Test Booklet Code

No. :
KANHA
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F1 2
1. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the 6. Match the following concerning essential elements
transfer of electrons from : and their functions in plants :
(1) PS-I to NADP+ (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(2) PS-I to ATP synthase (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(3) PS-II to Cytb6f complex (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
(4) Cytb6f complex to PS-I biosynthesis
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
2. The sequence that controls the copy number of the
Select the correct option :
linked DNA in the vector, is termed :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Palindromic sequence
(2) Recognition site (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) Selectable marker (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) Ori site (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. The specific palindromic sequence which is
recognized by EcoRI is :
7. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
(1) 5' - CTTAAG - 3' can be visualized with the help of :
3' - GAATTC - 5' (1) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(2) 5' - GGATCC - 3' (2) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
3' - CCTAGG - 5' (3) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(3) 5' - GAATTC - 3' (4) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(4) 5' - GGAACC - 3' 8. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
helix during transcription.
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(1) DNA polymerase
4. Identify the wrong statement with reference to (2) RNA polymerase
immunity.
(3) DNA ligase
(1) Active immunity is quick and gives full
response. (4) DNA helicase

(2) Foetus receives some antibodies from

mother, it is an example for passive 9. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
immunity. are transferred to assist those females who cannot
conceive ?
(3) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
antibodies are produced in the host’s body. (1) ICSI and ZIFT
It is called “Active immunity”. (2) GIFT and ICSI
(4) When ready-made antibodies are directly (3) ZIFT and IUT
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(4) GIFT and ZIFT
5. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
theory of inheritance was done by : 10. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
(1) Boveri (1) Lysine
(2) Morgan (2) Valine
(3) Mendel (3) Tyrosine
(4) Sutton (4) Glutamic Acid
 3 F1
11. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 16. Choose the correct pair from the following :
transport of oxygen.
(1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
(1) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
of DNA
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(2) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation (2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
of oxyhaemoglobin. positions within DNA
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
(3) Ligases - Join the two DNA
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
molecules
(4) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
O2 binding with haemoglobin. (4) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
fragments
12. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
(1) Mannitol and algin 17. Ray florets have :
(2) Laminarin and cellulose (1) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Starch and cellulose
(2) Half inferior ovary
(4) Amylopectin and glycogen
(3) Inferior ovary

13. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of (4) Superior ovary
sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
rams ? 18. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
(1) Cross breeding
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(2) Inbreeding thuringiensis
(3) Out crossing
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
(4) Mutational breeding
aquaticus first rDNA
14. Match the following columns and select the molecule
correct option. (c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
Column - I Column - II tumefaciens
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease (d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus typhimurium

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus Select the correct option from the following :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
19. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
15. Select the option including all sexually transmitted in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :
diseases.
(1) Ammonia and oxygen
(1) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(2) Ammonia and hydrogen
(2) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(3) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (3) Ammonia alone

(4) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes (4) Nitrate alone

F1 4
20. Name the plant growth regulator which upon 25. Match the following columns and select the
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length correct option.
of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane Column - I Column - II
crop. (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
(1) Ethylene second and
seventh ribs
(2) Abscisic acid
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
(3) Cytokinin Humerus
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(4) Gibberellin
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
with the sternum
21. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle (a) (b) (c) (d)
at : (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Nucellus (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) Chalaza
26. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
(3) Hilum Restriction Enzymes.
(1) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(4) Micropyle (2) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
ligases.
(3) Each restriction enzyme functions by
22. The process of growth is maximum during : inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(4) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(1) Senescence sites.
27. Match the following columns and select the
(2) Dormancy correct option.
(3) Log phase Column - I Column - II
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias
(4) Lag phase pest
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
symmetry and larva
23. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals with bilateral symmetry
are exemplified by : (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(1) Aschelminthes (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) Annelida (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) Ctenophora (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Platyhelminthes 28. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for
few days because :
(1) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous
24. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge system while the rest is situated along the
digester for further sewage treatment ? ventral part of its body.
(2) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
(1) Effluents of primary treatment while the rest is situated along the dorsal
part of its body.
(2) Activated sludge (3) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
(3) Primary sludge abdomen.
(4) the cockroach does not have nervous system.
(4) Floating debris
 5 F1
29. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits 35. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
highest species diversity ? is found in :
(1) Himalayas (1) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(2) Amazon forests (2) eustachian tube
(3) Western Ghats of India
(3) lining of intestine
(4) Madagascar
(4) ducts of salivary glands

