variety?
Biotechnology to monitor the safety a. has been traditionally cultivated and
related aspect in respect of on-going evolved by the farmers in their fields
research projects and activities involving b. is a wild relative or land race of a
genetically engineered variety about which the farmers possess
organisms/hazardous microorganisms common knowledge.
under the Manufacture, Use, Import, c. Both
Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro- d. only a
Organisms Genetically Engineered
Organisms or Cell Rules, 1989? Q. 45 Rule 7 of the Manufacture, Use,
a. Review Committee on Genetic Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous
Manipulation Micro-Organisms Genetically Engineered
b. Institutional Biosafety Committee Organisms or Cell Rules, 1989 prohibits
c. State Biotechnology Co-ordination a. Import of genetically modified
Committee organisms
d. Recombinant DNA Advisory b. Import of hazardous microorganisms of
Committee any organisms
c. Import of any hazardous
microorganisms of genetically engineered
organisms/substances or cells
d. All of the above

Q.46 In which of the following case it was

held that SBB has got powers to demand
‘Fair and Equitable Benefit Sharing’ from b. Divya Pharmacy v.Union of India
an Indian Entity? c. Novartis v. Union of India
a. SharatBabuDigumarti v. Govt. of NCT d. Monsanto Technology LLC v.
of Delhi Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd.
 b. Section 6
Q. 47The first genetically modified crop to c. Section 7
be commercialised in India d. Section 8
a. Bt cotton
b.Bt Mustard Q. 49TheState Biodiversity Board is
c. BtBrinjal established under
d. Bt Wheat a. Section 21
b. Section 22
Q.48The National Biodiversity Authority c. Section 23
is established under d. Section 24
a. Section 5
Q.50 Which case dealt with patentability
of genetically modified plants?
a. SharatBabuDigumarti v. Govt. of NCT
of Delhi
b. Divya Pharmacy v.Union of India
c. Novartis v. Union of India
d. Monsanto Technology LLC v.
Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd.

51. When the UNCITRAL Model Law c. Authority test

on E-Commerce came into force? d. Sliding Scale test
a. 1996
b. 2000 55. Which one of the following ia not
c. 2001 the leading case on Jurisdiction of E-
d. 2004 Commerce?
52. Public key is used to……? a. Zippo Manufacturer vs Zippo .com,
a. publish the documents Inc 952 F. Supp.1119 1997
b. make payments b. Burger King Corp vs. Rudzewicz
c. verify sign c. Trimex International FZE Ltd. vs
d. digitally sign Vedanta Aluminium Ltd., AIR 2010
53. Digital signature are created and SCC (Supp.) 455
verified through d. Banyan Tree Holding (P) Ltd.
a. Programme vsMurali Krishna Reddy, 2008 Indlaw
b. Cryptography Del 2280
c. Graphical Coding
d. HTML 56.is a type of online
contract where all the terms and
54. Which one of the following is not a conditions are mentioned on a website
jurisdiction test laid down on E- to which a user indicates his
Commerce? acceptance by clicking on “I agree”
a. Long Arm Statute Test button on the screen.
b. Minimum Contact Test a. Shrink Wrap Contract
b. Click Wrap Contract
c. Browse wrap contract 57. As per section 13 of IT Act when is
d. None of the above. the dispatch of electronic record occurs
a. when it enters a computer resource 61. Which one of the following is not
outside the control of the originator. an example of B2B mode of E-
b. When it is sent by the orignator Commerce?
c. When it reaches the intermediary a. India Mart
d. None of the above b. Boeing
c. wholesaler places an order from a
58. Which one of the following company’s website
provisions provides validity to d. All of the above
contracts formed through electronic
record? 62. E-bay and Quicker is an example of
a. Section 10 which of the following model of E-
b. Section 10A commerce?
c. Section 11 a. B2B
d. Section 12 b.B2C
c.C2B
d. C2C

