[Chapter – 10 Transoceanic and Polar Flights & Chapter – 11 MNPS Airspace are not

included in the syllabus of CPL and are deleted]

Chapter – 01 ICAO Annex 6

1. Decision Altitude (DA) or Decision Height (DH) is defined as a specified vertical displacement
in a approach procedure at which a must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue
the approach has not been established. Which of the following combinations correctly completes
the definition?

1. Non precision.
2. Precision.
3. Go around.
4. Missed Approach.

a. I and 3.
b. 2 and 4.
c. 2 and 3.
d. I and 4.

2. Minimum Descent Height (MDH) or Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is defined as:

a. A specific height or altitude in a precision approach or circling approach below which

descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
b. The lowest height or altitude to which an approach may be flown using the aUtOpil0t.
c. A specific height or altitude in a non- precision approach or circling approach below
which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
d. The lowest safe height or attitude for any type of approach including visual approaches.

3. ICAO Annex 6 is applicable to operators authorized to conduct:

a. Only Air Transport operations.

b. Only general aviation operations.
c. Scheduled and non-scheduled imitational commercial air transport operations.
d. Private and commercial operations.

4. Who has responsibility for operational control?

a. The Pilot-in-Command.
b. The Operator (or nominated representative).
c. The area operations staff including ATC.
d. The JAA.
5. Operators are to ensure that all their employees:

a. Are JAA qualified.

b. Comply with the law of the State of Registration.
c. Comply with ICAO SARPS and PANS.
d. Comply with the laws of the State in which operations are being conducted.

6. Pilots and members of flight crews are to be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures
applicable to:

a. The aerodromes they are using in the line of duty.

b. The airspace of all JAA states.
c. Customs, health and Immigration of all ICAO Conti-acting States.
d. The national civil aviation authority of the State of Registration.

7. Commanders of aircraft are to have on board essential information for the route to be flown
which covers:

a. Landing and navigation fees applicable.

b. Customs and Excise regulations for all destinations and diversion aerodromes.
c. Search and Rescue.
d. Agreements (multi-lateral or bi-lateral) relating to International Air Transport.

8. Who has the responsibility for the maintenance of Flight Safety and Accident Prevention
Programmes?

a. The Operator.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The Authority.
d. ICAO.

9. Which of the following statements correctly describes what an operator must demonstrate before
the issue of an Air Operators Certificate (AOC)"

1. Organisation, method of control and supervision of flight operations.

2. Training programs.
3. Maintenance arrangements.

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
10. The carriage of dangerous goods in airplanes is the subject of specific rules and regulations.
Operators are specifically required to:

a. Inspect the content of any consignment to ensure that the consignee has correctly
labeled the contents.
b. Ensure that the relevant regulations are complied with.
c. Specify what materials constitute dangerous goods.
d. Specify the manner in which dangerous goods are to be labeled.

11. To taxi an airplane, the person at the controls must be:

a. A qualified ATPL holder.
b. A qualified engineer.
c. Checked out on the aircraft type.
d. Authorized by the operator.

12. A person qualified to taxi an airplane must have received instruction from a competent person
concerning which of the following:

1. Aerodrome layout.
2. Signs.
3. Markings.
4. ATC signals and instructions.

a. All of the above.

b. 2, 3 and 4 only.
c. I and 4 only.
d. 4 only.

13. If an operator specifies a minimum flight altitude for a route, it must be:

a. Equal to or lower than that specified by the State over which the flight is being flown.
b. Not below FL 100.
c. Not less than the flight altitudes specified by the State for the same route.
d. A flight level.

14. Who is responsible for approving methods of calculating minimum flight altitudes?

a. The JAA.
b. The State of the Operator.
c. The Operator.
d. ICAO.
15. Which combination of the following correctly details the factors that should be considered by an
Operator when determining MFA?

1. Possible inaccuracies in charts for the route.

2. Characteristics of the terrain to be over-flown.
3. The composition of the flight crew.
4. The likelihood of encountering unfavorable weather.
5. Altimeter inaccuracies.
6. Airspace restrictions.
7. Navigation inaccuracies.

a. All the above.

b. All except I and 3.
c. All except 1, 3 and 5.
d. All except 3.

16. Who is responsible for establishing aerodrome operating minima (AOM)?

a. ATC at the aerodrome.

b. The Pilot-M-Command.
c. The State of the Operator.
d. The Operator.

17. Who is responsible for authorizing the method of calculation of AOM?

a. ATC at the aerodrome.

b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The State of the Operator.
d. The Operator.

18. Which of the following is not considered when establishing AOM?

a. The frequency of meteorological reports.

b. Adequacy and provision of ground aids.
c. Dimensions and characteristics of runways.
d. The competence and experience of flight crews.

19. In calculating AOM which of the following is/are taken into consideration?

a. The height of obstacles in the missed approach area.

b. Obstacles in the climb-out areas over 150m (495ft) AGL.
c. All obstacles within l5km of the threshold over 150m (495ft AMSL).
d. Obstacles 8km either side of track.
20. Who is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are briefed before take-of.

a. The Operator.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The State of the Operator.
d. The Senior Flight Attendant.

21. When are passengers required to be briefed about the location and use of life jackets?

a. When required by the Operator.

b. When the Pilot-in-Command authorizes the use of life jackets.
c. If the carriage of life Jackets in the airplane is required.
d. Where flight over water (including lakes and rivers) is likely.

22. Passengers are to be secured in their seats by seat belts or harnesses during take-off and landing,
turbulence and an emergency. When also must they be secured?

a. During climb and descent.

b. During a practice emergency.
c. Whilst asleep with the seat fully reclined.
d. Whenever the precaution is considered necessary.

23. What instructions are to be given to passengers during an emergency in flight?

a. Instruction regarding the use of life Jackets.

b. Instructions concerning emergency actions that may be considered necessary.
c. Emergency evacuation instructions.
d. Instructions for the use of smoke hoods.

24. Before any flight is commenced, forms must be completed certifying, amongst other things, that
the aircraft is airworthy. Who must be satisfied that all the pre-flight requirements have been
complied with?

a. The Flight Dispatcher.

b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The Flight Operations Manager.
d. The Operator.

25. How long is the Operator to retain completed flight preparation forms for?

a. 48 hours.
b. I year.
c. 6 months.
d. 3 months.
26. Who should sign an Operational Flight Plan (OFP)?

a. The Pilot-in-Command and the Chief Engineer.

b. The Pilot-in-Command and the Operations Officer.
c. The Pilot-in-Command and the Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher (if applicable).
d. Only the Pilot-in-Command.

27. If it is not possible to file a copy of the OFP with the Operator (or agent) it should be:
a. Posted to the Operator (a certificate of proof of posting is required).
b. Taken in a sealed envelope to the next aerodrome where the Operator or agent has a
representative.
c. Left with the aerodrome authorities.
d. Sent to the authority within 10 days.

28. The content of an OFP is detailed in which document?

a. ANO-OPS1.
b. The AIP of the State of Registration.
c. The Operations Manual.
d. ICAO Annex 6.

29. An Operational Flight Plan (OFP) must specify the take-off alternate (diversion) aerodrome for
use in the event of a flight emergency shortly after take-off when:

a. The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima.
b. The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft
to roll to a standstill if the brakes fall.
c. The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load.
d. There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure
aerodrome.

30. Which of the following are valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome?

a. Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin-engined airplane.

b. Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3-engined airplane with one engine out.
c. Not more than I hour flying distance for any airplane with one engine out.
d. 2 hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise speed for a 4-engined airplane.
31. In deciding if an aerodrome is useable as a take-off alternate, which is correct'?

a. It must be capable of CATIIIA operations.

b. The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome of departure.
c. The RVR and cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the expected
time of take-off.
d. For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the operator
or the State of Registration and no approach is permitted to have a visual element (le 110
circling approaches).

32. A destination alternative (diversion) aerodrome must be specified for:

a. Any flight for public transport over 40km.

b. Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach and
landing can be made.
c A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exists.
d. Any flight where a take-off diversion has been planned.

33. A flight may be conducted under VFR only if-

a. VMC exists all along the route to be flown under VFR.
b. An IFR flight plan has previously been filed and the flight conditions are VNIC.
c. A VFR flight plan has been filed and a clearance received.
d. The maximum take-off mass does not exceed 470OK-s.

34. In order for a flight to be commenced under IFR:

a. IMC must be expected to exist all along the route.

b. It is expected that an instrument approach will be flown at the destination.
c. A met report must indicate that IMC exists somewhere along the route.
d. The met conditions must be equal to or better than the specified minima at the
destination or destination alternate.

35. For any flight a quantity of fuel must be carried to ensure that:

a. The flight can be safely completed with a reserve for contingencies.

b. The flight can be safely completed taking into account the weather, load, aerodrome
criteria, and flight characteristics of the airplane.
c. The airplane is not over landing mass at the destination.
d. In the event of an emergency, fuel does not have to be Jettisoned over land.
36. For a propeller driven airplane, sufficient fuel must be carried to cater for flight to:

a. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 15 minutes.
b. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 30 minutes.
c. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 45 minutes.
d. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 60 minutes.

37. For a propeller driven airplane, sufficient fuel must be carried when a destination alternate is
not required (VMC situation), to allow flight to the destination and then remain airborne for a
minimum of:

a. 45 minutes.
b. hours.
C. 15% of the flight planned cruising time plus 45 minutes.
d. 15% of the flight planned cruising time plus 2 hours.

38. If a turbo-jet engined airplane has a nominated destination diversion aerodrome and the Pilot-
in-Command decides to attempt a landing at the nominated destination, the airplane must carry
sufficient fuel to fly to the destination alternate after:

a. Carrying out an instrument approach to DH/A and then climbing to the nominated
cruising level en-route to the diversion aerodrome.
b. Flying an approach and a missed approach.
C. Making a straight in approach to MDH/A, then one circling approach before diverting.
d. Flying an approved instrument approach procedure.

39. The Pilot-in-Command of a turbo-jet engined airplane, in deciding how much fuel to include
for diversion to a destination alternate, must include a quantity of fuel necessary:

a. To fly to the flight planned destination alternate and thereafter for 30 m1nutcs at holding
speed at 1,500ft.
b. To remain airborne above the nominated destination for 30 minutes at I 000ft above tile
aerodrome plus an amount for contingencies.
c. To fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at FL50 above the destination aerodrome.
d. To fly at holding speed at FL50 for 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising
altitude.
40. If passengers are on board an airplane, or are embarking or disembarking, which of the
following is correct?

a. Refueling is not permitted Linder any circumstances.

b. Refueling is permitted provided qualified ground crew are in attendance.
c. Refueling is only permitted providing no communications equipment is used in the
vicinity of the airplane.
d. Refueling is permitted only if qualified cabin staff (able to direct an immediate
evacuation) are in attendance.

41. What is the maximum cabin altitude at which an airplane can be flown without provision of
oxygen for crew and passengers?
a. 620hPa (13 000 ft).
b. 700hPa (10 000 ft).
c. 376hPa (25 000 ft).
d. 500hPa (18 000 ft).

42. "If a flight is to be conducted where the atmospheric pressure is less than ……….. (1) hPa but the
airplane cannot descend within …………(2) minutes to 13 000ft, then not less than ………..(3)
minutes supply of oxygen is to be carried for all the occupants of the airplane." From the
following select the combination that correctly completes the statement.

(1) (2) (3)

a. 500 5 5
b. 500 5 10
c. 376 4 5
d. 376 4 10

43. When may the operating minima for an aerodrome be exceeded?

a. In an emergency.
b. When authorized by the Operator.
c. When authorized by the aerodrome ATCU.
d. When authorized by the Authority of the State in which the aerodrome is located.

44. If information indicates that at ETA a landing at the destination or one of the destination
alternates would not be possible within the established minima, then:

a. The flight may continue provided an en-route alternate (diversion) aerodrome will
remain open throughout the duration of the flight.
b. The flight may continue if the operator authorizes reduced minima.
c. The flight may not continue.
d. The flight may continue providing sufficient holding fuel (2 hours plus 15% of cruising
fuel) is carried as a contingency load.
45. When are all flight crew members required to be at their duty stations?

a. In an emergency.
b. In IMC.
c. During an instrument approach where the RVR is at minima.
d. For routine take-offs and landings.

46. During the en-route phase of a flight, all flight crew are to remain at their duty stations. Which
of the following are permitted exceptions from this rule?
1. To use the toilet facilities.
2. To assist the cabin staff to serve the food.
3. In the performance of crew duty.
4. During required rest periods.
5. When properly relieved by a replacement crew member.

a. All of the above.

b. All the above except 2.
C. 1, 3 and 4 only.
d. I and 3 only.

47. When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must:

a. Fully fasten the safety harness.

b. Wear a communications head set.
c. Fully raise the seat.
d. Keep the seat belts fastened.

48. During take off and landing, flight crew members occupying a pilot's seat Must have the seat
harness fully fastened. Other flight crew members may:

a. Dispense with the harness.

b. Dispense with the shoulder straps if they interfere with the performance of duty.
c. Sit on the floor if there are no spare seats.
d. Dispense with the harness in all cases except during an emergency.

49. Where the use of oxygen is prescribed, flight crew members are to:

a. Use oxygen continuously.

b. Use oxygen for 10% of the time.
c. Use oxygen at all times providing the equipment does not impair operational
performance.
d. Only use oxygen at night.
50. If, during a flight, the Pilot-in-Command wishes to change the profile of a cleared night plan, he
must:

a. Inform the Operator.

b. Inform ATC.
c. Do nothing until ATC clears the change.
d. Inform the Authority within 10 days.

51. Who is responsible for completing the journey log or the general declaration?

a. The Operator.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The Purser.
d. The Flight Engineer.

52. Who is responsible for notifying the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest means possible
of any accident involving an airplane resulting in serious injury or death of any person or
substantial damage to the airplane or property?

a. The Operator.
b. The ATCC in the State in or over which the airplane was being flown.
c. The Pilot-in-Command.
d. An approved person or a Police Officer.

53. A Flight Operations Officer (or Flight Dispatcher) when on duty, is responsible for:

a. Filing the ATS flight plan.

b. Preparing the route flight plan.
c. Compiling the Operational Flight Plan.
d. Loading the airplane.

54. The Flight Operations Officer is responsible to the Operator for initiating the procedures defined
in the operations manual in the event of an emergency, providing such action does not conflict
with procedures established by which of the following:

1. ATC.
2. The meteorological service.
3. The communications service.

a. All of the above.

b. None of the above.
c. I and 3 only.
d. I only.
55. Which of the following factors do not affect the performance of airplanes:

1. The aircraft category.

2. The take-off mass.
3. Outside air temperature.
4. The gradient of the runway.
5. Visibility.

a. All affect the performance.

b. 1 and 4 do not affect performance.
c. 4 and 5 do not affect performance.
d. 1 and 5 do not affect performance.

56. In order to comply with the mass limitations for take-off and en-route flying (including 'engine
out' situations) the mass of the airplane at engine start must not exceed:

a. Maximum take-off mass.

b. Maximum take-off mass plus an allowance for taxiing to the runway in use.
c. Maximum take-off mass plus any contingency fuel required by the operator.
d. Maximum take-off mass plus an allowance for the difference in temperature between
OAT and ISA.

57. The landing mass of an airplane must take which of the following into consideration:

a. Noise abatement procedures.

b. Aircraft wake turbulence category.
c. Maximum single wheel loading factor for the runway to be used.
d. Taxiing distance from the end of the duty runway to the unloading bay.

58. For an airplane with three engines or more, the take-off mass must be such that in the event of
two engines failing anywhere along the route:

a. The fuel jettison time to maximum landing mass must not exceed 10 minutes.
b. There must always be sufficient fuel remaining to continue to the planned destination.
c. There must be sufficient fuel to fly to the planned destination or an en-route alternate.
d. The fuel must allow the flight to continue to planned destination at the best 'two engine
out' height.
59. In order to comply with noise abatement requirements, the mass at take-off must not exceed the
stated relevant maximum unless:

a. The Operator has unauthorized non-compliance.

b. The use of a runway with no noise problem has been authorized.
c. In an emergency and the authority is informed within 10 days.
d. The Pilot-in-Command decides that compliance with noise abatement procedures will
endanger his aircraft and the passengers.

60. In the event of a critical power unit failing during the take-off run, the airplane shall be able to:

a. Stop on the runway always.

b. Stop on the runway if the failure occurs before V, providing the runway length is greater
than the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA).
c. Continue the flight without reduction in aircraft performance.
d. After V,, take-off and clear obstacles by an adequate margin until en-route flying
conditions can be maintained.

61. Which of the following is correct when calculating the length of the runway available?

a. The overall length less the slope factor (runway length x cos angle of slope).
b. The overall length plus the length of the overrun.
c. The overall length less any distance lost in lining tip.
d. The overall length plus the slope factor (runway length x cos angle of slope).

62. The Operator is responsible for the provision of an operating manual. It is to be relevant to:

a. Operations staff and flight crew, and specific to aircraft type.

b. All the operators' employees and all the operations conducted.
c. The type of general aviation operations undertaken under an AOC.
d. All aircraft types with a max take-off mass exceeding 5 700kg.
63. Which of the following are essential contents of an operations manual?

1. Fatigue and flight time limitations.

2. Operations administration and supervision.
3. Human performance.
4. Airplane performance.
5. Quality Assurance.

a. All of the above.

b. All except 5.
c All except 4.
d. All except 3 and 5.