30. Which is the important site of formation of

glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
36. Match the following with respect to meiosis :
(1) Golgi bodies
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(2) Polysomes
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(4) Peroxisomes
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over

31. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
algae ?
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) Anabaena and Volvox
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Chlorella and Spirulina
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) Gelidium and Gracilaria (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

32. Which one of the following is the most abundant
protein in the animals ? (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) Lectin
37. Which of the following statements about inclusion
(2) Insulin
bodies is incorrect ?
(3) Haemoglobin
(1) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(4) Collagen
(2) These represent reserve material in
cytoplasm.
33. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs
during : (3) They are not bound by any membrane.
(1) Diplotene (4) These are involved in ingestion of food
(2) Leptotene particles.

(3) Pachytene
(4) Zygotene 38. Which of the following would help in prevention of
diuresis ?

34. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did (1) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except vasoconstriction
in one character with contrasting traits ?
(2) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(1) 14
(3) More water reabsorption due to
(2) 8 undersecretion of ADH
(3) 4
(4) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
(4) 2 tubules due to aldosterone
F1 6
39. The transverse section of a plant shows following 43. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in
anatomical features : photorespiration leads to the formation of :
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles (1) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
surrounded by bundle sheath.
(2) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground of 2-C compound
tissue.
(3) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(4) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
Identify the category of plant and its part : 44. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
(1) Dicotyledonous stem the human body is :
(2) Dicotyledonous root (1) Female gametocytes
(3) Monocotyledonous stem (2) Male gametocytes
(4) Monocotyledonous root (3) Trophozoites

40. Which of the following statements is correct ? (4) Sporozoites

(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through three

H-bonds. 45. Identify the incorrect statement.
(2) Adenine does not pair with thymine. (1) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through two and is lighter in colour.
H-bonds. (2) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc.,
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through one heart wood is dark in colour.
H-bond. (3) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives
mechanical support.
41. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. (4) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water
and minerals from root to leaf.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy 46. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence (1) They have DNA with protein coat.
deaminase (2) They have free DNA without protein coat.
deficiency (3) They have RNA with protein coat.
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV (4) They have free RNA without protein coat.
infection
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus 47. Match the following diseases with the causative
thuringiensis organism and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d) Column - I Column - II

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
42. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples (a) (b) (c) (d)
of :
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(1) Industrial melanism
(2) Natural selection (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) Adaptive radiation (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) Convergent evolution (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
 7 F1
48. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 54. The number of substrate level phosphorylations
the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(1) When IA and IB are present together, they (1) Two
express same type of sugar. (2) Three
(2) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (3) Zero
(3) The gene (I) has three alleles. (4) One
(4) A person will have only two of the three
alleles.
55. Match the following :

49. According to Robert May, the global species (a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
diversity is about : activity
(1) 50 million (b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(2) 7 million (c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin
fungi
(3) 1.5 million
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
(4) 20 million
Choose the correct option from the following :
50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a (a) (b) (c) (d)
population ? (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Mortality (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) Species interaction (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Sex ratio (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Natality
56. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
51. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes of organisms which have evolved due to changes
place by : in environment brought about by anthropogenic
(1) wind and water action ?

(2) insects and water (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.

(3) insects or wind (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(4) water currents only (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
52. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
like dogs.
(1) Depolarisation of ventricles
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) only (d)
(3) Repolarisation of auricles
(3) only (a)
(4) Depolarisation of auricles
(4) (a) and (c)

53. Select the correct match.

(1) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal 57. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter
recessive trait, vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
chromosome-11 stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :
(1) S phase
(2) Thalassemia - X linked
(2) G2 phase
(3) Haemophilia - Y linked
(3) M phase
(4) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
dominant trait (4) G1 phase
F1 8
58. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine 64. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net
and caffeine are produced by plants for their : primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
(1) Defence action of the following statements is correct ?