63. Cryptography
involves a unique single key for both
encrypting and decrypting a message.
a. Asymmetric Cryptography
59. means any person who b. Symmetric Cryptography

on behalf of another person receives, c. Both of the above

stores or transmits that record or d. None of the above
provides any service with respect to
that record and includes telecom 64. What is the hierarchy of India’s
service providers, network service PKI INFRASTRUCTURE?
providers, internet service providers, a. Subscriber < Certifying Authority <
web-hosting service providers, search Controller of Certifying Authority
engines, online payment sites, online- b. Certifying authority < Subscriber <
auction sites, online-market places and Controller of Certifying Authority
cyber cafes. c. Controller of Certifying Authority <
a. Originator Subscriber < Certifying Authority
b. Addressee d. Subscriber < Controller of Certifying
c. Intermediary Authority < Certifying authority
d. None of the above
65. Which Section of IT Act defines a
60. Which rule of communication is digital signature?
applicable to E-mail contract? a. Section 2(1)(p)
a. Postal Rule b. Section 2 (1)(q)
b. Receipt Rule c. Section 2(1)(ta)
c. both of the above d. Section 2(1)(x)
d. none of the above
66. Which one of the following tests of the forum state?
jurisdiction is for determining the level a. Long arm statute test
of interactivity of the website, for the b. Sliding Scale test
purposes of ascertaining jurisdiction of c. Effect test
d. General Jurisdiction test 70. Which provision of the
UNCITRAL Model Law deals with
67. Which of the following is legal recognition of data messages?
subsidiary bodies of PKI system? a. Art. 5
a. Root Certifying Authority of India b. Art 7
b. The National Repository of Digital c. Art 8
Certificate d. Art 9
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above 71. In which of the following
circumstances an Intermediary is
68. What are the objective of exempted from his liability given under
UNCITRAL Model Law on E- section 79 of the Act?
Commerce? a. the intermediary observes due
a. To provide a set of internationally diligence or any guidelines issued by
acceptable rules with an aim to remove the Central Government in this regard
legal obstacles in international trade b. the intermediary observes due
caused by inadequacies and diligence or any guidelines issued by
divergences in law affecting trade the Central Government in this regard
b. To establish relevant legislation c. the intermediary merely provides
where none existed and promotion of access to a communication system over
harmonization and unification of which information made available by
international trade laws. third parties is transmitted or
c. To provide an equal treatment to temporarily stored or hosted
paper based and electronic information, d. All of the above
thus enabling the use of paperless
communication. 72. case challenged the
d. All the above constitutional validity of section 79 of
IT, Act, 2000.
69. Which of the following are the a. Anvar P.V. Basheer, 2014 10 SCC
fundamental principles of UNCITRAl 473
Model Law on E-Commerce? b. Shreya Singhalvs UOI, (2013) 12
a. Non Discrimination S.C.C. 73
b. Technological Neutrality c. SnehaKalitavs UOI, 2018 12 SCC
c. Functional Equivalence 674
d. All the above d. Avinash Bajaj vs State od Delhi,
2004 SCCOnline Del 1160