64. Medical equipment is to be carried on aircraft usually in the form of first aid kits. On airplanes
certified to carry more than a specified number of passengers, a kit for use by medically qualified
personnel is to be carried. The specified number of passengers is:

a. 21
b. 51
c. 100
d. 250

65. Three first aid kits are required to be carried on an airplane which is:

a. Fitted with 180 passenger seats.

b. Authorized to carry 180 passengers.
c. Carrying 180 passengers.
d. Is carrying passengers.

66. It is recommended that first aid kits should be positioned:

a. Near exits.
b. Under seats.
c. In the galley area accessible to cabin staff only.
d. Out of sight to prevent pilfering.

67. Portable fire extinguishers fitted to airplanes must be of such a type that when discharged
within the confines of the airplane, the extinguishant:

a. Is not corrosive.
b. Is electrically inert.
c. Will not dangerously contaminate the air in the cabin.
d. Is not inflammable.
68. Fire extinguishers should be located in the pilot's compartment and:

a. The passenger cabin.

b. Each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilot's compartment and not
readily accessible to the flight crew.
c. The galley.
d. By each door.

69. An airplane shall carry:

a. The Operations Manual in total

b. The parts of the Operations manual that pertain to flight crew limitations.
c. The flight manual for the airplane if the Ops Manual does not contain performance
data.
d. World-wide chart coverage.

70. Which of the following is correct concerning the marking of 'break - in' areas?

a. Must be painted red on a white background with the comers more than I m apart.
b. Must be painted either red or white on a yellow background.
c. Must be painted either red or yellow, on a white background if necessary.
d. Intermediate lines are to be painted if the comer markings are more than 1m apart.

71. A type I Flight Data Recorder (FDR) is to:

a. Record parameters to determine flight path, speed, engine power and altitude.
b. Record the last 30 minutes of operation.
c. Be fitted to airplanes with a max take-off mass greater than 5 700kg.
d. Be fitted to airplanes with C of A first issued on or before I Jan 89.

72. A Type 2 FDR shall be capable of recording:

a. 32 parameters and the last 25 hours of operation.

b. 15 parameters and the last 25 hours of operation.
c. 32 parameters and the last 30 minutes of operation.
d. 15 parameters and the last 30 minutes of operation.

73. Which of the following correctly describes the construction and fitting of a FDR?

a. Painted red and fitted as far aft as possible.

b. Connected so as to record continuously powered from a battery busbar.
c. Painted a distinctive colour and powered from the essential busbar.
d. Fitted with a floatation device and an underwater location aid.
74. Which of the combinations of statements describes what a cockpit voice recorder records?

1. Radio communications transmitted from the aircraft.

2. Speech on the flight deck.
3. Interphone communications.
4. Navigation/Approach aid ident signals heard in headsets or speakers.
5. PA system communication in the aircraft.

a. All of the above.

b. All except 4.
c. All except 2.
d. 1, 2 and 3 only.

75. Which of the following correctly describes the operation of a cockpit voice recorder?

a. It shall not be switched off whilst the engines are running.

b. Must be on at all times when crew are on board the airplane.
c. Shall be switched off after an accident and not reactivated until recordings have been
transcribed.
d. Must be switched on and checked for correct operation during the pre-flight checks, then
switched to stand-by until the airplane is ready to taxi so that the ATC clearance and
read-back are recorded.

76. An airplane equipped to fly IFR at night is to be fitted with:

a. The same instruments and equipment as are required for VFR flight.
b. The same instruments and equipment as are required for IFR during the day.
c. Standard instruments and equipment regardless of max take-off mass.
d. The same instruments and equipment as are required for IFR during the day plus lights
and a torch for each crew member.

77. A life saving jacket (LSJ) or an individual floatation device is to be carried:

a. One for each crew member and each seat fitted.

b. One for each crew member and one for each passenger on board.
c. One for each person the C of A certifies to be carried.
d. One for each person that does not have a seat in a life raft.
78. For a land based aero plane, sea survival equipment is to be carried:

a. When flying over water more than 50 Km from the shore where the en-route 'engine out'
limitations apply.
b. When flying en-route over water beyond gliding distance from shore.
c. When taking off or landing at an aerodrome where, in the opinion of the Operator there
is a danger of the aero plane ditching due to the proximity of water.
d. In all aero planes.

79. If an aero plane is flying over water more than 120 minutes flying time or 400nm from land
suitable for a forced landing (whichever is the lesser) additional sea survival equipment is to be
carried. This must include:

a. Electronic locator beacons (ELBs).

b. Distress flares.
c. Multi seat life rafts with sufficient overload space for all the passengers and crew.
d. Immersion suits (quick don type).

80. The carriage of weather radar is:

a. Mandatory in aero planes with max take-off mass greater than 5 700kg.
b. Recommended for flight over areas where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous
weather conditions are likely to exist.
c Required in all pressurized aero planes.
d. Advised if flying in IMC or at night through the ITCZ.

81. Aero planes being operated over a specified altitude are required to carry equipment that
continuously monitors the dose rate of cosmic radiation. The specified altitude is:

a. 15 000 ft.
b. 36 090 ft.
c. 49 000 ft.
d. 66 000 ft.

82. Mach meters are required to be carried in aero planes:

a. Where flight in excess of Mach 1.0 is permitted.
b. For flight above FL 100.
c Where speed limitations are expressed in Mach no.
d. Where GPS ground speed correlation is unreliable.
83. A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is required to be carried in:

a. All aero planes with max take off mass greater than 15 000kgs authorized to carry more
than 30 passengers.
b. All aero planes with max take off mass greater than 5700kgs authorized to carry more
than 30 passengers.
c All turbine engine aero planes of max take off mass not exceeding 5 700kgs authorized
to carry more than 9 passengers.
d. All turbine engine aero planes of max take off mass greater than 5 700kgs authorized to
-carry more than 9 passengers.

84. For GPWS a specified number of warnings is to be given for hazardous conditions. The specified
number is:

a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8

85. For the GPWS fitted as per Q84, which of the following combinations correctly identifies the
hazards for which warnings are given:

a. Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate; excessive altitude loss after take-
off or go around; unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration; excessive
descent below the instrument approach glide path.
b. Excessive climb rate; excessive terrain closure rate; excessive altitude loss after take-off
or go around; unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration; rapid speed
loss towards stalling speed.
c. Excessive descent rate; mach trim warning; excessive altitude loss after take-off or go
around; unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration; excessive speed
decay during a CATIII instrument approach.
d. Excessive climb rate; excessive terrain closure rate; excessive speed loss after take-off
or go around; unsafe terrain clearance when in landing configuration; excessive descent
below the obstacle clearance altitude.

86. The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the to determine
whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should ......................
become inoperative. Which of the following completes the statement:

a. Maintenance Supervisor any systems or equipment.

b. Chief Steward the galley equipment.
c. Operator any aircraft safety system.
d. Pilot-In-Command any instruments, systems or equipment.
87. The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is:

a. To permit the Authority to specify what equipment must be carried in an aircraft with
max take off mass greater than 5 700 kg.
b. To permit one MEL to exist for the operator's entire fleet of aero planes.
c. To pen-nit the operator to change the content of the MEL whilst keeping a master copy
in an un-amended state.
d. Provide information and instructions to enable an Operator to produce its own MEL.

88. Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?

a. It permits safe operation of an aero plane with inoperative systems.
b. The MEL is required by ICAO and must be approved by the State of Registration.
c. The responsibility for acceptance of any un-serviceability within the MEL rests
ultimately with the Operator.
d. The MEL allows aero planes to be flown with un-serviceabilities which would otherwise
require immediate rectification.

89. Aero planes are to be equipped with Radio equipment capable of-

a. Receiving ATC communications.

b. Receiving meteorological information at any time during the flight.
c. Communications on the Aeronautical Distress/Emergency frequency (121.50OKliz).
d. Being tuned to all the aeronautical mobile stations along the route being flown.

90. Aircraft are to be fitted with navigation equipment which will enable it to proceed:

a. In accordance with the Operational Flight Plan.

b. Along the prescribed RNP routes.
c. Between two reporting points on an airway.
d. In accordance with any ATC clearance received.

91. Where minimum navigation performance (MNPS) is prescribed by a Regional Air Navigation
Agreement (RNAV) tile aero plane shall be fitted with equipment which:

a. Has been authorized by the State of the Operator.

b. Has been authorized by the Operator.
c. Has been authorized by the regional ATCU.
d. Performs within specified longitudinal accuracy.
92. In an area where vertical separation minima (VSM) of 300m (1000 ft) Is applied for flight above
FL290, equipment has to be fitted to the aero plane capable of warning the crew when deviation
from the selected flight level occurs. The warning threshold for deviation from selected level is:

a. 100ft.
b. 200ft.
c. 300ft.
d. 500ft.

93. The interaction of one electronic system with another (e.g. Doppler radar and inertial system)
requires that the installation of the system is such that:

a. The systems mutually fail-safe.

b. The failure of one system doesn't cause a failure of the other.
c. The systems mutually fall passive.
d. The systems mutually fall operational.

94. Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the aero plane is
airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aero plane is airworthy?

a. The Pilot-in-Command.
b. The Operations Officer.
c. The Maintenance Supervisor.
d. A JAA authorized person.

95. Which of the following is NOT required to be certified by the pilot before a flight commences:

a. The load is distributed and secured property.

b. A full fuel load is on board.
c. The mass and C of G are within limits.
d. A maintenance release has been issued for the aero plane.

96. Where is the number and composition of the flight crew specified?

a. In ANO(OPS) A.1.
b. In ANO(OPS) A.4.
c. On the C of A.
d. In Annex 6 part 2.
97. If a Flight Engineer's position is incorporated on the flight deck, is it mandatory for the flight
crew always to include a flight engineer'!

a. Yes.
b. No, providing the Flight Engineer's duty can be performed by another flight crew
member holding the appropriate licence without detriment to his/her primary duty.
c. No, if the planned flight duration (including flight time required to divert to the furthest
alternate) is less than 3 hours.
d. No, if the aero plane is certified to carry more than 31 passengers and less than 30 are on
board.

98. When is a Flight Navigator required as part of the Flight Crew?

a. When the Authority of the State of the Operator deems that safe navigation of the
aero plane cannot be performed from the pilot station.
b. If the MEL indicates that the necessary navigational system is inoperative.
c. When flying over remote areas.
d. Where precise navigational procedures (ie grid navigation) are mandatory.

99. What requirements must be fulfilled before a pilot is appointed Pilot-in-Command by the
Operator'?

a. He/she must have flown a total of not less than 3 000 hours on type.
b. He/she must have made at least 3 take-offs and landings in the same type in the
preceding 90 days.
c. He/she must have held a First Officer's position on type for 13 months.
d. He/she must have flown a total of not less than 1000 hours on type and have held a First
Officer's position on type with the current Operator for 3 months.

100. One of the additional qualifications a pilot must have for the appointment as Pilot-in-Command
by an Operator is to be currently qualified to fly the route intended. Which combination of the
following correctly details the requirements that satisfy 'route knowledge'?

I. Knowledge of the terrain and minimum safe altitudes.

2. Knowledge of the Search and Rescue procedures.
3. Knowledge of seasonal meteorological conditions and Met communications.
4. Knowledge of ATC procedures and facilities.
5. Knowledge of long range navigational procedures.
6. Knowledge of 'route' aerodromes and facilities and procedures.

a. All the above.

b. All the above except 2.
c. All the above except 5 (Flight Navigator duty).
d. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only.
101. In order for a pilot to be appointed co-pilot at the controls of an aero plane for take-off and
landing he/she must have:

a. Served as First Officer on any type of aero plane flown by the Operator.
b. Passed a 'safety pilot' assessment in a current type simulator and be current on type.
c. Demonstrated competence to act as a co-pilot.
d. Served as Pilot-M-Command of an aero plane in the last 90 days.

102. The Operator is required to carry out checks of the proficiency of pilots. Which of the following is
not a discipline requiring checking?

a. Piloting technique.
b. Air Traffic Control procedures.
c. Execution of emergency procedures.
d. Compliance with IFR (where IFR operations are part of the pilot's duty).

103. Proficiency checks on Pilots are to be carried out by:

a. The Training Captain responsible for the training of Flight Crew on the type of aircraft
in use.
b. A Qualified Flying Instructor but not necessarily an employee of the Operator.
c. A representative of the Authority of the State of the Operator or a 'check pilot'.
d. Any suitably qualified pilot on the type of aircraft/simulator being used.

104. Proficiency checks are required to be carried out at what interval:

a. Annually.
b Twice within any period of one year.
c. Once every six months.
d. Twice within any period of a year providing both checks are not carried out within a 4-
month period.

105. It is recommended that the Journey Log Book should be retained:

a. To provide a continuous record of the last 6 months operations.

b. To provide a continuous record of the last 2 years operations.
c. For one month.
d. Only if required by the authority.
106. The operations department (Flight Dispatcher's department) is required to retain information
which is necessary in the event of a search and rescue operation being mounted. This information
relates to:

a. Personal details of the crew and passengers.

b. Technical performance details of the aero plane.
c. MEL Limitations affecting the aero plane at take-off.
d. Safety equipment carried on the aero plane.

107. If a door is fitted to the flight crew compartment:

a. It must be capable of being locked.

b. It is to be unlocked at all times during a flight.
c. It shall be locked after engine start and not unlocked until the aero plane has become
stationary again.
d. It must be lockable from inside the flight crew compartment only.

108. If an aero plane that is registered in State A is being operated by an Operator registered in State B
and flown over State C (all of which are ICAO contracting States), and is unlawfully interfered
with. the Pilot-in-Command is to report the occurrence:

a. Immediately to the Authority of State A.

b. As soon as possible to the Authority of State B.
c. Without delay to the Authority in State C.
d. Routinely to the ATCU currently controlling the flight.
Answers to Ch-01 ICAO Annex 6

1. B 27. C 53. A
2. C 28. C 54. A
3. C 29. A 55. D
4. B 30. D 56. B
5. D 31. C 57. A
6. A 32. B 58. C
7. C 33. A 59. B
8. A 34. D 60. D
9. A 35. A 61. C
10. B 36. C 62. A
11. D 37. A 63. B
12. A 38. B 64. D
13. C 39. A 65. B
14. B 40. D 66. A
15. D 41. B 67. C
16. D 42. D 68. B
17. C 43. A 69. C
18. A 44. C 70. C
19. A 45. D 71. A
20. A 46. B 72. B
21. C 47. D 73. C
22. D 48. B 74. A
23. B 49. A 75. C
24. B 50. C 76. D
25. D 51. B 77. B
26. C 52. C 78. B
=============
79. B 94. A
80. B 95. B
81. C 96. C
82. C 97. B
83. D 98. A
84. C 99. B
85. A 100. A
86. D 101. C
87. D 102. B
88. A 103. C
89. B 104. D
90. A 105. A
91. A 106. D
92. C 107. D
93. B 108. C
Chapter – 02 Regional Requirements – Europe - JAR OPS

01. Why are Operators required to establish a quality control system?

a. To give the travelling public reassurance that the operation is properly regulated.
b. So that they can display the EN ISO 9000 logo on their headed note paper.
c. To ensure safe operational practices and airworthy aeroplanes.
d. To ensure that JAR 145 is complied with regarding engineering maintenance.

2. Which of the following does a quality system require?

a. A quality manager.
b. An operations manual.
c. Non-conformance monitoring.
d. To be in accordance with the model quality system detailed by the Authority.

3. With regard to additional crew members, what are Operators required to ensure?

a. They are trained in all safety aspects of the aeroplane.

b. They are trained to help cabin crew members with their duties.
c. They are trained in. and proficient to perform, their assigned duties.
d. They are trained in all the emergency evacuation procedures.

4. Passengers can be accommodated only in:

a. Areas of the aeroplane designed for the purpose.

b. Areas in which cargo is not carried.
c. Parts of the aeroplane in which dangerous cargo is not carried.
d. Areas in which access is not permitted on the ground.

5. No persons other than flight crew are normally allowed on the flight deck. Which of the
following correctly identifies permitted exceptions?

a. Invited passengers; Cabin crew members; JAA approved persons.

b. Cabin crew members; JAA approved persons; Personnel permitted by the Operations
Manual.
c. Cabin crew members; Police Officers; Personnel permitted by the operations manual.
d. Operators employees; Cabin crew mernbers; JAA approved persons.

6. What must the commander ensure that all those on the flight deck are familiar with"

a. Check lists.
b. Standard operating procedures (SOPs).
c. Contents of the Operations Manual.
d. Safety procedures.
7. Which of the following are not to be operated on board aeroplanes?

a. Mobile phones.
b. Electric razors.
c. Electronic calculators.
d. Hand-held electronic games.

8. Who is responsible for ensuring that no person acts recklessly or negligently, so as to endanger
an aeroplane or the persons on board, or to permit an aeroplane to endanger persons or property?

a. The Operator.
b. The Commander.
c. The Authority of the State of Registration.
d. The authority of the State of the Operator.

9. Which combination of the following list of documents correctly identifies those that must be
carried on each flight?

1 Certificate of Registration (CofR).

2. Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA).
3. Noise certificate.
4. Air Operators Certificate (AOC).
5. Aircraft radio licence.
6. Third party liability Insurance certificates.
7. Crew licences with appropriate ratings.

a. 1, 2, 5 and 7.
b. 1, 2 and 7.
C. 2, 5 and 7.
d. All of them.

10. Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?

a. Yes.
b. No - only the parts concerning crew duty.
c. No - only the parts required for the conduct of the flight.
d. No - only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and concerning crew duty.
11. Which of the following forms or information are required to be carried on all flights?