(2) Effect on reproduction (1) Gross primary productivity and Net primary
productivity are one and same.
(3) Nutritive value
(2) There is no relationship between Gross
(4) Growth response
primary productivity and Net primary
productivity.
59. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is (3) Gross primary productivity is always less
completed : than net primary productivity.
(1) After zygote formation (4) Gross primary productivity is always more
(2) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an than net primary productivity.
ovum
(3) Prior to ovulation 65. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
examples in grassland ecosystem.
(4) At the time of copulation
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow

60. Which of the following statements is not (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
correct ?
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(1) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked together by hydrogen bonds. (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
(2) Genetically engineered insulin is produced Select the correct option :
in E-Coli.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) In man insulin is synthesised as a
proinsulin. (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C-peptide. (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
61. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
(1) High reflection of light from snow 66. Select the correct statement.
(2) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays (1) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
adipocytes.
(3) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
temperature (2) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(4) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of (3) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
UV-B radiation (4) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

62. Strobili or cones are found in :

67. Select the correct events that occur during
(1) Marchantia inspiration.
(2) Equisetum (a) Contraction of diaphragm
(3) Salvinia
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(4) Pteris
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
63. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C (1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C (2) only (d)
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C (3) (a) and (b)
(4) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C (4) (c) and (d)
 9 F1
68. The roots that originate from the base of the stem 73. Match the following columns and select the
are : correct option.
(1) Prop roots Column - I Column - II
(2) Lateral roots (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(3) Fibrous roots (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(4) Primary roots Gonadotropin
(hCG)
69. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified (c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
from :
glands
(1) Chondrocytes
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
(2) Compound epithelial cells Penis
(3) Squamous epithelial cells (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Columnar epithelial cells (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
70. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
of : (4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(1) Release of Green House gases
74. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
(2) Disposal of e-wastes is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
(3) Transport of Genetically modified organisms DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
from one country to another 6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is
approximately :
(4) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(1) 2.2 meters
71. Which of the following statements are true for (2) 2.7 meters
the phylum-Chordata ? (3) 2.0 meters
(4) 2.5 meters
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
head to tail and it is present throughout
their life. 75. The ovary is half inferior in :
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during (1) Sunflower
the embryonic period only. (2) Plum
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and (3) Brinjal
hollow. (4) Mustard
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
Hemichordata, Tunicata and 76. Identify the correct statement with regard to
Cephalochordata. G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) (a) and (b) (1) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
not replicate its DNA.
(2) (b) and (c)
(2) Nuclear Division takes place.
(3) (d) and (c) (3) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(4) (c) and (a) (4) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
place.

72. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and 77. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
peptide bond, respectively in their structure : release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
follicle ?
(1) Cellulose, lecithin
(1) Low concentration of LH
(2) Inulin, insulin
(2) Low concentration of FSH
(3) Chitin, cholesterol (3) High concentration of Estrogen
(4) Glycerol, trypsin (4) High concentration of Progesterone
F1 10
78. Identify the correct statement with reference to 82. The first phase of translation is :
human digestive system. (1) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(1) Ileum is a highly coiled part. (2) Recognition of an anti-codon
(2) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum. (3) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(3) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(4) Recognition of DNA molecule
(4) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
alimentary canal. 83. Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by :
79. Match the following columns and select the (1) Charles Darwin
correct option. (2) Oparin
Column - I Column - II (3) Karl Ernst von Baer
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (4) Alfred Wallace
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis 84. Match the following columns and select the
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release correct option.
histaminase, Column - I Column - II
destructive (a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon
enzymes gill slits
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
containing
caudal fin
histamine
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
80. The plant parts which consist of two generations - (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
one within the other :
85. Match the following columns and select the
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
correct option.
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
Column - I Column - II
gametes
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(c) Seed inside the fruit
butylicum
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(1) (c) and (d)
polysporum
(2) (a) and (d)
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
(3) (a) only
purpureus
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
81. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the lowering agent
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
(Bt) is resistant to : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Plant nematodes (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) Insect predators (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Insect pests (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) Fungal diseases (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
 11 F1
86. Which of the following is not an inhibitory 91. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
substance governing seed dormancy ? 16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
(1) Phenolic acid dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
(2) Para-ascorbic acid centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
(3) Gibberellic acid angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
(4) Abscisic acid
 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
87. Match the following columns and select the  4 π 0 
correct option. (1) 400 V
Column - I Column - II (2) zero