73. In which case it was held that the

compulsorily administration of
techniques such Narco Analysis, Brain
mapping and Polygraph test violates
the rights against self incrimination.
This is because the underlying
rationale of the said right is to ensure
the reliability as well as voluntariness a. Selvivs State of Karnataka, AIR
of the statements that are admitted as 2010 SC 1974
evidence” b. TapasyaUmesh Patel vs UOI, AIR
2017 SC 3931
c. Balbir Singh vs Authorization 77. means a person who
Committee, AIR 2004 Delhi 413 has been granted a license to issue a
d. None of the above Digital Signature Certificate.
a. controller
74. What is the name of the scientist b. Certifying Authority
who fir the 1st time used DNA profiling c. certified issuer
in criminal investigation? d. licensed authority
a. Dr.Jeffreys
b. Dr.Alexandar 78. What is/are component of IT Act
c. Dr.F.Frey 2000 ?
d. None of the above a. Legal Recognition to Digital
Signatures
75. In which of the following cases b. Regulation of Certification
DNA profiling can be used Authorities
a. To know the parentage c. Digital Certificates
b. to identify disaster victims d. All the above
c. identify origin of fluid sample
associated with a crime 79. In which year the Indian IT Act,
d. All of the above 2000 got updated?
a. 2006
76. Which of the following statement is b. 2008
not true about the NDPS Act, 1985? c. 2010
a. It prohibits cultivation, production, d. 2012
possession, sale, purchase, trade,
import, export, use and consumption of 80. Which section of IT Act was struck
narcotic drugs and psychotropic down by Supreme Court of India in
substances. Shreya Singhal case?
b. it provides adequate penalties for a. Section 66A
drug trafficking, strengthen b. Section 66D
enforcement powers and enforce c. Section 66F
controls over psychotropic substances d. Section 66B
c. Central govt. has constituted a fund
to be called as National fund to control 81. is a set of technology
drug abuse that directly manipulates on an
d. Cultivation of opium, poppy and organism’s genes, change the genetic
cannabis plant is not prohibited under makeup of cells and add one or more
the Act. new traits that are not found in that
organism.
a. Genetic Technology
b. Narcoanalysis
c. Mitochondria
d. none of the above
82. Which of the following is not true dosage, administration and
about “Generic Drugs”? performance.
a. It is a drug that is not branded but is b. It is generally less expensive
similar to a branded drug in terms of c. It is also called as bioequivalent to
the branded drug Krishna Reddy and Anr., 2008(38)
d. Generic drugs are illegal PTC 288 (Del)
a. Sliding Scale test
83. Helsinki Declaration 1964 is b. Effect Test
related to which of the following c. Personal Jurisdiction Test
a. Cloning d. both a and b
b. Experiment on Human beings
c. Genetic technology 87. A digital signature guarantees
d. Handriting which of the following
a. Authenticity
84. Which of the following classes of b. Non repudiation
substance is being covered under c. Integrity
NDPS Act, 1985? d. all of the above
a. Narcotic Drugs
b. Psychotropic substances 88. Which of the following section
c. Controlled substances prescribes the method of authentication
d. all of the above used by digital signatures
a. Section 3
85. In which of the following case b. Section 3A
court held that “the law of patent is a c. Section 4
compromise between the interest of the d. Section 5
inventor and the public. Public interest
is and should always be fundamental in 89. What is the punishment prescribed
deciding a lis between the partis while under section 74 of the IT Act for
granting a compulsory licence for publication of electronic signature
medicines/drugs.” certificate for a fraudulent/unlawful
a. Monsanto Technology vsNuziweedu purpose?
seeds, (2019) 3 SCC 381 a. Imprisonment of one year or fine
b. Novartis Ag vs UOI, (2013) 6 SCC 1 upto one lakh rupees or both
c. Balbirsinghvs The Authorisation b. Imprisonment of two years or fine
Committee, AIR 2004 Delhi 413 upto one lakh rupees or both
d. State of BonbayvsKathiKaluOghad c. Imprisonment of three years or fine
upto two lakh rupees or both
86. Which of the following test were d. No imprisonment only fine of two