1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP).

2. Mass and balance Documentation.
3. NOTAMs.
4. The Technical Log.
5. Current Maps and Charts.
6. Latest AICs.

a. All except 1.
b. All except 3.
C. All except 6.
d. All except 4.

12. Certain documents are to be retained by the Operator on the ground. If it is not possible to leave
the documents in safe custody such that in the event of their being required in the course of an
accident investigation or for any reason given by the authority, they may be:

a. Kept in the personal possession of the Commander.

b. Carried on the aeroplane and stored in a document case in the cargo/luggage bay.
c. Carried on the aeroplane providing they are stowed in a fireproof container.
d. Posted by registered mail to the Operator, or taken by bonded courier.

13. The operator is required to ensure that certain persons are to be permitted access to the flight deck
providing the Commander is satisfied that his aeroplane is not endangered. Who are the permitted
personnel?

a. JAR-145 qualified engineers.

b. IATA Quality Assurance assessors.
c. Security Officers.
d. Persons authorlsed by the Authority.

14. The Operator and the Commander are required to produce documents and records relating to a
flight:

a. Within a reasonable period of time.

b. Within 10 days.
c. Within 7 days.
d. Within 48 hours.
15. Certain documents relating to the operation of aeroplanes are required by law to be kept for a
specified period of time. If an operator ceases to operate an aeroplane must he keep the
documents?

a. No, they can be disposed of with the aeroplane.

b. Yes, but only until the aeroplane is re-registered.
c. Yes, but only for the specified period.
d. Yes, until the aeroplane is finally dismantled or destroyed.

16. What is a 'dry lease"'

a. Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible for fuel etc.
b. Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased.
c. Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased.
d. Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew.

17. Where an aeroplane is Dry Leased Out to a non-JAA operator who is an operator certified by an
ICAO contracting State, responsibility has to be assumed for the maintenance of the aeroplane.
Who is responsible for assuming the responsibility'

a. The operator who is to operate the aeroplane.

b. A JAR-145 approved maintenance operation.
c. The Authority of the State of the Operator who is receiving the aeroplane.
d. ICAO.

18. If a JAA operator is wet leasing out an aeroplane, who is the operator?

a. The JAA Operator.

b. The Lessee.
c. The JAA authority for the State of the Lessee.
d. The JAA authority for the State of the Lessor.
Chapter – 02 Regional Requirements – Europe - JAR OPS

1. C
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. A
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. A
Chapter – 03 Operator Certification and Supervisory Requirements
1. An Air Operators Certificate (AOC) is required by any operator operating aeroplanes for which
of the following purposes?

a. Public transport of fare paying passengers only.

b. Carriage of passengers and cargo for hire and reward with aeroplanes of max take off
mass greater than 5700 kg.
c. Commercial air transport.
d. Public transport where more than 21 passengers are carried.

2. An applicant for an AOC must permit the authority to examine which of the following?

a. All safety aspects of the operation.

b. The administration, financial stability and the maintenance schedules of the operation.
c. Any previous records of running an air transport operation.
d. The medical records of all employees of the company involved directly with the
operation of aeroplanes.

3. In order to qualify for the issue of an AOC the operator must comply with certain requirements.
Which combination of the following list of requirements satisfies what a prospective operator
must demonstrate to the authority?

1. The operator must not already hold an AOC issued by another authority unless
approved.
2. The operator must only operate from the State of Registry.
3. The operator must have a registered office in the State issuing the AOC.
4. The operator must satisfy the Authority that he is able to conduct safe operations.
5. The operator must only employ qualified personnel.

a. All of the above.

b. 1, 3 and 5 only.
c. 2, 3 and 4 only.
d. 1, 3 and 4 only.

4. Any operator is required to grant the Authority access to the organisation and the aeroplanes.
What is the purpose of this?

a. To ensure that the taxable revenue of the operation is correctly disclosed.

b. To ensure continued compliance with regulations.
c. To ensure the restrictions of the AOC are being complied with.
d. To ensure that no unfair trading practices are being used against competitors.
5. An AOC may be revoked, suspended or varied if the Authority deems it necessary. On what
grounds can this action be taken?

a. If the profitability/financial stability of the operation gives cause for concern.

b. If the operation is unable to comply with the safety requirements.
c. If the Quality System is not EN/ISO 9000 approved.
d. If the operator is found guilty of unfair trading practices.

6. The terms of an AOC require the operator to maintain an organisation capable of:

a. Exercising operational and administrative control.

b. Exercising financial and administrative control.
c. Exercising operational control and supervision.
d. Exercising operational and financial control.

7. With regard to the organisation of the operation, the Authority is required to be satisfied that:

a. The organisation is financially well managed.

b. The organisation has a management structure approved by EN/ISO 9000.
c. The organisation is staffed by qualified personnel only.
d. The organisation details a progressive management structure for operations as well as
maintenance personnel.

8. The operator is required to nominate post holders in certain areas. These are:

a. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, administration.

b. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations.
c. Flight operations, maintenance, personnel training, ground operations.
d. Flight operations, crew training, administration, quality assurance.

9. The operator is to ensure that all flights are conducted in accordance with the operations
manual, and:

a. Aeroplanes are equipped and crews qualified.

b. Maintenance schedules are as detailed by ANO.
c. Ground handling facilities ensure the safe handling of baggage.
d. Operational support facilities are maintained at all bases used in the operation.

10. For an AOC issued by a JAA state to remain valid, the aeroplanes operated must have specific
certification. This must include:

a. A scheduled servicing certificate.

b. A licence for the maintenance supervisor.
c. A Certificate of Airworthiness issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 8.
d. An EN/ISO 9000 QA certificate for the maintenance operation.
11. In order to be satisfied that the operator is worthy to be granted an AOC, which of the following
may be required of the operator?

a. A cash deposit of 10 000 gold poincarre francs be lodged with the JAA.
b. One or more demonstration flights are conducted.
c. The operation must be carried out for a period of six months without incident.
d. 10 000 passengers must be carried in a period of 6 months.
Answers to Ch-03 Operator Certification and Supervisory Requirements

I. C
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. C
I1. B
Chapter – 04 Operational Procedure Requirements
1. Who is required to exercise operational control"

a. The Authority.
b. The Operator.
c. The Commander.
d. The Area Air Traffic Control Unit.

2. The body required by Q I is also required to do which of the following?

a. Establish and maintain a method of communication with aeroplanes in flight.

b. Establish and maintain an operating procedure.
c. Establish and maintain a method of supervision of flight operations.
d. Establish and maintain a crew promotion system.

3. What is the purpose of an operations manual"

a. For the guidance of operations personnel.

b. To specify what operations may be engaged in.
c To specify the crew requirements for the particular types flown.
d. To give the authority information concerning the nature of the operation.

4. Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly
trained?

a. The Commander.
b. The Authority.
c ICAO.
d. The Operator.

5. In addition to ensuring that personnel are properly trained, the correct responsible body in Q4 is
also responsible for ensuring that:

a. All personnel are assessed and results of tests recorded.

b. All personnel are assessed and aware of their overall responsibilities.
c All personnel are tested periodically and debriefed on their performance.
d. All personnel are competent to hold their licences.
6. An operator is required to establish procedures and instructions relating to the duties of ground
staff and crew in respect of what?

a. All types of aeroplanes flown.

b. Fire fighting and emergency actions.
c All types of operations undertaken.
d. Search and Rescue.

7. Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
~1.
a. The Operator.
b. The aeroplane manufacturer.
c. The Authority.
d. The Training Captain.

8. Which of the following is an operator to ensure is used for all flights where available?

a. Aerodrome facilities.
b. Search and Rescue facilities.
c. The full runway length.
d. Air Traffic Control.

9. Where an established instrument approach is used, the commander may accept an ATC clearance
to deviate from the procedure only when:

a. The Operator gives permission.

b. The precision aid is unserviceable.
c. The obstacle clearance minima are observed.
d. The revised procedure is approved by the Authority.

10. Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?

a. Yes, always.
b. Yes, but only when the visual criteria is obtained at DA/H.
c. No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
d. No, but only if CAT III operations are approved.

11. Who is responsible for ensuring that instrument approach or departure procedures are flown?

a. The Operator.
b. The Authority of the State of the aerodrome.
c. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
d. The Authority of the State of the registration.
12. Persons with reduced mobility (PRMs) are to be permitted full and free access to aircraft
provided that:

a. Special seats are fitted.

b. Disabled toilet facilities are provided.
c. The Operator has established procedures for the carriage of PRMs.
d. The Purser or Chief Flight Attendant is aware of the presence of PRMs.

13. Where PRMs, inadmissible passengers, deportees and persons in custody are carried on
aeroplanes:

a. They must be seated at the rear of the aeroplane.

b. No passengers are to occupy adjacent seats.
c. The Operator is to ensure that all the other passengers are aware of the situation.
d. The Commander knows that they are on board.

14. Baggage can be carried in the passenger compartment providing:

a. The gross weight of any one item does not exceed 20Kol
b. Only one piece of baggage is carried by each passenger.
c. The total weight allowance for the passenger is not exceeded.
d. It is adequately stowed.

15. Passengers are only to be seated where:

a. They can see the no smoking signs.

b. They will not hinder an emergency evacuation.
c. The load Is equally spread about the C of G.
d. The flight attendants can ensure that the seat belts are correctly fastened.

16. Who is responsible for ensuring that all equipment and baggage in the passenger compartment
and the galley is property stowed, when required, during flight time?

a. The Operator.
b. The Authority.
c. The Chief Flight Attendant.
d. The Commander.

17. Where or when is smoking allowed?

a. During take-off or landing.

b. In designated areas.
c. When deemed necessary in the interests of safety.
d. Anywhere other than cargo compartments.
18. Who must be satisfied that the condition of the runway intended to be used should not prevent
a safe take-off and departure?

a. The Commander.
b. Air Traffic Control.
c. The Operator.
d. The Operations Officer.

19. What must be satisfied prior to take-off?

a. RVR is better than the applicable minima.

b. Visibility and cloud base is better than the applicable minima.
c. Visibility and cloud base is better than, or equal to, the applicable minima.
d. RVR is equal to or better than the applicable minima.
Answers to Ch-04 Operational Procedure Requirements
1 B
2 C
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 D
9 C
10 C
11 A
12 C
13 D
14 D
15 B
16 D
17 B
18 A
19 D
Chapter – 05
All Weather Operations Requirements – Low Visibility Operations
01. The Operator is required to establish Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) for:

a. The type of aeroplanes operated.

b. Each aerodrome planned to be used.
c. Aerodromes with precision approach systems.
d. Aerodromes with more than one runway.

2. Which of the combinations of the following list correctly describes what operations require AOM
to be prescribed?

1. Precision approaches.
2. Non Precision approaches.
3. Take off.
4. Circling approach.
5. Visual approach.

a. All the above.

b. All except 3.
c. Only I and 2.
d. 1, 2 and 5 only.

3. Regulations specifies basic AOM for the specified operations. The AOM is defined in terms
of-

a. Decision Height/Altitude (DH/A) and Minimum Descent Height/Altitude (MDH/A).

b. Obstacle Clearance Limit.
c. Reported Met visibility and RVR.
d. RVR, DH/A and MDH/A.

4. In establishing the AOM prescribed for any particular operation (which shall not be less than the
minima specified by regulations, the operator is require 'to take full account of certain
criteria. Which of the following is not taken into consideration'?

a. The mass of the aeroplane.

b. The length of the runway to be used.
c. The surface wind.
d. The means of reporting the RVR.
5. One of the criteria required to be taken into account by the operator in calculating AOM, is the
type, performance and handling characteristics of the aeroplane. In order to simplify assessment
of performance, aeroplanes are categorised in categories A - E. The performance criteria relating
to the category is:

a. VNE.
b. VSO.
c. VSIG.
d. VAT.

6. A 'Fail Passive Flight Control System' is one with which:

a. The approach to land can continue automatically after a failure.

b. The pilot must land the aeroplane manually.
c. Erratic flight path will result after a failure.
d. Height lock will be lost but azimuth information will be reliable.

7. If an instrument approach is required to an aerodrome to land on a runway which does not have
a 'straight in' instrument approach procedure, the visual portion of the approach to the non-
instrument runway is known as:

a. A circling approach based on MDH.

b. An off-set non precision approach to MDH.
c. An indirect precision approach to MDH.
d. A visual approach at MDH.

8. A low visibility take-off is defined where the RVR is less than:

a. 200m.
b. 400m.
c. 600m.
d. 800M.

9. Low visibility procedures relate to:

a. Cat 1, 11 and III operations.

b. Low visibility take-offs and Cat I and 11 operations.
c. Low visibility take-offs and Cat 11 and III operations.
d. Low visibility take-offs and all ILS/MLS operations.
10. Operators are only permitted to conduct low visibility operations when aeroplanes are certified
for such operations. The criteria for low visibility operations specify that the decision height
permitted is to be below what height?

a. 100,
b. 150'
c. 200'
d. 300'

11. It is also a requirement that within low visibility operations, the procedures (approach and/or
automatic landing) are monitored. What is the purpose of the monitoring procedure?

a. To review safety.
b. To record pilot performance.
c. To provide data for Authority analysis to enhance (reduce) criteria.
d. For on going research and development.

12. There is a basic crew requirement for low visibility operations. This stipulates that:

a. One pilot must be qualified on type.

b. The flight crew must consist of at least two pilots.
c. The commander must be at the controls at all tunes.
d. At least one pilot must be 'low vis ops' qualified.

13. For low visibility operations, it is required that decision height (DH) is determined by:

a. Barometric altimeter with QNH set.

b. Barometric altimeter with QFE set.
c. Barometric altimeter with QNH or QFE set (where DH is defined as AMSL).
d. Radio Altimeter.

14. Unless special permission is obtained from the authority, operators are not permitted to conduct
low visibility take-offs when the RVR is less than defined values related to aircraft category. The
defined values are:

a. Category A, B and C - 150m; category D - 200m.

b. Category A, B and C - 200m; category D - 250m.
c. Category A, B and C 150m; category D – 250m.
d. Category A, B and C - 5 00m; category D - I 00m.
15. Operators are to ensure that training in low visibility operations is carried out prior to authorising
any such operations. Such training is to be:

a. Airborne practice of approaches in low visibility.

b. Simulated.
c. Specific to the type of aeroplane.
d. In accordance with the training manual.

16. Where low visibility operations are carried out, the operator is to:

a. Include the procedures in the operations manual.

b. Make sure that the commander is satisfied that conditions are favourable.
c. Make sure that ATC have implemented LV ops procedures.
d. Obtain authority approval for LV take-offs when the RVR is less than 200m.

17. Where LV cps are carried out the operations manual must specify:

a. The category of the aeroplane.

b. Aerodromes at which LV operations are permitted.
c. minima for LV ops.
d. Minimum equipment requirements for LV ops.

18. Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors. Which combination of the
following are factors assessed in defining AOM:

1. Runway length.
2. Crew composition.
3. Communications for reporting weather.
4. Obstacles in the climb out and approach areas.

a. 1, 2 & 4.
b. 1, 3 & 4.
c. I & 4.
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4.

19. The minimum RVR requirement for CATI ILS approach is:

a. 350 in.
b. 500 m.
c. 550 m.
d. 800 m.
20. The minimum meteorological visibility for a circling approach in a Cat A aircraft is:

a. 1500 in.
b. 1600 in.
c. 2400 in.
d. 3600 in.

21. The VFR visual minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 is:

a. 5 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.

b. 5 kin forward visibility and clear of cloud.
c. 8 kin forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
d. 8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.

22. Special VFR flights are not to be commenced when the visibility is:

a. Less than 5km.

b. Greater than 3000m but less than 5000m.
c. Less than 3000m.
d. Equal to or less than 1500m.

23. Special VFR flights are not to be continued when the visibility is:

a. 500m or less.
b. 1500m or less.
c. Less than 1500m.
d. Less than 1000m.
Answers to Ch-05 Supplementary Questions
All Weather Operations Requirements – Low Visibility Operations

1 B
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 D
6 B
7 A
8 B
9 C
10 C
11 A
12 B
13 D
14 A
15 C
16 A
17 D
18 D
19 C
20 A
21 C
22 C
23 C
Chapter – 06 Instruments and Equipment
01. If there are 47 DC fuses rated at I OA in an aeroplane, how many spare I OA fuses must be carried
in the aeroplane?

a. 47
b. 5
c. 3
d. 4

2. If there are 18 fuses rated at 7A in an aeroplane, how many spare 7A fuses must be carried?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 18
d. 1

3. A windshield wiper is to be fitted to each pilot station of an aeroplane with a take-off mass:

a. Equal to or greater than 57001Kgs.

b. Greater than 360OKgs.
c. Equal to or greater than 15,00OKus.
d. Greater than 570OKgs.

4. In an unpressurised aeroplane with approved passenger seating of 9, is there a requirement to

carry airborne weather radar'?

a. Yes.
b. Yes, if flight in IMC is expected.
c. No.
d. No, if only flight in VMC is to be conducted.

5. Is there a requirement to carry airborne weather radar in aeroplanes with approved passenger
seating of 36 or more, and with a take-off mass exceeding 57001Kgs?

a. Yes.
b. Yes, if the aeroplane is to be flown at night.
c. No.
d. No, providing the aeroplane is only flown in VMC.
6. A new aeroplane has an approved passenger seating of 55 with a take-off mass not exceeding
13,700Kgs. Is it required to be fitted with a crew interphone system?

a. Yes, because the approved passenger seating is greater than 19.

b. No, because the max take-off mass is less than 15,00OKgs.
c. Yes, because it was not registered in a JAA state before I April 1995.
d. No, because the C of A was dated after I April 1965.