(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle (3) 50 V

ear and pharynx (4) 200 V

(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the 92. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
labyrinth source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the phase difference between current and voltage
π
oval window is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
3
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the the phase difference is again
π
between current
basilar 3
and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
membrane
(1) 1.0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) −1.0
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) zero
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) 0.5
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 93. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
frequency is incident on a photosensitive material.
88. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of : What will be the photoelectric current if the
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?
(1) caseinogen into casein
(1) one-fourth
(2) pepsinogen into pepsin
(2) zero
(3) protein into polypeptides
(3) doubled
(4) trypsinogen into trypsin
(4) four times
89. Presence of which of the following conditions in
94. Dimensions of stress are :
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
(1) [ M L0T−2 ]
(1) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(2) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
(2) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(3) [ M L T−2 ]
(3) Uremia and Ketonuria
(4) [ M L2 T−2 ]
(4) Uremia and Renal Calculi
95. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
90. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the
and in early morning is : potential difference is :
(1) Imbibition (1) 103 V
(2) Plasmolysis (2) 104 V
(3) Transpiration (3) 10 V
(4) Root pressure (4) 102 V
F1 12
96. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with 101. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns
air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF. the centre of the solenoid is :
The permittivity of the medium is : (µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2) (1) 6.28×10−5 T
(1) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2 (2) 3.14×10−5 T
(3) 6.28×10−4 T
(2) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 3.14×10−4 T
(3) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2 102. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
the ground after some time with a velocity of
97. The solids which have the negative temperature 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
coefficient of resistance are :
(1) 320 m
(1) semiconductors only (2) 300 m
(2) insulators and semiconductors (3) 360 m
(3) metals (4) 340 m
(4) insulators only 103. The color code of a resistance is given below :

98. For transistor action, which of the following

statements is correct ?
(1) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
junction are forward biased.
(2) The base region must be very thin and lightly The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively,
doped.
are :
(3) Base, emitter and collector regions should (1) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
have same doping concentrations.
(2) 470 Ω, 5%
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should (3) 470 kΩ, 5%
have same size.
(4) 47 kΩ, 10%

99. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and 104. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be :
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. (1) 458 < ib < 908
The pitch of the screw gauge is : (2) ib = 908
(3) 08 < ib < 308
(1) 0.5 mm
(4) 308 < ib < 458
(2) 1.0 mm
(3) 0.01 mm 105. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
(4) 0.25 mm surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface.
100. The phase difference between displacement and If the refractive index of the material of the prism
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal
motion is : to :
(1) µA
π
(1) rad µA
2 (2)
2
(2) zero
A
(3) π rad (3)
2µ
3π 2A
(4) rad (4)
2 µ
 13 F1
106. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are 110. When a uranium isotope 235
92 U is bombarded with
connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons
an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is and :
thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly 101
(1) 36 Kr
opened. The process is : 103
(2) 36 Kr
(1) isochoric 144
(3) 56 Ba
(2) isobaric (4) 91
40 Zr
(3) isothermal 111. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
(4) adiabatic (1) 1.5×1013 J
(2) 0.5×1013 J
(3) 4.5×1016 J
107. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not
(4) 4.5×1013 J
valid ?
(1) Deuteron atom 112. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
diameter d and number density n can be expressed
(2) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
as :
(3) Hydrogen atom 1
(1)
(4) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) 2 n2 πd2
1
(2) 2 2 2
2n π d
108. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the 1
ends of a massless string. The string passes over (3)
2 n πd
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The 1
(4)
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration 2 n πd2
due to gravity (g) is :
113. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging
from a fixed support. The length of the wire
changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its
free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
MgL
(1) AL1
MgL
(2) A(L1 − L)
(1) g/5
MgL1
(3)
(2) g/10 AL
Mg(L1 − L)
(3) g (4)
AL
(4) g/2
114. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is
109. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. from the centre of the sphere ?
The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
 1 
(1) 1 N/C  = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0 
(2) 5 N/C (1) 1.28×106 N/C
(2) 1.28×107 N/C
(3) zero
(3) 1.28×104 N/C
(4) 0.5 N/C (4) 1.28×105 N/C
F1 14
115. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 119. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly : and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
(1) 0.06 the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
(2) 0.006 tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
of water that will rise in this tube is :
(3) 6
(1) 10.0 g
(4) 0.6
(2) 20.0 g
116. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. (3) 2.5 g
What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
equal to half the radius of the earth ? (4) 5.0 g
(1) 30 N 120. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of
(2) 24 N 249 kPa and temperature 278C.
(3) 48 N
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(4) 32 N
(1) 0.1 kg/m3
117. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is : (2) 0.02 kg/m3
(3) 0.5 kg/m3
(4) 0.2 kg/m3

121. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a

magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The
(1) A B Y permeability of the material of the rod is :
0 0 1 (µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
0 1 1 (1) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1
1 0 1 (2) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1
1 1 0
(3) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1
(2) A B Y
(4) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1
0 0 1
0 1 0 122. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
1 0 0 ∧
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is
1 1 0 ∧
(3) A B Y 2k m .
∧
0 0 0 (1) −6 i N m
0 1 0 ∧
1 0 0 (2) 6k N m
∧
1 1 1 (3) 6i N m
(4) A B Y ∧
0 0 0 (4) 6j Nm
0 1 1
123. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas
1 0 1
1 1 1 is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
temperature)
118. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation 5
(1) kB T
between coherent sources is halved and the 2
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is 7
doubled, then the fringe width becomes : (2) kB T
2
(1) four times
1
(2) one-fourth (3) kB T
2
(3) double
3
(4) half (4) kB T
2
 15 F1
124. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming 128. The quantities of heat required to raise the
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
(1) 7.32×10−7 rad
ratio :
(2) 6.00×10−7 rad
(3) 3.66×10−7 rad 3
(1)
2
(4) 1.83×10−7 rad
5
(2)
125. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a 3
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having 27
surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the (3)
8
surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(1) 24×103 J 9
(4)
4
(2) 48×103 J
(3) 10×103 J 129. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
(4) 12×103 J metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
126. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
and magnetic field components to the intensity of resistance wire is :
an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
electromagnetic waves) (1) 1.5×10−1 m
(1) 1:c (2) 1.5×10−2 m
(2) 1 : c2 (3) 1.0×10−2 m
(3) c:1 (4) 1.0×10−1 m
(4) 1:1
130. The increase in the width of the depletion region
127. Which of the following graph represents the in a p-n junction diode is due to :
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for (1) both forward bias and reverse bias
copper ? (2) increase in forward current
(3) forward bias only

(1) (4) reverse bias only

131. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz

ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
circuit is, nearly :
(2) (1) 2.5 A
(2) 25.1 A
(3) 1.7 A
(4) 2.05 A
(3)
132. Taking into account of the significant figures, what
is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ?
(1) 9.980 m
(2) 9.9 m
(4)
(3) 9.9801 m
(4) 9.98 m
F1 16
133. A charged particle having drift velocity of 138. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1 the following ?
of :
(1) −R effect of −CH3 groups
(1) 2.5×10−6 (2) Hyperconjugation
(2) 2.25×10−15 (3) −I effect of −CH3 groups
(3) 2.25×1015 (4) +R effect of −CH3 groups
(4) 2.5×106
139. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
134. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same gas under adiabatic condition is :
material are slightly out of tune and produce beats (1) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. (2) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original (3) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
frequency of B will be :
(4) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0
(1) 536 Hz
(2) 537 Hz 140. Match the following :
(3) 523 Hz Oxide Nature
(4) 524 Hz (a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
135. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively
are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
1 m with negligible mass. (d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg Which of the following is correct option ?
particle is nearly at a distance of : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 67 cm (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) 80 cm (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) 33 cm (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) 50 cm (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

141. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium

136. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(1) Tert. butyl alcohol
(1) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(2) Isobutyl alcohol
(2) Cross Aldol condensation
(3) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) Aldol condensation
(4) Sec. butyl alcohol
(4) Cannizzaro’s reaction
142. The following metal ion activates many enzymes,
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce
137. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining ATP and with Na, is responsible for the
which property of colloidal solution ? transmission of nerve signals.
(1) Stability of the colloidal particles (1) Calcium
(2) Size of the colloidal particles (2) Potassium
(3) Viscosity (3) Iron
(4) Solubility (4) Copper
 17 F1
143. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ? 145. Which of the following is the correct order of
increasing field strength of ligands to form
(1) Tyrosine
coordination compounds ?
(2) Lysine
(1) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
(3) Serine
(2) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
(4) Alanine
(3) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−

144. Identify compound X in the following sequence of (4) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
reactions :

146. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?

(1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(2) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

(3) Sodium lauryl sulphate

(4) Sodium stearate

147. Which one of the followings has maximum number

of atoms ?
(1)
(1) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16]

(2) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7]

(3) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108]

(4) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24]

(2)
148. Identify the incorrect match.