being applied in combination in lakh rupees
Banyan tree holding Ltd. vsMurali
90. Under Zippo manufacturing Co vs
Zippo dot com, Inc, which of the
following categories of websites are
recognised
a. Passive website
b. Commercial/ Active website
c. Interactive website
d. all of the above
of dispatch of data messages?
91. Which Article of UNCITRAL a. Art. 11
Model Law provides for time and place b. Art.12
c. Art. 14
d. Art 15 c. WorldWestling Entertainment Inc.
vsReshma Collection, 2014 Indlaw Del
92. What is the full form of PSS Act, 2917
2000? d. Banyan Tree Holding Ltd.
a. Payment and Settlement System Act, vsMuraliKeishna Reddy, 2008 Indlaw
2007 Del 2280
b. Payment and Subscriber System Act,
2007 96. Which of the following is sensitive
c. Publication and Subscription System personal data or information?
Act 2007 a. password
d. None of the above b. financial information
c. sexual orientation
93. Which of the following provision d. all of the above
of IT Act, 2000 deals with extra-
teritorial jurisdiction of the same? 97. Which among the following is not
a. Section 75 of the IT Act an essential of a valid contract
b. Section I(2) read with section 75 of a. the parties to the contract should be
the IT Act competent
c. Section 3 of the IT Act b. there should be lawful consideration
d. Section 5 read with section 75 of the for the contract
IT Act c. the object of the contract should be
lawful
94. which of the following are the d. consent of parties not required
potential issues of E-Commerce? 98. What are the advantages of E-
a. Security Issuea banking?
b. Jurisdiction issue a. It is time and cost saving
c. IPR related issues b. Convenient and efficient
d. All of the above c. 24 hour facility is provided
d. All of the above
95. Which of the following case does
not relate with formation of Electronic 99. Which of the following is true
Contract? about E-Commerce?
a. P. R Transport Agency vs UOI, AIR a. It is a method of conducting business
2006 ALL. 23 through electronic means
b. Trimex International Ltd. vs b. It does not only include the act of
Vedanta Aluminium Ltd, AIR 2010 purchasing goods and availing services
SCC (supp.) 455 through inline platform but also many
other services such as supply chain
services, delivery, dispute resolution
mechanism etc.
c. B2B, B2C and C2C are some of the
common e-models of e-commerce
d. All of the above
100. Which of the following is the 381
leading case on genetic engineering? b. Selvivs State of Karnataka (2010) 7
a. Monsanto Technology LLC SCC 263
vsNuziweedu Seeds Ltd. (2019) 3 SCC c. SwasthyaAdhikarManchvs UOI
(2014) 14 SCC 788 c. Design and layout and programme
d. None of the above analysis in any form
d. All of the above.
101. Many Cyber Crimes comes under
Indian Penal Code Which one of the 105.What is meant by the term 'cyber-
following is an example? crime'?
a. Sending Threatening message by a. Any crime that uses computers to
Email jeopardise or attempt to jeopardise
b. Forgery of Electronic Record national security
c. Bogus Website b. The use of computer networks to
d. All of above commit financial or identity fraud
c. The theft of digital information
102. Assessing Computer without prior d. Any crime that involves computers
authorization is a cyber crime that and networks
comes under
a. Section 65 106. In cyber law terminology ‘DoS’
b. Section 66 means:
c. Section 68
d.Section 70 a. Denial of Service
b. Disc operating System
103. Hacker is the one who c. Distant operator Service
a. Intends to engage in criminal d. None of these
activity, sabotage computers, steal
information and cause disruption to the 107. Section 66F of IT Act deals with
networks for political motives. a. Cyber stalking
b. Intends to engage in criminal b. Email bombing
activity, sabotage computers, steal c. Child pornography
information and cause disruption to the d. Cyber terrorism
networks for personal motives.
c. Has no intent to do any criminal 108. Act of attempting to acquire
activity. information such as usernames,
d.Both a & b. passwords, and credit card details by
masquerading as a trustworthy entity is
104. Computer source code means called
a. Listing of programmes a. email bombing
b. Computer commands b. Spamming
c. Cyber stalking
d. Phishing