7. When should a public address system be fitted?

a. With a max take-off mass exceeding 570OKgs.

b. With an approved passenger seating in excess of 9.
c. With a max take-off mass exceeding 15,OOOK-s.
d. With an approved passenger seating in excess of 19.

8. A door between the passenger compartment and the flight deck is required:

a. On all aeroplanes flying for public air transport.

b. On all aeroplanes flying for public air transport, with the capability of being locked from
the inside.
c. On all aeroplanes seating 20 or more passengers.
d. On all passenger carrying aeroplanes where the total passenger seating exceeds 19, and
which must be marked 'No entry'.

9. If a door, between compartments which have emergency exits, is required to be used in an

emergency, it must have:

a. A caption stating that it is an emergency exit path.

b. A caption stating that it is a fire door and must be kept closed at all times.
c. A locking means to prevent unauthorised use in normal flight.
d. A means to hold it open in an emergency.

10. Where a door is capable of being locked by passengers (e.g. toilet doors), they must be fitted
with:

a. Tamper proof locks for privacy.

b. A sign that states that smoking is not permitted in the toilets.
c. Pin hinges that can be removed from the outside to allow access in an emergency.
d. A means of unlocking from the outside by crew members.
11. The door referred to in Q9 must also have a placard that states:

a. It must be secured in the open position for take-off and landing.

b. It must be closed and locked by a member of the cabin staff before take-off.
c. The method of opening the door in an emergency.
d. That it can only be used in an emergency.
Answers to Ch-06 Instruments and Equipment
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. D
11. A
Ch-07 Comms and Navigation Equipment
1. When is each flight crew member required to have an audio selector panel?

a. If the take off mass is greater than 5700Kg.

b. If an IFR flight plan is filed.
c. Where two pilots are required to be carried.
d. Where an intercom system is required to be fitted.

2. If an aeroplane is being flown under VFR, is a SSR transponder required?

a. Yes.
b. Yes, but only in controlled airspace.
c. No.
d. Yes but only in areas where radar control is a service offered by ATC.

3. Is radio navigation equipment required to be fitted to aeroplanes?

a. Yes.
b. Yes, but only where navigation is achieved without visual reference.
c. No.
d. Yes, but only in controlled airspace.

4. Does an aeroplane require two VOR receivers?

a. Yes, if VOR is the specified navigation aid.

b. Yes, if flying on airways.
c. Yes, in MNPS airspace.
d. No.

5. Is an aeroplane flying under IFR required to have an ILS system fitted?

a. No.
b. Yes.
c. Yes, but only where instrument approaches are required.
d. Yes, where precision approaches are to be made in IMC.

6. Equipment fitted to aeroplanes for the purpose of navigation must comply with the stated
minimum RNP specification. RNP stands for:

a. Radio Navigation Performance.

b. Regulated/Normal Plotting.
c. Radio or Nominal Prediction.
d. Required Navigation Performance.
Answers to Ch-07 Comms and Navigation Equipment

1. B
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. D
Chapter – 08 Aeroplane Maintenance
1. An inspection that is carried out before flight to ensure that the aeroplane Is fit for flight is called:

a. Maintenance Review Inspection (MRI).

b. Aircrew walk-round.
c. Turnround servicing inspection.
d. Pre-flight Inspection.

2. In order to achieve approval for a maintenance system, an applicant for an AOC must:

a. Demonstrate that the operation can regularly service the aeroplanes.

b. Where appropriate, have a maintenance agreement with an approved
organisation.
c. Have more than one aeroplane.
d. If more than one type of aeroplane is operated, have individual maintenance agreements
for each type of aeroplane.

3. For an operator to be approved to ensure the airworthiness of aeroplanes, such approval must be
in accordance with:

a. Operations Manual.
b. ANO.
c. The conditions specified by the authority.
d. Any conditions laid down by the aeroplane manufacturer.

4. Which combination of the following correctly reflects the requirement of regulations with
respect to a quality system for aeroplane maintenance"

1. Monitoring of the activities associated with maintenance management.

2. Monitoring the traceability of components and materials.
3. Monitoring of contracted maintenance.
4. Monitoring compliance with ANO (Aeroplane maintenance).

a. All the above.

b. 1, 2 and 3.
c. 1, 3 and 4.
d. 2, 3 and 4.
5. Part of the maintenance approval procedure is for the operator to Supply a Maintenance
Management Exposition. This is to include:

a. The persons responsible for maintenance management.

b. The maintenance schedules for the types of aeroplanes employed in the operation.
c. The maintenance quality system.
d. The licences of the persons employed as engineers.

6. An aeroplane is to be maintained in accordance with a maintenance programme. The programme

is to include which of the following?

a. A reliability programme when required.

b. Details of all emergency (non-scheduled) repairs that may be required.
c. Specification for the licensing of engineers.
d. The list of approved suppliers of parts and materials.

7. If, during a pre-flight inspection, a defect is found:

a. The inspection can be completed after the defect is rectified.
b. The Inspection can be completed after the defect has been brought to the attention of
maintenance supervisor.
c. The inspection must be terminated and fully repeated after rectification.
d. The aeroplane must be withdrawn from service and the certificate of maintenance review
cancelled.

8. Which of the following processes associated with maintenance is not required to be carried out
to an approved standard?

a. Management.
b. Design.
c. Quality.
d. Manufacturing.

9. Which statutory body is responsible for the approval of maintenance standards (Approved
Standards)?

a. The JAA.
b. The Operator.
c. The civil aviation authority of the State of manufacture.
d. ICAO.
10. Which JAA publication is primarily concerned with maintenance procedures?

a. JAR-OPS.
b. JAR-AWO.
c. JAR- 145.
d. JAR-FCL.
Answers to Ch-08 Aeroplane Maintenance
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. C
Chapter – 09 Navigational Requirements

1. Concerning routes and areas of operations, which of the following is correct?

a. Appropriate maps and charts must be available.

b. The route has to be approved by the State of Registration.
c. The Operator has to be satisfied with the meteorological conditions expected along the
route.
d. The operator must ensure that SAR and Fire/Crash rescue services are adequate.

2. Where aeroplanes with only two engines are used on routes, specific requirements must be met
with regard to contingencies following an engine failure. Which of the following applies'!

a. The aeroplane must not be flown further than 200nm from the nearest aerodrome.
b. All alternate aerodromes along the route must be within 30 minutes flying time.
c. There must be aerodromes available within the required time/distance limitations.
d. The MEL is to include a minimum of one serviceable engine.

3. Who is responsible for ensuring that operations are conducted in accordance with any route
restrictions imposed by the authorIty9

a. The Operator.
b. The Commander.
c. The Authority of the State of Registration.
d. The Authority of the State over which the route Is being flown.

4. Who is to be satisfied that maps and charts, sufficient to cover the route and any planned or
unplanned diversion, are available?

a. The Operator.
b. The Commander.
c. The Authority of the State of Registration.
d. The Authority of the State over which the route is being flown.

5. An operational flight plan is to be completed for each flight. Who is responsible for signing it?

a. The Operations Officer.

b. The Flight Dispatcher.
c. The Pilot-in-Command.
d. The Flight Planning Office clerk.
6. Where is the content of the operational flight plan detailed?

a. In ICAO Annex 6.
b. In JAR-OPS 1.
c. In the Operations Manual.
d. In the Pre-Flight Check List.

7. Normally, when should the ATS flight plan be filed?

a. 60 minutes before take-off.

b. 60 minutes before ATC clearance is requested.
c. 60 minutes before 'crew-in' time.
d. 60 minutes before departure.

8. Which combination of the following correctly describes the factors to be taken into consideration
when choosing a route"

I. Communications.
2. Navigation Aids.
3. Alternative Aerodromes.
4. Meteorological information.
5. SAR facilities.

a. All the above.

b. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
c. , 3 and 5 only.
d. 3, 4 and 5 only.

9. What is the basic distance a twin-engined Class A (turbojet) aeroplane (without ETOPS approval)
with a take off mass of 45,360 Kg or more, or approved passenger seating of 20 or more, may fly
from an adequate aerodrome?

a. The distance flown in 60 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed but not exceeding
300nm.
b. The distance flown in 60 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed.
c. The distance flown in 120 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed.
d. The distance flown in 120 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed but not exceeding
400m.
10. Who is responsible for calculating the speed that shall be used to calculate the one engine out
speed?

a. The aeroplane manufacturer.

b. The ETOPS approval authority.
c. The Operator.
d. The Authority of the State of Registration.

11. Which of the following combinations correctly identifies the conditions that must be taken into
account when calculating the TAS that a twin engined aeroplane can maintain with one engine
out?

1. Maximum operating speed (V,,).

2. ISA.
3. Flight Level.
4. Max continuous power on the remaining engine.
5. Aeroplane mass.

a. All the above.

b. All except 5.
c. 1, 3 and 5 only.
d. 3, 4 and 5 only.

12. An aeroplane with more than 30 passenger seats, that does not comply with the ditching
requirements of the airworthiness code shall not be flown more than a specified distance from
land suitable for an emergency landing. How far is this distance"

a. 400nm.
b. 300nm.
c. 60 minutes flying distance or 300nm (whichever is less).
d. 120 minutes flying distance or 400nm (whichever is less).

13. For Class A performance aeroplanes in the event of en-route engine(s) failure, all terrain and
obstacles within 9.3Km (5nm) of track are to be vertically cleared by (once established at cruising
altitude):

a. 1000ft.
b. 2000ft.
c. The height of the terrain or obstacle (amsl) plus 10% plus 1500ft.
d. 1000ft plus the obstacle clearance height for the nearest aerodrome.
14. A modem turbo-jet aeroplane can be flown to achieve different operational profiles. The three
profiles most usually considered are:

a. Max speed, max range, max height.

b. Max fuel consumption, max distance, endurance.
c. Endurance, max range, max pay-load.
d. Max range, shortest route time, endurance.

15. When flying to achieve the lowest fuel flow, consideration should be given to:

a. Flying at the optimum level and minimum drag speed.

b. Shutting down unnecessary power plants.
c. Cruise climb technique at Vmd plus 10kts.
d. Planning the descent point to be as far from the destination as possible.

16. For a given gross mass, pressure altitude and temperature, the shortest route time is achieved by:

a. Operating all engines at max thrust.

b. Achieving the desired level as soon as possible after take-off.
c. Selecting a level above the tropopause.
d. Setting max cruise thrust to achieve the highest Mach No.

17. One method of reducing fuel consumption is to use a procedure known as stepping. This
involves:

a. Progressively reducing power settings as total mass reduces due to fuel being used.
b. Progressively increasing power settings to achieve higher speeds thus less flying time.
c. Progressively increasing height as mass reduces.
d. Sectoring the route by allocation of increasing Mach No and flight level.

18. If a stepped cruise technique is adopted, the step procedure is usually repeated:

a. When the mass has reduced by 500OKg.

b. Approximately every 2 hours.
c. When an increase in Mach No of 0.2 is achievable.
d. When the next flight level above becomes available.

19. For a four-engined aeroplane, the take-off alternate must be located within:

a. I hour flying time of the departure aerodrome.

b. 2 hours flying time from the departure aerodrome at the one engine out cruise speed.
c. 40 km if flying IFR.
d. The maximum distance that can be safely achieved with the remaining engines operating
at max continuous thrust.
20. A destination alternate must be selected for most IFR flights. In certain situations two destination
alternates must be selected. These are:

a. Met reports/forecasts indicate that from 1 hour before ETA until I hour after ETA the
weather will be below minima, or no met reports are available.
b. The overall route Is more than 2000nm long.
c. There is only one suitable alternate aerodrome within 250nm of the destination.
d. The nominated alternate does not have two separate runways.

21. If it is required that at the destination alternate a circling approach would be necessary, that
aerodrome would be considered suitable as an alternate providing:

a. The OCH is not greater than the observed cloud base.

b. The RVR is more than 1500rn.
c. The MDH is less than the cloud ceiling.
d. One runway has a serviceable ILS.
Answers to Ch-09 Navigational Requirements
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. A
21. C
Chapter – 12 Operations and Procedures
1. What does the abbreviation MEL mean?

a. Main Equipment List.

b. Master Equipment List.
c. Manufacturer's Equipment List.
d. Minimum Equipment List.

2. Who is responsible for compiling the MEL"

a. The Chief Engineer.

b. The Operator.
c. The Manufacturer.
d. The Safety Regulation branch of the Authority.

3. Where is the MEL published?

a. In the aeroplane servicing manual.

b. In ANO.
c. In the Aircraft Reference Manual.
d. In the Operations Manual.

4. What is the MMEL?

a. The Master Minimum Equipment List.

b. The Main Minimum Equipment List.
c. The Main Manufacturers Equipment List.
d. The Master Manufacturers Equipment List.

5. What is the relationship between the MEL and the MMEL?

a. The MEL is the same as the MMEL.

b. The MEL is compiled with reference to the MNIEL.
c. The MMEL is always more restrictive than the MEL.
d. The MMEL should be consulted in an emergency whereas the MEL is for normal
operational use.

6. Who is responsible for ensuring that the equipment specified in the MEL for the type of
operation to be undertaken, is complied with?

a. The Operator.
b. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
c. The Authority of the State of Registration.
d. The Commander.
7. The law requires that an Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM) is made available. Which of the
following is not required to be included in the AFM?

a. Loading limitations and Information.

b. Performance Information.
c. Least-risk bomb information.
d. Operating crew requirements.

8. Will ice form on an aeroplane if the ambient temperature (air temperature) is above zero but the
airframe temperature is below zero?

a. Always.
b. Never.
c. Yes, but only if there is moisture present in the air and the airframe temperature is below
the dew point of the surrounding atmosphere.
d. No, because precipitation will only freeze if the ambient air temperature is below zero
(the freezing point of water).

9. De-Icing is defined as:

a. The process of spraying the airframe with anti-freeze to prevent ice forming on the
airframe.
b. The process of removing ice from an airframe in accordance with the rules and
regulations.
c. A chemical application process that causes the ice on an airframe to melt.
d. Bleeding off hot air from engines to provide a supply of airframe heating air that will
cause the ice on the airframe to melt and prevent further build up of ice.

10. Anti-icing is defined as:

a. Any process that prevents ice forming or building up on an airframe or in an engine.

b. The application of fluids and chemicals to remove a build up of ice on an airframe.
c. The actions that must be taken to ensure compliance with the rules that state that no
aeroplane is permitted to fly with ice on it.
d. Instructions in the Operations Manual to avoid flying within 5000ft of the height of the
zero de-ice isotherm.

11. Which of the following is not a hazard that may result from ice on an airframe'!

a. Instrument errors caused by reduced skin friction.

b. Lumps of ice failing off aeroplanes and damaging property.
c. Increased stalling speed.
d. Interference (static) caused by ice on aerials.
12. By law, Operators are required to establish procedures for de-icing and anti-icing of aeroplanes.
Additionally, operators are to ensure that:

a. Aeroplanes do not fly in conditions where icing is expected.

b. Aeroplanes are to be heated internally to ensure that passengers do not suffer from the
cold.
c. All areas outside the pressure hull are suitably heated.
d. If flying at night, a light is provided to see if ice is building up.

13. The Commander of an aeroplane is required by law to ensure that:

a. The airframe is clear of all ice deposits that may aversely affect the aircraft performance.
b. All de-icing/anti -icing fluids are removed from the airframe before engine start.
c. The aeroplane is not flown into airspace where icing is known to exist.
d. The aeroplane has been de-iced in accordance with regulations and that all
holdover periods have been complied with.

14. The Commander will find information concerning de-icing/anti-icing in:

a. The Operations Manual; ANO; ICAO Doc 9640 (Man of Aircraft Ground De-
icing/Anti-icing).
b. The Operations Manual; ICAO Doc 9640 (Man of Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing);
and Chap 12 of the aircraft maintenance manuals.
c. The Operations Manual; AWO (All Weather Operations); ICAO Doc 9640 (Man
of Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing).
d. On the cans of de-icing fluid or in the relevant AICs.

15. Which of the following is not an approved method of removing ice from an airframe?

a. Scraping the ice off the airframe.

b. Using 'taxi-through' systems that apply de-icing fluids.
c. Warning the airframe with hot air blowers.
d. A gang of men on the wings with brooms.

16. A 'one-step' procedure for de-icing/anti-icing requires that:

a. The airframe has to be free of ice before the process of anti-icing begins.
b. The fluid used de-ices and then provides anti-icing for a further defined period.
c. The process cannot be repeated until the aeroplane has flown.
d. If the process is not repeated within 12 hours, it is invalid.
17. Holdover times are quoted for anti-icing fluids. Holdover time is defined as:

a. The maximum shelf storage life of the fluid.

b. The time it takes the fluid to effectively de-ice an airframe at an ambient temperature
of -10'C.
c. The time period during which the de-icing/anti-icing process is active.
d. The time period during which the mixture may be applied, after which it has to be
discarded and a new batch of fluid mixed.

18. The holdover time for a fluid anti-icing process is dependant upon:

a. The temperature of the fluid when it is applied.

b. The concentration and consistency of the fluid.
c. The outside air temperature and type of the precipitation expected.
d. All of the above.

19. In order to increase the awareness of pilots concerning the possibility of bird strike hazards,
information is disseminated by:

a. IBIS (ICAO Bird-strike Information Systems).

b. DUCK (Data Underpinning Concentration Knowledge).
c. CROW (Comprehensive Regional Ornithological Warning).
d. WREN (Warnings Regarding Excessive Nuisance).