Name IUPAC Official Name

(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium

(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium

(3)
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium

(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium

(1) (c), (iii)

(2) (d), (iv)

(4) (3) (a), (i)

(4) (b), (ii)

F1 18
149. Which of the following amine will give the 152. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
carbylamine test ? 175
71 Lu , respectively, are :
(1) 71, 71 and 104
(2) 175, 104 and 71
(3) 71, 104 and 71
(1) (4) 104, 71 and 71

153. The rate constant for a first order reaction is

4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) 500 s
(2) 1000 s
(3) 100 s
(2)
(4) 200 s

154. Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1) C2
(2) O2
(3) He2
(4) Li2
(3)

155. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following

reaction.

Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
(4) 300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
will be :
(1) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
(2) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)
150. Paper chromatography is an example of : (3) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(1) Thin layer chromatography (4) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)

(2) Column chromatography 156. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
(3) Adsorption chromatography option is :

(4) Partition chromatography (1) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0

(2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
151. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains (3) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the (4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
partial pressure of N2 is : 157. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
[Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40] Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is
2×10−15.
(1) 15 bar (1) 1×10−13 M
(2) 18 bar (2) 1×108 M
(3) 9 bar (3) 2×10−13 M
(4) 12 bar (4) 2×10−8 M
 19 F1
158. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using 163. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
anode will be :
(1) n-Heptane
(1) H2S gas
(2) SO2 gas (2) n-Butane
(3) Hydrogen gas
(3) n-Hexane
(4) Oxygen gas
(4) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
159. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
monoxide ?
(1) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin 164. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin. (1) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose

(2) It is produced due to incomplete combustion. (2) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose

(3) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
(3) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose
(4) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(4) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose
160. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce
20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is : 165. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) 3
(1) Interstitial compounds are those that are
(2) 4 formed when small atoms like H, C or N
(3) 1 are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals.
(4) 2
(2) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24−
161. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form
pent-2-ene is : and Cr2O72− are not the same.
(a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule (3) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+(d6) in water.
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction (4) The transition metals and their compounds
(1) (b), (c), (d) are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
(2) (a), (b), (d) states and to form complexes.
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (c), (d)
166. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
162. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon crystallise(s) ?
in the following reaction ?
CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g) (1) Only MgCl2

(1) −4 to +4 (2) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2

(2) 0 to −4
(3) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) +4 to +4
(4) 0 to +4 (4) Only NaCl
F1 20
167. Identify the correct statements from the 172. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
following :
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
and frozen food.
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(1)
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline.
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
(1) (b) and (c) only
(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only (2)

168. An increase in the concentration of the reactants

of a reaction leads to change in :
(1) threshold energy
(2) collision frequency
(3) activation energy
(4) heat of reaction (3)
169. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+
ion is :
(1) 5.92 BM
(2) 2.84 BM
(3) 3.87 BM
(4) 4.90 BM
(4)
170. Match the following and identify the correct
option.
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+
Ca(HCO3)2 173. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron decompose to form B. B when passed through
hardness of deficient hydride Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
water What is the formula of C from the following ?
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas (1) Cu(OH)2
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar (2) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
structure
(3) CuSO4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
174. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
171. The mixture which shows positive deviation from (rounded off upto two decimal places) :
Raoult’s law is :
(1) 0.40 K
(1) Acetone+Chloroform
(2) 0.60 K
(2) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(3) Ethanol+Acetone (3) 0.20 K
(4) Benzene+Toluene (4) 0.80 K
 21 F1
175. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has 179. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of
−O−O− linkage ? the product. Its structure is :
(1) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid

(2) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid

(3) H2SO3, sulphurous acid (1)

(4) H2SO4, sulphuric acid

176. Identify the correct statement from the

following :

(1) Vapour phase refining is carried out for (2)

Nickel by Van Arkel method.

(2) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of

shapes.

(3) Wrought iron is impure iron with

4% carbon.
(3)
(4) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
to evolution of CO2.

177. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?

(1) polybutadiene
(4)
(2) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(3) cis-1,4-polyisoprene

(4) poly (Butadiene-styrene) 180. Which of the following set of molecules will have
zero dipole moment ?
(1) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
178. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) (2) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
radius is : (3) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
1,4-dichlorobenzene
4 (4) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon
(1) × 288 pm dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
3

4 -o0o-
(2) × 288 pm
2

3
(3) × 288 pm
4

2
(4) × 288 pm
4
F1 22
Space For Rough Work
 23 F1
Space For Rough Work
F1 24
Space For Rough Work