109. Use of electronic messaging

systems to send unsolicited bulk
messages are called
a. email bombing
b. Spamming
c. Cyber stalking 110. The practice of making a
d. Phishing transmission appears to come from an
authorized user.
a. Hacking b. Spamming
b. Spoofing c. Cyber stalking
c. Spamming d. Phishing
d. spamdexing
116. Information Technology
111. Which section of IT Act covers Amendment Act was enacted in the
most of the common crimes arising out year
of “Unauthorised Access” a. 2000
a. Section 66 b. 2001
b. Section 67 c. 2008
c. Section 73 d. 2009
d. Section 74
117. Punishment for sending offensive
112. The use of the Internet or other messages through communication
electronic means to stalk or harass an service are given in:
individual, a group of individuals, or an a. 66A
organisation is termed: b. 65
a. Cyberspace c. 66B
b. Cyber stalking d. 66F
c. Pornography
d. None of these 118. What does the process of
registering a domain name that is the
113. Programs that multiply like trademark of another company called:
viruses but spread from computer to a. Cybersquatting
computer are called as: b. Trademark Violation
a. Worms c. Patent violation
b. Virus d. Name stealing
c. Boot
d. None of these 119. A donor can authorise the removal
of any organ from the body after the
114. Section 66C of IT Act deals with death under section of the
a. Cyber stalking Transplantation of Human Organs Act,
b. Email bombing 1994:
c. Child pornography A. Section 9
d. Punishment for Identity Theft b. Section 3
c. Section 8
115. Section-66E of IT Act deals with d. Section 7
a. Punishment for violation of Privacy.
120. Near relative” means:
a. Spouse, son, daughter, father
b. Mother, brother
c. Spouse, son, daughter, father,
mother, brother or sister
d. Spouse, son, daughter, father, code is covered in:
mother a. Section 43
b. Section 45
121. Tampering of computer source c. Section 47
d. Section 49 the intention of relinquishing the child
to be raised by others.
122. Section 3 of the Medical d. It is situation where the surrogate
Termination of Pregnancy Act provides becomes pregnant via embryo transfer
for the time period when pregnancy with a child of which she is not the
may be terminated: biological mother.
a. 8 weeks to 20 weeks
b. 12 weeks to 20 weeks 125. What was held in Shreya Singhal
c. 8 weeks to 12 weeks v. UOI?
d. 8 weeks to 24 weeks a. Section 66A was struck down
b. Section 118 (d) of the Kerala Police
123. In what case does the Court give Act violates article 19 (1) (a) of the
directions to the State Government and Constitution.
Union Territories to educate the people c. Section 79 is valid subject to section
of the necessity of implementing the 79 (3) (b)
provisions of the PCPNDT Act: d. All of the above
a. TapasyaUmeshPisal v. UOI
b. Voluntary Health Association of 126. The use of the Internet or other
Punjab v. UOI electronic means to stalk or harass an
c. FOGSI v. UOI individual, a group of individuals, or an
d. Balbir Singh v. The Authorisation organisation is termed:
Committee a. Cyberspace
b. Cyber stalking
124. What do you mean by “altruistic c. Pornography
surrogacy”? d. None of these
a. It is a situation where the surrogate
receives no financial reward for her 127. State of Bombay v.
pregnancy or the relinquishment of the KathiKaluOgad, the Court held that:
child. a. giving finger prints leads to violation
b. It is a form of surrogacy in which a of article 20 (3)
gestational carrier is paid to carry a b. giving finger prints leads to self
child to maturity in her womb. incrimination
c. It is a situation where the surrogate c. giving finger prints may amount to
is pregnant with her own biological giving evidence but is not included
child, but this child was conceived with within the expression ‘to be a witness’
d. all of the above

128. Section 79 of the IT provides:

a. Conditional immunity with respect
to third party information.
b. Holds intermediaries liable in case
of lack of due diligence.
c. That the intermediaries are required 129. Section 66F deals with:
to give notice and take down offensive a. Cyber terrorism
material. b. Punishment for violation of privacy
d. All of the above. c. Punishment for sending offensive
messages
d. Identity theft b. storing pornographic material in
india is illegal in india
130. Human cloning is: c. transmitting or storing pornographic
a. Legal in india material in any computer or storage
b. Illegal in India device is illegal and punishable offence
c. Governed by ICMR in India
d. None of the above d. all of the above