20. After a bird strike incident, the Commander is required to:

a. Ensure that the remains of the bird are available for identification and investigation.
b. Declare an emergency in case structural damage has occurred.
c. Make a written report to the Authority after landing (within 10 days).
d. Fly the aeroplane at VMD+10kts to limit the effect of any airframe damage.

21. Birds present a continual aviation hazard especially at low altitude (approach and climb-out)
where the aeroplane is most vulnerable. Areas where the problem is most acute are:

a. Near known bird migration routes and rubbish tips.

b. At aerodromes where the grass is not cut and there are plenty of trees nearby.
c. At aerodromes near centres of population where birds have become scavengers.
d. At aerodromes near the coast or near areas of natural habitat for birds.

22. Who is responsible for the establishment of noise abatement procedures'!

a. The Authority of the State in which the aerodrome is situated.

b. The Operator.
c. The aeroplane manufacturer.
d. The aerodrome manager.
23. For a runway to be designated as a noise preferential runway it must be equipped with:

a. Equipment to determine glide-path guidance (eg. ILS for IFR; PAPIs for VFR).
b. Noise assessment sensors at pre-set intervals.
c. Radio navigation aids to provide centre line fixes for take off and landing.
d, Accurate systems for determining the centre line of the runway for approaches and
climb-out in both VMC and IMC.

24. The choice of which runway to use (assuming that a choice exists) should not be influenced by
noise abatement requirements under certain runway conditions. Which combination of the
following correctly reflects the runway conditions that would override noise abatement in the
choice of runway?

1. Runway contaminated (le not dry)

2. Cloud ceiling below 500'for take-off or horizontal visibility less than 1.9Kmfortake-off
and landing.

3. Crosswind component greater than 15kts.

4. Tail wind component greater than 5kts.
5. When wind shear reported or when thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach
or departure.

a. All the above.

b. 1, 2, 3 and 5.
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5.
d. 2, 3 and 5.

25. What is the minimum height for turns and obstacle clearance on noise preferential routes?

a. 300ft AGL for turns; 250ft AGL OCH.

b. 300ft AGL for turns; 500ft above the highest obstacle under the flight path.
c. 500ft AGL for turns; with turns limited to 15' bank angle.
d. 100011 on a/d QFE before turning; 100ft minimum clearance above the dominant
obstacle for the flight path.

26. Two noise preferential procedures (NADP I and NADP2) are pre-defined. The purpose of each
is:

a. NADP2 gives noise relief close to the aerodrome and NADP I further away.
b. NADPI gives noise relief from aeroplanes with after-burners, NADP2 for normal
engines.
c. NADPI gives noise relief from heavy aeroplanes, NADP2 for medium and small
aeroplanes.
d. NADP2 gives noise relief during the latter part of the procedure, NADPI provides relief
close to the aerodrome.
27. Noise Abatement procedures include safety limitations. The minimum steady climb speed is to
be not less than:

a. V, '
b. VMD.
c. V, + 10kts.
d. VMD + 10kts.

28. For some aeroplanes, mass and configuration considerations may result in a further limitation
being placed upon minimum steady climb speed. In such a case, minimum steady climb speed
is not to be observed where:

a. The rate of climb would cause distress to the passengers.

b. The maximum acceptable body angle would be exceeded.
c. The rate of acceleration in the climb would lead to V., being exceeded.
d. To achieve the speed required, the power settings of the engines would be such that the
total engine thrust would be so low that in the event of a critical power unit failing,
insufficient thrust would be provided by the remaining engines and the aeroplane would
stall.

29. During the noise abatement climb-out, power reductions shall not be required unless:

a. The acroplane has reached 800ft, a climb gradient is maintained and all obstacles under
the flight path are cleared by an adequate margin.
b. The aeroplane continues to accelerate above the minimum steady climb speed.
c. There is a temperature inversion of more than I O'C during the first 100011 of climb and
such a power reduction is required to counter the subsequent increase in performance.
d. The aeroplane is so light that the minimum steady climb speed is less than V,.

30. During a noise abatement approach, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration:

a. At or before passing over the middle marker beacon on an ILS approach.

b. Prior to passing over the initial approach fix.
c. Not closer to the runway threshold than 5nm.
d. Not closer to the runway threshold than 5nm or at any point after passing the ILS outer
marker, whichever is the earlier.
31. During noise abatement approaches, additional limitations are imposed to limit the procedures.
These include:
a. A requirement that excessive rates of descent are to be avoided, and separation between
aeroplanes is applied to prevent aggregated noise nuisance.
b. No turns are permitted during a VFR approach, if such a turn would not permit a period
of stabilisation prior to crossing the threshold.
c. Glide-path angles to be restricted to a minimum of 3.5' (350ft/nm).
d. Max noise output to be limited to 125dB M-2.

32. It has been found that reduced power/reduced drag approach configurations have proved
effective and acceptable methods of noise abatement during the approach to land. This
technique involves:

a. Reducing power and lowering the nose to increase the speed to VAT +50kts, and
stabilising the rate of descent to the glide path by selection of varying degrees of
flap/spoilers/air brakes/under carriage all the way down to the runway.
b. Setting a constant power below the recommended noise output dB level and delaying
lowering the undercarriage until below 300ft AGL.
c. Delaying the selection of flaps and undercarriage until the final stages of the approach.
d. Throttling back two or three engines to flight idle at the outer marker and adjusting
speed by aeroplane attitude.

33. Is the use of reverse thrust prohibited under noise abatement procedures?

a. Yes.
b. Sometimes.
c. Only for non-propeller driven aeroplanes.
d. No.

34. A convenient way of achieving noise abatement for approaching traffic is to displace threshold
further down the runway. This is permitted providing:

a. Sufficient runway remains available for stopping the aeroplane.

b. That apparent noise nuisance reduction is achieved overall.
c. That the displaced threshold can be properly identified and that all the approach aids are
set up for the displaced threshold.
d. That sufficient noise reduction is achieved and the remaining runway is adequate for
operational requirements.
Answers to Ch-12 Operations and Procedures
1. D 18. D
2. B 19. A
3. D 20. C
4. A 21. D
5. B 22. B
6. D 23. A
7. D 24. A
8. C 25. C
9. B 26. D
10. A 27. C
11. A 28. B
12. D 29. A
13. A 30. D
14. B 31. B
15. A 32. C
16. B 33. D
17. C 34. D
Chapter – 13 Fire and Smoke
1. The correct actions to be taken in the event of a carburettor fire on a piston engined aeroplane
depend upon:

a. The type of fuel.

b. Whether the engine has started.
c. The OAT.
d. The accessibility of a fire extinguisher.

2. The initial actions to be taken in the event of an engine fire depend upon:

a. The type of engine.

b. Whether the aeroplane is in the air or on the ground.
c. How many passengers are on board.
d. The availability of Crash, Fire-axes.

3. What equipment is required to be carried to combat the effects of smoke in the flight deck area?

a. Fire extinguishers.
b. A drop out oxygen system.
c. Smoke hoods with emergency 100% oxygen supply.
d. Battery operated torches.

4. What colour is a Halon 1211 - BCF fire extinguisher?

a. Red.
b. Green.
c. Black.
d. Blue.

5. On what type of fire in an aeroplane can you use a CO, extinguisher?

a. Any fire on the flight deck.

b. Only electrical fires on the flight deck.
c. Brake fires.
d. Electrical fires (but not on the flight deck).

6. Would you use a dry powder extinguisher on a liquid fire in an aeroplane?

a. Yes, but not on the flight deck.

b. No, it is only for use on electrical fires.
c. Yes anywhere.
d. Yes, but only in confined spaces not accessible to passengers.
7. Fire detection equipment fitted to aeroplanes is designed to:

a. Detect fire and smoke by optical means.

b. Detect heat by electrical means and smoke by optical means.
c. Operate sprinkler systems.
d. Operate fire alarms and automatically operate CO, flooding of inaccessible spaces.

8. If an aeroplane is certificated for 6 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are
required to be carried in the aeroplane?

a. 1 .
b. Nil.
c. 2.
d. It depends upon the max take off mass permitted.

9. If an aeroplane is certificated for 10 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are
required to be carried in the passenger compartment?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

10. If the galley is not located on the main passenger deck:

a. The closest extinguisher in the passenger compartment must be not more than 10 metres
from the galley.
b. The galley must have an automatic extinguisher system and fire detection system.
c. Separate extinguishers suitable for both oil and solid fires are to be available in the
galley.
d. At least one extinguisher is to be positioned in the galley.

11. A crash axe and/or crow bar is/are required to be carried on the flight deck of aeroplanes:

a. In the public transport (passenger) role.

b. With a max take-off mass exceeding 5 70OKg and 10 or more passenger seats.
c With a max take-off mass of 570OKg and 9 passenger seats.
d. That are carrying more than 200 passengers.
12. Which combination of the following statements correctly identifies the problems associated with
overheated brakes after a heavyweight landing or an aborted take-off'?

1. Reduced braking efficiency.

2. Inadvertent operation of fire extinguishers.
3. Extended brake cooling time.
4. Inadvertent operation of brake overheat sensors.
5. Problems with heat dispersal.
6. Risk of tyre explosion.

a. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
b. All.
c 1, 3, 5 and 6.
d. 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Answers to Ch-13 Fire and Smoke

1. B
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. C
Chapter – 14 Pressurization Failure
1. What is a minimum supplemental oxygen requirement to be supplied in a pressurised
aeroplane during an emergency descent'?

a. A supply of oxygen sufficient for all crew and passengers to enable a shallow rate of
descent to 10 000ft or 2 hours whichever is the longer.
b. A supply of oxygen for the crew only for the entire time the aeroplane cabin pressure
is above 8 000ft.
c A supply for all crew and passengers sufficient for a constant rate of descent from
the aeroplane's maximum certificated operating altitude to 15 000ft in 10 minutes.
d. A supply for 10% of passengers whilst the cabin pressure is over 13 000ft.

2. In a rapid or explosive decompression:

a. The cabin pressure control system immediately reduces the cabin pressure to ambient
pressure to prevent the fuselage integrity being destroyed.
b. The cabin altitude quickly or instantaneously reduces to ambient (outside) pressure.
c. The cause of the decompression is usually catastrophic failure of the pressure hull.
d. Cabin pressurisation system failure will be the first indication that something is
wrong.

3. The difference between slow and rapid decompression is:

a. A rapid decompression will be immediately noticeable, a slow decompression will

require instrumentation to detect the failure.
b. A rapid decompression is caused by a pressure hull rupture whereas a slow
decompression is caused by system failure.
c. The rate at which the cabin altitude climbs with respect to the desired climb setting
or the automatic control setting.
d. The speed with which the cabin altitude rises with respect to the ambient (outside)
pressure.

4. During a slow decompression, passengers will notice:

a. The cabin temperature will fall as the pressure reduces.

b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance
in venting.
c. As soon as the pressure falls, the oxygen drop-out system will operate.
d. No contra effects, as slow depressurisation has no effect on the human body.
5. During a rapid or explosive decompression, passengers may notice:

a. Gross discomfort, breathlessness, possible damage to sinus cavities.

b. Tunnel vision and sensorial depletion.
c. Marked reduction in night vision.
d. Pain in muscles and joints caused by the bends.

6. In the event of a cabin depressurisation, the actions of the pilot will be to:

a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate.

b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurisation systems.
c. Maintain the aeroplane attitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over
loading of the structure.
d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is
sufficient for all crew and passengers.
Answers to Ch-14 Pressurization Failure
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. D
Chapter – 15 Windshear and Microburst
1. What is meant by 'Low Altitude Wind shear'?

a. Turbulence at or below FL50.

b. A sudden change in wind direction at any altitude below 2000ft.
c. A sudden change in wind velocity on the runway, final approach or in the climb-out.
d. An unexpected crosswind when the aeroplane is on the runway.

2. Vertical wind shear is defined as:

a. A change in wind velocity with height.

b. A change in wind speed with an increase in altitude.
c. A change in wind direction, contrary to that expected, with an increase in altitude.
d. A rapid change in speed of an ascending current of air.

3. Horizontal wind shear is defined as:

a. A change in wind direction with a change in horizontal distance.

b. A change in wind force over a defined area.
c. A change of wind velocity with horizontal distance.
d. Any change in speed of a wind that is blowing horizontally.

4. What would you expect to happen in an 'up and down draught' wind shear?

a. The wind velocity to vary with both altitude and horizontal displacement from a datum.
b. Initially an up draught causing the aeroplane to rise uncontrollably, and subsequently
a down draught causing uncontrolled descent.
c. Encountering alternately rising and descending air currents in the vicinity of large cloud
formations.
d. Vertical excursions in horizontal flight.

5. With what met phenomena is wind shear most associated?

a. Thunderstorms.
b. Passage of a warm front.
c. Tropical revolving storms.
d. Standing mountain waves.
6. Apart from the answer to Q5, wind shear can also be found in the vicinity of hills and structures.
Where particularly would wind shear in this instance be found?

a. Up wind and above the hills or structures.

b. In the lee of hills and structures but well above the ground.
c. Down wind of hills and structures from ground level upwards.
d. On the seaward side of hills and structures where no other obstructions are found.

7. If, during an approach to land you encounter an abrupt decrease in wind speed or a shift to a tail
wind the aircraft will _________and you should __________.

a. suffer a loss of lift; apply power

b. increase speed due to reduced drag; lift the nose
c. yaw to starboard; apply right rudder
d. suffer an energy gain; reduce power and lower the nose

8. Shortly after take-off the attitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly
decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should
suspect what, and what should you do?

a. Marked temperature drop-, apply full power.

b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tall wind; apply full power.
c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed.
d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VR, and ride it out.

9. On an ILS final approach, you notice that the sky is darkening, visibility is reducing and
turbulence is increasing. At the same time you encounter an energy gain situation causing you
to 'balloon' above the glide path. What should you do?

a. Suspect wind shear and correct power and attitude to regain the glide path.
b. Suspect that you have passed through the top of the turbulence layer and that the wind
is no longer geostrophic, so corrections to power and attitude are required.
c. Suspect microburst activity and pre-empt the inevitable energy loss situation by leaving
power and attitude settings as before and then correct once clear of the microburst.
d. Suspect microburst activity, apply full power, climb as per the missed approach
procedure and go around for a further approach after the microburst has cleared the
approach area.
10. With which of the following should you be aware of the possibility of microburst activity?

1. Thunderstorms.
2. Cumulonimbus clouds.
3. Sudden rain squalls.
4. Gust front activity (rising dust clouds).
5. Unexpected wind shear.
6. Virga.

a. All the above.

b. 2, 4 and 5.
c. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
d. 2, 5 and 6.
Answers to Ch-15 Windshear and Microburst
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. A
Chapter – 16 Wake Turbulence
1. Wake vortex turbulence is correctly defined as:

a. The displaced air in the wake of the passage of an aircraft.

b. The effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of all aeroplanes.
c. The efflux from jet engines and the wash from propellers.
d. 'Dirty' air caused by the horizontal movement of an aeroplane through the atmosphere.

2. Wake vortex turbulence is caused by:

a. The shape of the wing.

b. Differential speed of movement of air across the wing section.
c. The interaction of the engine efflux./prop, wash and the 'dirty' air from the wing.
d. The disruption of airflow over a wing section when lift conditions exist.

3. Tip vortices are characterised by:

a. Two counter-rotating cylindrical air masses trailing aft from the aeroplane.
b. Visible disturbances like 'streamers' trailing from wing tips.
c. Standing waves emanating from the wing area spaced according to the speed of the
aeroplane.
d. Rotating disturbances of the air whilst the aeroplane is in the ground effect region.

4. Vortex generation begins and ends

a. when the aeroplane moves; when the aeroplane stops.

b. when the nose wheel lifts off, when the nose wheel touches down.
c. when lift is being generated; when lift generation stops.
d. when speed exceeds V,; when speed is lower than VA I - 1W

5. Which of the following describes the behaviour of vortices on the ground?

a. In the absence of crosswind, the vortices move downwards and outwards from the
runway centre line at a speed of approx 5kts.
b. With a crosswind, the down wind vortex is stationary and the upwind vortex moves
away from the centre line at approx 5kts.
c. With a crosswind, the up wind vortex is stationary and the down wind vortex moves
towards the centre line at approx 5kts.
d. With a crosswind, both vortices move away from the centre line in the up wind direction
at approx 5kts.
6. The strongest vortices are generated by:

a. Heavy aeroplanes, travelling fast, in a 'clean' configuration.

b. Heavy aeroplanes, travelling fast, in a 'dirty' configuration.
c. Heavy aeroplanes, travelling slow, in a 'clean' configuration.
d. Heavy aeroplanes, travelling slow, in a 'dirty' configuration.

7. Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence?

a. Light winds near the surface.

b. Strong winds near the surface.
c. Marked vertical wind shear.
d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground.

8. When comparing vortex generation between aeroplanes and helicopters:

a. Aeroplanes generate more intense vortices per kg gross mass.

b. A helicopter always generates more intense vortices because the diameter of the rotor
is greater than a propeller.
c. Propeller aeroplanes generate more intense vortices than helicopters of the same gross
mass.
d. Helicopters generate more intense vortices per kg gross mass than aeroplanes.

9. ICAO categorises aeroplanes with a max gross take off mass of 138 000kg as:

a. Upper medium.
b. Medium.
c. Heavy.
d. Cat D.

10. Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum
separation distance in NM is:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

11. Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum
separation distance in NM is:

a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
12. Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, the minimum
separation distance in NM is:

a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3

13. Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on
the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

14. Where a light category aeroplane is taking off behind a medium category aeroplane on the same
runway but the following aeroplane is departing from an intermediate point, the minimum
separation spacing in minutes is:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

15. Where parallel runway operations are being conducted and the runways are separated by 750m:

a. The same wake turbulence separation criteria as single runway operations apply.
b. The separation is reduced to 2 minutes.
c. There is no need to apply separation.
d. Separation is only applied if the net flight paths from the parallel runways cross at a
distance of not more than 5nm from the departure end of either runway.

16. Where parallel runway operations are in use and the projected flight path of the following
aeroplane crosses that of the leading aeroplane at the same level or within I 000ft lower:

a. The same wake turbulence separation criteria as single runway operations apply.
b. The separation is reduced to 2 minutes.
c. There is no need to apply separation.
d. Separation is only applied if the net flight paths from the parallel runways cross at a
distance of not more than 5nm from the departure end of either runway.
17. What is the minimum separation to be applied where a medium category aeroplane is about to
take off after a heavy category aeroplane has made a missed approach in the opposite direction?

a. 1 minute.
b. 2 minutes.
c. 3 minutes.
d. 4 minutes.

18. The medium aeroplane taking off in Q17 is doing so on a parallel runway to the runway on
which the heavy has just carried out the missed approach in the opposite direction. Is there any
change in the separation standard applied?

a. Yes, the separation is halved.

b. No, providing the runways are less than 760 m apart.
c. Yes, they are changed to a separation distance.
d. Yes, the separation is doubled.
Answers to Ch-16 Wake Turbulence

1. B
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. A
17. B
18. B
Chapter – 17 Security
1. Who is responsible for instigating training programmes, the aim of which is to minimise the
opportunities for unlawful interference with flights?

a. The Authority of the State of Registration.

b. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
c. The Operator.
d. The law enforcement agency with responsibility under the law of the state of registration
of the aeroplane.

2. Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference?

a. The Commander or the Operator.

b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred.
c. Any member of the flight crew.
d. Any person on board the aeroplane.

3. The operator is responsible for ensuring that a search procedure of an aeroplane is published.
By what means are these procedures published?

a. In the Operations Manual.

b. As a check list.
c. As a standing order or standard operating procedure.
d. As an enclosure to the aeroplane handbook.

4. After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom?

a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry.
b. Immediately and to the Authority of the State of the airspace in which the event
occurred.
c. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of
Registration.
d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the
Operator.
5. In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure
to be taken by the pilot in command?

a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance
received if possible.
b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC and other traffic on 121.50OMHz or the
frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared.
c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces
deviation from the cleared flight plan.
d. If forced to deviate from flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the
nonnal cruising altitudes by 1000ft.

6. When an unlawful interference occurs, the State over which the event occurs is required by
international law to take adequate measures to protect passengers and crew. Such measures will
include:
a. The provision of a fully functioning ATC system and a landing clearance if required.
b. If the aeroplane lands, it Is to be disabled to prevent subsequent take-off.
c. Facilities for the armed forces of the State of Registry (if not the same as the state in
which the aeroplane has landed) to storm the aeroplane by force.
d. Notification to ICAO that the event has occurred.

7. As of March 2000, the construction of the flight deck door connecting to the passenger
compartment is to be:

a. Impenetrable to gunfire.
b. Bombproof.
c. Lockable.
d. Designed to minimise penetration by grenade shrapnel.

8. ICAO requires that states establish procedures to prevent the carriage of weapons that can be
used in unlawful interference. Circumstances do exist where weapons may be carried. These
are:

a. In accordance with the regulations by law enforcement personnel in the discharge of

their duty.
b. By passengers if special permission has been obtained and the weapons are unloaded.
c. By members of the crew over areas of known terrorist activity.
d. For sporting purposes but must be stowed in the personal belongings of passengers.
9. If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane the measures that should be taken are
designed to:

a. Disable the device.

b. Find out what will trigger the device.
c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers.
d. Locate and move the device to the 'least risk' location and apply as much padding as
possible.
Answers to Ch-17 Security

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. D
Chapter – 18 Emergency and Precautionary Landings
1. An emergency landing or ditching is defined as:

a. A procedure that is not a normal landing where the intent is to attempt to preserve the
integrity of the airframe to permit orderly and controlled evacuation of passengers from
the aeroplane.
b. Any landing where the pilot does not have full control of the aeroplane.
c. Any landing where the structural integrity of the aeroplane has been seriously affected.
d. A landing for which ATC permission has not been previously obtained.

2. The aim of a ditching procedure is:

a. To enable the pilot to land the aeroplane on water rather than a crash landing on land.
b. To land on water if the undercarriage is not able to be lowered correctly.
c. To land the aeroplane on water if it is not possible to reach land.
d. To land the aeroplane on water if it is on fire.

3. A precautionary landing is a procedure that:

a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a
normal instrument approach being carried out.
b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency.
c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered.
d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome.

4. What is the purpose of the passenger briefing given in the event of a precautionary landing being
necessary?

a. To find out if there are any other pilots on board who may have experienced the
situation and can help.
b. To prepare the passengers for the worst outcome.
c. To stop the passengers pestering the cabin staff so that they can get on with their
preparations for crash-landing or ditching.
d. By involving the passengers and sharing information, fear may be overcome and greater
survivability achieved.
5. In the event of a successful crash landing or ditching, rapid and controlled evacuation from the
aeroplane is essential. In order to achieve this:

a. All doors and windows should be opened as soon as the aeroplane comes to rest.
b. Women and children should be evacuated first.
c. The use of slides/chutes is preferred.
d. The cabin staff have to impress their authority and frequently carry out drills and
practices.

6. One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency Is:

a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed
manner.
b. For the captain or first officer to keep a running commentary going over the PA.
c. For the cabin staff to ensure that the passengers are aware of what is happening and that
they are complying with instructions.
d. For the cabin staff to direct the passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief
cards and make sure that they have read them.

7. Briefing the passengers about the emergency prior to the crash landing /ditching must include:

a. Comprehensive brief concerning evacuation.

b. How to tackle any fires that may result, including the use of extinguishers.
c. A short brief concerning survival in the environment to be encountered.
d. Departing passengers to take over from the crew if they are all killed.

8. If a ditching is inevitable:

a. Non swimmers are to be evacuated first.

b. Life jackets are to be inflated before leaving the aeroplane.
c. The use of life jackets is to be reiterated before the ditching.
d. Passengers should be briefed that even if they successfully evacuate the aeroplane it is
inevitable that some of them will die from drowning.

9. Where are details of drills and crew training requirements for evacuation of an aeroplane in an
emergency published?

a. In the Training Manual (Part B section I I - Emergency Procedures).

b. In the Aeroplane Manual.
c. In the aircrew training notes.
d. In the Operations Manual (Part B section I I - Emergency Evacuation Procedures).
10. If the Captain elects to ditch the aeroplane, it is recommended to:

a. land along the swell.

b. land into the swell but down wind.
c. land into the swell but into wind.
d. land into wind regardless of the swell direction if the wind speed is over 20kts.

11. The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to:

a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all
speeds plus 10kts.
b. Reduce the approach angle to 1.5deg (150 ft per mile), add 15kts to all speeds, keep the
aeroplane clean (no flaps or gear) and fly it onto the surface.
c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at the lowest possible speed with
the nose raised for the tall to strike first.
d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the
water.

12. During a ditching passenger injuries can be limited by:

a. Ensuring that all seat belts are fastened as tightly as possible and passengers brace
themselves against the seat in front.
b. Ensuring that seat belts are fastened and passengers adopt a braced position with heads
as far forward with hands clasped behind the neck so as to minimise further forward
movement of the body at impact, and the wearing of life jackets.
c. Ensure that all loose objects in passenger cabin are held tightly by passengers.
d. Illuminating the No Smoking light, ensuring seats are fully forward, internally stowed
dinghies are placed by emergency exits for quick deployment.

13. During a ditching:

a. There will be one or two minor skips after the main impact.
b. It is inevitable that the nose will dig in and the acroplane will immediately start to
submerge.
c. The main effect will be rapid deceleration and the preparation in the cabin will be to
counter the effects of this deceleration.
d. As sea-state (wave height and swell height) increases, the effect of the initial high
rotation will be reduced and the accompanying uncontrolled roll will disappear.

14. In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services?

a. ATC.
b. The Commander.
c. The local constabulary.
d. The Operations Despatcher.
Answers to Ch-18 Emergency and Precautionary Landings

1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. A
Chapter – 19 Fuel Jettison
1. Where a fuel Jettison system is fitted to an aeroplane it must be capable of

a. Reducing the aeroplane mass from max take-off mass to max landing mass in 15 mins.
b. Reducing the aeroplane mass from max take-off mass to max landing mass in 10 mins.
c. Reducing the aeroplane mass from max take-off mass to max landing mass in 20 mins.
d. Reducing the aeroplane mass from max take-off mass to max landing mass in 5 mins.

2. Which of the following correctly describes the requirement of a fuel jettison system?

a. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
the aeroplane; control of the aeroplane is not affected by the Jettison operation.
b. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
the aeroplane; normal radio operation can continue.
c. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
the aeroplane; must be safe to use in all weather/environmental conditions.
d. The system must contain a protection device to stop the jettison as soon as the gear is
lowered, and also to prevent all tanks being drained totally.

3. Fuel jettison:

a. Is a procedure to reduce mass in an emergency only.

b. Is a procedure that may be employed to reduce aeroplane mass where an overweight
landing may result in damage to the aeroplane.
c. May be authorised by ATC to reduce delays by protracted holding procedures.
d. May be ordered by ATC to reduce aeroplane mass in an emergency situation.

4. Fuel is to be jettisoned:

a. Over the sea and then only above 10 000ft.

b. Over the sea, or over land above 10 000ft agl.
c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency.
d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter.

5. The following aeroplanes are required to have a jettison system:

a. All Public Transport aeroplanes.

b. Only public transport aeroplanes with MTMA greater than 5700 kg.
c. All public transport aeroplanes requiring two pilots.
d. All aeroplanes, except where the max landing mass exceeds the max take off mass less
the mass of fuel required for a 15 minute flight to land back at the aerodrome of
departure.
6. When jettisoning fuel, safety is an overriding consideration. Which of the following lists
correctly identifies items to be considered when planning to jettison fuel?

a. Smoking; HF Radio; operation of flaps/gear/slats; weather conditions.

b. Height; speed; ATC clearance; weather; area.
c. Time required; position; other aeroplanes; proximity of cloud; aeroplane attitude.
d. OAT; wind direction; altitude; time of day; airspace restrictions; any other emergencies.

7. Once jettison has begun:

a. Passengers are restricted to their seats and strapped in.

b. Normal operation of flaps/gear and lift enhancers is permitted.
c. Radios may be used but limited to essential transmissions only.
d. Fuel flow from the vents is to be visually monitored (where possible).

8. Once the fuel jettison is complete:

a. It is essential that the fuel remaining is balanced in the tanks and a revised endurance
calculated.
b. ATC is to be informed that jettison is cornplete.
c. The NO SMOKING light is to be extinguished.
d. Normal food distribution service is to recommence.
Answers to Ch-19 Fuel Jettison
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. B
Chapter – 20 Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
1. With regard to the transportation of dangerous goods by air, Operators are required to comply
with:

a. The manufacturer's specification for the storage of items with low flash points.
b. The Health and Safety requirements of the World Health Organisation.
c. The United Nations embargo on the transportation of hazardous materials.
d. ICAO Annex 18 SARPS.

2. Dangerous goods are defined as:

a. Articles or substances which are capable of significant risk to health, safety or property.
b. Any item which contains toxic liquids or solids.
c. Any item which has the capability to be used for purposes other than that intended.
d. Guns, ammunition, explosives, toxic waste, or chemical, biological or nuclear agents or
reagents.

3. With regard to dangerous goods, what does a UN number identify?

a. The international code for the country of destination.

b. A substance or particular group of substances.
c. The registered dangerous goods consignee.
d. The identity of the registered carrier of dangerous goods.

4. Which of the following correctly identifies a 'unit load device"?

a. Any type of freight container used for dangerous goods.

b. Any device used to secure a load/pallet to the floor of an aeroplane.
c. Any type of freight container, pallet with a net, or pallet with a net over an igloo.
d. The method by which individual units of dangerous goods are loaded into aeroplanes.

5. Define 'Proper Shipping Name':

a. The correct (internationally accepted) description of the method by which goods are
carried between states.
b. The registered address of the consignment destination.
c. The name to be used to describe a particular item or substance in all shipping documents
and notifications and, where appropriate, on packaging.
d. The full name and ICAO identity of the airline or freight company/agent responsible for
compliance with the regulations.
6. Which of the following correctly Identifies 'the operation by which articles or substances are
enveloped in wrappings and/or enclosed in packaging or otherwise secured'?

a. Boxing.
b. Packaging.
c. Packing.
d. Wrapping.

7. The document that identifies the technical instructions for the classification and safe transport
of dangerous goods by air is called:

a. The Operations Manual.

b. The Technical Instructions.
c. The Loading Manual.
d. ICAO Annex 19 (Carriage of Dangerous Goods by Air).

8. Certain items, which by their nature are dangerous goods, may be carried in aeroplanes excluded
from the provisions. Which of the following lists correctly identifies such items?

a. Veterinary aids orhumane killers, ammunition, gas cylinders, catering supplies, personal
items.
b. Veterinary aids or humane killers, ammunition, equipment with wet cell batteries,
catering supplies, personal items.
c. Veterinary aids or humane killers, drugs, equipment with batteries, gas cylinders,
catering supplies, personal items.
d. Veterinary aids or humane killers, items required for operational reasons, medical aids
for a patient, catering supplies, personal items.

9. If an item which is excluded from the provisions is carried as a replacement (eg a replacement
0, bottle for a patient) it must be classified as dangerous goods.

a. True.
b. False.
c. Class 7.
d. Class 1.

10. Who is responsible for ensuring that dangerous goods are packed, labelled and carried in
accordance with the regulations?

a. The Commander.
b. The Operator.
c. The Shipping Agent.
d. The Consignee.
11. Who is responsible for ensuring that dangerous goods offered for carriage by air are properly
classified, packed and labelled correctly and that the correct documentation has been completed?

a. The Commander.
b. The Operator.
c. The Shipper.
d. The Authority of the State of Departure.

12. The requirements for packaging and labelling are to be found in:

a. The Technical Instructions.

b. The Operations Manual.
c. ICAO Annex 18.
d. ANO.

13. What is the purpose of the 'acceptance checklist'?

a. To ensure that the requirements of the Technical Instructions are complied with.
b. To enable the loading supervisor to take appropriate precautions.
c. To enable performance calculations to be made with regard to total cargo weight.
d. To ensure that the shipper is not trying to smuggle munitions of war.

14. Can dangerous goods be carried in the passenger cabin or on the flight deck?
a. Yes; but only goods specified in the technical instructions.
b. No.
c. Yes, if authorised by the authority.
d. Yes, provided they are non toxic.

15. If dangerous goods are to be carried, the commander is to be given information as specified in
the technical instructions. Who is responsible for the provision of this information?
a. The Authority.
b. The Operator.
c. The Loading Supervisor.
d. The Shipper.
16. Certain items and goods are prohibited from carriage by air. For instance, non safety matches.
clearreservoir lighters, aerosol containers and certain chemical/medical preparations are widely
available. Where is information concerning such items to be pub] ished/di splayed for the benefit
of passengers?

a. In the aeroplane.
b. On the packaging of the item.
c. At the point of purchase of such items within the aerodrome complex.
d. On tickets/ticket jackets, where tickets are sold, at the check-in desk, in the departure
lounge, at luggage check-in areas.

17. Where an aeroplane I's carrying dangerous goods and suffers an in-flight emergency:

a. The Commander is to contact the Operator by whatever means and request instructions.
b. The Operator is to inform the Authority of the State in which the emergency has
occurred that the aeroplane is carrying dangerous goods.
c. The Commander is to inform the crash/rescue services on the Fire Frequency and advise
what special handling is required.
d. The Commander is to ask ATC to arrange for a landing at a remote aerodrome or
parking on a remote site, where the effects of contarnination/pollution may be limited.

18. Operators are to establish Dangerous Goods training programmes. Where are details of the
training required, published?

a. In the Operations Manual.

b. In the Training Manual.
c. In ICAO Annex 18.
d. In the Technical Instructions.
Answers to Ch-20 Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air

1. D
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. A
14. A
15. B
16. D
17. B
18. D
Chapter – 21 Contaminated Runways
1. If 30% of the surface area of a runway is covered by surface water more than 3mrn deep, by
slush, by loose snow or compacted snow which resists further compression, or ice (including wet
ice), the runway is classified as:

a. Wet.
b. Contaminated.
c. Unusable.
d. Useable with care.

2. If the surface of a runway is not dry, but the moisture on it does not give a shiny appearance, the
runway is:

a. Wet.
b. Wet but not contaminated.
c. Dry.
d. Damp.

3. If a runway is covered with water which is less than 3mm deep, or where the surface appears
reflective but without standing water patches, it is said to be:

a. Wet.
b. Wet but not contaminated.
c. Dry.
d. Damp.

4. A dry runway is one which:

a. Can be wet if it has sufficient camber to allow the water to drain quickly off the surface
therefore maintaining an 'effective dry' braking action.
b. Is wet but not to a depth of water greater than 3mm.
c. Is not contaminated.
d. Can be wet if it has specially prepared grooved or porous surfaces, which maintain,
effectively dry' braking action.