131. Whoever knowingly or 133. SnehaKalita v. UOI dealt with

intentionally - a. Taking immediate measures to
used for ban/block all sites linked with the Blue
a computer, computer programme, Whale Online game and To spread
computer system or computer network, awareness about the evil impact of
when the computer source code is Blue Whale and such other life
required to be kept or maintained by threatening games.
law for the time being in force, shall be b. To spread awareness about the
punishable with imprisonment up to dignity of life and not to waste it.
three years, or with fine which may c. a&b
extend up to two lakh rupees, or with d. To spread awareness about the evil
both. impact of Blue Whale and such other
a. conceals, destroys or alters or life threatening games.
intentionally or knowingly causes 134. Section 84 of the Indian Patent
another to conceal, destroy, or alter any Act provides for
computer source code a. Evergreening of patents
b. conceals, alters or intentionally or b. Compulsory licensing
knowingly causes another to conceal or c. a and b
alter any computer source code d. None of the above
c. destroys or alters or intentionally or
knowingly causes another to destroy, 135. Section 90 of the Indian Patent act
or alter any computer source code provides for
d. none of the above a. Royalty to be paid to the patent
holder
132. hild pornography is b. Availability of patented product at
a. illegal in india reasonable price to the public
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

136. A living donor cannot donate

his/her organs
a. True
b. False

137. Organs can be donated for

a. Therapeutic purposes
b. Research purposes
c. Both a &b 138. Surrogacy Regulation Bill, 2020
d. None of the above bans
a. Surrogacy in India b. Dowry Prohibition Act
b. Commercial surrogacy in india c. IPC
c. Altruistic surrogacy in india d. None of the above
d. Gestational surrogacy in india
142. Computer contaminant means any
139. Baby Manji Yamada v. Union Of set of computer instructions that are
India dealt with designed–
a. Organ transplantation a. to modify, destroy, record, transmit
b. Commercial surrogacy data or programme residing within a
c. ART computer, computer system or
d. Designer baby computer network; or
b.by any means to usurp the normal
140. What was the name of the first operation of the computer, computer
cloned mammal? system, or computer network;
A. Dolly-the sheep c. Both a and b
b. Dolly-the goat d. None of the above
c. Dolly-the cow
d. None of the above

141. PCPNDT Act, 1994 has its roots

in
a. Article 15 (2) of the Constitution of
india
 Answer Key

1. b 38. b 80. (a) 102 (b)

2. b 39. d 81. (a) 103 (c)
3. d 40. d 82. (d) 104(d)
4. c 41. c 83. (b) 105 (d)
5. d 42. a 84. (d) 106 (a)
6. a 43. a 85. (b) 107 (d)
7. c 44. c 86. (d) 108 (d)
8. b 45. c 87. (d) 109 (b)
9. a 46. b 88. (a) 110 (b)
10. b(Read 47. a 89. (b) 111 (a)
excerpt from 48. d 90. (d) 112 (b)
Discovery of 49. b 91. (d) 113 (a)
India given in 50. d 92. (a) 114 (d)
the Case 51. (a) 93. (b) 115 (a)
manual) 52. (c) 94. (d) 116 (c)
11. a 53. (b) 95. (d) 117 (a)
12. b 54. (c) 96. (d) 118 (a)
13. d 55. (c) 97. (d) 119 (a),
14. c 56. (b) 98. (d) 120 (c),
15. d 57. (a) 99. (d) 121 (a),
16. b 58. (b) 100.(a) 122 (a),
17. d 59. (c) 101 (d) 123 (b),
18. c 60. (b) 102 (b) 124 (a),
19. a 61. (d) 103 (c) 125 (d),
20. c 62. (d) 104(d) 126 (b),
21. c 63. (b) 105 (d) 127 (c),
22. d 64. (a) 106 (a) 128 (d),
23. a 65. (a) 107 (d) 129 (a),
24. c 66. (b) 108 (d) 130 (b),
25. c 67. (c) 109 (b) 131 (a),
26. a 68. (d) 110 (b) 132 (c),
27. d 69. (d) 111 (a) 133 (c),
28. d 70. (a) 112 (b) 134 (b),
29. b 71. (d) 113 (a) 135 (c),
30. c 72. (b) 114 (d) 136 (b),
31. d 73. (a) 115 (a), 137 (a),
32. a 74. (a) 116 (c), 138 (b),
33. d 75. (d) 117 (a), 139 (b)
34. a 76. (d) 118 (a), 140 (a)
35. a 77. (b) 119 (a), 141 (a)
36. c 78. (d) 100.(a) 142 (c)
37. b 79. (b) 101 (d)