5. If a runway is contaminated with dry snow, the depth that will preclude operations is:
a. 60mm.
b. 715mm.
c. lomm.
d. 3mm.
6. If a runway is contaminated with wet snow, slush or water, the depth that will preclude operations
is:

a. 60mm.
b. 15mm.
c. lomm.
d. 3mm.

7. The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway is
known as:

a. Surface water effect.

b. Hydroplaning.
v. Aqua-skimming.
d. Surface tension.

8. For any given contaminant by (specific gravity), the aquaplaning speed is given by:

a. Nine times the square of the tyre pressure (lbs/sq in).

b. The tyre pressure (Bars) divided by nine.
c. Nine times the square root of the tyre pressure (lbs/sq in).
d. The square root of the tyre pressure (Bars) multiplied by nine.

9. One Bar (barometric pressure unit) is equal to:

a. 14.7psi.
b. 28.82 in Hg.
c. 29.92 lbs/sq in.
d. 1013.25 hPa M-2.

10. Braking action on contaminated runways is given by:

a. A simple code (I - 5) or a description (excellent - bad).

b. A simple code (0.25 - 0.4) or a description (good - bad).
c. A simple code (I - 5), a description (good - poor) or the measured co-efficient of
braking effect (<0.25 - >0.40).
d. The co-efficient of braking action related to a simple code where I is poor and 5 is good,
supplemented by a description of the braking effect and an aquaplaning warning.
11. The co-efficient of braking that reflects the braking action that is considered normal oil a wet
runway is:

a. 0.40~tBlDry.
b. 0.25pBDry.
c. 0. 1 V B Dry.
d. 0.05[tBDry.

12. Where operations from contaminated runways have been approved, regulations requires
performance calculations to be enhanced to cater for the reduced braking efficiency. The factor
to be applied is:

a. Landing distance available is at least 115% of landing distance required.

b. Landing distance available is at least 1.5 x landing distance required.
c. Landing distance required must be at least 115% of landing distance available.
d. Runway length must be a minimum of 115% of the landing distance required.

13. Apart from aquaplaning and reduced braking efficiency, what other hazards are associated with
heavy rain contamination of runways:

a. Wet aeroplanes do not perform as well as dry ones.

b. The efficiency of jet engines is reduced by the ingress of water diluting the fuel.
c. The refraction of light from landing lights causes visual impairment.
d. Water ingress into engines can cause flame-out.

14. In a SNOWTAM infori-nation is given concerning friction measurements (braking co-efficient

x 100) in which field of the message?
a. F.
b. G.
c. H.
d. N.
Answers to Ch-21 Contaminated Runways
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. D
14. C
 [do not use questions on transoceanic and polar flights, MNPS airspace, Nav-planning, flight-
planning-completion(choice of route, speed, altitude, alternate, minimal time routes for CPL]
Chapter – 22 Specimen Questions
1. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that the flight can be safety made, and
that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?

a. The company's cargo technicians.

b. The captain.
c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the copilot.
d. The operator.

2. FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:

a. 30 hours of operation.
b. 48 hours of operation.
c. 25 hours of operation.
d. The whole flight.

3. When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking:

a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking/ disembarking.

b. All flight crew must be on board.
c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board.
d. The stairs shall be fully extended.

4. To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:

a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days.

b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days.
c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days.
d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently.

5. When are life jackets required.'

a. 50nm from land.

b. 100nrn from land.
c. 300nm from land.
d. 400nm from land.

6. Where is the Minimum Equipment List"

a. Appended to the Aeroplane Flight Manual.

b. In the Operations Manual
c. In the Maintenance Documents.
d. In the Operations Room.

7. Aeroplanes with a take-off mass greater than 5700kg shall be fitted with an independent
automatically operated emergency power supply to operate and illuminate the artificial horizon
for:

a. 15mins.
b. 30mins.
c. 60-mins.
d. 2hrs.
8. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the
available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at
an aerodrome of alternate destination, are, at the predicted time of'.

a. Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
b. Arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to or
better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
c. Arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d. Arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

9. What is the co-pilot currency requirement'

a. 3 flights in the last 90 days.
b. 3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days.
c. At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days.
d. At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days.

10. Supplemental oxygen is used to:

a. Provide oxygen to passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation.
b. Assist a passenger with breathing difficulties.
c. Protect a crew member who fights a fire.
d. Provide passengers on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation.

11. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

a. Operation manual.
b. Flight manual.
c. Journey logbook.
d. Operational flight plan.

12. Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?

a. Operations Manual.
b. A IC.
c. . Aircraft flight notes.
d. Journey logbook.

13. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the:

a. Airline operator.
b. Manufacturer.
c. Aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.
d. Civil Aviation Authority of the European states.

14. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator
must not be less than:

a. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
90 days.
b. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
6 months.
c. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
6 months.
d. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
90 days.
15. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is the:

a. Operation manual's chapter 'Abnormal and Emergency procedures'.

b. Flight manual.
c. ANO.
d. Minimum equipment list.

16. When don't you need a destination alternate aerodrome?

a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome? and a
reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC.
b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours.
c. If the flight time is less than I hour.
d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing.

17. When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations'?

a. Take-off and landing.

b. Throughout the flight.
c. At all times other than take-off and landing.
d. As specified in the operations manual.

18. When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations'.)

a. In the performance of their duties.

b. At any time specified by the operations manual.
c. When having lunch.
d. Only when the captain allows it.

19. Who is the operator to provide an Operations Manual for?

a. Operations staff.
b. All company personnel.
c. Only for flight crew
d. For the Authority.

20. When must a radiation indicator be carried?

a. For flights above 29,000ft.

b. For flights above 39,000ft.
c. For flights above 49,000ft.
d. For flights above 59.000ft.

21. What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

a. The failure of one piece does not affect another.

b. All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight.
c. All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications.
d. If one piece of equipment falls there must be a spare available.

22. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?

 a. Simulator flying skills.
b. The ability to land safely.
c. Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.
d. The ability to conform with set procedures.

23. How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?

a. No less than 6 months between checks.

b. 2 checks every 13 months.
c. 3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks.
d. 2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.

24. Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?

a. The Operator.
b. The Authority.
c. The State of Registration.
d. The operations officer.

25. Destination alternate for a turbojet - what is the required fuel overhead?

a. 30 Minutes at cruise speed.

b. 30 minutes at 1500' in standard conditions.
c. 2 hours at 1500' in standard conditions.
d. 30 minutes at endurance speed.

26. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?

a. Operator.
b. State of Registration.
c. Captain.
d. State of the operator.

27. Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxying to the holding point, what do
you consult first?

a. Flight manual.
b. Operator.
c. State of registration.
d. MEL.

28. Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required'?

a. 5,000ft
b. 15,000ft
c. 11,000ft
d. ,000ft
29. What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurised
aircraft?
a. 10,000ft.
b. 1,000ft.
c. 12,000ft.
d. 13,000ft.

30. What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before April
19989

a. Record last 30 mins. of flight.

b. Record for the duration of the flight.
c Record the last 25 hours of operation.
d. Record the last 48 hours of flight.

31. What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?

a. mins. or 120nm whichever is less.

b. 50nm from land.
c. 120mins or 400nm whichever is less.
d. 60mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed.

32. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

a. Only during take-off and landing.

b. While at their station.
c. From take-off to landing.
d. Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the
interest of safety.

33. The ANO-OPS document is based on:

a. Federal Aviation Requirements. (FAR).

b. A JAA guide line.
c. Rules of the Air.
d. ICAO Appendix (sic) 6.

34. On an ILS you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must
you abort the approach"

a. Start of the glide-slope descent.

b. FAF.
c. Inner Marker.
d. Outer Marker.

35. The MEL is drawn up by the:

a. Operator and may be more restrictive than the MMEL.

b. Operator and may be less restrictive than the MMEL.
c. Manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the MMEL.
d. Manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the MMEL.
36. On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided
with an oxygen reserve enabling all crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied
with oxygen in the event of cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which
the pressure altitude is greater than:

a. 1 1,000ft.
b. 1 0,000ft.
c. 12,000ft.
d. 13,000ft.

37. A modem aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off
gross weight is greater than:

a. 27,000kg.
b. 5,700kg.
c. 20,000kg.
d. 14,000kg.

38. Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to
keep it up to date?

a. Aircraft manufacturer.
b. ATS authority of the state of registry.
c. Aircraft operator.
d. Owner of aircraft.

39. What is required for navigation in IMC?

a. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point.
b. Anti-icing equipment.
c. A serviceable weather radar.
d. One VHF box and one HF box.

40. Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?

a. The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual.

b. The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual.
c. The operator and in the Flight Manual.
d. The operator and in the Operations Manual.

41. On an NDB approach with an MDH of 360' and a required RVR of 1500m and a reported
RVR of 2500m, when can you start an approach; le which is most correct?

a. When the cloud base is above the system minimum.

b. With any cloud base.
c. When the cloud base is above 360'.
d. When the cloud base report is received.

42. Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given

a. Certificate of Airworthiness.
b. Aircraft registration.
c. Air Operator's Certificate.
d. Insurance certificate.
43. How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?

a. 60mins. at one engine cruise speed.

b. 60mins. at normal cruise speed.
c. 120mins. at one engine cruise speed.
d. 120mins. at normal cruise speed.

44. Who issues and updates the MEL?

a. The authority.
b. The designer.
c. The manufacturer.
d. The operator.

45. Who accepts the MEL?

a. The country where the flight takes place.

b. The country of the operator.
c. The country of the designers.
d. The country of the manufacturers.

46. A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

a. 20,000kg.
b. 5,700kg.
c. I 0,000kg.
d. 7,000kg.

47. In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima, what of the following needs to be considered?

1. Crew composition.
2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information.
3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area.
4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway.
5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane.

a. 1, 2, 4 & 5.
b. 1, 2 & 3.
c. 2,3, 4 & 5.
d. All of the above.

48. A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be approved
by:

a. Country of operations.
b. Country of operator.
c. Country of manufacturer.
d. No such book is required to be approved by an authority.
49. A pilot in command:

1. Must comply with ATC instructions immediately.

2. Is only responsible when airborne.
3. May deviate in an emergency.
4. May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with an
ATC instruction.
5. May request a new clearance if unsatisfied.

a. 1, 3, 4 & 5.
b. 3 & 5.
c. 3, 4 & 5.
d. All of the above.

50. If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system, the commander:

a. May authorise its use for take-off and landing.

b. Must not authorise its use.
c. May authorise its use for the whole flight.
d. May authorise its use at his discretion.

51. What is the currency requirement for a co-pilot?

a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days.
b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days.
c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator
within the last 90 days.
d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator
within the last 60 days.

52. Following an electrical failure, the emergency lighting unit must provide illumination for:

a. 90 sec.
b. 5 min.
c. 10 min.
d. 30 in.

53 From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite
parallel track. What Nav light will be observed:

a. Green.
b. Red.
c. White.
d. All of the above.

54. The MMEL is?

a. Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the operator.

b. Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the state of design or state of
the manufacturer.
c. Compiled by the operator and approved by tile state of design.
d. Compiled by the manufacturer and not approved by the operator.
55. When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL.
a. At parking before commencement of taxi.
b. Prior to take-off.
c. At any time in flight.
d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake.

56. All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after I January 1989
must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is
greater than:

a. 20,000kg.
b. 27,000kg.
c. 5,700kg.
d. 14,000kg.

57. The operator shall include in the operations manual a minimum equipment list which shall be
approved by the authority of

a. None, no approval is required.

b. The country where the aeroplane is operated.
c. The country where the aeroplane was manufactured.
d. The country of the operator.

58. At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel
quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:

a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft.

b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1.500 ft.
C. 30 minutes at cruising speed.
d. 45 minutes at cruising speed.

59. The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when
undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is
prepared by:

a. the operator, and it is inserted In the operations manual.

b. the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
c. the operator, and it is appended in the flight manual.
d. the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual.

60. After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the
original recordings for a period of:

a. 30 days.
b. 90 days.
c. 45 days.
d. 60 days.
61. During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable electronic device,
which is adversely affecting the aircraft's electrical avionics. The captain must:

a. Stop the passenger from using the device.

b. Allow the device to be used at take-off and landing.
c. Allow the device to be used from take-off to landing.
d. Allow the device to be used for certain exceptions.

62. A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an operator for
the duration of each flight?

a. The Journey I log

b. he ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.
c. The operational flight plan.
d. The meteorological forecast.

63. What manuals are to be carried?

a. Operations Manual in toto.

b. Company instructions for all flight crew.
c. All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness.
d. Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM.

64. A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?

a. Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers.

b. Route specific maps and charts.
c. NOTAMs, Tech log, Op flight plan, mass & Balance, Spec load notification.
d. AICs AISs and all company NOTAMs,

65. Which of the following is to be left on the ground?

a. The aeroplane noise certificate.

b. The operations manual.
c. Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight.
d. Operational flight plan.

66. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The
operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It particularly contains:

1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination.
2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet.
3. Copies of the relevant aircraft's technical log.
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator.
5. Special loads notification.
6. charts.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a. 1, 3 & 5.
b. 2,3, 4 & 5.
c. 2 & 4.
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6.
67. The first part of JAR-OPS is applicable to:

a. Civil Air transport.

b. International Commercial Air Transport of JAA state members.
c. Military & Police Transport.
d. Any operations overflying JAA states.

68. After an incident, the FDR recordings must be kept for:

a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. 120 days.

69. Coverage of permanently illuminated white light's at the rear of the aircraft is:

a. 1400.
b. 700.
c. 1100.
d. 2200.

70. The first part of the JAR OPS document relates to:

a. Aircraft proceeding from or over flying European States.

b. JAA state operators flying civil commercial air transport aeroplanes.
c. aeroplanes. in the police/defence.
d. Treatment of passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.

71. What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

a. Not already hold an AOC? issued by another authority.

b. Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes.
c. Have registered offices in all countries of operations.
d. Have facilities for all maintenance.

72. The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated:

a. When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.

b. In each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.
c. During climb and descent.
d. During take-off and landing.

73. What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?

a. Cannot impede the performance of crew duty.

b. Must be seated away from emergency exits.
c. No more than 5% of passengers may be PRMs?
d. They must provide their own food.
74. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?

a. 200ft.
b. 250ft.
c. 300ft.
d. 350ft.

75. A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual
manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

a. 1600m.
b. 2400m.
c. 1500m.
d. 3600m.

76, What are the circling minimum visibility and MDH for a Cat b. aeroplane')

a. 1600m. 400ft.
b. 1600m. 500ft.
c. 1500m. 450ft.
d. 1500m. 600ft.

77. According to regulations, Airfield Operating Minima, the lowest MDH using ILS (LLZ
only), VOR. NDB SRA no glide path?

a. NDB - MDH 300ft.

b. VOR. - MDH 250ft.
c. ILS (LLZ only) - MDH 200ft.
d. VOR/DME - MDH 300ft.

78. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?

a. No minimum.
b. Adm.
c. 75m.
d. loom.

79. The considerations for a non-precision approach are:

1 . MDA (H)
2. DH.
3. Ceiling.
4. Horizontal visibility.

a. 2, 3 & 4.
b. 1, 3 & 4.
c I & 3.
d. 2 & 4.
80. What is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?

a. loom.
b. 75m.
c 150m.
d. 200m.

81. What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? (2marks)

a. 500m.
b. 1600m.
c. 2400m.
d. 3600m.

82. A category 11 precision approach (CAT 11) is an approach with:

a. A decision height of at least I 00ft.

b. No decision height.
c A decision height of at least 200ft.
d. A decision height of at least 50ft.

83. When can special VFR be commenced'-.'

a. Visibility greater than 1500m.

b. Greater than 3km vis.
c Visibility no more than 3000m.
d. Greater than 5km vis.

84. What IS VAT?

a. Vso x 1.3.
b. VSIGX 1.3.
c The lesser of Vso or Vsig
d. Vso x 1.23.

85. According to regulations (Aerodrome Operating Minima) a Category IIIA approach has
a Decision Height of less than 100 feet and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:

a. 00m.
b. 50m.
c 00m.
d. 230m.

86. What is the take-off RVR limit for a Cat A aeroplane, when high centreline lights
and edge lights are on and the crew is IFR qualified and approved?

a. 150m if threshold RVR is available.

b. 150m
c 200m.
d. 250rn.
87. When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?

a. The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP.

b. The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP.
c The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP.
d. The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP.

88. What are the threshold speeds for a Cat d. aeroplane,

a. 121 - 140kts.
b. 131 -155kts.
c. 141 - 165kts.
d. 145 - 160kts.

89. What is the minimum horizontal visibility for a Cat d. aircraft on a circling approach? (2
marks)

a. 1500m.
b. . 1600m.
c. . 2400m.
d. 3600m.

90. What is DH used for')

a. Visual manoeuvring.
b. Circling to land.
c. Precision approaches.
d. Non-precision approaches.

91. A category I precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least:

a. 550m.
b. 350m.
c. 800m.
d. 500m.

92. When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their
speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the
landing configuration multiplied by a factor of

a. 1.5.
b. 1.45.
c. 1.15.
d. 1.3.
93. Regulations (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about
VFR flights, that:

a. For conducted VFR flights in airspace F. vertical distance from clouds is 250m at
least.
b. Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3km.
c. For conducted VFR flights in airspace B. horizontal distance from clouds is I 000m at
least.
d. For conducted VFR flights in airspace E. flight visibility at and above 3050m
(10000ft) is 5km at least (clear Of cloud)

94. The Cat I minimum decision height is:

a. No decision height.
b. 50 feet.
c. 100 feet.
d. 200 feet.

95. What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?

a. 50m.
b. 100m.
c. 200m.
d. 250rn.

96. The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:

a. 2400m.
b. 2500m.
c. 2600m.
d. 2700m.

97. Aircraft are categorised according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What
aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts - 165kts?

a. B.
b. F.
c. D.
d. C.

98. An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum
visibility of 800 metres. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs When may
the approach be started?

a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m.

b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m.
c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only.
d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m.
99. The information to be considered for a non-precision approach is:
1. Horizontal visibility.
2. Ceiling.
3. Minimum Descent Altitude.
4. Decision Altitude.

a. 1,2&4.
b. 1 & 3.
c. 1 & 4.
d. 1,2&3.

100. Regulations (VFR OPERATING MINIMA) establishes that, the operator shall ensure
about VFR flights, that:

a. for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is

250m at least.
b. for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3.050m.
(10,000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud).
c. special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km.
d. for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is
1,000m at least.

101. A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological
visibility is higher than or equal to:

a. 1,500m.
b. 1,600m
c. 2,400m.
d. 3,600m.
Answers to Ch-22 Specimen Questions

ANSWERS TO SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

1. B. 22. C. 43. A. 64. C. 85. A.

2. C. 23. D. 44. D. 65. D. 86. C.
3. C. 24. A. 45. B. 66. B. 87. D.
4. A. 25. B. 46. B. 67. B. 88. C.
5. A. 26. C. 47. D. 68. B. 89. D.
6. B. 27. D. 48. B. 69. A 90. C.
7. B. 28. A. 49. B. 70. B 91. A.
8. C. 29. D. 50. B 71. A 92. D.
9. D. 30. A. 51. C 72. A. 93. B.
10. A. 31. C. 52. C 73. A. 94. D.
11. A. 32. B. 53. B 74. C. 95. C.
12. A. 33. D. 54. B 75. C. 96. A.
13. A. 34. D. 55. D 76. B. 97. C.
14. D. 35. A. 56. C 77. A. 98. D.
15. D. 36. B. 57. D 78. A. 99. D.
16. A. 37. B. 58. A 79. B. 100. C
17. A. 38. C. 59. A 80. B. 101. D
18. A. 39. A. 60. D. 81. A.
19. A. 40. D. 61. A. 82. A.
20. C. 41. B. 62. C. 83. B.
21. A. 42. C. 63. D. 84. A.
Chapter – 22 – Specimen Questions

Supplementary
1. Through what angle can the regulatory green navigation light of an aircraft be seen?

a. 110 deg.
b. 70 deg.
c. 90 deg.
d. 140 deg.

2. Who must ensure that any given aircraft malfunction complies with the MEL and therefore
allows the aircraft to fly?

a. The pilot in command.

b. A representative of the company that owns the aircraft.
c. The flight engineer, or the on board mechanic if present.
d. The operator.

3. Who is responsible for the establishment of the MEL?

a. The aeroplane manufacturer.

b. The Authority of the State of manufacture.
c. The authority of the State of Registration.
d. The Operator.

4. Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors, which combination of the
following are factors assessed in defining AOM:
1. Runway length.
2. Crew composition.
3. Means used to report meteorological conditions.
4. Obstacles in the go around and approach areas.

a. 1,2&4.
b. 1,3&4.
c. 1 & 4.
d. 1,2,3&4.

5. Refuelling an aircraft with passengers embarking or disembarking, is:

a. Not permitted.
b. Permitted only if all stairs are in position.
c. Permitted only if the flight deck crew is on board.
d. Permitted only if communications are maintained with the ground crew.

6. The VFR minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 are?

a. 5 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.

b. 5 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
c. 8 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
d. 8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
7. Which of the following are operators' responsibilities?
1. Employees must comply with the laws of the country in which operations are being
conducted.
2. Cabin crew must be familiar with laws, regulations and procedures applicable to the
airspace.
3. Pilots and other flight crew members are familiar with aerodromes and navigation
facilities to be used.
4. Commanders have all essential information concerning Search and Rescue services.

a. 1,2&4.
b. 2, 3 & 4.
c. 1,3&4.
d. All of the above.

8. Who is responsible for obtaining an appropriate clearance before initiating changes to a flight
plan?

a. The first officer.

b. The pilot in command.
c. The Air Traffic Controller
d. The operator.

9. What correctly describes the contents of the aircraft operating manual'?

a. MEL, checklists, system details, the operational flight plan.

b. The operational flight plan, normal and abnormal operating procedures, MEL.
c. Emergency procedures, training requirements, system details, aeroplane
performance.
d. Checklists, system details, emergency procedures, normal and abnormal operating
procedures.

10. How many first aid kits and medical kits should be carried on an aircraft authorised to carry
250 passengers'?

a. 4 first aid kits and 1 medical kit.

b. 4 first aid kits and no medical kit.
c. 3 first aid kits and 1 medical kit
d. 3 first aid kits and no medical kit.

11. An operator has to ensure that instrument procedures are used. When may a commander
deviate from those procedures?

a. When cleared by ATC.

b. When cleared by the Authority.
c. When cleared by the Operator.
d. When cleared by JAA.
12. Of the following people, who specifically may have access to the flight deck?
1. A pilot positioning for a flight.
2. A person permitted according to the Operations Manual.
3. Wives of flight crew
4. Cabin crew members.
5. Representatives of the Authority.

a. 1,2&5
b. 2,3 & 5.
c. 1,2&4.
d. 2,4 & 5.

13. Where may passengers smoke on board aeroplanes?

a. In the toilets.
b. In designated areas.
c. In passenger or cargo compartments.
d. Only in seats next to aisles.

14. How may the Visual Approach be correctly described?

a. An approach which includes a visual circuit.

b. An approach where the conditions preclude an instrument approach.
c. An approach when part or all of the instrument approach is carried out visually with
reference to the terrain.
d. An approach when the use of instruments is not the method of reference.

15. What equipment must be fitted to an aeroplane for flight under VFR when not navigating by
visual reference points`?

a. One radio system, reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment.
b. Two radio systems, reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment.
c. One radio system, SSR transponder and one each of VOR, ADF and DME.
d. Two radio systems, SSR transponder and one each of VOR, ADF and DME.

16. An operator must be approved in accordance with a JAR manual to ensure airworthiness of
aeroplanes. What is that manual?

a. JAR-OPS.
b. JAR-FCL.
c. JAR-145.
d. JAR-1.900

17. The minimum meteorological visibility for a circling approach in a Cat B aircraft is:

a. 1500m.
b. 1600m.
c. 2400m.
d. 3600m.
18. The aeroplane's Vso is reported to be lll kts at maximum landing mass, to which approach
category does it belong?

a. B.
b. C.
c. D.
d. E.

19. The MDH and minimum RVR for a Cat D aeroplane making an approach on an ILS with no
glide path is: (2 marks)

a. 200ft & 550m.

b. 200ft & 800m.
c. 250ft & 800m.
d. 250ft & 1200m.

20. If the meteorological visibility is reported to be below the minimum required for a nonprecision
approach, by which criterion must the approach be aborted?

a. Final Approach Fix.

b. Inner marker.
c. 1000ft above the ARP.
d. Outer marker.

21. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT 11113 approach when the aeroplane is flying with a fail-
operational Roll-out Control/Guidance System?

a. 75m.
b. 125m.
c. 150m.
d. 200m.

22. A CAT I ILS may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

a. 400m.
b. 500m.
c. 550m.
d. 800m.

23. An aeroplane with just one pilot may carry out the same approach with a runway visual range
of:

a. 400m.
b. 500m.
c. 550m.
d. 800m.

24. The organised track system (OTS) is based on timings of aircraft at 030°W. What are the
parameters for these timings?

a. 1130Z until 180OZ for eastbound traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for westbound traffic.
b. 1100Z until 1830Z for daytime traffic and 0130Z until 0800Z for night time traffic.
c. 1130Z until 180OZ for daytime traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for night time traffic.
d. 1I00Z until 1830Z for eastbound traffic and 0130Z until 0800Z for westbound traffic.
25. If flying an Eastbound NAT track crossing 030°W at 1000UTC, the type of track would be:

a. Daytime OTS.
b. Night time OTS.
c. Disorganised track.
d. Random track.

26. When flying a planned flight utilising the NAT track system, a SELCAL check is to be
carried out:

a. Before take-off.
b. At, or prior to entry into the NAT Oceanic Control area.
c. At least 10 minutes before the initial contact with the Oceanic Control centre is
required.
d. As soon as possible after entering the Oceanic Control area.

27. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) may be applied in MNPS Airspace between
which of the following inclusive FL bands?

a. 290-410.
b. 285-420.
c. 300-400.
d. 310-370.

28. What is the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome that a two-engined Performance
Class A aeroplane without ETOPS approval, with more than 19 seats and MTOM of 6813kgs,
may fly?

a. 60 minutes flying time.

b. 90 minutes flying time.
c. 120 minutes flying time.
d. 180 minutes flying time.

29. The limits of MNPS airspace within the NAT region are:

a. 270N -90 0N.

b. 30°N -70 0N.
c. 270N -70 0N.
d. 30°N -90 0N.

30. Mach number is used for separation of aircraft within the MNPSA. Which statement is
incorrect in describing its use?

a. It is rare for ATC to assign a Mach number more than 0.01 faster and 0.02 slower
than that requested.
b. Longitudinal separation is achieved by use of the Mach number technique.
c. Only changes of 0.02 and more to Mach number should be transmitted to ATC.
d. If a temporary essential change to Mach number is made, ATC must be notified.

31. When must a CA48 normally be filed?

a. 60 minutes before departure.

b. 60 minutes before loading of passengers.
c. 90 minutes before start-up.
d. 90 minutes before taxi clearance is requested.
32. What is the maximum distance a Performance A, 2-engined aeroplane can plan to have a
departure alternate if its ETOPS threshold distance is 1 hr 40 mins?

a. 60 mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.

b. 100 mins flying distance at the all engines operating cruising speed.
c. 100 mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.
d. 120 mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.

33. In the case of a radio failure within the NAT region, what are the correct actions to be taken?

a. Maintain flight plan route, climb when planned to the subsequent flight levels, select
A/7600 and conform to state procedures when out of the NAT region.
b. Maintain last received oceanic clearance including level and Mach number, squawk
A/7600 and land as soon as practicable when out of the NAT region.
c. Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance including level and speed, squawk
A/7600 and conform to relevant state procedures after last specified oceanic route
point.
d. Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance to the last specified oceanic route point,
select A/7600 and divert to the nearest suitable airfield after landfall.

34. The minimum lateral separation between aeroplanes operating outside the OTS but within
MNPSA at the same flight level is:

a. 30 nm.
b. 60 nm.
c. 90 nm.
d. 120 nm.

35. An aeroplane within MNPSA can no longer maintain its clearance and is unable to obtain a
revised clearance from the relevant OCA. Having taken the initial correct procedures, the
captain decides to change the aeroplane's level by +500ft. Is he:

a. At FL430.
b. Below FL430.
c. Above FL 430.
d. Below FL410.

36. For an aeroplane operating predominately East/West at approximately 65°N, how often should
significant points be planned?

a. Whole degrees of longitude and every 10° of latitude.

b. Whole degrees of latitude and every 20° of longitude.
c. Whole degrees of latitude and every 5° of longitude.
d. Whole degrees of latitude and every 10° of longitude.

37. MASPS stands for:

a. Master Altimeter System Performance Selection.
b. Minimum Aircrew Sleep Pattern Specification.
c. Minimum Aircraft System Performance Specification.
d. Maximum Altitude System Performance Specification.
38. When a pilot incorrectly plots a NAT clearance and it is not subsequently picked up by
clearance delivery on read back, it is called:

a. A waypoint insertion error.

b. An ATC system loop error.
c. A violation.
d. Just one of those things.

39. The worst airframe icing conditions occur on the ground in:
a. Frost.
b. Snow.
c. Freezing fog.
d. Freezing rain.

40. When carrying out de-icing/anti-icing as a one step procedure, the holdover time is deemed to
have started from:

a. The start of the de-icing procedure.

b. The end of the de-icing procedure.
c. When all ice deposits have been removed from the airframe.
d. When the icing conditions have stopped affecting the aeroplane.

41. What are the requirements for flying in icing conditions?

a. The aeroplane is fitted with radar that can detect icing conditions.
b. Sufficient anti-icing fluid is still present on the airframe at time of take-off.
c. The met officer has briefed the crew on all the actions required to avoid the icing
conditions.
d. If flying at night, the aeroplane is fitted with a light to illuminate the airframe.

42. A majority of bird strikes occur:

a. During take-off.
b. During landing.
c. Below 500ft.
d. On the wings (of the aircraft).

43. Which is the most likely to attract a bird problem to an aerodrome.

a. A nearby fun park.

b. A rubbish tip.
c. Mineral extraction.
d. Long grass policy.

44. What is the minimum height above the aerodrome that power should be reduced on a Procedure
NADP 1 noise abatement departure?

a. 2,000ft.
b. 50041.
c. 1,50041.
d. 80041.
45. After using all the fire extinguishers, which of the following would you use to fight the fire?

a. All beverages.
b. Blankets.
c. Axes and crow-bars.
d. Tool-kits.

46. With which fire extinguisher would you normally fight a wheel fire?

a. Col.
b. Foam.
c. Dry powder.
d. Water.

47. In the event of an uncontrolled depressurisation at FL310, the first action of the flight crew is
to:

a. Declare a MAYDAY.
b. Initiate a descent to safety altitude.
c. Inform the passengers.
d. Don oxygen masks.

48. The immediate effect of a sudden decrease in tailwind is to:

a. Decrease the speed of the aeroplane over the ground.

b. Give the aeroplane a decrease of energy situation thus causing it to descend below
the flight path.
c. Cause an increase in indicated air speed.
d. Cause flutter on the aeroplane's control surfaces.

49. Windshear is:

a. Only encountered at low level around a front.

b. A horizontal or vertical change of wind velocity over a short distance.
c. A horizontal change of wind speed over any distance.
d. Uncomfortable and to be avoided at all times.

50. What period of time must elapse before a light category aircraft can take off from the same
position on a runway following a heavy category aircraft?

a. 1 min.
b. 2 mins.
c. 3 mins.
d. 4 mins.

51. What is the mass range of light aeroplanes vis-a-vis wake turbulence categories?

a. Below 5400kg.
b. 7000kg or less.
c. Between 5400kg and 7000kg.
d. Between 7000kg and 136000kg.
52. What transponder codes should be selected if the aeroplane is subjected to an act of unlawful
interference?

a. 7500.
b. 7600.
c. 7700.
d. 0000.

53. What would be the most appropriate action should an unidentified package, suspected to be an
IED (improvised explosive device), be found on the aeroplane?

a. Open the package and attempt to identify the owner.

b. Move the package to the least-risk bomb location and make an expeditious landing.
c. Cover the package with blankets and ask the passengers to pray to St Jude.
d. Squawk 7600 and make an emergency descent.

54. When fuel is jettisoned:

a. Maximum landing weight cannot be greater than the take-off mass.

b. With four engines operating a climb gradient of 3% must be achievable.
c. Maximum landing weight should be achievable within 15 minutes.
d. The centre tank should be emptied to reduced weight to landing weight.

55. A multi-engined aeroplane must be capable of surviving a ditching procedure if it is operated

over water more than:

a. 200nm from land.

b. 300nm from land.
c. 400nm from land.
d. 500nm from land.

56. After an emergency landing the captain should:

a. Take the first available turn-off lane to expedite clearance from the runway.
b. Stop as expeditiously as possible and turn the aeroplane to face its tail into wind.
c. Maintain pressure in the fuselage to help prevent fumes entering the passenger
compartment.
d. Stop on the runway.

57. In which document is it stated, in detail, what dangerous goods cannot be carried by air`?

a. The Operations Manual.

b. The Technical Instructions.
c. ICAO Annex 6.
d. ICAO Annex 18.

58. If an aircraft has tyres inflated to 10.8 bar, what is the speed at which aquaplaning would begin?

a. 85kts.
b. 97kts.
c. 103 kts.
d. 1 12kts.
59. A runway is said to be contaminated if:

a. More than 25% of the manoeuvring area is covered with a contaminant.

b. More than 25% of the surface area has a shiny appearance.
c. The snow on the runway isn't good enough to make snowballs.
d. More than 25% of the surface area has surface water greater than 3mm in depth.

60. If the breaking action was described as Code 4, it would be the equivalent of:

a. Good.
b. Medium to good.
c. Medium.
d. Medium to poor.
Answers to Ch-22 Specimen Questions
Supplementary

1. A. 16. C. 31. A. 46. C.

2. A. 17. B. 32. C. 47. D.
3. D. 18. C. 33. C. 48. C.
4. D. 19. D. 34. B. 49. B.
5. D. 20. C. 35. D. 50. B.
6. C. 21. A. 36. D. 51. B.
7. C. 22. C. 37. C. 52. A.
8. B. 23. D. 38. B. 53. B.
9. D. 24. C. 39. D. 54. C.
10. D. 25. D. 40. A. 55. C.
11. A. 26. B. 41. D. 56. D.
12. D. 27. A. 42. C. 57. B.
13. B. 28. A. 43. B. 58. D.
14. C. 29. A. 44. D. 59. D.
15. D. 30. C. 45. B. 60. B.